Hypertension Nursing Quiz Questions And Answers

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Hypertension Nursing Quiz Questions And Answers - Quiz

Prepare yourself to take this hypertension nursing quiz that we have brought here for you. Hypertension is defined or known as an intermittent or sustained systolic BP of 140 mm Hg or even higher or a diastolic BP of 90 mm Hg or higher. It comes as essential or primary hypertension; no cause is identified in this or as secondary hypertension in which high BP is the result of a specific condition or medication. Let's test your knowledge now!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which individual is at greatest risk for developing hypertension?

    • A.

      45 year-old African American attorney

    • B.

      60 year-old Asian American shop owner

    • C.

      40 year-old Caucasian nurse

    • D.

      55 year-old Hispanic teacher

    Correct Answer
    A. 45 year-old African American attorney
    Explanation
    African Americans have a higher risk of developing hypertension compared to other ethnic groups. This is due to genetic factors and higher prevalence of risk factors such as obesity and diabetes within this population. Additionally, age is a risk factor for hypertension, with the risk increasing as individuals get older. Therefore, the 45 year-old African American attorney is at the greatest risk for developing hypertension compared to the other individuals mentioned.

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  • 2. 

    A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension probably exhibits which of the following symptoms?

    • A.

      Proteinuria, headaches, vaginal bleeding

    • B.

      Headaches, double vision, vaginal bleeding

    • C.

      Proteinuria, headaches, double vision

    • D.

      Proteinuria, double vision, uterine contractions

    Correct Answer
    C. Proteinuria, headaches, double vision
    Explanation
    A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension may exhibit symptoms such as proteinuria, which is the presence of excess protein in the urine, headaches, and double vision. These symptoms are commonly associated with pregnancy-induced hypertension and can indicate potential complications. Vaginal bleeding and uterine contractions are not typically associated with pregnancy-induced hypertension.

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  • 3. 

    A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

    • A.

      Phentolamine (Regitine).

    • B.

      Methyldopa (Aldomet).

    • C.

      Mannitol (Osmitrol).

    • D.

      Felodipine (Plendil).

    Correct Answer
    A. Phentolamine (Regitine).
    Explanation
    Phentolamine (Regitine) is the correct answer because it is an alpha-adrenergic blocker that is used to treat hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor that secretes excessive amounts of catecholamines, leading to severe hypertension. Phentolamine works by blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors, which inhibits the vasoconstrictive effects of catecholamines, thus reducing blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that is used for long-term management of hypertension, but it is not effective in acute hypertensive crisis. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, but it does not directly reverse hypertensive crisis. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for long-term management of hypertension, but it is not effective in acute hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma.

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  • 4. 

    The client is admitted to the hospital with hypertensive crises. Diazoxide (Hyperstat) is ordered. During administration, the nurse should: 

    • A.

      Utilize an infusion pump

    • B.

      Check the blood glucose level

    • C.

      Place the client in Trendelenburg position

    • D.

      Cover the solution with foil

    Correct Answer
    B. Check the blood glucose level
    Explanation
    During the administration of Diazoxide (Hyperstat), the nurse should check the blood glucose level. Diazoxide is a medication used to treat hypertensive crises, but it can cause hyperglycemia as a side effect. Therefore, monitoring the client's blood glucose level is important to ensure that it does not become dangerously high. This information will help the nurse determine if any interventions are needed to manage the client's blood glucose level during the administration of Diazoxide.

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  • 5. 

    The physician orders lisinopril (Zestril) and furosemide (Lasix) to be administered concomitantly to the client with hypertension. The nurse should: 

    • A.

      Question the order

    • B.

      Administer the medications

    • C.

      Administer separately

    • D.

      Contact the pharmacy

    Correct Answer
    B. Administer the medications
    Explanation
    Administering lisinopril and furosemide concomitantly is an appropriate action for the nurse to take. Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that helps lower blood pressure, while furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps remove excess fluid from the body. These two medications are commonly prescribed together to treat hypertension. By administering them together, the nurse can maximize their effectiveness and provide the client with optimal blood pressure control. Therefore, questioning the order, administering the medications separately, or contacting the pharmacy is unnecessary in this situation.

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  • 6. 

    While a client with hypertension is being assessed, he says to the nurse, “I really don’t know why I am here. I feel fine and haven’t had any  symptoms.” The nurse would explain to the client that symptoms of hypertension: 

    • A.

      Are often not present

    • B.

      Signify a high risk of stroke

    • C.

      Occur only with malignant hypertension

    • D.

      Appear after irreversible kidney damage has occurred

    Correct Answer
    A. Are often not present
    Explanation
    Symptoms of hypertension are often not present. Hypertension is often referred to as the "silent killer" because it typically does not cause noticeable symptoms. This is why it is important for individuals to have their blood pressure checked regularly, as hypertension can lead to serious health complications such as stroke, heart attack, and kidney damage without any warning signs.

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  • 7. 

    The immediate objective of nursing care for an overweight, mildly hypertensive male client with ureteral colic and hematuria is to decrease:

    • A.

      Pain

    • B.

      Weight

    • C.

      Hematuria

    • D.

      Hypertension

    Correct Answer
    A. Pain
    Explanation
    The immediate objective of nursing care for an overweight, mildly hypertensive male client with ureteral colic and hematuria is to decrease pain. Ureteral colic is a condition characterized by severe pain caused by the presence of kidney stones in the ureter. Managing and relieving the client's pain is the priority in this situation, as it can be extremely distressing and debilitating. By addressing and alleviating the pain, the client's overall comfort and well-being can be improved. Weight, hematuria, and hypertension may also be addressed in the nursing care plan, but pain reduction takes precedence as the immediate objective.

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  • 8. 

    Norma has started a new drug for hypertension. Thirty minutes after she takes the drug, she develops chest tightness and becomes short of breath and tachypneic. She has a decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate which of the following conditions?

    • A.

      Asthma attack

    • B.

      Pulmonary embolism

    • C.

      Respiratory failure

    • D.

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    Correct Answer
    C. Respiratory failure
    Explanation
    The given signs and symptoms of chest tightness, shortness of breath, tachypnea, and decreased level of consciousness indicate respiratory failure. Respiratory failure occurs when the lungs are unable to provide enough oxygen to the body or remove enough carbon dioxide, leading to impaired gas exchange. In this case, it is likely that the new drug Norma has started for hypertension has caused a severe adverse reaction, resulting in respiratory failure.

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  • 9. 

     A client with hypertension ask the nurse which factors can cause blood pressure to drop to normal levels?

    • A.

      Kidneys’ excretion to sodium only.

    • B.

      Kidneys’ retention of sodium and water

    • C.

      Kidneys’ excretion of sodium and water

    • D.

      Kidneys’ retention of sodium and excretion of water

    Correct Answer
    C. Kidneys’ excretion of sodium and water
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Kidneys' excretion of sodium and water". The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. When the kidneys excrete sodium and water, it helps to decrease the volume of fluid in the bloodstream, leading to a drop in blood pressure. This is because sodium attracts water, so when sodium is excreted, water follows, reducing the overall volume of fluid in the body. By excreting sodium and water, the kidneys help to maintain normal blood pressure levels.

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  • 10. 

    Nurse Rose is aware that the statement that best explains why furosemide (Lasix) is administered to treat hypertension is:

    • A.

      It dilates peripheral blood vessels.

    • B.

      It decreases sympathetic cardioacceleration.

    • C.

      It inhibits the angiotensin-coverting enzymes

    • D.

      It inhibits reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle.

    Correct Answer
    D. It inhibits reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle.
    Explanation
    Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle in the kidneys. By doing so, it increases the excretion of sodium and water in the urine, leading to a decrease in blood volume and ultimately lowering blood pressure. This is why furosemide is commonly used to treat hypertension. It does not dilate peripheral blood vessels, decrease sympathetic cardioacceleration, or inhibit angiotensin-converting enzymes, which are mechanisms of action for other antihypertensive medications.

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  • 11. 

    A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes neuroleptic medication is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Nursing assessment reveals rigidity, fever, hypertension, and diaphoresis. These findings suggest which life-threatening reaction: 

    • A.

      Tardive dyskinesia.

    • B.

      Dystonia.

    • C.

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.

    • D.

      Akathisia.

    Correct Answer
    C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
    Explanation
    The nursing assessment findings of rigidity, fever, hypertension, and diaphoresis in a client with chronic schizophrenia who takes neuroleptic medication suggest neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medication characterized by muscle rigidity, high fever, autonomic dysregulation (such as hypertension), and altered mental status. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder associated with long-term use of neuroleptic medication, dystonia is a movement disorder characterized by sustained muscle contractions, and akathisia is a condition characterized by restlessness and an inability to sit still.

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  • 12. 

    An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, nurse Lily teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

    • A.

      2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.

    • B.

      10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.

    • C.

      18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.

    • D.

      25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. This is the appropriate amount to treat hypoglycemia. Consuming a simple carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soda, can quickly raise blood sugar levels. The amount recommended, 10 to 15 g, is enough to raise blood sugar without causing it to spike too high. It is important for the client to be aware of the appropriate amount to ingest in order to effectively manage hypoglycemic episodes.

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  • 13. 

    A client is admitted to the hospital. Twelve hours later the nurse observes hand tremors, hyperexicitability, tachycardia, diaphoresis and hypertension. The nurse suspects alcohol withdrawal. The nurse should ask the client: 

    • A.

      At what time was your last drink taken?

    • B.

      Why didn’t you tell us you’re a drinker?

    • C.

      Do you drink beer or hard liquor?

    • D.

      How long have you been drinking?

    Correct Answer
    A. At what time was your last drink taken?
    Explanation
    The nurse should ask the client at what time their last drink was taken because the symptoms the client is experiencing are consistent with alcohol withdrawal. Knowing the time of the last drink can help determine the severity of withdrawal and guide the appropriate treatment plan.

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  • 14. 

    A client has been diagnosed with hypertension. The nurse priority nursing diagnosis would be:

    • A.

      Ineffective health maintenance

    • B.

      Impaired skin integrity

    • C.

      Deficient fluid volume

    • D.

      Pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Ineffective health maintenance
    Explanation
    The priority nursing diagnosis for a client diagnosed with hypertension would be "Ineffective health maintenance". This is because hypertension is a chronic condition that requires ongoing management and lifestyle modifications. The nurse's priority would be to assess the client's current health practices and provide education and support to promote effective self-care and management of their hypertension. This includes monitoring blood pressure, promoting a healthy diet, encouraging regular exercise, and educating the client about the importance of taking prescribed medications.

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  • 15. 

    The client admitted for alcohol detoxification develops increased tremors, irritability, hypertension and fever. The nurse should be alert for impending: 

    • A.

      Delirium tremens

    • B.

      Korsakoff’s syndrome

    • C.

      esophageal varices

    • D.

      Wernicke’s syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Delirium tremens
    Explanation
    The client admitted for alcohol detoxification is showing symptoms such as increased tremors, irritability, hypertension, and fever. These symptoms are indicative of delirium tremens, which is a severe alcohol withdrawal syndrome. Delirium tremens is characterized by severe agitation, confusion, hallucinations, and autonomic hyperactivity. It is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention. Korsakoff's syndrome is a chronic memory disorder associated with alcohol abuse, esophageal varices are enlarged veins in the esophagus that occur due to liver cirrhosis, and Wernicke's syndrome is a neurological disorder caused by thiamine deficiency. None of these conditions match the symptoms described in the question.

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  • 16. 

    The nurse has been teaching the role of diet in regulating blood pressure to a client with hypertension. Which meal selection indicates that the client understands his new diet?

    • A.

      Cornflakes, whole milk, banana, and coffee

    • B.

      Scrambled eggs, bacon, toast, and coffee

    • C.

      Oatmeal, apple juice, dry toast, and coffee

    • D.

      Pancakes, ham, tomato juice, and coffee

    Correct Answer
    C. Oatmeal, apple juice, dry toast, and coffee
    Explanation
    The meal selection of oatmeal, apple juice, dry toast, and coffee indicates that the client understands his new diet for regulating blood pressure. Oatmeal is a high-fiber food that can help lower blood pressure. Apple juice is a good choice as it is low in sodium and high in antioxidants. Dry toast is a healthier option compared to bacon or pancakes. Coffee, in moderation, is acceptable for most people with hypertension. This meal selection shows an understanding of choosing foods that are low in sodium and high in fiber and antioxidants, which are beneficial for managing blood pressure.

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  • 17. 

    The nurse is assessing a multigravida, 36 weeks gestation for symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension and preeclampsia. The nurse should give priority to assessing the client for:

    • A.

      Facial swelling

    • B.

      Pulse deficits

    • C.

      Ankle edema

    • D.

      Diminished reflexes

    Correct Answer
    A. Facial swelling
    Explanation
    The nurse should give priority to assessing the client for facial swelling because it is a common symptom of preeclampsia. Preeclampsia is a serious condition that can lead to complications for both the mother and the baby, including high blood pressure, organ damage, and restricted blood flow to the placenta. Facial swelling can be an early sign of preeclampsia and should be closely monitored to ensure prompt intervention and management of the condition.

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  • 18. 

    The nurse is teaching a client with a history of obesity and hypertension regarding dietary requirements during pregnancy. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

    • A.

      "I need to reduce my daily intake to 1,200 calories a day."

    • B.

      "I need to drink at least a quart of milk a day."

    • C.

      "I shouldn’t add salt when I am cooking."

    • D.

      "I need to eat more protein and fiber each day."

    Correct Answer
    A. "I need to reduce my daily intake to 1,200 calories a day."
    Explanation
    The statement "I need to reduce my daily intake to 1,200 calories a day" indicates that the client needs further teaching. During pregnancy, it is generally recommended that women consume an additional 300-500 calories per day to support the growth and development of the baby. Therefore, reducing the daily intake to 1,200 calories may not provide adequate nutrition for both the mother and the baby.

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  • 19. 

    A client with hypertension has begun an aerobic exercise program. The nurse should tell the client that the recommended exercise regimen should begin slowly and build up to:

    • A.

      20–30 minutes three times a week

    • B.

      45 minutes two times a week

    • C.

      1 hour four times a week

    • D.

      1 hour two times a week

    Correct Answer
    A. 20–30 minutes three times a week
    Explanation
    The recommended exercise regimen for a client with hypertension should begin slowly and gradually increase in intensity. Starting with 20-30 minutes of aerobic exercise three times a week is a suitable starting point. This allows the client's body to adjust to the exercise and gradually improve cardiovascular fitness without putting too much strain on the heart. Increasing the duration or frequency too quickly could potentially be harmful for someone with hypertension.

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  • 20. 

     Which of the following terms is given to hypertension in which the blood pressure, which is controlled with therapy, becomes uncontrolled (abnormally high) with the discontinuation of therapy?

    • A.

      Rebound

    • B.

      Essential

    • C.

      Primary

    • D.

      Secondary

    Correct Answer
    A. Rebound
    Explanation
    Rebound hypertension refers to a situation where blood pressure, which is normally controlled through therapy, becomes uncontrolled and abnormally high when the therapy is discontinued. This can happen when someone abruptly stops taking their prescribed medication or treatment for hypertension. The term "rebound" in this context indicates the sudden and exaggerated increase in blood pressure that occurs as a result of discontinuing therapy.

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  • 21. 

    Officially, hypertension is diagnosed when the patient demonstrates a systolic blood pressure greater than ______ mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure greater than _____ mm Hg over a sustained period.

    • A.

      140, 90

    • B.

      130, 80

    • C.

      110, 60

    • D.

      120, 70

    Correct Answer
    A. 140, 90
    Explanation
    Hypertension is officially diagnosed when the patient consistently shows a systolic blood pressure reading of 140 mm Hg or higher and a diastolic blood pressure reading of 90 mm Hg or higher. These elevated blood pressure levels indicate that the patient is experiencing high blood pressure over a sustained period of time.

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  • 22. 

    The nurse teaches the patient which of the following guidelines regarding lifestyle modifications for hypertension?

    • A.

      Maintain adequate dietary intake of potassium

    • B.

      Reduce smoking to no more than four cigarettes per day

    • C.

      Limit aerobic physical activity to 15 minutes, three times per week

    • D.

      Stop alcohol intake

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintain adequate dietary intake of potassium
    Explanation
    Maintaining adequate dietary intake of potassium is a guideline for lifestyle modifications for hypertension because potassium helps to lower blood pressure. Potassium helps to balance the levels of sodium in the body, which can help to reduce blood pressure. Therefore, it is important for patients with hypertension to ensure they are getting enough potassium in their diet.

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  • 23. 

    This hypertension drug is the first choice for diabetic and renal failure pts.

    • A.

      K sparing diuretics

    • B.

      ACE inhibitors

    • C.

      Loop diuretics

    • D.

      Calcium channel blockers

    Correct Answer
    C. Loop diuretics
    Explanation
    Loop diuretics are the first choice for diabetic and renal failure patients with hypertension because they help to remove excess fluid from the body by increasing urine production. This can help to lower blood pressure and reduce the strain on the kidneys. Loop diuretics are particularly effective in patients with renal failure because they work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine output. Additionally, loop diuretics may also have some beneficial effects on glucose metabolism, making them a suitable choice for diabetic patients.

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  • 24. 

    Glenn comes into the ED with olguria.  Upon his assessment he says that he is on an antihypertensive.  Glenn was outside in the hot sun working in his garden when he became dizzy.  His wife found him soaked in sweat.  What could have caused Glenn's problem?

    • A.

      ACE inhibitor

    • B.

      Calcium Channel Blocker

    • C.

      K sparing diruretic

    • D.

      Loop Diuretic

    Correct Answer
    D. Loop Diuretic
    Explanation
    Glenn's symptoms of olguria (decreased urine output) can be attributed to the use of a loop diuretic. Loop diuretics are commonly prescribed for conditions such as hypertension and heart failure, and they work by increasing urine production. However, excessive use or dehydration can lead to decreased urine output and other complications. In Glenn's case, working in the hot sun and becoming dizzy suggests that he may have experienced dehydration, which could have exacerbated the effects of the loop diuretic and caused his problem.

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  • 25. 

    Aldactone can cause which of the following side effects?

    • A.

      Hypokalemia

    • B.

      Hypercalcemia

    • C.

      Hyperkalemia

    • D.

      Hyperphosphemia

    Correct Answer
    C. Hyperkalemia
    Explanation
    Aldactone is a medication commonly used to treat conditions such as high blood pressure and heart failure. One of the side effects of Aldactone is hyperkalemia, which refers to high levels of potassium in the blood. This occurs because Aldactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium rather than excreting it through urine. Hyperkalemia can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, and in severe cases, cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is important for patients taking Aldactone to have their potassium levels monitored regularly to avoid complications associated with hyperkalemia.

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  • 26. 

    K sparing diuretic has been prescribed to Lisa.  She has been feeling week, tired, and has numbness.  Lisa has been eating extra bananas to increase he K because she knows that K sparing diuretics shed K in urine.  The nurse responds by saying:

    • A.

      Lisa will need to go on a K supplement.

    • B.

      Lisa has become hyperkalemic and needs reeducation on her medication.

    • C.

      Lisa is only showing 3 of the 5 indicators for hyperkalemia, so she needs to continue her medication.

    • D.

      Lisa needs to be put on a different hypertensive because she is complaining too much.

    Correct Answer
    B. Lisa has become hyperkalemic and needs reeducation on her medication.
    Explanation
    The correct answer suggests that Lisa has developed hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. This is indicated by her symptoms of weakness, fatigue, and numbness, as well as her knowledge that K sparing diuretics can cause potassium to be excreted in the urine. The nurse's response implies that Lisa needs to be educated about her medication to prevent further complications from hyperkalemia.

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  • 27. 

    Perry is going on lisinopril.  When he asks how it works, the nurse would answer:

    • A.

      It releases Ca and HCO3 while holding onto K.

    • B.

      It blocks the angiotensin I from turning into angiotensin II, leaving the vessels dilated for better blood flow.

    • C.

      It blocks the reabsorbtion of Na.

    • D.

      Blocks stimulation of beta .

    Correct Answer
    B. It blocks the angiotensin I from turning into angiotensin II, leaving the vessels dilated for better blood flow.
    Explanation
    Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor, which means it blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, meaning it narrows the blood vessels and increases blood pressure. By blocking this conversion, lisinopril allows the blood vessels to remain dilated, resulting in improved blood flow and lower blood pressure.

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  • 28. 

    Cindy is taking a hypertensive.  She has been complaining of feeling light headed and dizzy when she stands up.  She has not been tasting food correctly and her UA came back with proteinuria.  Further testing showed she has angioedema.  What could be causing Cindy's problem?

    • A.

      Lasix

    • B.

      Aldactone

    • C.

      Prinivil

    • D.

      Lostran

    Correct Answer
    C. Prinivil
    Explanation
    Cindy's symptoms of feeling light headed and dizzy when standing up, along with proteinuria and angioedema, suggest that she may be experiencing side effects of medication. Prinivil is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to treat hypertension, but it can cause these symptoms as well as taste disturbances and proteinuria. Therefore, Prinivil could be causing Cindy's problems.

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  • 29. 

    Steven is taking a anti hypertensive.  He takes ibuprofen for knee pain as well.  Which ant hypertensive medication should Steven have further education on?

    • A.

      Losartan

    • B.

      Zestril

    • C.

      Atenolol

    • D.

      Norvasc

    Correct Answer
    B. Zestril
    Explanation
    Steven should have further education on Zestril because it is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used to treat high blood pressure. Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), can potentially interact with ACE inhibitors and decrease their effectiveness in lowering blood pressure. Therefore, it is important for Steven to be educated about the potential interaction between Zestril and ibuprofen and to discuss alternative pain management options with his healthcare provider.

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  • 30. 

    Norvasc is a:

    • A.

      Loop diuretic

    • B.

      Beta Blocker

    • C.

      ACE inhibitor

    • D.

      Calcium Channel Blocker

    Correct Answer
    D. Calcium Channel Blocker
    Explanation
    Norvasc is a calcium channel blocker. Calcium channel blockers work by blocking the entry of calcium into the smooth muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels. This helps to relax and widen the blood vessels, reducing blood pressure and improving blood flow. Norvasc is commonly used to treat high blood pressure and chest pain (angina).

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  • 31. 

    Peggy is switching from lisinopril to norvasc.  She understands her new medication when she states:

    • A.

      I may have headaches

    • B.

      It causes vadodilation and decreases SVR and lowers B/P

    • C.

      It may cause edema peripherally

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all the above." This means that all of the statements mentioned by Peggy are true. She may experience headaches as a side effect of switching to norvasc. Norvasc causes vasodilation, which leads to a decrease in systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and lowers blood pressure (B/P). Additionally, it may cause peripheral edema.

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  • 32. 

    When taking Atenolol, the nurse knows to hold the medication if:

    • A.

      HR

    • B.

      Dry Coughing

    • C.

      Pt becomes hypotensive

    • D.

      If K levels increase

    Correct Answer
    A. HR
    Explanation
    The nurse should hold the medication if the patient's heart rate (HR) is abnormal. Atenolol is a beta blocker that helps to lower blood pressure and slow down the heart rate. If the patient's HR is already low or if there are any irregularities in the HR, it can be dangerous to administer the medication as it may further slow down the heart rate and cause complications. Therefore, it is important to hold the medication in such cases and consult the healthcare provider for further instructions.

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  • 33. 

    Alpha blockers work by keeping the hormone _________ from simulating the muscle walls of the small arteries/veins.

    • A.

      Ephinephrine

    • B.

      Angiotensin 1

    • C.

      Norepinephrine

    • D.

      PTH

    Correct Answer
    C. Norepinephrine
    Explanation
    Norepinephrine is a hormone that stimulates the muscle walls of the small arteries/veins, causing them to contract. Alpha blockers, on the other hand, work by blocking the receptors for norepinephrine, preventing it from binding and stimulating the muscle walls. This leads to relaxation and dilation of the arteries/veins, resulting in increased blood flow and reduced blood pressure.

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  • 34. 

    Nicole has been taking a central alpha2-agonist.  She was doing very well on it and has now ended up in the ED.  She reports that she was doing so well that she stopped taking her medication because she felt fine and couldn't afford her medication since being laid off.  What could be the reason for Nicole's reaction?

    • A.

      Over abundance of K in her system

    • B.

      Orthostatic BP problems

    • C.

      Drug Induced lupus syndrome

    • D.

      Withdrawl phenomenon

    Correct Answer
    D. Withdrawl phenomenon
    Explanation
    Nicole's reaction can be explained by the withdrawal phenomenon. This occurs when a person abruptly stops taking a medication that they have been taking for a long time. In Nicole's case, she stopped taking her central alpha2-agonist medication because she felt fine and couldn't afford it. However, abruptly discontinuing this medication can lead to withdrawal symptoms. These symptoms can range from mild to severe and may include symptoms such as rebound hypertension, anxiety, insomnia, and agitation. Therefore, Nicole's reaction can be attributed to the withdrawal phenomenon caused by abruptly stopping her medication.

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  • 35. 

    Catapres works by:

    • A.

      Increasing parasympathetic response

    • B.

      Keeps the hormone norepinephrine from stimulating the muscle walls of the small arteries/veins.

    • C.

      Decreases sympathetic response

    • D.

      Directly inhibits renin.

    Correct Answer
    C. Decreases sympathetic response
    Explanation
    Catapres works by decreasing sympathetic response. This means that it inhibits the activity of the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "fight or flight" response in the body. By doing so, Catapres helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the heart rate. It achieves this by blocking the release of norepinephrine, a hormone that stimulates the muscle walls of the small arteries and veins. By inhibiting this stimulation, Catapres allows the blood vessels to relax and widen, leading to a decrease in blood pressure.

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  • 36. 

    Hydralazine works on hypertension by:

    • A.

      Decreases sympathetic response

    • B.

      Peripheral vasodilation

    • C.

      Directly inhibits renin

    • D.

      Blocks Ca from stimulating muscle walls

    Correct Answer
    B. Peripheral vasodilation
    Explanation
    Hydralazine works on hypertension by causing peripheral vasodilation. This means that it relaxes and widens the blood vessels in the body, which reduces resistance to blood flow and lowers blood pressure. By dilating the peripheral blood vessels, hydralazine helps to decrease the workload on the heart and improve blood flow to the organs.

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  • 37. 

    Direct vasodilators work by peripheral vasodilation.  However, the nurse needs to educate their pt by including which of these side effects in their pt education?

    • A.

      Increases HR

    • B.

      Na retention

    • C.

      Drug induced lupus syndrome

    • D.

      All the above

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    Direct vasodilators work by causing peripheral vasodilation, which means they relax and widen the blood vessels. This can lead to an increase in heart rate (HR) as the body compensates for the drop in blood pressure. Additionally, direct vasodilators can cause sodium (Na) retention, which can lead to fluid retention and edema. Finally, some direct vasodilators have been associated with drug-induced lupus syndrome, a rare autoimmune disorder. Therefore, all of the above side effects should be included in patient education when using direct vasodilators.

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  • 38. 

    How do you prevent from getting high blood pressure

    • A.

      Finding a healthy wieght and not smoke

    • B.

      Eating fruit

    • C.

      Going outside and eating chicken

    Correct Answer
    A. Finding a healthy wieght and not smoke
    Explanation
    Maintaining a healthy weight and avoiding smoking are effective ways to prevent high blood pressure. Excess weight puts strain on the heart and blood vessels, increasing the risk of developing hypertension. Smoking damages blood vessels and raises blood pressure. By achieving a healthy weight and avoiding smoking, individuals can reduce their risk of developing high blood pressure and its associated complications.

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  • 39. 

    Sodium intake is good to prevent high blood pressure?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because high sodium intake is actually associated with an increased risk of developing high blood pressure. Consuming too much sodium can cause the body to retain water, leading to higher blood volume and increased pressure on the blood vessels. To prevent high blood pressure, it is recommended to limit sodium intake and follow a balanced diet that includes other important nutrients like potassium, magnesium, and calcium.

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  • 40. 

    Kids,Between the ages of 1 and 10 are the only ones prone to hypertension

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can affect people of all ages, including children and adults. While it is more common in adults, it is not exclusive to them. Children can also develop hypertension due to various factors such as obesity, family history, certain medical conditions, and unhealthy lifestyle habits. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that only kids between the ages of 1 and 10 are prone to hypertension.

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  • 41. 

    How can you prevent high blood pressure?

    • A.

      Drink water,eat a lot of salt,stay at home

    • B.

      Drink water,eat healthy,eat a lot of sugar,drink wine

    • C.

      Drink a lot of water,exercise,consume less sodium and have a life style change

    • D.

      Eat healthy,go for a walk once a week,drink 1 bottle of water per day

    Correct Answer
    C. Drink a lot of water,exercise,consume less sodium and have a life style change
    Explanation
    High blood pressure can be prevented by adopting a healthy lifestyle. Drinking a lot of water helps to stay hydrated and maintain blood pressure. Regular exercise helps to keep the heart and blood vessels in good condition. Consuming less sodium (salt) is important as excessive sodium intake can lead to high blood pressure. Making a lifestyle change, such as quitting smoking, reducing stress, and maintaining a healthy weight, also helps in preventing high blood pressure.

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  • 42. 

    Which drug is used to treat hypertensive emergencies?

    • A.

      Zyprexa

    • B.

      Lasix

    • C.

      Sodium Chloride

    • D.

      Nitroprusside

    Correct Answer
    D. Nitroprusside
    Explanation
    Nitroprusside is the correct answer because it is used to treat hypertensive emergencies. Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that works by relaxing and widening blood vessels, thereby reducing blood pressure. It is commonly used in emergency situations when blood pressure needs to be quickly and effectively lowered to prevent organ damage or failure. Zyprexa is an antipsychotic medication used to treat mental disorders, Lasix is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention, and Sodium Chloride is a salt solution used for various medical purposes.

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  • 43. 

    163/112 is considered to be:

    • A.

      Pre-hypertension

    • B.

      Stage 1 Hypertension

    • C.

      Stage 2 Hypertension

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Stage 2 Hypertension
    Explanation
    163/112 is considered to be Stage 2 Hypertension because the systolic blood pressure (163) falls in the range of 160-179 mmHg and the diastolic blood pressure (112) falls in the range of 100-109 mmHg. Stage 2 Hypertension is characterized by high blood pressure levels that require prompt medical attention and lifestyle changes to reduce the risk of complications.

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  • 44. 

    134/85 is considered to be:

    • A.

      Pre-hypertension

    • B.

      Stage 1 Hypertension

    • C.

      Stage 2 Hypertension

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-hypertension
    Explanation
    A blood pressure reading of 134/85 is considered to be pre-hypertension. Pre-hypertension is a condition where blood pressure levels are higher than normal but not yet in the range of stage 1 or stage 2 hypertension. It is an indication that the individual is at risk of developing high blood pressure and should take measures to prevent it from progressing further.

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  • 45. 

    119/80 is considered to be:

    • A.

      Pre-hypertension

    • B.

      Stage 1 Hypertension

    • C.

      Stage 2 Hypertension

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The blood pressure reading of 119/80 falls within the normal range for blood pressure. Pre-hypertension is defined as having a systolic pressure between 120-139 or a diastolic pressure between 80-89. Stage 1 hypertension is characterized by a systolic pressure between 140-159 or a diastolic pressure between 90-99. Stage 2 hypertension is indicated by a systolic pressure of 160 or higher or a diastolic pressure of 100 or higher. Since the given blood pressure reading does not fall within any of these ranges, the correct answer is "None of the above".

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  • 46. 

    What medication directly dilates the peripheral vesicles?

    • A.

      Tekturna

    • B.

      Furosemide

    • C.

      Hydralazine

    • D.

      Valsartan

    Correct Answer
    C. Hydralazine
    Explanation
    Hydralazine is the correct answer because it is a medication that directly dilates the peripheral blood vessels. It works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, which helps to lower blood pressure. This dilation of the peripheral vessels allows for increased blood flow and can help to reduce the workload on the heart. Tekturna, Furosemide, and Valsartan are not medications that directly dilate the peripheral vessels.

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  • 47. 

    Primary focus should be reaching systolic blood pressure goal.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The primary focus should be reaching the systolic blood pressure goal because systolic blood pressure is an important indicator of cardiovascular health and is associated with a higher risk of heart disease and stroke. By reaching the systolic blood pressure goal, individuals can reduce their risk of these health complications and improve their overall well-being. Therefore, it is true that the primary focus should be on reaching the systolic blood pressure goal.

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  • 48. 

    What medications should be avoided in pregnant women, especially in the 2nd-3rd trimester. (check all that apply)

    • A.

      ARBs

    • B.

      ACE Inhibitors

    • C.

      Beta Blockers

    • D.

      Tekturna

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. ARBs
    B. ACE Inhibitors
    D. Tekturna
    Explanation
    ARBs, ACE inhibitors, and Tekturna should be avoided in pregnant women, especially in the 2nd-3rd trimester. These medications are known to have potential risks to the developing fetus and can cause harm to the baby's kidneys, cardiovascular system, and other organs. It is important for pregnant women to consult with their healthcare provider to ensure they are taking safe medications during pregnancy.

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  • 49. 

    Check all of the complications that can result from chronic hypertension

    • A.

      Retinopathy

    • B.

      Kidney disease

    • C.

      Depression

    • D.

      Alzheimers

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Retinopathy
    B. Kidney disease
    Explanation
    Chronic hypertension, or high blood pressure, can lead to various complications. Retinopathy is one such complication, where the blood vessels in the retina become damaged, potentially leading to vision problems or even blindness. Kidney disease is another complication, as the high pressure in the blood vessels can damage the kidneys' filtering system, leading to kidney failure. Depression and Alzheimer's, however, are not directly caused by chronic hypertension and are not considered complications of this condition.

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  • 50. 

    Younger patients are at a higher risk for orthostatic hypotension than Elderly patients

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because elderly patients are actually at a higher risk for orthostatic hypotension compared to younger patients. Orthostatic hypotension is a condition where a person's blood pressure drops significantly when they stand up from a sitting or lying position. This is more common in older individuals due to age-related changes in the cardiovascular system, such as decreased elasticity of blood vessels and reduced ability to regulate blood pressure. Younger patients generally have a more robust cardiovascular system and are less likely to experience orthostatic hypotension.

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