HLAB 1401 Exam 2 Quality Assurance, And Legal Issues

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  • 1/26 Questions

    Out of these five criteria, which one is NOT part of the NAACLS criteria for entry-level histotechnician competencies?

    • Properly maintain all laboratory equipment.
    • Correctly diagnose prepared tissue slides.
    • Identify tissue structures and staining characteristics.
    • Pursue continuing education.
    • Receive and accession, or log in, specimens.
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About This Quiz


Review for Exam 2 is based on the QA/Legal Issues powerpoint and parts of the Professionalism powerpoint.

HLAB 1401 Exam 2 Quality Assurance, And Legal Issues - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is included in the NAACLS's criteria for a competent entry-level histototech? Identify ALL answer choices that are correct.

    • Demonstrate professional conduct and interpersonal communication skills with patients, healthcare professionals, and the public

    • Recognize factors that affect procedures and results, and implement standard corrective measures

    • Study the nature, cause, and development of diseases in people.

    • Direct all the activities of the pathology department.

    • Assist with gross examination and adequately section frozen tissue

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Demonstrate professional conduct and interpersonal communication skills with patients, healthcare professionals, and the public
    A. Recognize factors that affect procedures and results, and implement standard corrective measures
    A. Assist with gross examination and adequately section frozen tissue
    Explanation
    The correct answer choices for the NAACLS's criteria for a competent entry-level histototech include demonstrating professional conduct and interpersonal communication skills with patients, healthcare professionals, and the public. This is important as histotechs often interact with various individuals in a healthcare setting. Additionally, recognizing factors that affect procedures and results and implementing standard corrective measures is crucial for maintaining accuracy and quality in histotechnology. Lastly, assisting with gross examination and adequately sectioning frozen tissue are important technical skills that a competent histototech should possess.

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  • 3. 

    As a professional histotech, following ethical behavior is required by NAACLS.  What is the general term for ethics in the work place?

    • A positive attitude.

    • Personal hygeine.

    • Performing more than what is required for the given profession.

    • Professional standards in work practices and behaviors.

    Correct Answer
    A. Professional standards in work practices and behaviors.
    Explanation
    The general term for ethics in the workplace is professional standards in work practices and behaviors. This refers to the set of guidelines and principles that professionals are expected to follow in their work, including being honest, respectful, and maintaining confidentiality. These standards ensure that professionals act responsibly and ethically in their interactions with colleagues, clients, and the public.

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  • 4. 

    The largest accreditation agency is JCAHO.  What does this abbreviation stand for?

    • Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations

    • Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Organizations

    • Joint Commission for Academic Hospital Organizations

    • Judicial Council of Anti-Hate Organizations

    Correct Answer
    A. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations
    Explanation
    JCAHO stands for Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations. This agency is responsible for accrediting and certifying healthcare organizations in the United States. They set standards and guidelines for healthcare quality and safety, and conduct regular inspections and evaluations to ensure compliance. The correct answer option accurately represents the full form of the abbreviation.

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  • 5. 

    What is the correct order of steps generally taken by the JCAHO Office of Quality Monitoring once they recieve a complaint from patients, family members, and hospital employees?

    • Evaluate how well the hospital deals with complaint, then immediately make an unannounced visit to the hospital, and then obtain a submitted response from the hospital concerning the complaint.

    • Enter complaint into a database, then receive a written response from the hospital about the complaint, and then evaluate the hospital's compliance to address the issue.

    • Immediately make an unannounced site visit, then evaluate the hospital's compliance to address the issue, and then analyze the trends on the complaint database.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enter complaint into a database, then receive a written response from the hospital about the complaint, and then evaluate the hospital's compliance to address the issue.
    Explanation
    The correct order of steps generally taken by the JCAHO Office of Quality Monitoring once they receive a complaint is to enter the complaint into a database, then receive a written response from the hospital about the complaint, and then evaluate the hospital's compliance to address the issue. This ensures that the complaint is properly documented, allows the hospital to provide their perspective, and then allows for an evaluation of whether the hospital has taken appropriate action to address the complaint.

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  • 6. 

    The College of American Pathologists, or CAP, is an outgrowth of ASCP.  What does ASCP stand for?

    • American Society for Cruelty Prevention

    • Association of Standard Clinical Practices

    • American Society of Clinical Pathologists.

    • Association of Superior Clinical Pathology

    Correct Answer
    A. American Society of Clinical Pathologists.
    Explanation
    ASCP stands for the American Society of Clinical Pathologists. This organization is the predecessor of the College of American Pathologists (CAP). The CAP was formed as an outgrowth of ASCP, indicating that it evolved from ASCP and inherited its principles and objectives.

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  • 7. 

    The College of American Pathologists (CAP) does not compete with the JCAHO accreditation service becuase CAP only addresses Pathology laboratory standards.  What exactly does the College of American Pathologists (CAP) do?

    • They manage federal healthcare programs concerned with pathology and laboratories.

    • They provide proficiency testing and onsite inspection for all healthcare facilities.

    • They provide proficiency testing and onsite inspection for laboratories.

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. They provide proficiency testing and onsite inspection for laboratories.
    Explanation
    The College of American Pathologists (CAP) provides proficiency testing and onsite inspection for laboratories. This means that CAP assesses the quality and accuracy of laboratory testing by conducting proficiency testing, which involves sending samples to laboratories for analysis and evaluating their performance. CAP also performs onsite inspections to ensure that laboratories comply with the standards and guidelines set by CAP. Therefore, the correct answer is that CAP provides proficiency testing and onsite inspection for laboratories.

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  • 8. 

    What is the abreviation for the institute that develops global standards for all areas of the laboratory? hint: The institute was originall called the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards (NCCLS)

    • CLSI

    • CLIA

    • NAACLS

    • ASCP

    Correct Answer
    A. CLSI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CLSI. CLSI stands for Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute, which is the institute that develops global standards for all areas of the laboratory. It was originally called the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards (NCCLS).

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  • 9. 

    In 1988, this Amendment was administered to establish a standard of quality within an institution's adopted Quality Assurance and Quality Control programs, proficieny tests, personnel qualifications, etc.  What is this Amendment called and what is the agency that adminstered it?

    • Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988(CLIA '88), Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

    • Healthcare Improvement Amendments of 1988, Centeres of Medicare and medicaid Services

    • Quality Impovement for Laboratories Amendments of 1988 (QILA '88)

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988(CLIA '88), Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988 (CLIA '88), Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services. This amendment was established in 1988 to set a standard of quality for various aspects of laboratory operations, such as quality assurance and quality control programs, proficiency tests, and personnel qualifications. The agency responsible for administering this amendment is the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

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  • 10. 

    What does the National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS) accredit?

    • Quality Assurance programs

    • Laboratory safety procedures

    • Educational programs

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Educational programs
    Explanation
    The National Accrediting Agency for Clinical Laboratory Sciences (NAACLS) accredits educational programs. This means that they evaluate and ensure the quality and standards of these programs to ensure that they meet the necessary requirements and provide students with the knowledge and skills needed for a career in clinical laboratory sciences. They do not accredit quality assurance programs or laboratory safety procedures.

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  • 11. 

    Many unfortunate outcomes such as death, loss of limb function, and psyhlogical distress can occur when providing health care.  What is NOT one of the steps implemented by Risk Management committees in order to identify and minimize these sentinel/harmful events?

    • Investigate cause of sentinel event

    • Prevent others from knowing about sentinel event

    • Implement remedial actions

    • Monitor effectiveness of remedial actions

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevent others from knowing about sentinel event
    Explanation
    Risk Management committees are responsible for identifying and minimizing sentinel/harmful events in healthcare. One of the steps they take is to investigate the cause of the sentinel event, which helps in understanding what went wrong and how to prevent it in the future. They also implement remedial actions to address the issues that led to the event and monitor the effectiveness of these actions to ensure they are working as intended. However, preventing others from knowing about the sentinel event is not a step taken by Risk Management committees. Transparency and communication are vital in learning from mistakes and improving patient safety.

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  • 12. 

    What is the difference between Quality Assurance and  Quality Control?

    • Quality Assurance is regularly reviewing patient care outcomes while Quality Control is a subset of Quality Assurance and uses check points to record how well an institution meets standards at all times.

    • Quality Control is regularly reviewing patient care outcomes while Quality Assurance is a subset of Quality Control and uses check points to record how well an institution meets standards at all times.

    • Quality Assurance is a measurable indicator while Quality Control consists of established threshold values.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance is regularly reviewing patient care outcomes while Quality Control is a subset of Quality Assurance and uses check points to record how well an institution meets standards at all times.
    Explanation
    Quality Assurance and Quality Control are both important aspects of ensuring quality in any institution or organization. Quality Assurance involves regularly reviewing patient care outcomes, which means continuously monitoring and evaluating the quality of care provided to patients. On the other hand, Quality Control is a subset of Quality Assurance and focuses on using checkpoints to record how well an institution meets standards at all times. This means that Quality Control involves implementing specific measures and processes to ensure that the institution is meeting the required standards and guidelines. In summary, Quality Assurance is about reviewing outcomes, while Quality Control is about monitoring and recording adherence to standards.

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  • 13. 

    Documentation is part  of establishing a good Quality Assurance program.  Which of these types of documents is the most important of legal documents?

    • QC Charts and Incident Reports

    • Equipment Manuals

    • Procedural Manuals

    • Medical Records

    • Chemical Safety Manuals

    Correct Answer
    A. Medical Records
    Explanation
    Medical records are the most important legal documents in a Quality Assurance program because they contain crucial information about a patient's medical history, treatment, and care. These records are legally protected and must be accurate, complete, and confidential. They serve as evidence in legal proceedings and are essential for ensuring patient safety and quality of care. Medical records also provide valuable data for analyzing and improving healthcare processes, identifying trends, and implementing necessary changes to enhance the overall quality of healthcare services.

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  • 14. 

    Sentinel events in the Histology Lab consists of loss of tissue, specimen mislabeling and tissue specimens that are non-diagnostic.  Which of the following actions will render a tissue specimen as non-diagnostic?

    • Delayed fixation, causing autolysis.

    • Improper choice of fixative.

    • Improper tissue processor settings.

    • Paraffin temperature too high and improper rotation of reagents.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    All of the above actions can render a tissue specimen as non-diagnostic. Delayed fixation can cause autolysis, which leads to degradation of the tissue. Improper choice of fixative can result in inadequate preservation of the tissue. Improper tissue processor settings can affect the processing of the tissue, leading to poor quality specimens. If the paraffin temperature is too high or there is improper rotation of reagents, it can affect the embedding and sectioning of the tissue, making it non-diagnostic.

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  • 15. 

    It is a good work practice, when handling specimens, to know which procedure is needed for the type of test that is ordered by the pathologist.  Therefore, which procedure is mismatched with its purpose?

    • A routine slide is fixed in glutaraldehyde

    • A specimen issued for EM is frozen in OCT

    • For muscle enzyme studies, you should always fix in formalin.

    • For immunohistochemistry, you should always snap freeze in isopentane/liquid nitrogen.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    All of the above procedures are mismatched with their purpose. A routine slide should be fixed in formalin, not glutaraldehyde. A specimen issued for EM should be fixed in glutaraldehyde, not frozen in OCT. Muscle enzyme studies should be frozen in isopentane/liquid nitrogen, not fixed in formalin. For immunohistochemistry, specimens should be fixed in formalin, not snap frozen. Therefore, all of the above procedures are incorrect for their intended purpose.

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  • 16. 

    True or False.  Daily documentation of paraffin temperatures and fluid rotations are types of Quality Control for Tissue Processing.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Daily documentation of paraffin temperatures and fluid rotations are types of Quality Control for Tissue Processing because maintaining proper paraffin temperatures ensures optimal tissue infiltration and embedding, while monitoring fluid rotations ensures even distribution of reagents throughout the tissue samples. These quality control measures help to ensure consistent and reliable results in tissue processing, which is crucial for accurate diagnosis and research purposes.

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  • 17. 

    Following good work practices when embedding tissue means:

    • Always reviewing gross worksheets for special instructions

    • Always slowly opening cassettes one at a time

    • Daily documentation of paraffin temperatures

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Following good work practices when embedding tissue means always reviewing gross worksheets for special instructions, always slowly opening cassettes one at a time, and daily documentation of paraffin temperatures. These practices ensure that the tissue embedding process is carried out accurately and efficiently, reducing the chances of errors or mishandling of the tissue samples. Reviewing gross worksheets helps to identify any specific instructions or requirements for each sample, while slowly opening cassettes minimizes the risk of misplacing or mixing up the samples. Daily documentation of paraffin temperatures ensures that the embedding medium is at the optimal temperature for embedding, ensuring good quality tissue sections.

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  • 18. 

    For the H&E(Hematoxylin and Eosin) Stainer, good work practices do NOT include:

    • Documentation of fluid rotation schedules

    • Documentation of paraffin temperatures

    • Running a control slide and checking the stain quality every day.

    • Documenting results of control slides and implementing corrective actions as needed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Documentation of paraffin temperatures
    Explanation
    Good work practices for the H&E Stainer include documentation of fluid rotation schedules, running a control slide and checking the stain quality every day, and documenting results of control slides and implementing corrective actions as needed. However, documentation of paraffin temperatures is not mentioned as a good work practice for the H&E Stainer.

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  • 19. 

    What should you do if sections are noticeably incomplete or torn?

    • Request for another biopsy.

    • Request that they be delivered to the physician's office.

    • Request that they be recut and restained

    Correct Answer
    A. Request that they be recut and restained
    Explanation
    If sections of a biopsy are noticeably incomplete or torn, the best course of action would be to request that they be recut and restained. This is because incomplete or torn sections may not provide accurate or sufficient information for diagnosis. By requesting a recut and restain, the pathologist can ensure that the sections are properly prepared and can provide a more accurate evaluation of the biopsy sample.

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  • 20. 

    What roles do Staff Meetings play in Quality Assurance?

    • They help identify QA problems

    • They explore possible causes and solutions

    • They evaluate the effectiveness of solutions

    • They establish new policies by updating appropraite manuals

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Staff meetings play a crucial role in Quality Assurance as they help identify QA problems, explore possible causes and solutions, evaluate the effectiveness of solutions, and establish new policies by updating appropriate manuals. By bringing together the staff members involved in QA, these meetings facilitate effective communication, collaboration, and decision-making, ensuring that any issues are identified, addressed, and resolved efficiently. Additionally, staff meetings provide a platform for sharing knowledge, best practices, and updates, enabling continuous improvement in quality assurance processes.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following can be considered a tort, or a wrongful act committed against a person, common in civil trials?

    • Assault/threat.

    • Battery, or harmful touch.

    • Fraud, such as false billing.

    • Invasion of privacy, such as unauthorized release of information, or walking into a patient's room unannounced.

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the options listed can be considered as torts, or wrongful acts committed against a person, which are commonly seen in civil trials. Assault/threat refers to the intentional act of causing apprehension of harmful or offensive contact, while battery involves the actual harmful or offensive physical contact. Fraud, such as false billing, is a deliberate deception or misrepresentation that causes harm to another person. Invasion of privacy, such as unauthorized release of information or entering a patient's room unannounced, violates an individual's right to privacy. Therefore, all the options mentioned can be considered as torts in civil trials.

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  • 22. 

    Which tort is mismatched with its specific example?

    • An example of breach of confidentiality is failure to keep privileged medical information private.

    • An example of negligence is unintentional failure to exercise due care.

    • An example of malpractice is negligence of a professional such as a physician.

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "none of the above". This is because all of the examples provided are correctly matched with their respective torts. Breach of confidentiality refers to the failure to keep privileged information private, negligence is the unintentional failure to exercise due care, and malpractice is the negligence of a professional such as a physician.

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  • 23. 

    What is the definition of "respondeat superior" and what does this mean in legal issues?  note: choose the best 2 answer choices

    • Let the servant respond

    • Let the master respond

    • Agencies are responsible for the actions of their employees at the workplace

    • An employee is solely held responsible for something that is not whithin his or her duties of training

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Let the master respond
    A. Agencies are responsible for the actions of their employees at the workplace
    Explanation
    "Respondeat superior" is a legal doctrine that holds employers or masters responsible for the actions of their employees or servants. It means that if an employee commits a wrongful act or negligence within the scope of their employment, the employer or master can be held liable for the employee's actions. This doctrine is based on the idea that employers have control and authority over their employees, and should therefore bear the responsibility for their actions. Additionally, the answer choice "agencies are responsible for the actions of their employees at the workplace" aligns with the concept of "respondeat superior" in holding employers accountable for their employees' conduct in the workplace.

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  • 24. 

    Following legislation that governs consent is important.  For example you may be charged with assault and battery for violation of Consent for Minors.  Therefore what should you do to verify Refusal of Consent?

    • Record the the patient's verbal refusal on a form.

    • Have the patient verify the refusal in writing on a special form.

    • Have the patient nod "YES"

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Have the patient verify the refusal in writing on a special form.
    Explanation
    To verify Refusal of Consent, it is important to have the patient verify the refusal in writing on a special form. This ensures that there is a documented record of the patient's refusal, which can be used as evidence in case of any legal issues. Recording the patient's verbal refusal on a form may not be sufficient as it can be easily disputed or forgotten. Similarly, having the patient nod "YES" may not be considered a valid form of consent as it lacks a written record. Therefore, the best course of action is to obtain a written verification of refusal on a special form.

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  • 25. 

    There are 4 phases in the Litigation Process.  Choose the answer that best summarizes each phase in the correct order.

    • Phase 1: Patient consults with a lawyer to negotiate a settlement, Phase 2: The lawyer files a formal complaint if a settlement cannot be made, Phase 3: Both sides conduct formal discovery, or enterrogation of parties involved. Phase 4: an appeal of the final decision is possible

    • Phase 1: Patient consults with a lawyer to negotiate a settlement, Phase 2: The lawyer files a formal complaint if a settlement cannot be made, Phase 3: Both sides conduct formal discovery, or enterrogation of parties involved. Phase 4: The final decision is made by the jury

    • Phase 1: Patient becomes aware of possible injury, Phase 2: A lawyer is consulted and either attempts to negotiate a settlement or file a formal complaint and conducting formal discoveries, Phase 3: A trial is held before a judge and jury, Phase 4: a final decision by the jury is made

    • Phase 1: Patient becomes aware of possible injury, Phase 2: A lawyer is consulted and either attempts to negotiate a settlement or file a formal complaint and conducting formal discoveries, Phase 3: A trial is held before a judge and jury, Phase 4: a possible appeal of the jury's decision

    Correct Answer
    A. Phase 1: Patient becomes aware of possible injury, Phase 2: A lawyer is consulted and either attempts to negotiate a settlement or file a formal complaint and conducting formal discoveries, Phase 3: A trial is held before a judge and jury, Phase 4: a possible appeal of the jury's decision
    Explanation
    The correct answer summarizes the phases of the litigation process in the correct order. Phase 1 involves the patient becoming aware of a possible injury. Phase 2 includes consulting a lawyer who will either negotiate a settlement or file a formal complaint, while also conducting formal discoveries. Phase 3 consists of a trial held before a judge and jury. Phase 4 involves the possibility of appealing the jury's decision.

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  • 26. 

    During Phase 2 of the Litigation Process, formal discovery is conducted by both parties by both sides giving depositions.  What is a depostion?

    • A process in which one party questions another under oath.

    • A process in which the plaintiff, the defendant, and expert witnesses are asked questions.

    • A process in which a person who lies under oath while giving a deposition can be charged with perjury.

    • All of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    During Phase 2 of the Litigation Process, formal discovery is conducted by both parties by both sides giving depositions. A deposition is a process in which one party questions another under oath. It is also a process in which the plaintiff, the defendant, and expert witnesses are asked questions. Additionally, a person who lies under oath while giving a deposition can be charged with perjury. Therefore, all of the above options are correct explanations for the given answer.

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  • Mar 19, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 27, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Shushan09

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