HLAB 1401 Exam 3 Healthcare Setting, Lab Services, And Math
Practice quiz/review for HCCS HLAB 1402 Exam 3. Please take time to read carefully.
- 1.
In the healthcare setting, there are many services. What term does NOT pertain to Ambulatory services?
- A.
Primary services
- B.
Outpatient services
- C.
Secondary services
- D.
Local Health Department services
- E.
Tertiary services
Correct Answer
E. Tertiary servicesExplanation
Tertiary services do not pertain to Ambulatory services. Ambulatory services refer to healthcare services that do not require an overnight stay in a hospital, such as outpatient services. Primary services are the first level of healthcare, while secondary services are specialized medical care provided by medical specialists. Local Health Department services are public health services provided by local government agencies. Tertiary services, on the other hand, refer to highly specialized and complex medical care, often provided in specialized hospitals or medical centers.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which answer choice correctly lists examples of Inpatient/Tertiary/Nonambulatory services?
- A.
Health education, Vaccinations, STD clinics, Health screenings(drugs,TB, HIV, cancer, etc.), Vitals Statistics
- B.
PCP(primary care provider), Specialists, Diagnostic testings, Nursing care, Nursing homes, Extended care, Rehab centers, & Hospice
- C.
GP(general practitioner), Pediatrician, Internist, Physician's office
- D.
Medical specialties(cardiology, dermatology, psychiatry, etc), Physician's office, ER, Radiology, Clinics, Same-day surgery
- E.
Home-health services(nursing, labwork, RR or respiratory therapist, PT or physical therapist)
Correct Answer
B. PCP(primary care provider), Specialists, Diagnostic testings, Nursing care, Nursing homes, Extended care, Rehab centers, & HospiceExplanation
The answer choice correctly lists examples of Inpatient/Tertiary/Nonambulatory services. PCP (primary care provider), Specialists, Diagnostic testings, Nursing care, Nursing homes, Extended care, Rehab centers, and Hospice are all examples of services that are provided to patients who require inpatient or nonambulatory care. These services are typically provided in a hospital or long-term care facility setting, rather than in an outpatient or ambulatory setting.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which abbreviation is correctly matched with its full name?
- A.
ICD-9-CM: International Code of Diseases, 9th revision, Classification Modification
- B.
CPT: Correct Procedural Terminology
- C.
PPS: Prospective Payment System
- D.
DRG's: Drug Related Groups
- E.
APC: Ambulatory Patient Code
Correct Answer
C. PPS: Prospective Payment SystemExplanation
The abbreviation PPS is correctly matched with its full name "Prospective Payment System".Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which statement is FALSE?
- A.
DRG's, or Diagnosis-Related Groups, are part of the American Hospital Association's billing system which is organized by disease categories.
- B.
APC, or Ambulatory Patient Classification, was established in 2000 for hospital charges of outpatient services.
- C.
PPS, or the Prospective Payment System, was established in 1983 and used for Medicaid and Medicare hospitalization.
- D.
The ICD-9-CM is specifically used for physician charges, while CPT or Currect Procedural Terminology is used for inpatient hospital billing.
- E.
None of the Above.
Correct Answer
D. The ICD-9-CM is specifically used for physician charges, while CPT or Currect Procedural Terminology is used for inpatient hospital billing.Explanation
The statement that is FALSE is that the ICD-9-CM is specifically used for physician charges, while CPT or Current Procedural Terminology is used for inpatient hospital billing. In reality, it is the opposite. The ICD-9-CM is a coding system used for inpatient hospital billing, while CPT is used for physician charges and outpatient services.Rate this question:
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- 5.
HIPAA establishes policies to ensure privacy of all electronic exchanges of medical information, including billing and other finances. What does HIPAA regulate in regards to billing and finances? note: choose the best THREE answer choices
- A.
Referrals to other healthcare professionals
- B.
Communication with health insurance companies
- C.
Establishment of a universal billing code system
- D.
Eligibility for Medicaid public welfare
- E.
All of the above.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Referrals to other healthcare professionals
B. Communication with health insurance companies
C. Establishment of a universal billing code systemExplanation
HIPAA regulates the communication with health insurance companies to ensure the privacy of electronic exchanges of medical information. It also regulates the establishment of a universal billing code system to standardize billing processes. Additionally, HIPAA regulates referrals to other healthcare professionals to ensure the privacy and security of patient information during the referral process.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which statement is FALSE?
- A.
Medicare is funded by social security, while Medicaid is funded by federal and state grants.
- B.
Medicare is based on need/public welfare eligibility, while Medicaid is based on entitelment
- C.
Medicaid has no minimum age, while Medicare has a minimum age of 65.
- D.
Medicare categorizes its financial reimbursement with Part A being hospital services and Part B being
Correct Answer
B. Medicare is based on need/public welfare eligibility, while Medicaid is based on entitelmentExplanation
Medicare is actually based on entitlement, meaning that individuals who meet certain criteria are entitled to receive the benefits. On the other hand, Medicaid is based on need/public welfare eligibility, where individuals must meet specific income and asset requirements in order to qualify for the program.Rate this question:
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- 7.
A Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) is a managed healthcare plan consisting of independent health providers that contract with employers at discounted rates. True or False?
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The correct answer is False. A Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) is a managed healthcare plan consisting of a network of healthcare providers that contract with the HMO to provide services to its members at discounted rates. The HMO itself does not contract directly with employers.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The 3 primary/essential service areas of healthcare facilities is 1) Patient Care, 2) Professional Services, and 3) Support Services. Choose ALL answer choices that correctly match the type of service with its examples. hint: There are three correct answer choices.
- A.
Dietary services, Environmental Services, Health Information Technology(ie.medical records) are examples Patient Care services.
- B.
Occupational Therapy(OT), Pharmacy, Physical Therapy(PT), and Pathology and Clinical Laboratory are exaples of Professional Services.
- C.
Pathology and Clinical Laboratory, Neurology(EEG), Cardiodiagnostics(EKG/ECG), and Respiratory Therapy(RT) are examples of Patient Care Services.
- D.
Nursing Care, Emergency Services, Intensive Care Units(ICU), and Surgery are examples of Patient Care services.
- E.
Central Supply, Environmental services, Dietary services, and Health Information Technology are examples of Support Services.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Occupational Therapy(OT), Pharmacy, Physical Therapy(PT), and Pathology and Clinical Laboratory are exaples of Professional Services.
D. Nursing Care, Emergency Services, Intensive Care Units(ICU), and Surgery are examples of Patient Care services.
E. Central Supply, Environmental services, Dietary services, and Health Information Technology are examples of Support Services.Explanation
The examples provided in the answer choices match the type of service with its respective category. Occupational Therapy (OT), Pharmacy, Physical Therapy (PT), and Pathology and Clinical Laboratory are all examples of Professional Services. Nursing Care, Emergency Services, Intensive Care Units (ICU), and Surgery are examples of Patient Care services. Central Supply, Environmental services, Dietary services, and Health Information Technology are examples of Support Services.Rate this question:
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- 9.
There are many different departments in both the Clinical labs and the Anatomic/Surgical Pathology labs. Which list only contains departments from the Clinical Labs?
- A.
Hematology, Histology, Emergency testing STAT labs, and Coagulation
- B.
Blood bank, Coagulation, Cytology, and Cytogenetics
- C.
Histology, Cytology, Cytogenetics, and Reference STAT labs
- D.
Chemistry, Immunology/Serology, Urinalysis(UA), and Microbiology
- E.
Hematology, Chemistry, Coagulation, and Histology
Correct Answer
D. Chemistry, Immunology/Serology, Urinalysis(UA), and MicrobiologyExplanation
The departments listed in the answer (Chemistry, Immunology/Serology, Urinalysis(UA), and Microbiology) are all departments typically found in Clinical Labs. These departments focus on analyzing bodily fluids and tissues to diagnose and monitor diseases and conditions. Hematology, Histology, Coagulation, and Cytogenetics are departments commonly found in Anatomic/Surgical Pathology labs, which deal with the examination of tissues and organs for diagnosis and research purposes. Blood bank and Emergency testing STAT labs are not specific departments but rather specialized areas within Clinical Labs. Cytology is also not exclusive to Clinical Labs as it is also commonly found in Anatomic/Surgical Pathology labs.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which statement correctly defines each lab department in the order given: 1) Chemistry, 2) Immunology/Serology, 3) Histology, 4) Cytology, 5) Cytogenetics, and 6) Reference STAT labs
- A.
1) Body system pathology, 2) Tests for antibodies and other disease indicators, 3) microscopic examination of cells, 4) microscopic examination of tissue, 5) Karyotyping or study of chromosomes, and 6) private labs with fast turnaround having high volume at lower costs
- B.
1) Karyotyping, 2) Body system pathology, 3) Microscopic examination of tissue, 4) microscopic examination of cells, 5) Tests for antibodies and other disease indicators, and 6) Private labs with fast turnaround having high volume at lower costs
- C.
1) Body system pathology, 2) Tests for antibodies and other disease indicators, 3) Microscopic examination of tissue, 4) Microscopic examination of cells, 5) Karyotyping or study of chromosomes, and 6) Private labs with fast turnaround having high volume at lower costs
Correct Answer
C. 1) Body system pathology, 2) Tests for antibodies and other disease indicators, 3) Microscopic examination of tissue, 4) Microscopic examination of cells, 5) Karyotyping or study of chromosomes, and 6) Private labs with fast turnaround having high volume at lower costsExplanation
The correct answer defines each lab department in the given order. The first department, Chemistry, is responsible for body system pathology. The second department, Immunology/Serology, conducts tests for antibodies and other disease indicators. The third department, Histology, performs microscopic examination of tissue. The fourth department, Cytology, conducts microscopic examination of cells. The fifth department, Cytogenetics, is responsible for karyotyping or studying chromosomes. The sixth department, Reference STAT labs, represents private labs with fast turnaround, high volume, and lower costs.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The Hematology department tests for many components that include 1) Hematocrit, 2) Platelets, 3) Eosinophils, 4) Reticulocytes, and 5) Hgb S. Which answer choice gives the clinical significance of these tests in the order given?
- A.
1) Complete blood count by a Coulter counter, 2) hemorrhagic disease can occur when LOW, 3) indicates allergies or parasitic infection when HIGH, 4) indicates hyperactive bone marrow and anemia when HIGH, 5) indicates Sickle Cell
- B.
1) Complete blood count by a Coulter counter, 2) indicates hyperactive bone marrow and anemia when HIGH, 3) indicates allergies or parasitic infection when HIGH, 4) indicates anemia when RBC and hemoglobin is LOW, 5) indicates Sickle Cell
- C.
1) indicates anemia when RBC and hemoglobin is LOW, 2) indicates hyperactive bone marrow and anemia when HIGH, 3) detects allergies or parasitic infection when HIGH, 4) indicates allergies or parasitic infection when HIGH, 5) indicates Sickle Cell
- D.
1) indicates anemia when RBC and hemoglobin is LOW, 2) hemorrhagic disease can occur when LOW, 3) detects allergies or parasitic infection when HIGH, 4) indicates hyperactive bone marrow and anemia when HIGH, 5) indicates Sickle Cell
- E.
None of the above
Correct Answer
D. 1) indicates anemia when RBC and hemoglobin is LOW, 2) hemorrhagic disease can occur when LOW, 3) detects allergies or parasitic infection when HIGH, 4) indicates hyperactive bone marrow and anemia when HIGH, 5) indicates Sickle CellExplanation
The correct answer provides the clinical significance of the tests in the order given. It states that low levels of RBC and hemoglobin indicate anemia, low platelet levels can lead to hemorrhagic disease, high levels of eosinophils indicate allergies or parasitic infection, high levels of reticulocytes indicate hyperactive bone marrow and anemia, and the presence of Hgb S indicates Sickle Cell disease.Rate this question:
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- 12.
In the Chemistry department, certain tests can detect dangerous levels of: 1) blood urea nitrogen(BUN), 2) cholesterol, 3) low creatine kinase, 4) ammonia, 5) bilirubin, 6) glucose, 7) lipase, and 8) prostate specific antigen(PSA). Which list indicates the disease related to each substance?
- A.
1) kidney disease, 2) heart disease, 3) liver disease, 4) kidney disease: hepatitis, cirrhosis, 5) liver disease: hepatitis, cirrhosis, excess lysis of RBC, 6) pancreas dysfunction: diabetes, 7) pancreas dysfunction: pancreatitis, cancer, 8) prostate cancer
- B.
1) kidney disease, 2) heart disease, 3) muscular dystrophy, 4) liver disease: hepatitis, cirrhosis, 5) liver disease: liver obstruction, excess lysis of RBC, 6) pancreas dysfunction: diabetes, 7) pancreas dysfunction: pancreatitis, cancer, 8) prostate cancer
- C.
1) kidney disease, 2) heart disease, 3) muscular dystrophy, 4) pancreas dysfunction: pancreas obstruction, 5) liver disease: hepatitis, cirrhosis, 6) liver dysfunction: diabetes, 7) pancreas dysfunction: pancreatitis, cancer, 8) prostate cancer
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
B. 1) kidney disease, 2) heart disease, 3) muscular dystrophy, 4) liver disease: hepatitis, cirrhosis, 5) liver disease: liver obstruction, excess lysis of RBC, 6) pancreas dysfunction: diabetes, 7) pancreas dysfunction: pancreatitis, cancer, 8) prostate cancerExplanation
The correct answer indicates the disease related to each substance as follows: 1) kidney disease, 2) heart disease, 3) muscular dystrophy, 4) liver disease: hepatitis, cirrhosis, 5) liver disease: liver obstruction, excess lysis of RBC, 6) pancreas dysfunction: diabetes, 7) pancreas dysfunction: pancreatitis, cancer, 8) prostate cancer. This means that high levels of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicate kidney disease, cholesterol is related to heart disease, low creatine kinase levels are associated with muscular dystrophy, ammonia and bilirubin are indicators of liver disease, glucose levels are related to pancreas dysfunction and diabetes, lipase levels are associated with pancreas dysfunction and pancreatitis or cancer, and prostate specific antigen (PSA) is related to prostate cancer.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The Immunology/Serology lab tests different components of blood serum such as antibodies, antigens, and Rh factor. What disorder is indicated by each test: 1) EBV or Epstein-barr virus, 2) HBsAG or Hepatic B Surface Antigen, 3) antinuclear antibody, and 4) RF or Rheumatoid factor
- A.
1) Cytomegalovirus, 2) hepatitis antigen on RBC's, 3) syphilis, 4) arthritis
- B.
1) mononucleosis (an infection), 2) hepatitis antigen on RBC's, 3) Lupus, 4) arthritis
- C.
1) mononucleosis (an infection), 2) hepatitis antigen on RBC's, 3) Lupus, 4) arthritis
- D.
1) Cytomegalovirus, 2) hepatits antigen on RBC's, 3) lupus, 4) syphilis
Correct Answer
C. 1) mononucleosis (an infection), 2) hepatitis antigen on RBC's, 3) Lupus, 4) arthritisExplanation
The correct answer indicates that the EBV test is used to detect mononucleosis, the HBsAG test is used to detect hepatitis antigen on RBC's, the antinuclear antibody test is used to detect Lupus, and the RF test is used to detect arthritis.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A sterile collection is taken in the Microbiology department. Which of the following answer choices do you NOT know the definition of? choose that/them as your answer...then look them up. ^_^
- A.
Culture & Sensitivity
- B.
AFB stain
- C.
CLOtests
- D.
Gram stain
- E.
Occult blood in stool
Correct Answer(s)
A. Culture & Sensitivity
E. Occult blood in stoolExplanation
Culture & Sensitivity is a laboratory test used to identify the microorganisms causing an infection and determine their sensitivity to specific antibiotics. It involves growing the microorganisms in a culture medium and then exposing them to different antibiotics to see which ones are effective in killing or inhibiting their growth. This test helps in selecting the most appropriate antibiotic treatment for an infection. On the other hand, occult blood in stool refers to the presence of small amounts of blood that cannot be seen with the naked eye but can be detected through laboratory tests. It is used to screen for gastrointestinal bleeding or other underlying conditions.Rate this question:
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Mar 22, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 18, 2008Quiz Created by
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