Human Biology Exam 2 For Final

49 Questions | Total Attempts: 77

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Human Biology Exam 2 For Final

This is Exam 2 for the final.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    In a cell undergoing cellular reproduction which of the following stages have no chromatids?
    • A. 

      Prophase

    • B. 

      Anaphase

    • C. 

      Metaphase

    • D. 

      Telophase

  • 2. 
    Which portion of the meiotic cell division directly follows telophase and cytokinesis of the first cell division?
    • A. 

      Replication of DNA

    • B. 

      G2

    • C. 

      S Phase

    • D. 

      Prophase of the next division

  • 3. 
    If a cell is to undergo mitosis which of the following is not true?
    • A. 

      Both members of a chromosome pair will be replicated.

    • B. 

      Both members of a chromosome pair will attach to the spindle.

    • C. 

      The mother cell will end up with four times the amount of DNA after Interphase has occurred.

    • D. 

      There is only one Interphase in each cell reproductive cycle.

  • 4. 
    In cellular reproduction, if one sees the chromosomes of a cell aligned at the center of the cell in a straight line, this cell may:
    • A. 

      Be considered a diploid cell.

    • B. 

      Be in the G1 phase of cellular reproduction.

    • C. 

      Be in either the G1 and G2 phases of cellular reproduction.

    • D. 

      Have moved directly into anaphase from prophase.

  • 5. 
    The purpose of anaphase is to:
    • A. 

      Eliminate one chromosome of each pair.

    • B. 

      Cause the cell to grow before cytokinesis.

    • C. 

      Allow separation of the chromatids of each chromosomes.

    • D. 

      Make more DNA before telophase.

  • 6. 
    If one has the following sequence of bases, what will be the nucleotide base which one would predict to correctly replace the X? A A A G G G G C C C C  T T T AT  T T  C C C C G G G G A A A X
    • A. 

      C, because there cannot be four A's in a row.

    • B. 

      It is not possible to predict what will occur at X.

    • C. 

      U, because RNA is being produced.

    • D. 

      T, because this is DNA.

  • 7. 
    If one has the following sequence of DNA bases, what will be the sequence of RNA which is made from this sequence? A A G C G T T G A C A
    • A. 

      U U C G C A A C U G U

    • B. 

      U U C G C U U C U G U

    • C. 

      T T C G C U U C U G U

    • D. 

      U U G C G U U C U G U

  • 8. 
    Which is true of the structure of DNA? [In the following, P = PHOSPHATE; S = THE CORRECT DNA 5 CARBON SUGAR]
    • A. 

      Bonds between the P's of the two backbones hold the two DNA strands together.

    • B. 

      Each sugar phosphate backbone (rails of the ladder) has the following structure: P - P - S - P - P - S - P - P - S - P - P - S - P - P

    • C. 

      A nitrogenous base (A, C, G, or T) is attached to the S of the backbones.

    • D. 

      Purines are found in only one strand of the DNA molecule because of the shape of purines.

  • 9. 
    In a normal piece of DNA which has 20 complementary nitrogenous base pairs, the highest number of purine nucleotides which could be found in one of the strands is:
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      20

  • 10. 
    In a molecule of DNA, one would find that:
    • A. 

      Every purine is shaped as a single ring.

    • B. 

      Every purine of one strand is hydrogen bonded to a pyrimidine of the other strand.

    • C. 

      The two strands are held together by three hydrogen bonds between each of the bases of a base pair.

    • D. 

      DNA is allowed to have purine-purine base pairs if they come next to a pyrimidine-pyrimidine base pair.

  • 11. 
    If a parent cell (assume 1 pair of chromosomes) is to undergo normal mitosis, then each of the daughter cells will have:
    • A. 

      1 pair of chromosomes

    • B. 

      1 chromosome

    • C. 

      4 DNA molecules

    • D. 

      2 chromatids

  • 12. 
    If a parent cell (assume 1 pair of chromosomes) is to undergo normal meiosis, then each of the final daughter cells will have:
    • A. 

      1 pair of chromosomes

    • B. 

      1 chromosome

    • C. 

      2 DNA molecules

    • D. 

      1 chromatid

  • 13. 
    If a parent cell (assume 1 pair of chromosomes) is to undergo normal meiosis and produces an egg, then the final, functional, unfertilized egg will contain:
    • A. 

      1 pair of chromosomes

    • B. 

      1 chromosome with 2 chromatids

    • C. 

      1 chromosome

    • D. 

      A small polar body instead of chromosome(s)

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is a characteristic of normal meiosis?
    • A. 

      Meiosis produces only gametes.

    • B. 

      Any body cell can undergo meiosis.

    • C. 

      DNA undergoes replication twice, once before the first division and once before the second division.

    • D. 

      After the first division, the two daughter cells are still diploid.

  • 15. 
    A human male has both an X and a Y sex chromosome. Therefore sperm formed by a human male:
    • A. 

      Will contain both an X and a Y in the same sperm. Whichever chromosome is used from this type of sperm will determine the sex of the offspring.

    • B. 

      May contain either an X or a Y but not both.

    • C. 

      Contain only a Y because the sons will all get the Y.

    • D. 

      Will become a polar body if it contains an X.

  • 16. 
    What is a codon?
    • A. 

      A codon is three nitrogenous bases in a row of a DNA molecule.

    • B. 

      A codon is three nitrogenous bases in a row at the end of a tRNA molecule.

    • C. 

      A codon is three amino acids in a row in a protein.

    • D. 

      A codon is three nitrogenous bases in a row of an RNA molecule.

  • 17. 
    Which codon is called the START codon?
    • A. 

      The first nitrogenous base triplet AUG of an mRNA molecule.

    • B. 

      The nitrogenous bases ABC.

    • C. 

      The first exon in a mRNA molecule.

    • D. 

      The first nitrogenous base A of an mRNA molecule.

  • 18. 
    What are introns?
    • A. 

      Exons are really tRNA before the anti-codon is added.

    • B. 

      Introns are the portions of RNA that are saved, or included, to form the final mRNA molecule.

    • C. 

      An Intron is also called a codon. The two are the same thing.

    • D. 

      Introns are the portion(s) of RNA that are removed, or excluded, from the final mRNA molecule.

  • 19. 
    Which is the true statement?
    • A. 

      All codons code for an amino acid.

    • B. 

      The first three amino acids. when synthesizing a protein, are always Methionine-glycine-glycine.

    • C. 

      The first amino acid, when synthesizing a protein is always methionine.

    • D. 

      An amino acid will have only one codon which codes for it.

  • 20. 
    If a human cell has 23 pair of chromosomes, one would say that it:
    • A. 

      Will undergo meiosis.

    • B. 

      Is a gamete in which non-disjunction of chromosome 23 has occurred.

    • C. 

      Is probably from a woman.

    • D. 

      Could be a fertilized egg.

  • 21. 
    Which of the following crosses would result in a phenotypic ratio of 1 dominant and 1 recessive?
    • A. 

      AA x aa

    • B. 

      Aa x AA

    • C. 

      Aa x Aa

    • D. 

      Aa x Aa

  • 22. 
    In the cross, AaBb x AaBb, which gamete would NOT be formed?
    • A. 

      AA

    • B. 

      Ab

    • C. 

      AB

    • D. 

      Ab

  • 23. 
    Which of the following crosses could produce a child with the type AB blood as well as a child with type O blood?
    • A. 

      IAIB x ii

    • B. 

      IAIa x IbIb

    • C. 

      IAi x IBi

    • D. 

      IAIB x IAIB

  • 24. 
    What proportion of homozygous genotypes could occur from the cross Aa x Aa?
    • A. 

      1/4

    • B. 

      2/4

    • C. 

      3/4

    • D. 

      9/16

  • 25. 
    The following genes R and r show incomplete dominance. Which of the following crosses would show three phenotypes?
    • A. 

      RR x rr

    • B. 

      RR x Rr

    • C. 

      Rr x Rr

    • D. 

      RR x RR x rr

  • 26. 
    When speaking of multiple alleles (genes), one can say that:
    • A. 

      All alleles (genes) of the character will be co-dominant.

    • B. 

      Each member of a population will have all possible alleles (genes) for that character.

    • C. 

      Each member of a population will have at least 1 recessive allele (gene) of that character.

    • D. 

      Each member of a population will have, at the most, 2 possible alleles (genes) for that character.

  • 27. 
    In cocker spaniels, black coat color (B) is dominant over red (b), and solid color (S) is dominant over spotted (s). A cross of Bb Ss with bb ss would produce the phenotypic ratio?
    • A. 

      9:3:3:1

    • B. 

      1:1:1:1

    • C. 

      1:2:1

    • D. 

      3:1

  • 28. 
    ABO blood types (with the alleles IA, Ia; IB, Ib; and i) are controlled by:
    • A. 

      Multiple alleles

    • B. 

      Co-dominance

    • C. 

      Incomplete dominance

    • D. 

      Both multiple alleles and co-dominance

  • 29. 
    Crossing-over:
    • A. 

      Occurs during both mitosis and interphase of meiosis.

    • B. 

      Occurs during meiosis only.

    • C. 

      Means that chromosomes cross over the center equatorial line.

    • D. 

      Is another name for DNA replication during interphase.

  • 30. 
    Which of the following would indicate Mendel's Law of Segregation of chromosomes during meiosis?
    • A. 

      The two members of a pair of chromosomes become located in different gametes.

    • B. 

      All genes segregate to new chromosomes during meiosis.

    • C. 

      The chromosomes that were from the person’s mother stay together in the same gamete when the person undergoes meiosis.

    • D. 

      All dominant genes segregate from all recessive genes.

  • 31. 
    In transcription and translation, which of the following occurs in the nucleus?
    • A. 

      Attachment of an anticodon with a codon.

    • B. 

      Formation of tRNA.

    • C. 

      Covalent bonding of two amino acids.

    • D. 

      Removing the first Met (methionine) of a newly synthesized protein.

  • 32. 
    The term trisomy, as in trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) refers to the fact that a cell with trisomy:
    • A. 

      Will have 3 nuclei.

    • B. 

      Will divide three times in meiosis rather than the normal two divisions.

    • C. 

      Has 3 chromosomes of one pair, rather than 2.

    • D. 

      Has 3 complete sets of chromosomes.

  • 33. 
    The number of chromosomes in a human cell (excluding gametes) is:
    • A. 

      23

    • B. 

      46

    • C. 

      92

    • D. 

      24

  • 34. 
    Which of the following regions [which are indicated by letters] is a nitrogenous base of a DNA nucleotide?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 35. 
    A ribosome has 3 sites, An E, a P and an A site. Into which site does tRNA enter in order to attach to mRNA?
    • A. 

      E

    • B. 

      P

    • C. 

      A

    • D. 

      TRNA may enter either the P or the A site, but usually the A.

  • 36. 
    Assume 1 pair of chromosomes, which have already undergoneDNA replication. One would know that this cell is in meiosis and not mitosis because only in meiosis:
    • A. 

      Do both chromosomes of a pair attach to each other and take on the form an X like structure, as shown in the diagram.

    • B. 

      Does a cell ever contain only one chromosome of a pair, as shown in the diagram.

    • C. 

      Does DNA replicate during a prophase, as shown in the diagram.

    • D. 

      Does a cell ever contain only one chromatid, as shown in the diagram.

  • 37. 
    Assume 2 pair of chromosomes in the parent cell, which have already undergone DNA replication. In these cells which are formed by Meiosis 1, the diagram below illustrates the Mendel's Law of Segregation because:
    • A. 

      One chromosome of each pair is found in each cell.

    • B. 

      Crossing over has occurred.

    • C. 

      Both members of a pair are in the form of an X like structure, as shown in the diagram.

    • D. 

      One pair of chromosomes are found in one cell, the other pair in the other cell.

  • 38. 
    Assume 1 PAIR of chromosomes. Which of the following LARGE CIRCLES (which represent cells of meiosis in females) will contain ONE chromosome and NO chromatids?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 39. 
    Assume 1 PAIR of chromosomes. Which one of the LARGE CIRCLES will contain two chromosomes and NO chromatids?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 40. 
    The following diagram is of 2 chromosomes of one pair, A true statement concerning this diagram is that:
    • A. 

      The genes A and B, as pictured, will be found in the same gamete after meiosis.

    • B. 

      The genes A B and a b are linked.

    • C. 

      The chromosomes, as pictured, have been replicated already for mitosis.

    • D. 

      The genes A and b cannot ever be on the same chromosome.

  • 41. 
    The following diagram represents an egg following fertiization. Assume 2 pair of chromosomes in the parent cells. [Disregard the arrowheads.] A true statement about this zygote is that:
    • A. 

      This cell shows polyploidy.

    • B. 

      The cell is the product of a normal gamete and a gamete in which non-disjunction of the small chromosome occurred.

    • C. 

      This zygote formed because of crossing over in the yellow pair of chromosomes.

    • D. 

      The cell is the product of a normal gamete and a gamete formed by gene duplication.

  • 42. 
    In the following diagram, the chromosome on the left is the original chromosome which contained both A and B genes. The chromosomes on the right are possible ways the original could change. A true statement of the two possible chromosome configuration would be that:
    • A. 

      Either change could be due to an inversion.

    • B. 

      Neither change could happen.

    • C. 

      Either change represents a gain of genetic material.

    • D. 

      Either change represents a lost of genetic material.

  • 43. 
    In the following diagram, the letters represent the order of genes on a chromosome. (Ignore the lines with arrows). Chromosome 2 is most likely derived from chromosome 1 by the process of:
    • A. 

      Inversion of genes C, D and E.

    • B. 

      Non-disjunction of genes C, D and E.

    • C. 

      Duplication of genes C, D and E.

    • D. 

      Translocation of genes C, D and E.

  • 44. 
    The following diagram illustrates amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling. These two techniques are done in order to:
    • A. 

      Determine the chromosome complement of the embryo (i.e. to count chromosomes

    • B. 

      Change the sex of the embryo.

    • C. 

      Determine whether the embryo is alive.

    • D. 

      Insert genes into the embryo.

  • 45. 
    When reading the bases from left to right In the following molecule of mRNA, the number underneath the start codon(s) is (are):
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      Both 1 and 3 are the start codons.

  • 46. 
    Which statement is true about the following diagram?
    • A. 

      The cell contains 4 DNA molecules.

    • B. 

      The cell contains 8 DNA molecules.

    • C. 

      The cell contains 12 chromatids, each arm of a chromosome is a chromatid.

    • D. 

      The cell contains 8 chromosomes.

  • 47. 
    The nucleus depicted in the following diagram is in a stage of cellular reproduction called:
    • A. 

      Prophase

    • B. 

      Metaphase

    • C. 

      Anaphase

    • D. 

      Telophase

  • 48. 
    The cells in the following illustration have just finished cytokinesis of mitosis. A true statement about the illustrated cells is that they:
    • A. 

      Are haploid.

    • B. 

      Are diploid.

    • C. 

      Are merging together due to cytokinesis.

    • D. 

      Are in the G2 phase of cellular reproduction.

  • 49. 
    There is a mistake in the following DNA. Which numbered arrow points to this mistake?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4