How Well Do You Know About Glaucoma Disease?

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How Well Do You Know About Glaucoma Disease? - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Essential feature of glaucoma is:

    • A.

      Optic neuropathy

    • B.

      Raised intraocular pressure

    • C.

      Reduced vision

    • D.

      Painful eye

    Correct Answer
    A. Optic neuropathy
    Explanation
    Glaucoma is a condition characterized by damage to the optic nerve, which is responsible for transmitting visual information from the eye to the brain. This damage is known as optic neuropathy. While raised intraocular pressure is a common risk factor for developing glaucoma, it is not an essential feature as some individuals with glaucoma may have normal or low intraocular pressure. Reduced vision is a symptom of glaucoma, but it is not unique to this condition. Painful eye is not a characteristic feature of glaucoma. Therefore, the essential feature of glaucoma is optic neuropathy.

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  • 2. 

    Which of these is not a feature of ocular hypertension?

    • A.

      Elevated intraocular pressure

    • B.

      Closed angle

    • C.

      Normal visual fields

    • D.

      Normal optic discs

    Correct Answer
    B. Closed angle
    Explanation
    Ocular hypertension is characterized by elevated intraocular pressure, which means the pressure inside the eye is higher than normal. It is associated with normal visual fields and normal optic discs. However, a closed angle is not a feature of ocular hypertension. Closed angle refers to a type of glaucoma where the angle between the iris and cornea is blocked, leading to increased eye pressure. Ocular hypertension is typically associated with open-angle glaucoma, where the drainage angle remains open but the pressure is elevated.

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  • 3. 

    Risk factors for glaucoma include:

    • A.

      Cardiovascular diseases

    • B.

      Family history of glaucoma

    • C.

      Hypothyroidism

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because all three risk factors listed - cardiovascular diseases, family history of glaucoma, and hypothyroidism - have been identified as potential contributors to the development of glaucoma. Cardiovascular diseases can affect blood flow to the optic nerve, increasing the risk of glaucoma. Having a family history of glaucoma suggests a genetic predisposition to the disease. Hypothyroidism, a condition characterized by an underactive thyroid gland, has also been associated with an increased risk of glaucoma. Therefore, having any of these risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing glaucoma.

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  • 4. 

    Which of these is not a likely cause of painful red eye in a patient?

    • A.

      Open angle glaucoma

    • B.

      Closed angle glaucoma

    • C.

      Conjunctivitis

    • D.

      Herpes simplex

    Correct Answer
    B. Closed angle glaucoma
    Explanation
    Closed angle glaucoma is not a likely cause of painful red eye in a patient. Closed angle glaucoma is characterized by sudden and severe eye pain, along with other symptoms such as blurred vision, headache, and nausea. However, it does not typically cause redness of the eye. On the other hand, open angle glaucoma, conjunctivitis, and herpes simplex can all cause redness and pain in the eye.

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  • 5. 

    Drugs that facilitate aqueous humor outflow include:

    • A.

      Timolol

    • B.

      Pilocarpine

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      B and C only

    Correct Answer
    D. B and C only
    Explanation
    The drugs that facilitate aqueous humor outflow include Pilocarpine and Epinephrine. Timolol is a beta-blocker that reduces the production of aqueous humor but does not directly facilitate its outflow. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C only.

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  • 6. 

    Which one of the following agents lowers intraocular pressure by reducing aqueous production?

    • A.

      Latanoprost

    • B.

      Dorzolamide

    • C.

      Epinephrine

    • D.

      Pilocarpine

    Correct Answer
    B. Dorzolamide
    Explanation
    Dorzolamide is the correct answer because it is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, which reduces the production of aqueous humor in the eye. Aqueous humor is the fluid that fills the front part of the eye, and its production is responsible for maintaining intraocular pressure. By inhibiting the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, dorzolamide decreases the production of aqueous humor, thereby lowering intraocular pressure.

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  • 7. 

    Which class of drug is the first line of therapy for open angle glaucoma when no contraindication exists?

    • A.

      ß blockers

    • B.

      A agonist

    • C.

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

    • D.

      Prostaglandins

    Correct Answer
    A. ß blockers
    Explanation
    ß blockers are the first line of therapy for open angle glaucoma when no contraindication exists. These drugs work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye, thereby decreasing intraocular pressure. By blocking the beta receptors, ß blockers prevent the activation of these receptors by sympathetic nervous system stimulation, leading to reduced production of aqueous humor. This helps to control the progression of glaucoma and prevent further damage to the optic nerve.

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  • 8. 

    Side effects of oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors include:

    • A.

      Tingling sensation in the extremities

    • B.

      Nausea and vomiting

    • C.

      Fatigue

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The side effects of oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitors include tingling sensation in the extremities, nausea and vomiting, and fatigue. These medications are commonly used to treat conditions such as glaucoma and epilepsy. Tingling sensation in the extremities is a common side effect due to the drug's effect on nerve function. Nausea and vomiting can occur as a result of the medication's impact on the gastrointestinal system. Fatigue is another possible side effect, which may be due to the drug's influence on overall energy levels. Therefore, all of the above options are correct.

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  • 9. 

    Dorzolamide is a:

    • A.

      Oral carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

    • B.

      Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

    • C.

      Prostaglandin

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
    Explanation
    Dorzolamide is classified as a topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. This means that it is a medication that is applied directly to the eye in the form of eye drops to reduce intraocular pressure. It works by inhibiting the action of carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme that plays a role in the production of aqueous humor in the eye. By inhibiting this enzyme, dorzolamide helps to decrease the production of aqueous humor and therefore lower intraocular pressure.

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  • 10. 

    Which one of the following statements regarding pilocarpine is true?

    • A.

      It is a sympathomimetic drug

    • B.

      It is the mainstay of glaucoma treatment

    • C.

      It can be employed in the treatment of both open angle and closed angle glaucoma

    • D.

      It reduces production of aqueous humor

    Correct Answer
    C. It can be employed in the treatment of both open angle and closed angle glaucoma
    Explanation
    Pilocarpine can be employed in the treatment of both open angle and closed angle glaucoma. This means that it can be used to treat both types of glaucoma, which are different forms of the same eye condition. Open angle glaucoma is the most common type and occurs when the drainage canals in the eye become clogged over time, leading to increased eye pressure. Closed angle glaucoma is less common and occurs when the iris blocks the drainage angle in the eye, leading to a sudden increase in eye pressure. Pilocarpine helps to lower eye pressure by increasing the outflow of fluid from the eye, making it an effective treatment option for both types of glaucoma.

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  • 11. 

    Uveo-scleral outflow of aqueous humor is increased by:

    • A.

      Prostaglandins

    • B.

      ß blockers

    • C.

      Alpha agonist

    • D.

      Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

    Correct Answer
    D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
    Explanation
    Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors increase the uveo-scleral outflow of aqueous humor. These medications work by inhibiting the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is responsible for the production of aqueous humor in the eye. By inhibiting this enzyme, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors reduce the production of aqueous humor, leading to increased outflow and a decrease in intraocular pressure. This mechanism of action makes carbonic anhydrase inhibitors an effective treatment for glaucoma, a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following are not suitable adjuncts?

    • A.

      Timolol and latanoprost

    • B.

      Pilocarpine and betaxolol

    • C.

      Dorzolamide and timolol

    • D.

      Brimonidine and betaxolol

    Correct Answer
    B. Pilocarpine and betaxolol
    Explanation
    Pilocarpine and betaxolol are not suitable adjuncts because they belong to different classes of medications used to treat different eye conditions. Pilocarpine is a miotic medication used to treat glaucoma by constricting the pupil and increasing the outflow of fluid from the eye. Betaxolol, on the other hand, is a beta-blocker used to reduce intraocular pressure by decreasing the production of fluid in the eye. Therefore, using these two medications together may not provide the desired therapeutic effect and may even have conflicting actions.

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  • 13. 

    In treatment of glaucoma, to achieve better effect blockers can be combined well with:

    • A.

      Miotics

    • B.

      Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

    • C.

      Prostaglandins

    • D.

      Any of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Any of the above
    Explanation
    To achieve better effects in the treatment of glaucoma, blockers can be combined well with miotics, topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, or prostaglandins. This means that any of these options can be used together with blockers to enhance the treatment outcome for glaucoma.

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  • 14. 

    A 75 year old lady with a long standing history of asthma treated with steroids presents to the clinic because of decreased vision. She is found to have posterior capsular opacities as well as an intraocular pressure of 28 mmHg. Which of the following medication should be prescribed?

    • A.

      Timolol

    • B.

      Pilocarpine

    • C.

      Latanoprost

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Latanoprost
    Explanation
    Latanoprost should be prescribed because the patient has an intraocular pressure of 28 mmHg, indicating elevated pressure in the eye. Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analog that helps to lower intraocular pressure by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor. It is commonly used to treat glaucoma, which is characterized by elevated intraocular pressure. The other options, Timolol and Pilocarpine, are also used to treat glaucoma, but in this case, Latanoprost is the most appropriate choice due to the patient's specific presentation.

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  • 15. 

    Neuroprotection is well established with:

    • A.

      Timolol

    • B.

      Brimonidine

    • C.

      Latanoprost

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Brimonidine
    Explanation
    Brimonidine is known to provide neuroprotection. This means that it has the ability to protect the nerves and neurons in the brain from damage or degeneration. It is commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma, a condition that can cause damage to the optic nerve. By providing neuroprotection, brimonidine helps to prevent further damage to the optic nerve and preserve vision.

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  • 16. 

    The only US FDA approved drug for control of post-operative intraocular pressure spikes is:

    • A.

      Brimonidine 0.2%

    • B.

      Apraclonidine 1%

    • C.

      Latanoprost 0.005%

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Apraclonidine 1%
    Explanation
    Apraclonidine 1% is the only US FDA approved drug for controlling post-operative intraocular pressure spikes. Brimonidine 0.2% and Latanoprost 0.005% are not approved for this purpose.

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  • 17. 

    Which of these is not true with regard to laser trabeculoplasty?

    • A.

      It is done as an outpatient procedure

    • B.

      A new opening is created in the white of the eye to facilitate drainage of aqueous humor

    • C.

      Its effects may wear off over time

    • D.

      Is generally done after trying treatment with medications

    Correct Answer
    B. A new opening is created in the white of the eye to facilitate drainage of aqueous humor
    Explanation
    Laser trabeculoplasty is a procedure used to treat open-angle glaucoma. It involves using a laser to treat the drainage angle of the eye, not creating a new opening. The laser helps to improve the drainage of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. The procedure is usually performed as an outpatient procedure and is often considered after trying treatment with medications. However, its effects may wear off over time, so it may not provide a permanent solution for managing glaucoma.

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