Hm Book Ch 21: Emergency Procedures (In Progress)

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Hm Book Ch 21: Emergency Procedures (In Progress)

This quiz contains general knowledge and advancement related questions from the HM Manual, Chapter 21, Emergency Procedures. Only a random 20-30% of the questions show up each time you load the quiz, so be sure to hit refresh to get the questions in a new order. Thank you for using us to help you study and advance. Good luck! (Note: This quiz was last updated on 14 Jan 2011)


Questions and Answers
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    This quiz has over a hundred questions, however, we've programmed it so that only 25 - 33% show up each time it loads.  We also add questions to all of our quizzes every few days. Keeping this in mind, which of the following is the best way to practice and use all of our questions to help you study this subject?
    • A. 

      Bookmarking this page so that you can do this quiz again later

    • B. 

      Emailing this page to yourself so that you can easily find it from home or work

    • C. 

      Hitting the "refresh" button on your browser when the quiz is complete to load up a new set of questions (many of which you haven't yet seen) in a random order

    • D. 

      Any of the above

  • 2. 
    You're enjoying this quiz and its probably doing a good job of helping you study and getting you advanced to the next rank.  Which of the following is a good way to support this project and keep the site running? (Select all that apply)
    • A. 

      Using the links we have to Amazon.com to purchase your MP3 music and movies

    • B. 

      Donating $1, $5, $10, or $25 using the PayPal link above (you can use a credit card)

    • C. 

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    • D. 

      Forwarding the site to your friends and coworkers

  • 3. 
    Donations of any amount, even as low as $1 can be made by clicking here to access our PayPal page.  All donations go towards paying the cost of maintaining the site or towards sending care packages to deployed Navy Corpsmen and Marines.
    • A. 

      Sure, I'll donate! Maybe not this time, but if I come back to the site or stay here for a long time... Then it'll be obvious it's a good service and worth a few dollars from me in order to keep it running!

    • B. 

      Screw the site! Regardless of how much I use it, I always put myself first! Gonna spend those $5 on beer and cigarettes!

  • 4. 
    Signs of increased intracranial pressure include:      - Headache      - Nausea and / or vomiting      - Possible unconsciousness      - Change in pupil size or symmetry      - Lateral loss of motor nerve function      - Change in respiratory rate or pattern      - Steady rise in the systolic blood pressure      - Rise in pulse pressure      - Elevated body temperature      - Restlessness
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    What is the maximum amount of time allowed for continuous suctioning of an infant's airway?
    • A. 

      5 seconds

    • B. 

      5 - 10 seconds

    • C. 

      10 - 15 seconds

    • D. 

      15 - 20 seconds

    • E. 

      20 - 30 seconds

    • F. 

      30 seconds

  • 6. 
    Hypovolemic shock, also known as hemorrhagic shock, is a loss of intravascular volume which may occur from blood, plasma, or fluid loss.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    Distributive shock occur when the vascular container (blood vessels) dilate without a proportional increase in fluid volume.  As a result, the heart's preload decreases (blood available for pumping out to the body), and thus cardiac output falls, leaving the tissues hypoxic and starved for energy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Make all efforts to not put additional pressure on the globe

    • B. 

      Apply dry sterile dressings to build around and support the object

    • C. 

      In hazardous conditions, leave the good eye uncovered long enough to ensure the casualty's safety

    • D. 

      Bandage both eyes if foreign bodies are not easily removed by simple measures or if there is pain or loss of vision in the eye

    • E. 

      All of the above actions are appropriate

  • 9. 
    Chilblain is a mild cold injury that happens from prolonged exposure to temperatures above freezing to as high as 60F.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    An infant's airway should never be suctioned for more than 15 seconds.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 11. 
    A casualty with a compromised airway or massive external hemorrhage will fall under non-tactical triage Priority I - Immediate.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    A casualty with a long bone fracture will fall under non-tactical triage Priority I - Immediate.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is the simplest way to get a new set of questions for this quiz?
    • A. 

      Click the refresh button on your browser

    • B. 

      Emailing us at [email protected] and asking us to create new questions

    • C. 

      Closing the browser, logging out, and returning tomorrow

    • D. 

      Shaking your laptop like an Etch-A-Sketch

  • 15. 
    Combat Gauze is the current hemostatic agent of choice.  It should be applied with at least how many minutes of direct pressure?
    • A. 

      None. It is immediately effective

    • B. 

      1 - 2 minutes

    • C. 

      At least 2 minutes

    • D. 

      At least 3 minutes

  • 16. 
    The general impression of a trauma patient is crucial to identifying which of the following?
    • A. 

      Transportation decision

    • B. 

      Patient's overall systemic condition

    • C. 

      Obvious significant external problems

    • D. 

      Probable significant internal problems

    • E. 

      All of the above

  • 17. 
    When inserting the Combitube and after the device is sitting between the teeth and properly aligned between the printed black rings, the next step is to inflate the blue cuff.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 18. 
    Mediastinal shifts, whether on pneumothorax or hemothorax patients, are a late sign.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 19. 
    Normally, a loss of how many liters of blood is needed to create a life-threatening condition?
    • A. 

      0.5 liters

    • B. 

      1 liter

    • C. 

      1.5 liters

    • D. 

      2 liters

  • 20. 
    Normally, a loss of 1 liter of blood is all that's needed to create a life-threatening condition.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    Casualties whose injuries are critical but who will require only minimal time or equipment to manage and who have a good prognosis for survival are sorted under triage Priority I - Immediate.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Headache, nausea, and / or vomiting

    • B. 

      Change in the casualty's respiratory rate or pattern

    • C. 

      Steady rise in the systolic blood pressure (in patients who haven't lost significant amounts of blood)

    • D. 

      Elevated body temperature

    • E. 

      All of the above are signs of increased intracranial pressure

  • 23. 
    Synthetic materials used for suturing wounds closed such as nylon and dermalon frequently react with tissue and can be "spit" from the wound.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    Cardiogenic shock occurs when the vascular container (blood vessels) dilate without a proportional increase in fluid volume.  As a result, the heart's preload decreases (blood available for pumping out to the body), and thus cardiac output falls, leaving the tissues hypoxic and starved for energy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
    A hypotensive patient is one who has a systolic blood pressure less than 90.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 26. 
    A hypotensive patient is one who has a systolic blood pressure less than 100.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 27. 
    The placenta will deliver itself how many minutes after the baby?
    • A. 

      Immediately

    • B. 

      5 to 10 minutes

    • C. 

      10 to 20 minutes

    • D. 

      20 to 30 minutes

  • 28. 
    Patients with pelvic fractures should not be moved unless absolutely necessary.  The casualty should be treated for shock and kept warm but should not be moved into the recovery position.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    Because it increases intracranial pressure and causes constriction of the pupils, morphine should never be given to patients with head injuries.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    Normally, a loss of approximately 1 liter of blood creates a life threatening condition.  1 liter of blood is usually what percent of a person's total blood volume?
    • A. 

      10 - 20%

    • B. 

      25 - 40%

    • C. 

      40 - 60%

    • D. 

      50 - 75%

  • 31. 
    Normally, a loss of approximately 25 - 40% of a person's total blood volume blood creates a life threatening condition.  25 - 40% of a person's total blood volume is how much blood?
    • A. 

      500mL

    • B. 

      1 liter

    • C. 

      1.5 liters

    • D. 

      2 liters

  • 32. 
    1 - 2 teaspoons of vinegar in a pint of water is the best solution to use to flush the skin of what type of injury?
    • A. 

      First-degree burn

    • B. 

      Second-debree burn

    • C. 

      Acid burn

    • D. 

      Alkali burn

  • 33. 
    Casualties with a total upper airway obstruction, inhalation burns, or massive maxillofacial trauma who cannot be ventilated by any other means are candidates for a Combitube.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    A patient experiencing respiratory distress can rapidly progress to full respiratory arrest.  A Corpsman should always be prepared to utilize advanced airway procedures.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Airway, Vital Signs, and Pulses are Uniform

    • B. 

      Alert, Verbal, Painful, Unresponsive

    • C. 

      Analyze, Verify, Process, Uniformity

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 36. 
    Massive hemorrhage may be fatal within how many seconds?
    • A. 

      60 - 120

    • B. 

      120 - 180

    • C. 

      120 - 240

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      14 gauge

    • B. 

      16 gauge

    • C. 

      18 gauge

    • D. 

      20 gauge

    • E. 

      22 gauge

  • 38. 
    Non-absorbable materials used for suturing wounds closed such as silk frequently react with tissue and can be "spit" from the wound.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    Any person who has an acute pain in the back or neck following an injury should be treated as though there is a fractured spine, even if there are no other symptoms.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    The index of suspicion is derived directly from the mechanism of injury and is defined as the injury patterns the casualty will display based on the mechanism of injury.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      Stage 1: Compensated shock - At this stage, the blood pressure is maintained; however, there is a arrowing of the pulse pressure, which is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures. Treatment at this stage will typically result in recovery.

    • B. 

      Stage 2: Decompensated shock - At this stage, the blood pressure is falling because the blood volume has dropped 15 - 25%. The compensatory mechanisms are beginning to fail and signs and symptoms of shock are much more obvious. At this point, vasoconstriction can have a disastrous effect if allowed to continue. Treatment at this stage will sometimes result in recovery.

    • C. 

      Stage 3: Irreversible shock - Shock has progressed to a terminal stage. Arterial blood pressure is abnormally low. There are life-threatening reductions in cardiac output, blood pressure, and tissue perfusion. Even aggressive treatment at this stage does not normally result in recovery.

    • D. 

      All of the above statements are true

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      14.7

    • D. 

      21

    • E. 

      33

  • 43. 
    You're summoned to the scene of a motor vehicle accident.  Upon assessment, you discover that the patient has asymmetrical pupils, headache, nausea, and vomiting.  There is a spider-web type crack on the windshield.  Which of the following should you have a high degree of suspicion for?
    • A. 

      Migraine

    • B. 

      Increased intracranial pressure

    • C. 

      Stroke

    • D. 

      Mild concussion

  • 44. 
    Corpsmen may administer nebulizer treatments only when authorized by the Medical Officer.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      Altered mental status

    • B. 

      Alcohol or other form of ingested intoxication such as pills

    • C. 

      Suspected of swallowing acids or alkalis

    • D. 

      Inability to swallow

  • 46. 
    Combat gauze should be applied with at least 5 minutes of direct pressure.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    A casualty with a compromised airway or massive external hemorrhage will fall under non-tactical triage Priority II - Delayed.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    Most patients experiencing difficulty breathing will prefer to remain in a seated position.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Most patients experiencing difficulty breathing will prefer to remain in a laying position.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    A diluted solution of which of the following substances is best used to treat alkali burns to the skin?
    • A. 

      Alcohol

    • B. 

      Ammonia

    • C. 

      Vinegar

    • D. 

      Baking soda

    • E. 

      Furniture polish

  • 51. 
    Patients who have suffered a pelvic fracture should only be moved when absolutely necessary and even then absolute care must be taken, to include application of MAST garments, traction splints, and adequate immobilization.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      Severe respiratory depressant and must not be given to patients in moderate or severe shock or in respiratory distress.

    • B. 

      Increases intracranial pressure and may induce vomiting

    • C. 

      Causes constriction of the pupils, preventing the use of pupillary reactions for diagnosis in head injuries

    • D. 

      It is cardiotoxic and a peripheral vasodilator. Small doses of morphine may cause profound hypotension in a patient in shock

    • E. 

      Causes considerable mental confusion and interferes with the proper exercise of judgment

    • F. 

      Is highly addictive

    • G. 

      Narrow safety margin between the amounts given therapeutically and the amounts that produce death

    • H. 

      All of the above are undesireable side effects

  • 53. 
    Casualties with a total upper airway obstruction, inhalation burns, or massive maxillofacial trauma who cannot be ventilated by any other means are candidates for a surgical cricothyroidotomy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      First-degree

    • B. 

      Second-degree

    • C. 

      Third-degree

    • D. 

      Fourth-degree

  • 55. 
    A cerebrovascular accident, also known as a stroke or apoplexy, is caused by an interruption of the arterial blood supply to a portion of the brain.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 56. 
    Activated charcoal is contraindicated for patients that have an altered mental status, that are suspected of swallowing acids or alkalis, or have an inability to swallow.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      Syncope

    • B. 

      Dehydration

    • C. 

      Uncontrolled hemorrhage

    • D. 

      Septic

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      "Buddy warming"

    • B. 

      Covering the victim with blankets or a sleeping bag

    • C. 

      Warmed IV fluids

    • D. 

      Immersion in a tub of hot water

    • E. 

      Immersion in a tub of warm water

  • 59. 
    The rule of nines assigns what percentage value for burns of the anterior chest and anterior neck?
    • A. 

      13%

    • B. 

      14%

    • C. 

      26%

    • D. 

      33%

  • 60. 
    The goal of first aid measures is to save lives, prevent further injury, and to preserve a patient's resistance and vitality.  First aid is NOT intended to replace proper medical diagnosis and treatment.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    The main goal of first aid is to replace proper medical diagnosis and treatment.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is the cheapest and easiest way to get all of the items on your bibliography to help you study for the next advancement exam?
    • A. 

      Printing them all out and keeping them in a binder (approximate paper needed for HM1 bibliography: 2 cases of paper)

    • B. 

      Printing out only the parts of the bibliography that I'm actually going to study. This means I'll probably only study a few parts of the bib, but that shouldn't hurt the chances of advancing too much... Or will it?

    • C. 

      Clicking on the picture above to purchase all of the items on my bib or flash drive for as little as $5, which includes shipping

    • D. 

      Who needs to study?

  • 63. 
    Casualties whose injuries are debilitating but who do not require immediate management to save life or limb are sorted under which non-tactical triage category?
    • A. 

      Priority I - Immediate

    • B. 

      Priority II - Delayed

    • C. 

      Priority III - Minor

    • D. 

      Priority IV - Expectant

    • E. 

      Priority V - Dead

  • 64. 
    When inserting the Combitube and after the device is sitting between the teeth and properly aligned between the printed black ring, what is the next step?
    • A. 

      Insert the guide wire

    • B. 

      Remove the guide wire

    • C. 

      Inflate the blue cuff

    • D. 

      Deflate the blue cuff

    • E. 

      Give two puffs of air to ensure placement

    • F. 

      Assess for spontaneous respiration

    • G. 

      Suction for possible emesis

  • 65. 
    Normally, a loss of what percentage of a person's blood supply is needed to create a life-threatening condition?
    • A. 

      10%

    • B. 

      10 - 25%

    • C. 

      25 - 40%

    • D. 

      40 - 60%

  • 66. 
    Most patients experiencing breathing difficulties will prefer to remain in what position?
    • A. 

      Supine

    • B. 

      Prone

    • C. 

      Lateral recumbent

    • D. 

      Sitting

  • 67. 
    The three stages of shock are: Stage 1: Compensated shock - At this stage, the blood pressure is maintained; however, there is a arrowing of the pulse pressure, which is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures.  Treatment at this stage will typically result in recovery. Stage 2: Decompensated shock - At this stage, the blood pressure is falling because the blood volume has dropped 15 - 25%.  The compensatory mechanisms are beginning to fail and signs and symptoms of shock are much more obvious.  At this point, vasoconstriction can have a disastrous effect if allowed to continue.  Treatment at this stage will sometimes result in recovery. Stage 3: Irreversible shock - Shock has progressed to a terminal stage.  Arterial blood pressure is abnormally low.  There are life-threatening reductions in cardiac output, blood pressure, and tissue perfusion.  Even aggressive treatment at this stage does not normally result in recovery.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 68. 
    • A. 

      Stage 1 - Compensated Shock

    • B. 

      Stage 2 - Decompensated Shock

    • C. 

      Stage 3 - Irreversible Shock

    • D. 

      Stage 4 - Terminal Shock

  • 69. 
    • A. 

      Stage 1 - Compensated Shock

    • B. 

      Stage 2 -- Decompensated Shock

    • C. 

      Stage 3 - Irreversible Shock

    • D. 

      Stage 4 - Terminal Shock

  • 70. 
    Treatment for middle ear squeezes includes all of the following EXCEPT which?
    • A. 

      Decongestants

    • B. 

      Administering ear drops for ruptured ear drum

    • C. 

      No diving chit

    • D. 

      NSAIDs for pain and inflammation

    • E. 

      All of the above are included in the treatment of middle ear squeezes

  • 71. 
    Which of the following types of non-absorbable sutures are excellent for surface use because they cause very little tissue reaction but have a tendency for the knots to come untied?
    • A. 

      Silk

    • B. 

      Cotton

    • C. 

      Rust-proof metal

    • D. 

      Nylon / Dermalon

  • 72. 
    Casualties with a total upper airway obstruction, inhalation burns, or massive maxillofacial trauma who cannot be ventilated by any other means are candidates for a King LT airway.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      Byrum's Law

    • B. 

      Martinfrazier's Law

    • C. 

      Murphy's Law

    • D. 

      Quala's Law

    • E. 

      Henry's Law

  • 74. 
    Bullets should be searched for and removed to help stop bleeding.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      Giving the patient something to drink

    • B. 

      Laying the patient down in the recovery position

    • C. 

      Loosening the patient's clothing

    • D. 

      All of the above are appropriate treatment

  • 76. 
    When inserting a Combitube, which of the following cuffs should be inflated after the device is sitting in place between the teeth?
    • A. 

      Blue cuff

    • B. 

      White cuff

    • C. 

      Blue cuff

    • D. 

      Clear cuff

    • E. 

      Black cuff

  • 77. 
    Heat cramps are the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot environments.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 78. 
    The most common method of anesthesia used by Hospital Corpsmen is the infiltration of the anesthetizing agent into the nerve trunks that innervate the fingers or toes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 79. 
    Heat exhaustion is the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot environments.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 80. 
    Barotrauma is defined as damage to the tissues caused by a change in ambient pressure.  This is also known as "squeeze" on descent and "reverse squeeze" on ascent.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 81. 
    First aid measures, if done properly, can result in the member not needing to report to the Battalion Aid Station for sick call.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 82. 
    A hypotensive patient is one who has a systolic blood pressure less than 110.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 83. 
    Massive hemorrhage can be fatal within 1 or 2 minutes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 84. 
    The most common method of anesthesia used by Hospital Corpsmen is the infiltration of the anesthetizing agent around a wound or minor surgical site.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      Intermittent exposures of short duration to temperatures below freezing

    • B. 

      Intermittent exposures of long duration to temperatures above freezing

    • C. 

      Prolonged and repeated exposure to temperatures below freezing

    • D. 

      Prolonged and repeated exposure to temperatures above freezing

  • 86. 
    Casualties whose injuries are critical but who will require only minimal time or equipment to manage and who have a good prognosis for survival are sorted under which non-tactical triage category?
    • A. 

      Priority I - Immediate

    • B. 

      Priority II - Delayed

    • C. 

      Priority III - Minor

    • D. 

      Priority IV - Expectant

    • E. 

      Priority V - Dead

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      Stage 1 - Compensated

    • B. 

      Stage 2 - Decompensated

    • C. 

      Stage 3 - Uncontrollable

  • 88. 
    • A. 

      Stage 1 - Controlled

    • B. 

      Stage 2 - Decompensated

    • C. 

      Stage 3 - Irreversible

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      Stage 1 - Compensated

    • B. 

      Stage 2 - Uncontrolled

    • C. 

      Stage 3 - Irreversible

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Identification of patients

    • C. 

      Types of injuries

    • D. 

      Mechanism of injury

  • 91. 
    A hypotensive patient is one who has a systolic blood pressure lower than what?
    • A. 

      80

    • B. 

      90

    • C. 

      100

    • D. 

      110

  • 92. 
    Casualties whose injuries are minor and can wait for treatment or who may even be able to assist in the interim by comforting other casualties will be sorted under which non-tactical triage category?
    • A. 

      Priority I - Immediate

    • B. 

      Priority II - Delayed

    • C. 

      Priority III - Minor

    • D. 

      Priority IV - Expectant

    • E. 

      Priority V - Dead

  • 93. 
    • A. 

      OLDCARTS

    • B. 

      MAT PAGAN

    • C. 

      DANIELS AMANDA

    • D. 

      DCAP BTLS

    • E. 

      BAMCIS

  • 94. 
    A casualty with a compromised airway or massive external hemorrhage will fall under which non-tactical triage category?
    • A. 

      Priority I - Immediate

    • B. 

      Priority II - Delayed

    • C. 

      Priority III - Minor

    • D. 

      Priority IV - Expectant

    • E. 

      Priority V - Dead

  • 95. 
    • A. 

      Fluid lost through the weeping of burned tissue

    • B. 

      Massive hemorrhage

    • C. 

      Dehydration

    • D. 

      Vomiting

    • E. 

      Closed head injuries

    • F. 

      Diarrhea

  • 96. 
    • A. 

      Saving the life of a Sailor or Marine

    • B. 

      Preventing further injury

    • C. 

      Preserving resistance and vitality

    • D. 

      Eliminating need for proper medical diagnosis and care

  • 97. 
    • A. 

      Protect the casualty at all costs. Sacrifice yourself if necessary.

    • B. 

      Return fire and take cover

    • C. 

      Secure your patients before returning fire

    • D. 

      Direct the casualty to move to cover and apply self-aid if able

  • 98. 
    When cutting sutures, what is the maximum acceptable length for the tails to be?
    • A. 

      1/16th inch

    • B. 

      1/8th inch

    • C. 

      1/4 inch

    • D. 

      1/2 inch

  • 99. 
    Cardiogenic shock, also known as hemorrhagic shock, is a loss of intravascular volume which may occur from blood, plasma, or fluid loss.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 100. 
    What is the adult dose of morphine?
    • A. 

      2 to 10mg

    • B. 

      5 to 10mg

    • C. 

      10 to 20mg

    • D. 

      20 to 30mg

  • 101. 
    • A. 

      Maintaining the airway

    • B. 

      Starting an IV

    • C. 

      Elevating the fee and keeping the patient warm

    • D. 

      Taking BSI precautions

  • 102. 
    A patient with a skin assessment of pale and cool whose blood pressure dropped briefly would be considered to be in what type of shock?
    • A. 

      Neurogenic

    • B. 

      Cardiogenic

    • C. 

      Hypovolemic

    • D. 

      Psychogenic

  • 103. 
    Which of the following should be performed first during care under fire / tactical triage?
    • A. 

      Dragging the casualty to safety and returning fire

    • B. 

      Establishing scene security and a casualty collection point

    • C. 

      Radioing for a MEDEVAC

    • D. 

      Establishing an airway and returning fire

  • 104. 
    Which degree of thermal burns is characterized by an epidermal layer that is irritated, reddened, and tingling?
    • A. 

      First degree

    • B. 

      Second degree

    • C. 

      Third degree

    • D. 

      Fourth degree

  • 105. 
    Which degree of thermal burn is characterized by an epidermal layer that is irritated, reddened, and tingling?
    • A. 

      First degree

    • B. 

      Second degree

    • C. 

      Third degree

    • D. 

      Fourth degree

  • 106. 
    • A. 

      Don't bandage either eye

    • B. 

      Remove the foreign body, then bandage the eye

    • C. 

      Bandage the injured eye only

    • D. 

      Bandage the uninjured eye only

    • E. 

      Bandage both eyes

  • 107. 
    Casualties with a total upper airway obstruction, inhalation burns, or massive maxillofacial trauma who cannot be ventilated by other means are candidates for a surgical cricothyroidotomy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 108. 
    Which degree of thermal burns is characterized by epidermal blisters, a mottled appearance, and a red base?
    • A. 

      First degree

    • B. 

      Second degree

    • C. 

      Third degree

    • D. 

      Fourth degree

  • 109. 
    What is this a  picture of?
    • A. 

      First degree burn

    • B. 

      Second degree burn

    • C. 

      Third degree burn

    • D. 

      Fourth degree burn

  • 110. 
    What is this a picture of?
    • A. 

      First degree burn

    • B. 

      Second degree burn

    • C. 

      Third degree burn

    • D. 

      Fourth degree burn

  • 111. 
    Casualties with a total upper airway obstruction, inhalation burns, or massive maxillofacial trauma who cannot be ventilated by other means are candidates for which of the following?
    • A. 

      Nasopharyngeal airways

    • B. 

      Oropharyngeal airway

    • C. 

      King LT

    • D. 

      Surgical cricothyroidotomy

    • E. 

      Combitube

    • F. 

      Bag valve mask

  • 112. 
    • A. 

      Wash the wound and the surrounding area

    • B. 

      Cover the wound with a clean or sterile dressing

    • C. 

      Cauterize areas that are bleeding to aid in transport

    • D. 

      Attempt to identify the animal only if it can be done without danger to anyone and only if it can be done without delaying transport of the patient to a medical treatment facility

  • 113. 
    A casualty with an injury so severe that they have only a minimal chance for survival will fall under non-tactical triage Priority V - Dead.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 114. 
    An interruption of the arterial blood supply to a portion of the brain causes which of the following?
    • A. 

      Cerebrovascular accident

    • B. 

      Syncope

    • C. 

      Epileptic episode

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 115. 
    A cerebrovascular accident, also known as a stroke or apoplexy, is caused by an interruption of the arterial blood supply to a portion of the brain.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 116. 
    Which of the following is a cause of stroke?
    • A. 

      Cerebral thrombosis

    • B. 

      Cerebral embolus

    • C. 

      Cerebral hemorrhage

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 117. 
    • A. 

      Synaptic shock

    • B. 

      Neurogenic shock

    • C. 

      Diameter shock

    • D. 

      Spinal Cord Deficiency Shock (SCDS)

  • 118. 
    Neurogenic shock is caused by the failure of the nervous system to control the diameter of blood vessels
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 119. 
    Synaptic shock is caused by the failure of the nervous system to control the diameter of blood vessels
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 120. 
    • A. 

      Chilblain

    • B. 

      Hypothermia

    • C. 

      Superficial frostbite

    • D. 

      Deep frostbite

  • 121. 
    Which of the following is an inherited condition in which the pancreas secretes an insufficient amount of the protein hormone insulin?
    • A. 

      Diabetes insipidus

    • B. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • C. 

      Ketoacidotic diabetes

    • D. 

      Ketoalkalinic diabetes

    • E. 

      Any of the above

  • 122. 
    Diabetes insipidus is an inherited condition in which the pancreas secretes an insufficient amount of the protein hormone insulin.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 123. 
    Diabetes mellitus is an inherited condition in which the pancreas secretes an insufficient amount of the protein hormone insulin.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 124. 
    Quala's Law is the primary law referenced by Dive Med Techs when dealing with Decompression Sickness.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 125. 
    Byrum's Law is the primary law referenced by Dive Med Techs when dealing with Decompression Sickness.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 126. 
    Barotrauma is defined as damage to tissues caused by a change in ambient pressure.  This is also known as "squeeze" on descent and "reverse squeeze" on ascent.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 127. 
    • A. 

      1-0

    • B. 

      2-0

    • C. 

      5-0

    • D. 

      6-0

    • E. 

      7-0

  • 128. 
    • A. 

      When rectal temperature reach 100F

    • B. 

      When rectal temperatures reach 102F

    • C. 

      When ordered by Medical Officer or IDC

    • D. 

      When mental status returns to normal

  • 129. 
    Cooling measures on heat stroke patients should be discontinued when the rectal temperature drops to 100F.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 130. 
    • A. 

      Bruising

    • B. 

      Bone

    • C. 

      Broken

    • D. 

      Breathing

    • E. 

      Bleeding

  • 131. 
    • A. 

      When Domino's delivers a breech instead of your extra-large with pepperoni and mushrooms

    • B. 

      When the baby's leg or buttocks emerge first

    • C. 

      When the baby presents sideways for delivery

    • D. 

      When the baby's head comes out face up

  • 132. 
    A "breech delivery" is when the baby's feet or buttocks emerge first.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 133. 
    • A. 

      Identifying the substance involved

    • B. 

      Time of exposure

    • C. 

      Amount patient ingested

    • D. 

      What interventions have already been taken by family or bystanders

    • E. 

      Estimated weight of patient

    • F. 

      All of the above are important to determine

  • 134. 
    • A. 

      Febrile shock

    • B. 

      Bacteriostatic shock

    • C. 

      Septic shock

    • D. 

      Neurogenic shock

    • E. 

      Infectious shock

  • 135. 
    Septic shock is caused by the presence of severe infection which leads to vasodilation.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 136. 
    Massive hemorrhage may be fatal within 1 - 2 minutes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 137. 
    • A. 

      Up to 2 liters per minute

    • B. 

      1 - 4 liters per minute

    • C. 

      2 - 5 liters per minute

    • D. 

      4 - 8 liters per minute

    • E. 

      5 - 10 liters per minute

  • 138. 
    When using a nasal cannula, the oxygen flow should be adjusted to 1 - 4 liters per minute which will deliver a concentration of 24 - 44% oxygen.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 139. 
    • A. 

      Sense of impending doom

    • B. 

      Urticaria

    • C. 

      Tightness in the throat or chest

    • D. 

      Stridor

    • E. 

      Wheezing

    • F. 

      All of the above are signs of anaphylactic shock

  • 140. 
    • A. 

      Subcutaneous 0.3cc of epinephrine

    • B. 

      Adenosine 100mg oral

    • C. 

      Diphenhydramine oral 50mg or intramuscular 25mg

    • D. 

      Atarax 25mg oral

  • 141. 
    The standard treatment for severe anaphylaxis is 50mg of intramuscular or 25mg of intravenous diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 142. 
    • A. 

      Sweet, fruity breath odor

    • B. 

      Abdominal pain

    • C. 

      Cool, moist, pale skin

    • D. 

      Intense thirst

  • 143. 
    Signs of hyperglycemia include the following:      - Slow onset of symptoms      - Warm, dry, red skin      - Sweet, fruity breath odor (acetone)      - Deep, rapid breathing      - Dry mouth      - Intense thirst      - Abdominal pain      - Nausea and vomiting
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 144. 
    Patients who have suffered a pelvic fracture should only be moved when absolutely necessary and even then absolute care must be taken, to include application of MAST garments, traction splints, and adequate immobilization.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 145. 
    • A. 

      By estimating the size of the patient: Infant, child, teen, adult, and large adult

    • B. 

      By estimating the weight of the patient

    • C. 

      Measuring from the patient's nose to their ear and then to their sternum

    • D. 

      Measuring from the casualty's earlobe to the corner of the mouth

  • 146. 
    Which type of injury is the tearing away of tissue from a body part, usually causing heavy bleeding?
    • A. 

      Amputation

    • B. 

      Avulsion

    • C. 

      Puncture

    • D. 

      Laceration

  • 147. 
    • A. 

      Headache

    • B. 

      Change in the casualty's respiratory rate or pattern

    • C. 

      Steady rise in the systolic blood pressure (in patients who haven't lost significant amounts of blood)

    • D. 

      Elevated body temperature

    • E. 

      All of the above are signs of increased intracranial pressure

  • 148. 
    • A. 

      Injury to the ligaments and soft tissues that support a joint

    • B. 

      Injury caused by the forcible overstretching or tearing of a muscle or tendons

  • 149. 
    • A. 

      Injury to the ligaments and soft tissues that support a joint

    • B. 

      Injury caused by the forcible overstretching or tearing of a muscle or tendons

  • 150. 
    A strain is defined as an injury caused by the forcible overstretching or tearing of a muscle or tendons.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 151. 
    • A. 

      Epistaxis

    • B. 

      Middle ear squeeze

    • C. 

      Nausea

    • D. 

      Vertigo

  • 152. 
    Most nasopharyngeal airways are designed to be inserted into the right nostril.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 153. 
    • A. 

      Acute myocardial infarction

    • B. 

      Transient Ischemic Attack

    • C. 

      Chronic myocardial infarction

    • D. 

      Stroke

  • 154. 
    Chilblain is caused by intermittent exposures of long duration to temperatures below freezing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 155. 
    Based on IP addresses, the average score of people taking this quiz for the first time is 53%.   Second time quiz takers score in the 70s.  Those that hit refresh on their browsers a third time score in the 80s and 90s. Therefore, you should hit "refresh" and try again to make sure you know the material and are ready for your advancement exam.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 156. 
    • A. 

      Kept dry until particles can be surgically removed. Cover with a sterile 2x2 or 4x4 gauze sponge.

    • B. 

      Covered with petroleum jelly and immediately transport for surgical removal

    • C. 

      Continuous irrigation with normal saline while transporting for surgical removal

    • D. 

      Rinsed with a dilute, freshly mixed 1% solution of copper sulfate. Transport for surgical removal

  • 157. 
    • A. 

      Epileptic seizure

    • B. 

      Petite mal seizure

    • C. 

      Grand mal seizure

    • D. 

      Atypical Epileptic Seizure (AES)

    • E. 

      Typical Epileptic Seizure

  • 158. 
    • A. 

      10%

    • B. 

      12.5%

    • C. 

      20%

    • D. 

      25%

  • 159. 
    The mortality rate for heat stroke is approximately 20%.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 160. 
    The mortality rate for heat stroke is approximately 5 - 10%.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 161. 
    You should fasten a splinted femur fracture in how many places?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Five

    • E. 

      Six

  • 162. 
    Heat exhaustion is the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot environments.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 163. 
    A hypertensive patient is defined as a patient with a systolic blood pressure greater than what?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      120

    • C. 

      140

    • D. 

      160

  • 164. 
    • A. 

      Cerebrovascular accident

    • B. 

      Syncopal episode

    • C. 

      Epilepsy

    • D. 

      Aural Syncopal Event (ASE)

  • 165. 
    • A. 

      0.3 - 0.5cc of 1:100 solution

    • B. 

      3 - 5cc of 1:100 solution

    • C. 

      0.3 - 0.5cc of 1:1,000 solution

    • D. 

      3 - 5cc of 1:1,000 solution

    • E. 

      0.3 - 0.5cc of 1:10,00 solution

    • F. 

      3 - 5cc of 1:10,000 solution

    • G. 

      0.3 - 0.5cc of 1:100,00 solution

    • H. 

      3 - 5cc of 1:100,000 solution

  • 166. 
    • A. 

      Pulmonary squeeze

    • B. 

      Pulmonary reverse squeeze

    • C. 

      Mediastinal emphysema

    • D. 

      Pleural laceration