HLTH 1309 PSW Allison Cronkwright

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  • 1/53 Questions

    This term is defined as persistent blood pressure with systolic > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic >90 mmHg

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About This Quiz

This quiz reviews all key concepts from HLTH 1309. This quiz was created by Allison Cronkwright, a current student of Niagara College. This is copyrighted, and not to be used without permission from Allison Cronkwright. 2010.

Healthcare Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    The term for a heart rate that is <60 beats per minute

    Explanation
    Bradycardia refers to a heart rate that is less than 60 beats per minute. This term is commonly used to describe a slower-than-normal heart rate, which can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, heart disease, or an underlying medical condition. It is important to note that bradycardia can sometimes be a normal occurrence, especially in athletes or individuals who are physically fit. However, in some cases, bradycardia may indicate an underlying health issue that requires medical attention.

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  • 3. 

    What is the term for a heart rate >100 beats per minute

    Explanation
    Tachycardia is the medical term used to describe a heart rate that is greater than 100 beats per minute. It is a condition where the heart beats faster than normal, which can be caused by various factors such as stress, exercise, certain medications, or underlying medical conditions. Tachycardia can sometimes be a sign of an underlying health issue and may require medical attention if it persists or is accompanied by other symptoms.

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  • 4. 

    The other name for Cerebrovascular accident

    Explanation
    The correct answer for the question is Stroke, CVA. A cerebrovascular accident refers to a sudden disruption of blood supply to the brain, leading to brain cell damage or death. This condition is commonly known as a stroke. Another term used to describe a stroke is CVA, which stands for cerebrovascular accident. Both terms are interchangeable and refer to the same medical condition.

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  • 5. 

    What is leukopenia?

    • Low red blood cells

    • Low platelets

    • Low white blood cells

    • Lack of oxygen in the blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Low white blood cells
    Explanation
    Leukopenia refers to a condition characterized by a low count of white blood cells in the body. White blood cells play a crucial role in the immune system, defending the body against infections and diseases. Having a low count of white blood cells can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections and illnesses. Therefore, the correct answer is "Low white blood cells."

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  • 6. 

    What is glaucoma?

    • Increased pressure in the middle ear causing vertigo

    • Film over the eye lens

    • Increased pressure in the eye leading to damage of the optic nerve

    • Hardening of the ossicles in the ear leading to hearing loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased pressure in the eye leading to damage of the optic nerve
    Explanation
    Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased pressure in the eye, which can lead to damage of the optic nerve. This increased pressure can occur due to a buildup of fluid in the eye, causing damage to the nerve fibers responsible for transmitting visual information to the brain. If left untreated, glaucoma can lead to permanent vision loss and blindness. Regular eye exams and early detection are crucial in managing and treating glaucoma.

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  • 7. 

    Persistent blood pressure with systolic > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic >90 mmHg

    Correct Answer
    Hypertension
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "Hypertension." Hypertension refers to persistent high blood pressure with a systolic reading above 140 mmHg and/or a diastolic reading above 90 mmHg. This condition can lead to various health problems, including heart disease, stroke, and kidney damage. Therefore, the answer accurately describes the condition of having elevated blood pressure.

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  • 8. 

    Heart rate <60 beats per minute

    Correct Answer
    Bradycardia
    Explanation
    Bradycardia is a medical term used to describe a heart rate that is slower than normal, specifically when the heart rate is less than 60 beats per minute. This condition can be caused by various factors such as certain medications, heart diseases, electrolyte imbalances, and underlying medical conditions. Bradycardia can lead to symptoms like dizziness, fatigue, shortness of breath, and fainting. Treatment options for bradycardia depend on the underlying cause and severity of symptoms, and may include medication, lifestyle changes, or medical procedures such as pacemaker implantation.

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  • 9. 

    On which side has heart failure occurred when blood backs up into the lungs

    Correct Answer
    Left
    The left side
    left side
    Explanation
    Heart failure occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to meet the body's demands. When blood backs up into the lungs, it is a sign that the left side of the heart is failing. The left side of the heart receives oxygen-rich blood from the lungs and pumps it out to the rest of the body. If the left side is not functioning properly, blood can accumulate in the lungs, causing symptoms such as shortness of breath and fluid retention. Therefore, the correct answer is "left."

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  • 10. 

    The type of diet appropriate for a client with a cardiovascular disorder.

    • Low Fat

    • Low Cholesterol

    • Low Sodium

    • None of the Above

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the Above
    Explanation
    A client with a cardiovascular disorder should follow a diet that is low in fat, low in cholesterol, and low in sodium. A low-fat diet helps to reduce the intake of saturated and trans fats, which can contribute to high cholesterol levels and increase the risk of heart disease. A low-cholesterol diet helps to limit the intake of dietary cholesterol, which can also contribute to high cholesterol levels. A low-sodium diet helps to reduce the intake of sodium, which can contribute to high blood pressure and strain on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, all of the above options are appropriate for a client with a cardiovascular disorder.

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  • 11. 

    What describes: Scarring of the blood vessels in the retina due to diabetes?

    • Diabetic Retinopathy

    • Diabetic Cataracts

    • Presbyopia

    • Glaucoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetic Retinopathy
    Explanation
    Diabetic retinopathy is the correct answer because it refers to the scarring of the blood vessels in the retina caused by diabetes. This condition occurs when high levels of blood sugar damage the tiny blood vessels in the retina, leading to vision problems and potential blindness if left untreated. Diabetic cataracts, presbyopia, and glaucoma are not specifically related to scarring of the blood vessels in the retina due to diabetes.

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  • 12. 

    What is anaemia?

    • Low white blood cells

    • Low platelets

    • Lack of oxygen in the blood

    • Low red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Low red blood cells
    Explanation
    Anaemia is a condition characterized by a low number of red blood cells in the blood. Red blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen to the body's tissues, so a decrease in their count results in a lack of oxygen in the blood. This can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. Low white blood cells and low platelets are not directly related to anaemia.

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  • 13. 

    The best time to obtain a sputum specimen.

    Correct Answer
    Before breakfast
    Explanation
    Obtaining a sputum specimen before breakfast is considered the best time because the patient's airways are usually more congested in the morning due to accumulated mucus overnight. This congestion makes it easier for the patient to cough up sputum, which is necessary for a successful specimen collection. Additionally, obtaining the specimen before breakfast ensures that the patient has not eaten or drunk anything that could potentially contaminate the sample, providing a more accurate result for diagnostic purposes.

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  • 14. 

    How should a sputum specimen be obtained?

    • Before Breakfast

    • After client has rinsed mouth out with water

    • When following standard precautions

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    A sputum specimen should be obtained before breakfast, after the client has rinsed their mouth out with water, and when following standard precautions. Obtaining the specimen before breakfast ensures that the sputum is not contaminated by food particles. Rinsing the mouth out with water helps to remove any remaining food particles or debris. Following standard precautions, such as wearing gloves and using a sterile container, ensures that the specimen is collected in a safe and hygienic manner. Therefore, all of the above options are correct for obtaining a sputum specimen.

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  • 15. 

    What restrictions are important when caring for a client with a hip fracture?

    • Affected leg abducted

    • Prevent external rotation

    • Follow flexion restrictions

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    When caring for a client with a hip fracture, it is important to follow certain restrictions. The affected leg should be abducted, meaning it should be kept apart from the body. This helps to prevent further injury and promotes proper healing. Additionally, external rotation should be prevented, as this can put strain on the hip joint. Lastly, flexion restrictions should be followed, which means avoiding excessive bending of the hip joint. All of these restrictions are important to ensure the client's safety and aid in their recovery.

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  • 16. 

    Heart rate > 100 beats per minute

    Correct Answer
    Tachycardia
    Explanation
    Tachycardia refers to a condition where the heart rate exceeds the normal range, which is typically around 60-100 beats per minute. In this case, the given information states that the heart rate is greater than 100 beats per minute, indicating tachycardia. Tachycardia can occur due to various reasons, such as physical activity, stress, certain medications, or underlying medical conditions. It is important to identify the underlying cause of tachycardia and seek appropriate medical intervention if necessary.

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  • 17. 

    This respiratory disorder presents itself with night sweats and chills

    Correct Answer
    Tuberculosis
    Explanation
    Tuberculosis is a respiratory disorder that is characterized by night sweats and chills. These symptoms often occur during the night and can be accompanied by other signs such as coughing, weight loss, and fatigue. Tuberculosis is caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis and primarily affects the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body. It is a contagious disease that can be transmitted through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent the spread of tuberculosis and manage the symptoms.

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  • 18. 

    What is metastasis?

    • The deterioration of lung walls due to carbon monoxide buildup

    • The spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body

    • The decrease of white blood cell levels in the body, causing the bodies immune system to ultimately shut down

    • Inflammation of the breast caused by cancerous cells

    Correct Answer
    A. The spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body
    Explanation
    Metastasis refers to the spread of cancer cells from the original tumor to other parts of the body. This process occurs when cancer cells break away from the primary tumor and enter the bloodstream or lymphatic system, allowing them to travel to distant sites and form new tumors. Metastasis is a key characteristic of malignant tumors and is responsible for the majority of cancer-related deaths. It indicates an advanced stage of cancer and poses challenges for treatment and prognosis.

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  • 19. 

    Which neurological disorder is associated with myelin-sheath deterioration?

    • MS (multiple sclerosis)

    • CVA (stroke)

    • Parkinson's

    • SCI (spinal cord injury)

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. MS (multiple sclerosis)
    Explanation
    Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder characterized by the deterioration of the myelin sheath, the protective covering of nerve fibers in the central nervous system. This deterioration disrupts the normal flow of electrical impulses along the nerves, leading to a wide range of symptoms such as muscle weakness, coordination problems, and cognitive impairment. MS is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks the myelin, causing inflammation and damage. Therefore, MS is the correct answer for the question.

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  • 20. 

    Can hemiplegia result from ABI

    • Yes

    • No

    • Depends on gender of client

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes
    Explanation
    Hemiplegia can result from Acquired Brain Injury (ABI). ABI refers to any damage to the brain that occurs after birth and can be caused by various factors such as trauma, stroke, or infection. Hemiplegia is a condition characterized by paralysis or weakness on one side of the body, and it can be a common consequence of ABI. The damage to the brain can disrupt the signals that control movement and coordination, leading to hemiplegia. Therefore, it is possible for hemiplegia to result from ABI.

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  • 21. 

    Tissue death resulting from lack of circulation due to, frost bite, infection, burns, injuries, or circulatory disorders.

    Correct Answer
    Gangrene
    Explanation
    Gangrene is the term used to describe tissue death that occurs when there is a lack of circulation. This can be caused by various factors such as frostbite, infection, burns, injuries, or circulatory disorders. When blood flow is restricted, the affected tissue does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, leading to its death. Gangrene typically presents with symptoms such as discoloration, swelling, and a foul odor. If left untreated, it can spread and become life-threatening.

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  • 22. 

    What two symptoms must be present for a diagnosis of influenza?

    Correct Answer
    Cough and Fever
    Fever and Cough
    Cough Fever
    Fever Cough
    Explanation
    The two symptoms that must be present for a diagnosis of influenza are cough and fever. Both of these symptoms are commonly associated with the flu and are often used as criteria for diagnosing the illness. While the order in which the symptoms are listed may vary, the presence of both cough and fever is necessary for a diagnosis of influenza.

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  • 23. 

    This chronic obstructive pulmonary disease results in alveoli losing elasticity and not recoiling during expiration.

    Correct Answer
    Emphysema
    Explanation
    Emphysema is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease that causes damage to the alveoli in the lungs. The alveoli, which are responsible for gas exchange, lose their elasticity and become stretched out. As a result, they are unable to recoil properly during expiration, leading to difficulty in exhaling air. This leads to a decrease in lung function and symptoms such as shortness of breath and wheezing. Emphysema is often caused by long-term exposure to irritants, such as cigarette smoke, and is commonly associated with chronic bronchitis.

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  • 24. 

    This term defines paralysis on one side of the body

    Correct Answer
    Hemiplegia
    Explanation
    Hemiplegia is a term that refers to paralysis on one side of the body. It is a condition that can be caused by various factors, such as stroke, brain injury, or spinal cord injury. The paralysis typically affects the arm, leg, and sometimes the face on one side of the body. This condition can result in difficulty with movement, coordination, and balance on the affected side. Treatment for hemiplegia may involve physical therapy, occupational therapy, and medications to manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

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  • 25. 

    Infection, nerve damage, and pressure ulcers can be complications from this sturdy apparatus.

    Correct Answer
    cast
    Explanation
    Infection, nerve damage, and pressure ulcers can be complications from a cast. A cast is a sturdy apparatus used to immobilize and support a broken or injured bone during the healing process. Due to its rigid nature and the fact that it covers a large area of the body, a cast can create an environment where bacteria can thrive, leading to infection. Additionally, the pressure exerted by the cast on the surrounding tissues can cause nerve damage and result in symptoms such as numbness or tingling. Furthermore, the pressure and lack of movement can lead to the development of pressure ulcers, also known as bed sores, especially in individuals who are unable to reposition themselves regularly.

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  • 26. 

    This sided heart failure occurred when blood backs up into the lungs

    Correct Answer
    left
    left sided
    Explanation
    Left-sided heart failure occurs when the left side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the rest of the body. As a result, blood backs up into the lungs, leading to symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and fluid retention. This is why the correct answer is "left" and "left-sided," as it accurately describes the condition where blood backs up into the lungs due to the left side of the heart being affected.

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  • 27. 

    Is multiple sclerosis more common in...

    • Men

    • Women

    • Undetermined

    Correct Answer
    A. Women
    Explanation
    Multiple sclerosis is more common in women. This is believed to be due to a combination of genetic and hormonal factors. Women have a higher risk of developing multiple sclerosis compared to men, with the ratio estimated to be around 3:1. Hormonal changes during pregnancy and menopause have been suggested as potential factors influencing the development and progression of the disease. However, the exact reasons for the gender disparity in multiple sclerosis prevalence are still not fully understood.

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  • 28. 

    Hardening of the ossicles leading to conductive hearing loss.

    Correct Answer
    Otosclerosis
    Explanation
    Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by the abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear, specifically around the ossicles. This abnormal bone growth can result in the ossicles becoming fixed and unable to vibrate properly, leading to conductive hearing loss. The hardening of the ossicles in otosclerosis interferes with the transmission of sound waves from the outer to the inner ear, causing a decrease in hearing ability.

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  • 29. 

    What type of diet is appropriate for a client with cardiovascular disease?

    • Low sodium, low-cholesterol, low-fat

    • Low sodium, low-cholesterol, low sugar

    • Low sodium, low sugar, low-fat

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Low sodium, low-cholesterol, low-fat
    Explanation
    A client with cardiovascular disease should follow a low sodium, low-cholesterol, and low-fat diet. This is because excessive intake of sodium, cholesterol, and fat can contribute to the development and progression of cardiovascular disease. A low sodium diet helps to reduce blood pressure, while a low-cholesterol diet helps to lower levels of LDL (bad) cholesterol. Additionally, a low-fat diet helps to control weight and reduce the intake of unhealthy fats that can clog arteries and increase the risk of heart disease.

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  • 30. 

    The term used for accumulation of cholesterol and fibrous tissue on the walls of arteries

    Correct Answer
    Atherosclerosis
    Explanation
    Atherosclerosis refers to the accumulation of cholesterol and fibrous tissue on the walls of arteries. This condition occurs when plaque, made up of cholesterol, fat, calcium, and other substances, builds up in the arteries, causing them to narrow and harden. Over time, this can restrict blood flow and lead to various cardiovascular problems, such as heart attacks and strokes. Atherosclerosis is a common condition associated with aging and lifestyle factors like smoking, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol levels. Regular exercise, a healthy diet, and medication can help manage and prevent the progression of atherosclerosis.

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  • 31. 

    How can a PSW assist the client with respiration?

    • Fowler's positioning with upper body bent forward slightly

    • Coughing and deep-breathing exercises

    • Avoiding exposure to irritants, triggers, and respiratory-tract infections

    • None of the above

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    A PSW can assist the client with respiration by implementing all of the above measures. Fowler's positioning with the upper body bent forward slightly helps to improve lung expansion and oxygenation. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises can help to clear the airways and improve respiratory function. Avoiding exposure to irritants, triggers, and respiratory-tract infections can prevent exacerbations of respiratory conditions. By implementing all of these measures, the PSW can effectively assist the client with their respiration.

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  • 32. 

    What is thrombocytopenia?

    • Lack of white blood cells

    • Lack of red blood cells

    • Low blood platelets

    • Lack of oxygen in the blood

    Correct Answer
    A. Low blood platelets
    Explanation
    Thrombocytopenia refers to a condition characterized by a low platelet count in the blood. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, and a decrease in their numbers can lead to abnormal bleeding and difficulty in clotting. This condition is not related to the lack of white blood cells, red blood cells, or oxygen in the blood.

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  • 33. 

    Do not resemble original tissue, invade other tissues, metastasize, and lead to systemic problems.

    Correct Answer
    Malignant Tumour
    Explanation
    A malignant tumor is characterized by its ability to invade surrounding tissues, spread to other parts of the body (metastasize), and cause systemic problems. Unlike benign tumors, malignant tumors do not resemble the original tissue and exhibit aggressive and uncontrolled growth. These tumors can cause significant harm to the body and are considered cancerous.

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  • 34. 

    What is the term for a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain resulting in neurologic deficit lasting less than 24 hours?

    Correct Answer
    Transient Ischemic Attack
    TIA
    Explanation
    A transient ischemic attack (TIA), also known as a mini-stroke, is a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain that causes neurologic deficits lasting less than 24 hours. It is often caused by a blood clot or plaque buildup in the arteries leading to the brain. TIAs are warning signs of a potential stroke and should be taken seriously as they indicate an increased risk for a full-blown stroke in the future. Prompt medical attention and management of risk factors can help prevent a stroke from occurring.

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  • 35. 

    This condition leads to coronary artery disease

    • COPD

    • Emphysema

    • Hypertension

    • Athersclerosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Athersclerosis
    Explanation
    Atherosclerosis is a condition characterized by the build-up of plaque in the arteries, leading to a narrowing and hardening of the blood vessels. This condition can restrict blood flow to the heart, causing coronary artery disease. COPD and emphysema are respiratory conditions, while hypertension refers to high blood pressure. Therefore, atherosclerosis is the only option that directly relates to coronary artery disease.

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  • 36. 

    Can hemiplegia result from SCI (spinal cord injury)

    • Yes

    • No

    • Depends on gender of client

    Correct Answer
    A. No
    Explanation
    Hemiplegia is a condition characterized by paralysis of one side of the body. It is typically caused by damage to the brain, specifically the motor cortex. SCI, on the other hand, refers to an injury to the spinal cord. While SCI can lead to various forms of paralysis, including paraplegia and quadriplegia, it does not directly cause hemiplegia. Hemiplegia is usually associated with conditions such as stroke or cerebral palsy, which affect the brain rather than the spinal cord. Therefore, the answer is no, hemiplegia cannot result from SCI.

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  • 37. 

    An autoimmune disease resulting in aching, stiffness, and fatigue in muscles, ligaments, and tendons.

    Correct Answer
    Fibromyalgia
    Explanation
    Fibromyalgia is an autoimmune disease that causes symptoms such as muscle aches, stiffness, and fatigue in the muscles, ligaments, and tendons. It is characterized by widespread pain and tenderness throughout the body. This condition is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve abnormalities in the way the brain processes pain signals. It is commonly associated with other conditions such as anxiety, depression, and sleep disturbances. Treatment typically involves a combination of medications, lifestyle changes, and therapy to manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

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  • 38. 

    Resemble original tissue, don't invade other tissues, don't metastasize, and don't recur.

    Correct Answer
    Benign Tumour
    Explanation
    A benign tumor is a type of tumor that closely resembles the original tissue it originated from. It does not invade or spread to other tissues, a process known as metastasis, and does not recur after removal. This means that a benign tumor is non-cancerous and generally does not pose a significant health risk.

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  • 39. 

    Why is it important for a client with a respiratory disorder to be well hydrated?

    • To avoid over exertion

    • To remove excess oxygen in lungs

    • To keep patient hydrated through exercising

    • To liquefy sputum

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. To liquefy sputum
    Explanation
    It is important for a client with a respiratory disorder to be well hydrated in order to liquefy sputum. Adequate hydration helps to thin the mucus in the airways, making it easier to cough up and clear from the lungs. This can help prevent the build-up of mucus and reduce the risk of respiratory complications such as infections or blockages.

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  • 40. 

    Which neurological disorder is associated with decreased levels of dopamine

    Correct Answer
    Parkinson's
    Explanation
    Parkinson's disease is a neurological disorder that is associated with decreased levels of dopamine. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in regulating movement and emotions. In Parkinson's disease, there is a progressive loss of dopamine-producing cells in a specific region of the brain called the substantia nigra. This leads to a decrease in dopamine levels, which in turn causes the characteristic symptoms of the disease, including tremors, rigidity, bradykinesia (slowness of movement), and postural instability.

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  • 41. 

    Why are anorexia, nausea, and vomiting common side effects of right-sided heart failure?

    • Liver and abdomen collapse

    • Liver and abdomen become engorged with water

    • Liver and abdomen become engorged with blood

    • Liver and abdomen suffer tears and breakage of the skin lining

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver and abdomen become engorged with blood
    Explanation
    In right-sided heart failure, the right side of the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation. This leads to a backup of blood in the venous system, including the liver and abdomen. As a result, there is increased pressure in the liver and abdomen, causing them to become engorged with blood. This can lead to symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, and vomiting due to the pressure on the digestive system.

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  • 42. 

    Which interventions decrease bone deterioration from osteoporosis?

    • Estrogen therapy

    • Weight-bearing exercises

    • Calcium and vitamin d supplements

    • None of the above

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the interventions listed in the options can help decrease bone deterioration from osteoporosis. Estrogen therapy can help maintain bone density, weight-bearing exercises can strengthen bones, and calcium and vitamin D supplements can support bone health. Therefore, all of these interventions can be effective in reducing bone deterioration caused by osteoporosis.

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  • 43. 

    An autoimmune disease that leads to sensorineural hearing loss and loss of balance.

    Correct Answer
    Meniere's Disease
    Explanation
    Meniere's disease is an autoimmune disorder characterized by sensorineural hearing loss and loss of balance. This condition occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the inner ear, leading to inflammation and damage. The symptoms of Meniere's disease include episodes of vertigo, fluctuating hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness in the affected ear. The exact cause of Meniere's disease is unknown, but it is believed to be related to a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Treatment options for this condition include medications to manage symptoms, dietary changes, and in severe cases, surgery may be recommended.

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  • 44. 

    This type of heart failure results in blood backing up into the body

    • Left-sided heart failure

    • Right-sided heart failure

    • Right-ventricle heart failure

    • Left-ventricle heart failure

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Right-sided heart failure
    Explanation
    Right-sided heart failure occurs when the right side of the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, causing blood to back up into the body. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the legs, ankles, and abdomen, as well as other symptoms such as fatigue and shortness of breath. Unlike left-sided heart failure, which causes blood to back up into the lungs, right-sided heart failure primarily affects the systemic circulation.

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  • 45. 

    Name one of the five warning signs of stroke

    Correct Answer
    sudden change in vision
    sudden aphasia
    numbness, tingling, weakness in leg arm and face
    sudden, severe headache
    sudden dizziness
    Explanation
    The correct answer includes five warning signs of a stroke: sudden change in vision, sudden aphasia, numbness, tingling, weakness in leg arm and face, sudden severe headache, and sudden dizziness. These symptoms can occur suddenly and may indicate a stroke is happening. It is important to recognize these signs and seek immediate medical attention as stroke is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment to minimize damage to the brain.

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  • 46. 

    What types of "exercises" can improve respiration?

    • Deep breathing, sitting in prone position, coughing

    • Coughing, deep breathing, ambulating

    • Coughing, deep breathing, incentive spirometry

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Coughing, deep breathing, incentive spirometry
    Explanation
    Coughing, deep breathing, and incentive spirometry are all types of exercises that can improve respiration. Coughing helps to clear the airways and remove mucus, deep breathing helps to expand the lungs and increase oxygen intake, and incentive spirometry is a breathing exercise that helps to improve lung function and prevent complications such as pneumonia. Therefore, all of the above exercises can be beneficial for improving respiration.

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  • 47. 

    Why is stress management important for a person with rheumatoid arthritis?

    • Stress bums them out

    • Stress can lead to heart attack

    • Stress triggers symptoms

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Stress triggers symptoms
    Explanation
    Stress triggers symptoms in a person with rheumatoid arthritis. This is because stress can worsen inflammation and pain, leading to increased joint stiffness and fatigue. Managing stress is important for individuals with rheumatoid arthritis to reduce the impact of symptoms on their daily life and overall well-being.

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  • 48. 

    Mask like facial expression and shuffling gate are two classic signs of which disorder?

    • Multiple Sclerosis

    • Spinal Cord Injury

    • Paraplegia

    • Cerebrovascular Accident (stroke)

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is none of the above. Mask-like facial expression and shuffling gait are classic signs of Parkinson's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder that affects movement and coordination.

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  • 49. 

    Why are anorexia, nausea, and vomiting common side effects of right-sided heart failure?

    Correct Answer
    Liver and abdomen become engorged with blood
    live and abdomen fill with blood
    Abdomen and liver become engorged with blood
    abdomen and liver fill with blood
    Explanation
    In right-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood to the lungs for oxygenation. This leads to a backup of blood in the venous circulation, causing increased pressure in the veins that drain into the right side of the heart. One of the consequences of this increased pressure is the leakage of fluid into the liver and abdomen, leading to engorgement. This engorgement can result in anorexia, nausea, and vomiting as the digestive system is affected by the excess fluid and pressure.

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