1.
Which HIV cell surface protein is responsible for binding a helper T cell?
Correct Answer
C. Gp120
Explanation
She probably wont ask too detailed a question..but this seemed like a gimme.
2.
Select the correct order of the HIV infection process of a Helper T cell.
Correct Answer
B. Binding of gp120--> Genomic viral DNA --> reverse transcription into Proviral DNA -->Integration of Provirus DNA -->Synthesis of new viral proteins
Explanation
The correct order of the HIV infection process of a Helper T cell is as follows: binding of gp120 to the cell surface receptor, followed by the entry of genomic viral DNA into the cell. The viral RNA is then reverse transcribed into proviral DNA, which is integrated into the host cell's DNA. Finally, the host cell machinery synthesizes new viral proteins.
3.
In a person with AIDS, which type of cell is mainly being attacked/depleted? (Select 2)
Correct Answer(s)
A. CD4+ T
C. Helper T Cell
Explanation
CD4+T cells are helper T Cells
4.
Someone infected with HIV may be asymptomatic for years
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Slide 24
5.
AIDS is diagnosed when
Correct Answer
D. A person is infected with the HIV Virus and has been infected by opportunistic infections
Explanation
It is not classified as AIDS until the immunodeficiency reaches the point to where opportunistic infections are present. Also malignant neoplasms.
6.
The most common AIDS diagnostic test is one that isolates the virus from a blood sample.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Checking for presence of HIV antigen in the blood is the most common method. Slide 30
7.
Which of the following AIDS diagnostic tests use electrophoresis and detects up to 9 HIV viral proteins?
Correct Answer
B. Western Blot
Explanation
The Western Blot test is used for AIDS diagnosis and it utilizes electrophoresis to separate and detect up to 9 different HIV viral proteins. This test is considered to be highly accurate and is often used as a confirmatory test after a positive result from an initial screening test like ELISA. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a molecular test used to detect the genetic material of the virus, while IFA (Immunofluorescence Assay) is a technique that uses fluorescent antibodies to detect viral proteins.
8.
Which test should be used as a starting point in the diagnosis of AIDS?
Correct Answer
A. ELISA
Explanation
Western Blot, IFA, and PCR all serve to confirm a diagnosis. ELISA is the first test done and gives a positive/negative/indeterminate result.
9.
Which of the following is a reason to HIV's resistance to drugs?
Correct Answer
A. HIV has a high mutation rate due to reverse transcriptase errors
Explanation
HIV has a high mutation rate due to reverse transcriptase errors. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme that allows HIV to convert its RNA into DNA, which can then be integrated into the host cell's genome. However, reverse transcriptase is prone to making errors during this process, leading to a high rate of mutations in the viral genome. These mutations can result in changes to the virus's proteins, making it more difficult for drugs to effectively target and treat the infection.
10.
An absolute CD4+T cell count of 150 in a cubic millimeter of blood would indicate
Correct Answer
B. The patient is vulnerable to an opportunistic infection
Explanation
CBC (of Helper T cells) less than 200-300 indicates vulnerability to opportunistic infections. This is classified as category 3
11.
An opportunistic infection that occurs in the eye is the ________
Correct Answer
D. Cytomegalovirus
Explanation
Cytomegalovirus is a common opportunistic infection that can occur in the eye. It is a type of herpes virus that can cause inflammation and damage to the retina, leading to vision problems. It commonly affects individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS or undergoing organ transplantation. Cytomegalovirus retinitis is the most common manifestation of this infection in the eye and can cause symptoms like blurry vision, floaters, and loss of peripheral vision. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are important to prevent further complications and preserve vision.
12.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding CMV retinitis?
Correct Answer
C. Treatment is a one time regiment lasting 6 months
Explanation
Treatment is life long
13.
Which of the following are oncofetal genes? (Select 2)
Correct Answer(s)
A. CEA
B. AFP
Explanation
CEA - Carcino embryonic antigens
AFP - Alpha fetoprotein.
RAS and p53 may be tumor associated antigens but are not oncofetal genes.
14.
The membrane attack complex (MAC) is involved in the destruction of tumor cells.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Lysis of tumor cells occurs after activation of the classical pathway. The classical pathway (and all the compliment pathways) end in lysis through the membrane attack complex.
15.
Which of the following would aid in tumor escape?
Correct Answer
C. Reduced levels of MHC-1 molecule on the tumor
Explanation
Reduced levels of MHC-1 molecules on the tumor would aid in tumor escape. MHC-1 molecules are responsible for presenting antigens to immune cells, which triggers an immune response against the tumor. When the levels of MHC-1 molecules are reduced, the tumor becomes less recognizable to the immune system, allowing it to escape immune surveillance and avoid destruction by immune cells. This helps the tumor to evade the immune response and continue to grow and spread.