Human Anatomy Bones And Tissues Trivia Quiz

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Human Anatomy Quizzes & Trivia

The human body has a skeletal system that is made up on bones, cartilage, ligaments and other tissues that serve a specific function. Below I have prepared a quiz that is perfect to help you test out what you understand about human anatomy when it comes to bones and tissues. Give it a try and test your understanding on the subject.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    One function of this long bone structure is the storage of energy in the form of triglycerides:

    • A.

      Diaphysis

    • B.

      Epiphysis

    • C.

      Metaphysis

    • D.

      Periosteum

    • E.

      Marrow

    Correct Answer
    E. Marrow
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Marrow. Marrow is the soft, fatty tissue found inside the medullary cavity of long bones. It is responsible for the storage of energy in the form of triglycerides. Triglycerides are a type of fat that can be broken down and used as a source of energy when needed by the body. Marrow also plays a role in the production of blood cells, both red and white, which are essential for the body's immune function and oxygen transport.

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  • 2. 

    This is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones.

    • A.

      Diaphysis

    • B.

      Epiphysis

    • C.

      Metaphysis

    • D.

      Periosteum

    • E.

      Marrow

    Correct Answer
    B. Epiphysis
    Explanation
    The epiphysis is the correct answer because it is the region of a long bone that articulates with other bones. The epiphysis is the rounded end of the bone, which is covered with a layer of articular cartilage that allows for smooth movement and helps to absorb shock during joint movement. It is also the site of secondary ossification where the bone continues to grow in length.

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  • 3. 

    This is the shaft of a long bone.

    • A.

      Diaphysis

    • B.

      Epiphysis

    • C.

      Metaphysis

    • D.

      Periosteum

    Correct Answer
    A. Diaphysis
    Explanation
    The diaphysis is the correct answer because it refers to the shaft of a long bone. The diaphysis is the long, cylindrical, main portion of a long bone that provides support and stability. It is composed of compact bone tissue and contains the medullary cavity, which houses yellow bone marrow. The epiphysis refers to the ends of a long bone, the metaphysis is the region between the diaphysis and epiphysis, and the periosteum is the tough outer covering of a bone.

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  • 4. 

    This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that reduces friction between bones involved in a joint.

    • A.

      Periosteum

    • B.

      Distal epiphysis

    • C.

      Nutrient Foramen

    • D.

      Articular Cartilage

    Correct Answer
    D. Articular Cartilage
    Explanation
    Articular cartilage is the correct answer because it is a layer of hyaline cartilage that reduces friction between bones involved in a joint. It acts as a smooth and slippery surface that allows the bones to glide over each other with minimal friction during movement. This cartilage also helps to absorb shock and distribute pressure evenly across the joint, protecting the underlying bones from wear and tear.

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  • 5. 

    This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that allows the diaphysis to grow in length.

    • A.

      Periosteum

    • B.

      Distal Epiphysis

    • C.

      Nutrient Foramen

    • D.

      Articular cartilage

    • E.

      Epiphyseal Plate

    Correct Answer
    E. Epiphyseal Plate
    Explanation
    The epiphyseal plate is a layer of hyaline cartilage located at the ends of long bones. It allows the diaphysis (shaft) of the bone to grow in length by ossifying and replacing cartilage with new bone tissue. This process is known as endochondral ossification. The epiphyseal plate is responsible for longitudinal bone growth during childhood and adolescence. Once growth is complete, the epiphyseal plate closes and is replaced by a bony structure called the epiphyseal line.

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  • 6. 

    This is the region of long bone found between the diaphysis and epiphysis.

    • A.

      Epiphyseal Plate

    • B.

      Epiphyseal Line

    • C.

      Metaphysis

    • D.

      Diaphyseal line

    Correct Answer
    C. Metaphysis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Metaphysis. The metaphysis is the region of a long bone that is located between the diaphysis (shaft) and the epiphysis (ends). It is characterized by its spongy bone structure and contains the growth plate (epiphyseal plate) during childhood and adolescence. The metaphysis plays a crucial role in bone growth and development.

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  • 7. 

    This is the fibrous covering on the surface of bone that is involved in thickening of the bone.

    • A.

      Periosteum

    • B.

      Endosteum

    • C.

      Marrow

    • D.

      Epiphysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Periosteum
    Explanation
    The periosteum is a fibrous covering on the surface of bone that plays a crucial role in the thickening of the bone. It contains blood vessels, nerves, and cells that are responsible for bone growth and repair. The periosteum also helps in the attachment of tendons and ligaments to the bone, providing stability and support to the skeletal system.

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  • 8. 

    Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell?

    • A.

      Osteogenic cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes

    • B.

      Osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes

    • C.

      Osteogenic cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts

    • D.

      Osteoblasts, osteogenic cells, osteocytes

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes. Osteogenic cells are unspecialized stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts. Osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation and produce the extracellular matrix of bone. Once surrounded by the matrix, osteoblasts become osteocytes, which are mature bone cells responsible for maintaining bone tissue. Therefore, this selection lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell.

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  • 9. 

    These are considered bone-building cells.

    • A.

      Fibroblasts

    • B.

      Osteoclasts

    • C.

      Osteocytes

    • D.

      Osteoblasts

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Osteoblasts
    Explanation
    Osteoblasts are cells responsible for building bones. They play a crucial role in bone formation and repair by secreting the proteins and minerals needed to create new bone tissue. Osteoblasts are involved in the production of collagen, which forms the framework for bone, and they also regulate the mineralization process. Therefore, osteoblasts are considered bone-building cells.

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  • 10. 

    These are considered bone-dissolving cells.

    • A.

      Osteogenic cells

    • B.

      Osteoclast

    • C.

      Osteocytes

    • D.

      Osteoblasts

    • E.

      All of these choices

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteoclast
    Explanation
    Osteoclasts are considered bone-dissolving cells. They are responsible for breaking down and resorbing bone tissue. They play a crucial role in bone remodeling and are involved in the maintenance of calcium and phosphate balance in the body. Osteoclasts are multinucleated cells that secrete enzymes and acids to dissolve the mineralized matrix of bone, allowing for the removal of old or damaged bone tissue.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following structures contain osteocytes?

    • A.

      Haversian canals

    • B.

      Volkmann’s canals

    • C.

      Concentric lamellae

    • D.

      Lacunae

    • E.

      Canaliculi

    Correct Answer
    D. Lacunae
    Explanation
    Lacunae are small spaces or cavities within the bone matrix where osteocytes, which are mature bone cells, are housed. These lacunae are interconnected by tiny channels called canaliculi, which allow for communication and nutrient exchange between the osteocytes. The other structures listed, such as haversian canals, Volkmann's canals, and concentric lamellae, are all components of the Haversian system, which is responsible for the vascularization and remodeling of bone tissue, but they do not contain osteocytes themselves.

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  • 12. 

    These are extensions of the lacunae and are filled with extracellular fluid.

    • A.

      Volkmann’s canals

    • B.

      Haversian canals

    • C.

      Osteons

    • D.

      Canaliculi

    • E.

      Periosteum

    Correct Answer
    D. Canaliculi
    Explanation
    Canaliculi are small channels or canals found within the bone matrix. They are extensions of the lacunae, which are small spaces where bone cells called osteocytes are located. Canaliculi are filled with extracellular fluid and allow for communication between osteocytes and the blood supply, as well as the exchange of nutrients and waste products.

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  • 13. 

    Osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned

    • A.

      Horizontal to the metaphysis.

    • B.

      Parallel to the epiphysis.

    • C.

      Parallel to the length of the diaphysis.

    • D.

      Randomly between the epiphyseal plates.

    • E.

      Parallel to the perforating canals.

    Correct Answer
    C. Parallel to the length of the diaphysis.
    Explanation
    Osteons in compact bone tissue are aligned parallel to the length of the diaphysis. Osteons are the basic structural units of compact bone, consisting of concentric layers of bone tissue called lamellae. These lamellae are arranged around a central canal called the Haversian canal, which contains blood vessels and nerves. The alignment of osteons parallel to the length of the diaphysis provides strength and support to the long bone, allowing it to bear weight and withstand mechanical stress.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following statements about bone remodeling is FALSE?

    • A.

      It occurs throughout your lifetime.

    • B.

      It involves bone resorption.

    • C.

      It involves bone deposition.

    • D.

      It occurs at different rates at different locations.

    • E.

      It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.

    Correct Answer
    E. It occurs at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone.
    Explanation
    Bone remodeling is a continuous process that occurs throughout a person's lifetime. It involves both bone resorption, which is the breakdown of old bone tissue, and bone deposition, which is the formation of new bone tissue. Bone remodeling occurs at different rates at different locations in the body. However, it does not occur at a faster rate in compact bone than spongy bone. This statement is false because bone remodeling occurs at a faster rate in spongy bone due to its higher surface area and increased metabolic activity.

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  • 15. 

    The renewal rate for compact bone tissue is

    • A.

      4% per year.

    • B.

      15% per year.

    • C.

      20% per year.

    • D.

      25% per year.

    • E.

      Extremely difficult to measure.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4% per year.
    Explanation
    The renewal rate for compact bone tissue is 4% per year. This means that approximately 4% of the compact bone tissue is replaced or regenerated each year. This renewal process helps maintain the strength and integrity of the bone over time. It is important for bone health as it allows for the removal of old or damaged bone tissue and the formation of new bone tissue.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following two minerals are needed in large quantities when bones are growing?

    • A.

      Calcium and chlorine

    • B.

      Magnesium and sulfur

    • C.

      Calcium and phosphorous

    • D.

      Manganese and sulfur

    • E.

      Potassium and phosphorous

    Correct Answer
    C. Calcium and phosphorous
    Explanation
    Calcium and phosphorous are needed in large quantities when bones are growing because they are essential minerals for bone development and strength. Calcium provides the structural framework for bones, while phosphorous is necessary for the formation of bone mineralization. These minerals work together to support the growth and maintenance of healthy bones.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following correctly lists the order of the four zones of cartilage found within the growth plate starting at the epiphysis and extending to the diaphysis?

    • A.

      Calcified cartilage, resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage

    • B.

      Resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, calcified cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage

    • C.

      Proliferating cartilage, resting cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage

    • D.

      Resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage

    • E.

      Hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage, proliferating cartilage, resting cartilage

    Correct Answer
    D. Resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "resting cartilage, proliferating cartilage, hypertrophic cartilage, calcified cartilage." This order is correct because it follows the natural progression of cartilage within the growth plate. Resting cartilage is the first zone, where the chondrocytes are relatively inactive. Proliferating cartilage is the second zone, where the chondrocytes undergo rapid division. Hypertrophic cartilage is the third zone, where the chondrocytes mature and enlarge. Finally, calcified cartilage is the fourth zone, where the cartilage matrix becomes mineralized.

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  • 18. 

    During adulthood, which of the following does NOT significantly contribute to bone remodeling and growth?

    • A.

      Parathyroid hormones

    • B.

      Vitamin D

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      Sex steroids

    • E.

      Human growth hormone

    Correct Answer
    C. Epinephrine
    Explanation
    Epinephrine does not significantly contribute to bone remodeling and growth during adulthood. Bone remodeling and growth are primarily regulated by parathyroid hormones, vitamin D, sex steroids, and human growth hormone. Epinephrine is a hormone that is involved in the body's response to stress and does not have a direct impact on bone health.

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  • 19. 

    This type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in children

    • A.

      Open

    • B.

      Comminuted

    • C.

      Impacted

    • D.

      Greenstick

    • E.

      Stress

    Correct Answer
    D. Greenstick
    Explanation
    A greenstick fracture is a type of partial fracture that is commonly seen in children. It occurs when one side of the bone is broken, while the other side remains intact. This type of fracture is often caused by bending or twisting forces applied to the bone. The name "greenstick" comes from the analogy of a green tree branch that bends and cracks but does not completely break. Unlike other types of fractures, greenstick fractures do not fully separate the bone, making them unique to children whose bones are still growing and more flexible.

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  • 20. 

    About 25% of all stress fractures involve which bone?

    • A.

      Rib

    • B.

      Clavicle

    • C.

      Humerus

    • D.

      Ulna

    • E.

      Tibia

    Correct Answer
    E. Tibia
    Explanation
    About 25% of all stress fractures involve the tibia. Stress fractures are small cracks or breaks in the bone that occur due to repetitive force or overuse. The tibia, also known as the shinbone, is one of the weight-bearing bones in the lower leg. It is responsible for supporting much of the body's weight during activities like walking, running, and jumping. Due to the constant stress and impact placed on the tibia, it is more prone to stress fractures compared to other bones in the body.

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  • 21. 

    Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone

    • A.

      Calcitriol

    • B.

      Calcitonin

    • C.

      Human growth hormone

    • D.

      Parathyroid hormone

    • E.

      Insulin

    Correct Answer
    D. Parathyroid hormone
    Explanation
    Parathyroid hormone promotes bone mass reduction. It acts by increasing the release of calcium from bones into the bloodstream, which helps maintain normal calcium levels in the body. This hormone stimulates the activity of osteoclasts, cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. As a result, bone mass is reduced, leading to the release of calcium.

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  • 22. 

    An increase in bone growth is promoted by which hormones?

    • A.

      Calcitriol and parathyroid hormone

    • B.

      Calcitonin and calcitriol

    • C.

      Human growth hormone and parathyroid hormone

    • D.

      Parathyroid hormone and insulin

    • E.

      All of the other selections are correct

    Correct Answer
    B. Calcitonin and calcitriol
    Explanation
    Calcitonin and calcitriol are hormones that promote an increase in bone growth. Calcitonin helps to regulate calcium levels in the blood by inhibiting bone resorption, which allows for new bone formation. Calcitriol, the active form of vitamin D, helps to increase the absorption of calcium and phosphate from the intestines, which are essential for bone growth and remodeling. Therefore, the correct answer is calcitonin and calcitriol.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following conditions is characterized by reduced bone mass due to a decreased rate of bone synthesis to a level too low to compensate for normal bone resorption?

    • A.

      Osteogenic sarcoma

    • B.

      Osteomyelitis

    • C.

      Osteophytes

    • D.

      Osteoarthritis

    • E.

      Osteopenia

    Correct Answer
    E. Osteopenia
    Explanation
    Osteopenia is a condition characterized by reduced bone mass. In this condition, the rate of bone synthesis is decreased to a level that is insufficient to compensate for normal bone resorption. This leads to a gradual loss of bone density and can eventually progress to osteoporosis if left untreated. Osteogenic sarcoma is a type of bone cancer, osteomyelitis is a bone infection, osteophytes are bony projections that develop in osteoarthritis, and osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease. None of these conditions specifically involve reduced bone mass due to decreased bone synthesis.

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  • 24. 

     Which of the following conditions is a cancer affecting osteoblasts?

    • A.

      Osteogenic sarcoma

    • B.

      Rickets

    • C.

      Osteomalacia

    • D.

      Osteoarthritis

    • E.

      Osteopenia

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteogenic sarcoma
    Explanation
    Osteogenic sarcoma is a cancer that affects osteoblasts, which are the cells responsible for forming new bone tissue. This type of cancer typically occurs in children and young adults and is characterized by the abnormal growth of bone tissue.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following conditions is observed in adults when new bone formed during bone remodeling fails to calcify?

    • A.

      Osteogenic sarcoma

    • B.

      Osteoporosis

    • C.

      Osteomalacia

    • D.

      Osteoarthritis

    • E.

      Osteopenia

    Correct Answer
    C. Osteomalacia
    Explanation
    Osteomalacia is a condition observed in adults when new bone formed during bone remodeling fails to calcify. This means that the bones become soft and weak, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Osteomalacia is often caused by a deficiency in vitamin D or a problem with the body's ability to absorb and use vitamin D. It can also be caused by certain medical conditions or medications that interfere with bone mineralization. Symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle weakness, and difficulty walking. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause and supplementing with vitamin D and calcium.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following conditions results when the articular cartilages in a joint degenerate to the point where the bony ends of articulating bones touch?

    • A.

      Osteogenic sarcoma

    • B.

      Rickets

    • C.

      Osteomalacia

    • D.

      Osteoarthritis

    • E.

      Osteopenia

    Correct Answer
    D. Osteoarthritis
    Explanation
    Osteoarthritis is the correct answer because it is a condition that occurs when the articular cartilages in a joint degenerate to the point where the bony ends of articulating bones touch. This leads to pain, stiffness, and inflammation in the affected joint. Osteogenic sarcoma is a type of bone cancer, rickets and osteomalacia are conditions related to vitamin D deficiency, and osteopenia is a condition characterized by low bone density.

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  • 27. 

    Osteomalacia is a disease in which inadequate calcification of the bone matrix results in bones becoming “soft” or rubbery to the point that they become very fragile and fracture easily. Hypersecretion of which of the following hormones would produce similar changes in bone?

    • A.

      Calcitonin

    • B.

      Calcitriol

    • C.

      PTH

    • D.

      Growth Hormone

    • E.

      Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    C. PTH
    Explanation
    PTH, or parathyroid hormone, is responsible for regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body. When there is hypersecretion of PTH, it leads to increased bone resorption, causing a decrease in bone density and weakening of the bones. This is similar to the effects of osteomalacia, where inadequate calcification of the bone matrix results in soft and fragile bones. Therefore, hypersecretion of PTH would produce similar changes in bone as seen in osteomalacia.

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  • 28. 

    Hypersecretion of human growth hormone during childhood results in

    • A.

      Giantism.

    • B.

      Acromegaly.

    • C.

      Dwarfism.

    • D.

      Rickets.

    • E.

      Nothing will happen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Giantism.
    Explanation
    Hypersecretion of human growth hormone during childhood leads to giantism. This condition is characterized by excessive growth and an abnormal increase in height. It occurs when the pituitary gland produces an excessive amount of growth hormone, which stimulates the growth plates in the long bones of the body. As a result, the individual experiences accelerated and disproportionate growth, leading to a significantly taller stature than average. Acromegaly, on the other hand, is the result of hypersecretion of growth hormone during adulthood, causing enlargement of bones and tissues. Dwarfism is a condition of stunted growth and short stature, usually caused by genetic or hormonal abnormalities. Rickets is a bone disorder caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, calcium, or phosphate, leading to weakened and deformed bones.

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  • 29. 

    The general process by which bones form is called

    • A.

      Ossification.

    • B.

      Osteomalacia.

    • C.

      Calcification.

    • D.

      Apposition.

    • E.

      Orthodontics

    Correct Answer
    A. Ossification.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ossification. Ossification is the general process by which bones form. During ossification, specialized cells called osteoblasts deposit mineral salts and collagen fibers, which gradually harden and form new bone tissue. This process is essential for bone growth, repair, and remodeling throughout life. Osteomalacia refers to a softening of bones due to a lack of mineralization, calcification is the process of depositing calcium salts in tissues, apposition refers to the growth of bone tissue on the outer surface, and orthodontics is a branch of dentistry that deals with the alignment and correction of teeth and jaws.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that occur during intramembranous ossification?

    • A.

      Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum.

    • B.

      Calcification > Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum.

    • C.

      Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification > Development of new periosteum.

    • D.

      Development of new periosteum > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae

    • E.

      Ossification center develops > Calcification > Development of new periosteum > Formation of trabeculae.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum.
    Explanation
    Intramembranous ossification is the process by which bone tissue forms directly within mesenchyme, or fibrous connective tissue. The correct sequence of events during this process is as follows: first, an ossification center develops within the mesenchyme, then calcification occurs, followed by the formation of trabeculae (small, bony spicules), and finally, the development of a new periosteum (a connective tissue membrane that covers the bone).

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  • 31. 

    During endochondral ossification in a fetus, bones initially develop as a cartilage model surrounded by a connective tissue covering called the

    • A.

      Periosteum.

    • B.

      Endosteum.

    • C.

      Perichondrium.

    • D.

      Perimysium.

    • E.

      Trabeculae.

    Correct Answer
    C. Perichondrium.
    Explanation
    During endochondral ossification in a fetus, bones initially develop as a cartilage model surrounded by a connective tissue covering called the perichondrium. The perichondrium contains cells that differentiate into osteoblasts, which are responsible for laying down bone tissue. As the osteoblasts deposit bone, the cartilage model is gradually replaced by bone, leading to the formation of the mature bone. The periosteum, endosteum, perimysium, and trabeculae are not directly involved in the initial development of bones during endochondral ossification.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following substances are stored in the structure of adult bones for use by other tissues in the body?

    • A.

      Calcium

    • B.

      Phosphorous

    • C.

      Triglycerides

    • D.

      Iron

    • E.

      More than one of these substances is stored in bone

    Correct Answer
    E. More than one of these substances is stored in bone
    Explanation
    Adult bones store both calcium and phosphorous. These minerals are essential for various bodily functions, including bone growth, muscle contraction, and nerve transmission. Calcium and phosphorous are released from the bones into the bloodstream when the body needs them for these functions. Therefore, the correct answer is that more than one of these substances (calcium and phosphorous) is stored in bone.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is NOT a major function of the skeletal system?

    • A.

      Support

    • B.

      Locomotion

    • C.

      Hemopoiesis

    • D.

      Energy storage

    • E.

      Carcinogenesis

    Correct Answer
    E. Carcinogenesis
    Explanation
    The skeletal system is responsible for various functions in the body, including support, locomotion, hemopoiesis (the production of blood cells), and energy storage. Carcinogenesis, on the other hand, refers to the process of cancer development and is not a function of the skeletal system.

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  • 34. 

    Like other ________, bone tissue contains an abundant extracellular matrix that surrounds widely separated cells.

    • A.

      Epithelial tissues

    • B.

      Muscular tissues

    • C.

      Nervous tissues

    • D.

      Connective tissues

    • E.

      Facial tissues

    Correct Answer
    D. Connective tissues
    Explanation
    Connective tissues are characterized by having an abundant extracellular matrix that surrounds widely separated cells. This matrix is made up of fibers, ground substance, and fluid, which provide structural support and allow for flexibility and movement. Unlike other tissues like epithelial, muscular, and nervous tissues, connective tissues are not tightly packed and have a more dispersed arrangement of cells. Therefore, connective tissues are the correct answer for this question.

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  • 35. 

    Calcium is involved in all of the following important bodily functions EXCEPT

    • A.

      Blood clotting.

    • B.

      Nervous system communication.

    • C.

      Muscle contraction.

    • D.

      Acting as a cofactor in some enzymatic reactions.

    • E.

      Being the primary cation that regulates osmotic balance in cells.

    Correct Answer
    E. Being the primary cation that regulates osmotic balance in cells.
    Explanation
    Calcium is involved in many important bodily functions, including blood clotting, nervous system communication, muscle contraction, and acting as a cofactor in enzymatic reactions. However, it is not the primary cation that regulates osmotic balance in cells. Osmotic balance is primarily regulated by ions such as sodium and potassium. Calcium plays a role in maintaining cellular homeostasis, but it is not the primary cation involved in regulating osmotic balance.

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  • 36. 

    This is another name for the subcutaneous layer.

    • A.

      Dermis

    • B.

      Epidermis

    • C.

      Stratum corneum

    • D.

      Stratum basale

    • E.

      Hypodermis

    Correct Answer
    E. Hypodermis
    Explanation
    The hypodermis is the layer of skin that lies beneath the dermis. It is composed of connective tissue and adipose (fat) tissue. The hypodermis acts as an insulator, helping to regulate body temperature, and also serves as a cushion, protecting the underlying structures of the body. It is sometimes referred to as the subcutaneous layer or subcutis.

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  • 37. 

    This layer of the skin is composed of a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

    • A.

      Epidermis

    • B.

      Dermis

    • C.

      Hypodermis

    • D.

      Subcutaneous layer

    • E.

      Corpuscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Epidermis
    Explanation
    The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and is composed of a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. This means that the cells of the epidermis are flattened and filled with a protein called keratin, which provides strength and protection to the skin. The epithelium is arranged in layers, with the outermost layer being constantly shed and replaced by new cells from the lower layers. The epidermis acts as a barrier, protecting the underlying tissues from damage, pathogens, and water loss.

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  • 38. 

    Keratin

    • A.

      Is a protein.

    • B.

      Is secreted by plasma cells to help protect the body from viruses.

    • C.

      Is made by melanocytes only.

    • D.

      Is both a protein and made by melanocytes only.

    • E.

      All of these choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    A. Is a protein.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is a protein." This is because keratin is indeed a protein. It is a structural protein that is found in the outer layer of the skin, hair, nails, and other structures in the body. It provides strength and protection to these tissues.

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  • 39. 

    This pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin is capable of absorbing ultraviolet ligh

    • A.

      Keratin

    • B.

      Melanin

    • C.

      Melatonin

    • D.

      Carotene

    • E.

      Collagen

    Correct Answer
    B. Melanin
    Explanation
    Melanin is the pigment secreted by specialized cells in the skin that is capable of absorbing ultraviolet light. Melanin is responsible for determining the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It acts as a protective barrier against harmful UV radiation from the sun by absorbing and dissipating the energy. The more melanin a person has, the darker their skin color will be, providing them with more natural protection against sunburn and skin damage.

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  • 40. 

    This epidermal cell has a role in immunity and disease resistance.

    • A.

      Langerhans cells

    • B.

      Keratinocytes

    • C.

      Melanocytes

    • D.

      Merkel cells

    • E.

      Podocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Langerhans cells
    Explanation
    Langerhans cells are a type of epidermal cell that play a crucial role in the immune system and disease resistance. They are specialized antigen-presenting cells that help to initiate and regulate immune responses in the skin. Langerhans cells are able to recognize and capture foreign substances, such as bacteria or viruses, and present them to other immune cells to activate an immune response. This helps to protect the body from infections and other diseases.

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  • 41. 

    This layer of epidermis is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes.

    • A.

      Stratum basale

    • B.

      Stratum spinosum

    • C.

      Stratum granulosum

    • D.

      Stratum lucidum

    • E.

      Stratum corneum

    Correct Answer
    A. Stratum basale
    Explanation
    The stratum basale is the correct answer because it is the layer of the epidermis that is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes. This layer is responsible for the production of new skin cells and is located at the bottom of the epidermis. It is also known as the basal layer or the germinative layer.

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  • 42. 

    This layer of the epidermis contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are going through apoptosis.

    • A.

      Stratum basale

    • B.

      Stratum spinosum

    • C.

      Stratum granulosum

    • D.

      Stratum lucidum

    • E.

      Stratum corneum

    Correct Answer
    C. Stratum granulosum
    Explanation
    The stratum granulosum is the correct answer because it is the layer of the epidermis that contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are undergoing apoptosis. Apoptosis is a programmed cell death process, and in the stratum granulosum, the keratinocytes lose their nuclei and other organelles, becoming flattened and filled with keratin granules. This layer acts as a barrier between the living cells of the deeper layers and the outer environment.

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  • 43. 

    The stratum lucidum

    • A.

      Contains lamellar granules

    • B.

      Lies just above the stratum basale.

    • C.

      Is the layer used in a skin graft.

    • D.

      Is present only in thick skin.

    • E.

      Can consist of up to 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes.

    Correct Answer
    D. Is present only in thick skin.
    Explanation
    The stratum lucidum is a layer of the epidermis that is found only in thick skin, such as the skin on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. It is not present in thin skin, which covers the rest of the body. This layer is translucent and is composed of a few layers of dead keratinocytes. It helps to provide additional protection to the skin in areas that experience more wear and tear.

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  • 44. 

    Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus, which is the thickening of the ________ of the epidermis.

    • A.

      Stratum basale

    • B.

      Stratum spinosum

    • C.

      Stratum granulosum

    • D.

      Stratum lucidum

    • E.

      Stratum corneum

    Correct Answer
    E. Stratum corneum
    Explanation
    Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus, which is the thickening of the stratum corneum of the epidermis. The stratum corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis and is composed of dead skin cells. When the skin is exposed to friction, it responds by producing more cells in the stratum corneum, leading to the thickening of this layer. This thickening helps to protect the underlying layers of the skin from further damage caused by friction.

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  • 45. 

    The process of keratinization involves

    • A.

      Synthesizing new pigment in the skin.

    • B.

      Cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.

    • C.

      Changes occurring in thin skin only.

    • D.

      Both synthesizing new pigment in the skin and cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.

    • E.

      None of these answer choices are correct.

    Correct Answer
    B. Cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin.
    Explanation
    Keratinization is the process in which skin cells accumulate a tough fibrous protein called keratin. This protein helps protect the skin from damage, such as abrasions and environmental factors. It forms a barrier that prevents water loss and provides structural support to the skin. The synthesis of new pigment in the skin is not part of the process of keratinization. Therefore, the correct answer is "cells accumulating a tough fibrous protein that helps protect the skin."

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  • 46. 

    This layer of the skin is composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue containing collagen and elastic fibers.

    • A.

      Hypodermis

    • B.

      Basement membrane

    • C.

      Epidermis

    • D.

      Dermis

    • E.

      Subcutaneous (subQ) layer

    Correct Answer
    D. Dermis
    Explanation
    The dermis is the correct answer because it is the layer of the skin that is composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue containing collagen and elastic fibers. The dermis is located between the epidermis (the outermost layer of the skin) and the hypodermis (the subcutaneous layer). It provides structural support to the skin and contains blood vessels, nerves, sweat glands, and hair follicles.

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  • 47. 

    Albinism is the inherited inability to produce

    • A.

      Melanin.

    • B.

      Carotene

    • C.

      Both melanin and carotene.

    • D.

      Keratin

    • E.

      Creatinine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Melanin.
    Explanation
    Albinism is a genetic condition characterized by the inability to produce melanin, the pigment responsible for the color of the skin, hair, and eyes. This lack of melanin production results in a pale or white appearance of the skin, hair, and eyes. Carotene is a pigment found in certain foods and can contribute to skin color, but it is not directly related to albinism. Keratin is a protein found in the skin, hair, and nails, while creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism. Neither of these substances is responsible for albinism.

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  • 48. 

    Characteristics of thick skin include:

    • A.

      Found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips

    • B.

      Does not contain hair follicles.

    • C.

      Contains more sweat glands than thin skin

    • D.

      Contain epidermal ridges.

    • E.

      All of these choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    E. All of these choices are correct
    Explanation
    Thick skin is found in specific areas of the body such as the palms, soles of the feet, and fingertips. It lacks hair follicles and contains a higher number of sweat glands compared to thin skin. Additionally, thick skin is characterized by the presence of epidermal ridges. Therefore, all of the given choices accurately describe the characteristics of thick skin.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following structures found in the skin plays an important role in thermoregulation?

    • A.

      Merkel cells

    • B.

      Sebaceous glands

    • C.

      Sweat gland

    • D.

      Nails

    • E.

      Fingerprints

    Correct Answer
    C. Sweat gland
    Explanation
    Sweat glands play an important role in thermoregulation. When the body temperature rises, sweat glands produce sweat, which evaporates from the skin and helps to cool down the body. This process helps in maintaining the body's internal temperature within a normal range.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?

    • A.

      Arrector pili

    • B.

      Lunula

    • C.

      Sweat glands

    • D.

      Hair follicles

    • E.

      Oil glands

    Correct Answer
    E. Oil glands
    Explanation
    Oil glands, also known as sebaceous glands, help prevent water loss and inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin. They produce sebum, an oily substance that moisturizes and protects the skin. Sebum forms a barrier on the skin's surface, preventing excessive evaporation of water and keeping the skin hydrated. Additionally, sebum has antimicrobial properties that help inhibit the growth of bacteria on the skin, reducing the risk of infections.

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