HIV/AIDS Multiple Choice Questions! Trivia Quiz

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  • 1/46 Questions

    What clinical condition listed below is associated with what AIDS-indicated category? Histoplasmosis

    • Clinical Category A
    • Clinical Category B
    • Clinical Category C
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About This Quiz

When it comes to viruses and diseases, one that has still baffled scientists and a cure is still yet to be found is HIV/AIDS. There is a lot of stigma for people suffering from it and the diseases that follow it. Below is some multiple-choice questions. See what you know about it and how to take care of patients and See moretheir symptoms.

HIV/AIDS Multiple Choice Questions! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What clinical condition listed below is associated with what AIDS-indicated category? Hairy leukoplakia

    • Clinical Category A

    • Clinical Category B

    • Clinical Category C

    Correct Answer
    A. Clinical Category B
    Explanation
    Hairy leukoplakia is a clinical condition that is associated with Clinical Category B in AIDS-indicated categories. Clinical Category B includes conditions that are moderately severe and indicative of a moderately compromised immune system. Hairy leukoplakia is a white, raised lesion on the side of the tongue caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. It is commonly seen in individuals with HIV/AIDS and is considered a marker of immune suppression.

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  • 3. 

    What clinical condition listed below is associated with what AIDS-indicated category? Kaposi’s sarcoma

    • Clinical Category A

    • Clinical Category B

    • Clinical Category C

    Correct Answer
    A. Clinical Category C
    Explanation
    Kaposi's sarcoma is a clinical condition that is associated with Clinical Category C. Clinical Category C refers to conditions that are indicative of severe immunosuppression and are considered AIDS-defining illnesses. Kaposi's sarcoma is a type of cancer that primarily affects the skin and mucous membranes and is caused by a viral infection called human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8). It is more commonly seen in individuals with advanced HIV infection and a weakened immune system.

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  • 4. 

    What clinical condition listed below is associated with what AIDS-indicated category? Acute primary HIV infection

    • Clinical Category A

    • Clinical Category B

    • Clinical Category C

    Correct Answer
    A. Clinical Category A
    Explanation
    Clinical Category A is the least severe clinical category in the classification system for HIV/AIDS. It includes asymptomatic HIV infection or mild symptoms that are not considered AIDS-defining. Acute primary HIV infection refers to the initial stage of HIV infection, where the virus rapidly replicates in the body and may cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, fatigue, and rash. These symptoms are considered mild and do not meet the criteria for Clinical Category B or C, which involve more severe symptoms and AIDS-defining illnesses.

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  • 5. 

    What clinical condition listed below is associated with what AIDS-indicated category? Pneumocystis carinii

    • Clinical Category A

    • Clinical Category B

    • Clinical Category C

    Correct Answer
    A. Clinical Category C
    Explanation
    Pneumocystis carinii is associated with Clinical Category C. Clinical Category C is used to classify individuals with AIDS-indicative conditions. Pneumocystis carinii is a type of fungal infection that commonly affects people with weakened immune systems, such as those with advanced HIV/AIDS. Therefore, it falls under Clinical Category C, which includes conditions indicative of severe immunosuppression.

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  • 6. 

    What clinical condition listed below is associated with what AIDS-indicated category? Bacillary angiomatosis

    • Clinical Category A

    • Clinical Category B

    • Clinical Category C

    Correct Answer
    A. Clinical Category B
    Explanation
    Bacillary angiomatosis is associated with Clinical Category B. Clinical Category B includes conditions that are moderately severe and may not be life-threatening but still require medical attention. Bacillary angiomatosis is a bacterial infection caused by Bartonella henselae or Bartonella quintana, commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals such as those with HIV/AIDS. It presents as vascular skin lesions and can also affect other organs such as the liver and spleen. Treatment typically involves antibiotics.

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  • 7. 

    What clinical condition listed below is associated with what AIDS-indicated category? Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (PGL)

    • Clinical Category A

    • Clinical Category B

    • Clinical Category C

    Correct Answer
    A. Clinical Category A
    Explanation
    Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (PGL) is a clinical condition that is associated with Clinical Category A. Clinical Category A refers to asymptomatic HIV infection, where individuals are not experiencing any symptoms or conditions associated with HIV/AIDS. PGL is characterized by the persistent enlargement of lymph nodes throughout the body. This condition is often one of the early signs of HIV infection and can persist for an extended period before progressing to more severe symptoms or conditions.

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  • 8. 

    What clinical condition listed below is associated with what AIDS-indicated category? Extrapulmonary cryptococcosis

    • Clinical Category A

    • Clinical Category B

    • Clinical Category C

    Correct Answer
    A. Clinical Category C
    Explanation
    Extrapulmonary cryptococcosis is a clinical condition associated with Clinical Category C. Clinical Category C includes conditions that are considered AIDS-defining illnesses, indicating severe immunosuppression. Extrapulmonary cryptococcosis refers to the infection caused by the fungus Cryptococcus neoformans, which primarily affects organs outside the lungs, such as the central nervous system. This condition typically occurs in individuals with advanced HIV infection and a significantly compromised immune system.

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  • 9. 

    Classify the following Antiretroviral Agent by its action: Abacavir

    • Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Protease Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    Explanation
    Abacavir is classified as a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor. These agents work by blocking the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for the replication of the HIV virus. Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors are incorporated into the growing viral DNA chain, causing premature termination and preventing further viral replication. Abacavir specifically inhibits the reverse transcriptase enzyme and is used as part of combination therapy for the treatment of HIV infection.

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  • 10. 

    Classify the following Antiretroviral Agent by its action: Fortovase

    • Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Protease Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. Protease Inhibitors
    Explanation
    Fortovase is classified as a Protease Inhibitor. Protease inhibitors are a class of antiretroviral agents that work by blocking the activity of the HIV protease enzyme, which is necessary for the virus to replicate and produce new infectious particles. By inhibiting this enzyme, protease inhibitors prevent the virus from maturing and spreading to other cells in the body. Fortovase, therefore, belongs to the class of drugs that specifically target the protease enzyme and are used in the treatment of HIV infection.

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  • 11. 

    Classify the following Antiretroviral Agent by its action: AZT

    • Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Protease Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    Explanation
    AZT is classified as a nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor. This class of antiretroviral agents works by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for the replication of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors mimic the structure of natural nucleosides and are incorporated into the viral DNA during replication, leading to premature termination of the DNA chain and inhibition of viral replication.

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  • 12. 

    Classify the following Antiretroviral Agent by its action: Epivir 

    • Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Protease Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    Explanation
    Epivir is classified as a Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitor. It works by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for the replication of the HIV virus. Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors are a type of antiretroviral medication that mimic the building blocks of DNA and RNA, preventing the virus from replicating its genetic material. This ultimately helps to reduce the viral load in the body and slow down the progression of HIV/AIDS.

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  • 13. 

    Classify the following Antiretroviral Agent by its action: Viracept

    • Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Protease Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. Protease Inhibitors
    Explanation
    Viracept is classified as a protease inhibitor. Protease inhibitors are a class of antiretroviral agents that work by inhibiting the enzyme protease, which is necessary for the replication of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By blocking the protease enzyme, Viracept prevents the virus from maturing and releasing new copies of itself into the body. This helps to slow down the progression of HIV infection and reduce the viral load in the body.

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  • 14. 

    Classify the following Antiretroviral Agent by its action: Efavirenz

    • Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Protease Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    Explanation
    Efavirenz is classified as a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. This class of antiretroviral agents works by binding directly to the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is responsible for the replication of the HIV virus. By binding to this enzyme, Efavirenz inhibits its activity and prevents the virus from replicating and spreading in the body. Unlike nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors, which act as faulty building blocks for the virus, non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors directly target the enzyme itself. Protease inhibitors, on the other hand, work by inhibiting the protease enzyme, which is responsible for the final assembly of new HIV particles.

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  • 15. 

    Classify the following Antiretroviral Agent by its action: Indinavir

    • Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Protease Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. Protease Inhibitors
    Explanation
    Indinavir is classified as a protease inhibitor. Protease inhibitors are a class of antiretroviral agents that block the activity of the enzyme protease, which is essential for the replication of HIV. By inhibiting protease, these drugs prevent the virus from maturing and producing new infectious particles. Indinavir specifically targets and inhibits the protease enzyme, thereby reducing the viral load and slowing down the progression of HIV infection.

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  • 16. 

    Classify the following Antiretroviral Agent by its action: Viread

    • Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Protease Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    Explanation
    Viread is classified as a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. These agents work by binding to the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for the replication of the HIV virus. By binding to this enzyme, Viread prevents the virus from replicating and inhibits its ability to infect new cells. This class of antiretroviral agents is effective in treating HIV infections and is often used in combination with other drugs to suppress the virus and improve immune function.

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  • 17. 

    Classify the following Antiretroviral Agent by its action: Delavirdine

    • Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Protease Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    Explanation
    Delavirdine is classified as a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. This class of antiretroviral agents works by binding to the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing it from converting the viral RNA into DNA. By inhibiting this process, the replication of the virus is hindered, reducing its ability to cause further infection and damage to the immune system.

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  • 18. 

    Classify the following Antiretroviral Agent by its action: Nevirapine

    • Nucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

    • Protease Inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    Explanation
    Nevirapine is classified as a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. These drugs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is responsible for the replication of the HIV virus. By blocking this enzyme, nevirapine prevents the virus from replicating and spreading throughout the body. This class of antiretroviral agents is effective in treating HIV infections and is often used in combination with other drugs to suppress the virus and improve the immune system.

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  • 19. 

    A patient with advanced AIDS has diarrhea and wasting syndrome.  An appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is

    • Diarrhea related to opportunistic infection

    • Risk for fluid volume deficit related to diarrhea.

    • Risk for infection related to immunosuppression.

    • Risk for impaired skin integrity related to altered nutritional status and frequent stools.

    Correct Answer
    A. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to altered nutritional status and frequent stools.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "risk for impaired skin integrity related to altered nutritional status and frequent stools." This nursing diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with advanced AIDS who is experiencing diarrhea and wasting syndrome. Diarrhea and frequent stools can lead to skin breakdown and impaired skin integrity. Additionally, the altered nutritional status associated with wasting syndrome can further contribute to the risk of impaired skin integrity. Therefore, this diagnosis addresses the potential risk to the patient's skin integrity due to their symptoms and condition.

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  • 20. 

    A patient with advanced AIDS has a nursing diagnosis of altered thought processes related to neurologic changes.  In planning care for the patient, the nurse sets the highest priority on:

    • Providing a quiet, non-stressful environment to avoid over stimulation.

    • Using memory cues such as calendars and clocks to promote orientation.

    • Providing written instructions of directions to promote understanding and orientation.

    • Maintaining a safe patient environment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintaining a safe patient environment.
    Explanation
    Maintaining a safe patient environment is the highest priority for a patient with advanced AIDS and altered thought processes. This is because altered thought processes can lead to confusion, disorientation, and impaired judgment, increasing the risk of falls, accidents, and injuries. By ensuring a safe environment, the nurse can prevent potential harm to the patient and promote their overall well-being.

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  • 21. 

    Effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy is measured by: 

    • A fall in the plasma viral load and an increase in theCD4 count.

    • A rise in red blood cell count and hemoglobin level.

    • A rise in plasma HIV antibodies level.

    • A reduction in opportunistic infections.

    Correct Answer
    A. A reduction in opportunistic infections.
    Explanation
    The effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy is measured by a reduction in opportunistic infections. This is because antiretroviral therapy helps to strengthen the immune system, making it less susceptible to opportunistic infections. Therefore, a decrease in the occurrence of these infections indicates that the therapy is effectively suppressing the HIV virus and improving the overall health of the individual.

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  • 22. 

    The decision to begin antiretroviral therapy is based on:

    • The CD4 cell count

    • The plasma viral load

    • The intensity of the patient's clinical symptoms.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The decision to begin antiretroviral therapy is based on multiple factors, including the CD4 cell count, the plasma viral load, and the intensity of the patient's clinical symptoms. These factors are important in determining the stage of HIV infection and the need for treatment. CD4 cell count provides information about the immune system's health, while the plasma viral load measures the amount of virus in the blood. The presence and severity of clinical symptoms also play a role in deciding when to initiate therapy. Therefore, considering all of these factors is crucial in making the decision to start antiretroviral therapy.

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  • 23. 

    Which is most important in case of a patient diagnosed as AIDS and who is expressing death wishes?  

    • immediately send the patient for HIV confirmation tests.

    • Immediately start antiretroviral therapy (ART).

    • Send the patient for CD4 count testing.

    • Treat the patient for depression and suicidal thoughts

    Correct Answer
    A. Treat the patient for depression and suicidal thoughts
    Explanation
    In this case, treating the patient for depression and suicidal thoughts is the most important. The patient expressing death wishes indicates a high level of distress and potential risk for self-harm. It is crucial to address their mental health and provide appropriate support and intervention to prevent any harm to themselves. While HIV confirmation tests, antiretroviral therapy, and CD4 count testing are important for managing AIDS, addressing the patient's immediate mental health needs takes priority in this situation.

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  • 24. 

    Oral candidiasis in AIDS is treated with:

    • Trimethoprim + sulfimethaxazole

    • Fluconazole

    • Acyclovir

    • Zidovudine

    Correct Answer
    A. Fluconazole
    Explanation
    Oral candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common fungal infection in individuals with AIDS due to their weakened immune system. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication that is effective in treating oral candidiasis. It works by inhibiting the growth of the Candida fungus, which causes the infection. Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole is an antibiotic combination used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like oral candidiasis. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat infections caused by herpes viruses, not fungal infections. Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV, but it is not effective in treating oral candidiasis.

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  • 25. 

    Human Papiloma Virus in AIDS patients is manifested as:   

    • Cough, evening fever, night sweats, weight loss and anemia

    • Persistant fever, tachypnoea, hypoxia, cyanosis and tachycardia.

    • Genital warts, flat warts, skin warts, neoplasia of cervix, vagina and penis

    • Watery diarrhoea, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting

    Correct Answer
    A. Genital warts, flat warts, skin warts, neoplasia of cervix, vagina and penis
    Explanation
    Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) is a sexually transmitted infection that can affect individuals with AIDS. In AIDS patients, HPV is manifested as genital warts, flat warts, skin warts, and neoplasia (cancerous growth) of the cervix, vagina, and penis. This is because the weakened immune system in AIDS patients is unable to effectively control the HPV infection, leading to the development of these symptoms.

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  • 26. 

    ______________ is the most common HIV-related neurological complication.    

    • Tuberculosis

    • Kaposi's sarcoma

    • Toxoplasmosis

    • Lymphoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Toxoplasmosis
    Explanation
    Toxoplasmosis is the most common HIV-related neurological complication. This parasitic infection is caused by the Toxoplasma gondii parasite, which can affect the brain and cause inflammation, leading to neurological symptoms. It is particularly common in individuals with compromised immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Tuberculosis, Kaposi's sarcoma, and lymphoma can also occur in individuals with HIV/AIDS, but they are not the most common neurological complications associated with the disease.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following statements is FALSE about antiretroviral therapy (ART):   

    • ART increases survival rate.

    • ART reduces HIV-transmission.

    • ART is a cure for AIDS.

    • ART reduces hospitalization.

    Correct Answer
    A. ART is a cure for AIDS.
    Explanation
    Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV infection, but it is not a cure for AIDS. While ART can effectively control the replication of the HIV virus, it cannot completely eliminate it from the body. Therefore, it is important to note that ART does not cure AIDS, but it can significantly improve the health and quality of life of individuals living with HIV/AIDS.

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  • 28. 

    Goals of ART includes all, EXCEPT;     

    • Prolongation of life and improvement of Quality of Life.

    • Greatest possible reduction in viral load for as long as possible.

    • Rational sequencing of drugs, limiting drug toxicity, and facilitation of adherence.

    • Elimination of HIV entirely from the body

    Correct Answer
    A. Elimination of HIV entirely from the body
    Explanation
    The goals of antiretroviral therapy (ART) include prolongation of life and improvement of quality of life, greatest possible reduction in viral load for as long as possible, and rational sequencing of drugs to limit drug toxicity and facilitate adherence. However, the elimination of HIV entirely from the body is not currently achievable with ART. While ART can effectively suppress the virus and prevent its progression, it cannot completely eradicate HIV from the body.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following listed drugs is a protease inhibitors group of ARVs?    

    • Zidovudine (AZT)

    • Efavirenz (EFZ)

    • Nevirapine (NVP)

    • Indinavir ( IDV)

    Correct Answer
    A. Indinavir ( IDV)
    Explanation
    Indinavir (IDV) is a protease inhibitor, which means it inhibits the activity of the protease enzyme in HIV-infected cells. This enzyme is responsible for the cleavage of viral polyproteins into individual functional proteins, therefore inhibiting it prevents the production of new infectious viral particles. Zidovudine (AZT), Efavirenz (EFZ), and Nevirapine (NVP) are not protease inhibitors but belong to different classes of antiretroviral drugs.

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  • 30. 

    Efavirenz (EFZ) is a; 

    • Nucleoside reverse transcriptors inhibitors group of ARV.

    • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptors inhibitors group of ARV.

    • Protease inhibitors group of drug.

    • Anti-tubercular drug.

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptors inhibitors group of ARV.
    Explanation
    Efavirenz (EFZ) belongs to the non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) group of antiretroviral drugs (ARV). NNRTIs work by binding to and inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for the replication of the HIV virus. This inhibition prevents the virus from multiplying and helps to control the progression of HIV infection. Therefore, the correct answer is non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors group of ARV.

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  • 31. 

    Which statement about initiating drug therapy (ART) in stage 4 (WHO) is TRUE?       

    • Treat if CD4 count is

    • Consider treatment if CD4 count is

    • Treat irrespective of CD4 count.

    • Do not treat till CD4 count is avilable.

    Correct Answer
    A. Treat irrespective of CD4 count.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Treat irrespective of CD4 count." This means that regardless of the CD4 count, drug therapy should be initiated in stage 4 (WHO). CD4 count is used to measure the strength of the immune system, and in stage 4, the immune system is severely compromised. Therefore, it is important to start treatment as soon as possible, regardless of the CD4 count, to improve the patient's immune function and overall health.

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  • 32. 

    The standard Zidovudine dose for adults and adolescents in ART is;     

    • 200 mg

    • 600 mg

    • 150 mg

    • 300 mg

    Correct Answer
    A. 300 mg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 300 mg. This is the standard dose of Zidovudine for adults and adolescents in ART. It is important to adhere to the prescribed dosage to ensure effective treatment and minimize the risk of side effects.

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  • 33. 

    Which statement about ART regimen is TRUE?    

    • ART must be given in 3-drug combination.

    • Use AZT+3TC+NVP in patients with Hb

    • Give only 1 or 2 ARVs if intolerence is present.

    • Give only 1 ARV in asymptomatic (WHO stage 1) patients.

    Correct Answer
    A. ART must be given in 3-drug combination.
    Explanation
    ART (Antiretroviral Therapy) is the recommended treatment for HIV infection. It involves the use of a combination of at least three antiretroviral drugs from different classes to effectively suppress the virus and prevent the development of drug resistance. Giving ART in a 3-drug combination is crucial because it targets the virus at multiple points in its replication cycle, reducing the viral load and improving the immune system. Using only one or two ARVs or giving ART to asymptomatic patients may not be sufficient to achieve optimal viral suppression and could lead to treatment failure.

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  • 34. 

    ____________ should be avoided in AIDS patients recieving ART during the first 2 months of Rifampicin ATT due to drug interactions.   

    • Zidovudine

    • Efavirenz

    • Lamivudine

    • Neviparine

    Correct Answer
    A. Neviparine
    Explanation
    Neviparine should be avoided in AIDS patients receiving ART during the first 2 months of Rifampicin ATT due to drug interactions.

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  • 35. 

    The ART drug, which should be avoided in case of pregnancy is:          

    • Efavirenz

    • Indinavir

    • Lamivudine

    • Zidovudine

    Correct Answer
    A. Efavirenz
    Explanation
    Efavirenz is a type of antiretroviral drug used to treat HIV infection. It belongs to a class of drugs called non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs). Efavirenz is known to have potential harmful effects on the developing fetus, particularly during the first trimester of pregnancy. Studies have shown an increased risk of birth defects when efavirenz is used during pregnancy. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid using efavirenz in pregnant women or those planning to become pregnant. Alternative antiretroviral drugs should be considered in these cases to ensure the safety of the mother and the unborn child.

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  • 36. 

    Antiretroviral treatment with Neviparine is generally avoided in:        

    • Hepatitis/Chronic Liver Disease (CLD)

    • Pregnancy

    • Clinical stage 1 of AIDS infection.

    • Clinical stage 4 of AIDS infection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis/Chronic Liver Disease (CLD)
    Explanation
    Nevirapine is a type of antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV/AIDS. However, it is generally avoided in individuals with Hepatitis or Chronic Liver Disease (CLD) due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. Hepatotoxicity refers to liver damage caused by certain medications, and individuals with pre-existing liver conditions are more susceptible to this side effect. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid using Nevirapine in patients with Hepatitis or CLD to prevent further liver damage.

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  • 37. 

    The combination of drugs, which is NOT generally recommended is:   

    • Stavudine + Lamivudine+Neviparine

    • AZT + 3TC+ NVP

    • D4T+ 3TC + NVP

    • NVP+ Rifampicin

    Correct Answer
    A. NVP+ Rifampicin
    Explanation
    The combination of drugs that is not generally recommended is NVP+ Rifampicin. This is because rifampicin is known to decrease the blood levels of nevirapine (NVP), which can lead to reduced effectiveness of the antiretroviral therapy. Therefore, it is generally recommended to avoid combining these two drugs to ensure optimal treatment outcomes for patients.

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  • 38. 

    Severe hematological toxicity is associated with use of:           

    • Zidovudine (AZT)

    • Nevirapine (NVP)

    • Stavudine (d4T)

    • Efavirenz (EFZ)

    Correct Answer
    A. Zidovudine (AZT)
    Explanation
    Severe hematological toxicity is associated with the use of Zidovudine (AZT). Hematological toxicity refers to the harmful effects on the blood cells. Zidovudine is an antiretroviral drug used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS. It can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to a decrease in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This can result in anemia, increased susceptibility to infections, and bleeding disorders. Therefore, it is important to closely monitor blood cell counts in patients taking Zidovudine to prevent and manage hematological toxicity.

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  • 39. 

    A toxicity syndrome associated with use of Nevirapine in ART is:          

    • Steven-Jhonson Syndrome

    • Lipoatrophy.

    • Hematological Toxicity.

    • Red neck syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Steven-Jhonson Syndrome
    Explanation
    Steven-Johnson Syndrome is a known toxicity syndrome associated with the use of Nevirapine in ART. This syndrome is a severe and potentially life-threatening skin reaction characterized by the development of painful blisters, skin peeling, and mucous membrane involvement. It is important to monitor patients receiving Nevirapine for any signs or symptoms of this syndrome, as early detection and discontinuation of the medication can help prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

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  • 40. 

    A syndrome presenting as occurance or worsoning of clinical and laboratory parameters of infection, despite a favourable outcome in CD4 count is called:                         

    • Aquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

    • Immune Reconstitution Inflammation Syndrome

    • Red neck syndrome

    • Lipodystrophy syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Immune Reconstitution Inflammation Syndrome
    Explanation
    Immune Reconstitution Inflammation Syndrome is a syndrome that occurs when a person's immune system starts to recover after being suppressed, such as in HIV/AIDS patients who start antiretroviral therapy. This syndrome is characterized by the occurrence or worsening of clinical and laboratory parameters of infection, despite an increase in CD4 count. It is a result of the immune system becoming more active and responding to previously unrecognized infections or inflammation.

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  • 41. 

    Factors contributing to drug failure in ART are:            

    • Sub-optimal ARV regimen.

    • Sub-optimal drug levels.

    • Lack of proper adherence to therapy.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The factors contributing to drug failure in ART include sub-optimal ARV regimen, sub-optimal drug levels, and lack of proper adherence to therapy. These factors can individually or collectively contribute to the failure of antiretroviral treatment. Sub-optimal ARV regimen refers to the use of drugs that are not the most effective or appropriate for a particular patient. Sub-optimal drug levels occur when the drug concentration in the body is not sufficient to effectively suppress the virus. Lack of proper adherence to therapy means not taking the prescribed medications consistently and as directed. All of these factors can lead to treatment failure in ART.

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  • 42. 

    Reasons to consider ARV drug "substitution' include all, EXCEPT

    • Drug toxicity

    • Occurance of headache and vomiting

    • Pregnancy.

    • Occurance of active Tuberculosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Occurance of headache and vomiting
    Explanation
    The given question asks for the reason to consider ARV drug "substitution" that does not include the occurrence of headache and vomiting. This means that headache and vomiting are not valid reasons to consider substituting the ARV drug. However, drug toxicity, pregnancy, and the occurrence of active tuberculosis are valid reasons to consider ARV drug substitution.

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  • 43. 

    Reasons to consider ARV regimen "switch" include:   ARV treatment failure. A.

    • Occurance of nausea and vomiting.

    • Reduction in viral load.

    • ARV treatment failure

    • Increase in CD4 blood level count.

    Correct Answer
    A. ARV treatment failure
    Explanation
    The given answer states that one of the reasons to consider switching the ARV regimen is ARV treatment failure. This means that if the current ARV treatment is not effectively controlling the HIV infection or if there is evidence of viral resistance to the current regimen, it may be necessary to switch to a different combination of antiretroviral drugs to ensure effective viral suppression and prevent further complications.

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  • 44. 

    When giving counselling to a patient on ART, which statement made by the nurse indicate the nurse needs further training?              

    • Allways take the medicine as prescribed

    • If a dose is missed, take a double dose.

    • ART is life long. If the medicine is stopped, symptoms will reappear in months.

    • The ART drugs should never be shared with anyone.

    Correct Answer
    A. If a dose is missed, take a double dose.
    Explanation
    The nurse needs further training because taking a double dose of medication after missing one is not the correct way to manage missed doses. It can lead to potential overdose and adverse effects. The correct approach is to follow the prescribed dosing schedule and consult a healthcare professional if a dose is missed.

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  • 45. 

    Giardiasis, an oportunistic infection in AIDS patients, is a:      

    • Parasitic infection.

    • Bacterial infection.

    • Viral infection.

    • Fungal infection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Parasitic infection.
    Explanation
    Giardiasis is caused by the parasite Giardia lamblia and is commonly found in contaminated water and food sources. It primarily affects the small intestine and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. This infection is considered opportunistic because it primarily affects individuals with weakened immune systems, such as AIDS patients. Therefore, the correct answer is parasitic infection.

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  • 46. 

    PCP (Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia) is caused by a:                         

    • Bacteria

    • Fungi

    • Virus

    • Parasite

    Correct Answer
    A. Fungi
    Explanation
    PCP (Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia) is caused by a fungus. Pneumocystis jirovecii is a type of fungus that causes pneumonia in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS or undergoing immunosuppressive therapy. It is not caused by bacteria, viruses, or parasites.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 27, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Sgomes

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