Fundamentals Of Nursing V : Www.Rnpedia.Com

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Fundamentals Of Nursing V : Www.Rnpedia.Com - Quiz

Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. Score will be posted as soon as the you are done with the quiz. You got 120 minutes to finish the exam. Good luck!Content Outline1. Oxygenation2. Nutrition


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Upper airway?

    • A.

      For clearance mechanism such as coughing

    • B.

      Transport gases to the lower airways

    • C.

      Warming, Filtration and Humidification of inspired air

    • D.

      Protect the lower airway from foreign mater

    Correct Answer
    A. For clearance mechanism such as coughing
    Explanation
    The upper airway is responsible for warming, filtering, and humidifying inspired air, as well as protecting the lower airway from foreign matter. However, it is not directly involved in clearance mechanisms such as coughing. Coughing is a reflex action that occurs in the lower airway to remove any foreign material or excess mucus.

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  • 2. 

    It is the hair the lines the vestibule which function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects

    • A.

      Cilia

    • B.

      Nares

    • C.

      Carina

    • D.

      Vibrissae

    Correct Answer
    D. Vibrissae
    Explanation
    Vibrissae are specialized hairs that line the vestibule of certain animals, including mammals. They function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects, such as dust or debris, that may enter the nasal passages. These long, stiff hairs are highly sensitive and can detect even slight movements in the surrounding air, allowing animals to navigate and avoid obstacles in dark or narrow spaces. Vibrissae are particularly well-developed in animals like rats and cats, where they play a crucial role in their sensory perception and spatial awareness.

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  • 3. 

    This is the paranasal sinus found between the eyes and the nose that extends backward into the skull

    • A.

      Ehtmoid

    • B.

      Sphenoid

    • C.

      Maxillary

    • D.

      Frontal

    Correct Answer
    A. Ehtmoid
    Explanation
    The ethmoid sinus is a paranasal sinus located between the eyes and the nose, extending backward into the skull. It is responsible for producing mucus that helps to humidify and filter the air we breathe. The ethmoid sinus plays a crucial role in our overall respiratory health.

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  • 4. 

    Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?

    • A.

      Ehtmoid

    • B.

      Sphenoid

    • C.

      Maxillary

    • D.

      Frontal

    Correct Answer
    D. Frontal
    Explanation
    The frontal sinus is found over the eyebrow. It is one of the paranasal sinuses located in the frontal bone of the skull. These sinuses are air-filled cavities that help to lighten the weight of the skull and produce mucus that moisturizes and filters the air we breathe. The frontal sinus is important for the drainage of mucus and plays a role in the resonance of the voice.

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  • 5. 

    Gene De Vonne Katrouchuacheulujiki wants to change her surname to something shorter, The court denied her request which depresses her and find herself binge eating. She accidentally aspirate a large piece of nut and it passes the carina. Probabilty wise, Where will the nut go?

    • A.

      Right main stem bronchus

    • B.

      Left main stem bronchus

    • C.

      Be dislodged in between the carina

    • D.

      Be blocked by the closed epiglottis

    Correct Answer
    A. Right main stem bronchus
  • 6. 

    Which cell secretes mucus that help protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract?

    • A.

      Type I pneumocytes

    • B.

      Type II pneumocytes

    • C.

      Goblet cells

    • D.

      Adipose cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Goblet cells
    Explanation
    Goblet cells are responsible for secreting mucus that helps protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract. Mucus acts as a sticky barrier, trapping particles such as dust, bacteria, and viruses, preventing them from reaching the lungs and causing damage or infection. Goblet cells are found in the respiratory epithelium and are specialized in producing and secreting mucus to maintain the health and integrity of the respiratory system.

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  • 7. 

    How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG?

    • A.

      One

    • B.

      Two

    • C.

      Three

    • D.

      Four

    Correct Answer
    C. Three
    Explanation
    The right lung is divided into three lobes: the superior, middle, and inferior lobes. Each lobe has its own blood supply and is responsible for specific functions in the respiratory system. The lobes of the right lung allow for efficient oxygen exchange and help in maintaining proper lung function.

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  • 8. 

    The presence of the liver causes which anatomical difference of the Kidneys and the Lungs?

    • A.

      Left kidney slightly lower, Left lung slightly shorter

    • B.

      Left kidney slightly higher, Left lung slightly shorter

    • C.

      Right kidney lower, Right lung shorter

    • D.

      Right kidney higher, Right lung shorter

    Correct Answer
    C. Right kidney lower, Right lung shorter
    Explanation
    The presence of the liver causes the right kidney to be positioned lower than the left kidney. This is because the liver takes up space on the right side of the abdominal cavity, pushing the right kidney down. Additionally, the right lung is slightly shorter than the left lung due to the liver occupying space in the right thoracic cavity, restricting the lung's expansion.

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  • 9. 

    Surfactant is produced by what cells in the alveoli?

    • A.

      Type I pneumocytes

    • B.

      Type II pneumocytes

    • C.

      Goblet cells

    • D.

      Adipose cells

    Correct Answer
    B. Type II pneumocytes
    Explanation
    Surfactant is a substance that helps reduce surface tension in the alveoli, preventing them from collapsing. Type II pneumocytes are responsible for producing surfactant in the alveoli. These cells secrete surfactant to keep the alveoli open and facilitate efficient gas exchange in the lungs. Type I pneumocytes, on the other hand, are involved in the actual gas exchange process, while goblet cells produce mucus in the airways and adipose cells store fat.

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  • 10. 

    The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby viable is

    • A.

      1:2

    • B.

      2:1

    • C.

      3:1

    • D.

      1:3

    Correct Answer
    B. 2:1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2:1. The L:S Ratio refers to the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin in the amniotic fluid, which is an indicator of lung maturity in a newborn baby. A ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates that the baby's lungs are mature enough for them to be considered viable outside the womb.

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  • 11. 

    Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume

    • A.

      Inspiratory reserve volume

    • B.

      Expiratory reserve volume

    • C.

      Functional residual capacity

    • D.

      Residual volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspiratory reserve volume
    Explanation
    The inspiratory reserve volume refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume. This means that it is the amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation. It represents the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled during deep breathing or exercise.

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  • 12. 

    This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after a forceful expiration

    • A.

      Inspiratory reserve volume

    • B.

      Expiratory reserve volume

    • C.

      Functional residual capacity

    • D.

      Residual volume

    Correct Answer
    D. Residual volume
    Explanation
    Residual volume refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a forceful expiration. It represents the air that cannot be expelled from the lungs and is necessary to maintain lung function and prevent lung collapse. This volume is important for gas exchange and ensures that there is always a supply of oxygen available in the lungs.

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  • 13. 

    Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked you, how many spikes of bones are there in my ribs? Your best response is which of the following?

    • A.

      We have 13 pairs of ribs Cassandra

    • B.

      We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra

    • C.

      Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was noted by Vesalius in 1543

    • D.

      Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are floating

    Correct Answer
    B. We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra
  • 14. 

    Which of the following is considered as the main muscle of respiration?

    • A.

      Lungs

    • B.

      Intercostal Muscles

    • C.

      Diaphragm

    • D.

      Pectoralis major

    Correct Answer
    C. Diaphragm
    Explanation
    The diaphragm is considered as the main muscle of respiration. It is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, creating more space in the chest cavity and allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. This muscle plays a crucial role in the process of breathing and is responsible for the majority of the work involved in respiration.

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  • 15. 

    Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human requires? Which of the following is the best response :

    • A.

      God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

    • B.

      Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have 35% available in our air

    • C.

      Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have 50% available in our air

    • D.

      Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

    Correct Answer
    D. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air
    Explanation
    The best response is "Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air" because it directly answers Cassandra's question about the amount of oxygen in the air and how much humans require. It provides the correct information that humans need 21% of oxygen and that the air contains 21% oxygen, indicating that the available oxygen meets the human requirement.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?

    • A.

      A passive process

    • B.

      The length of which is half of the length of Inspiration

    • C.

      Stridor is commonly heard during expiration

    • D.

      Requires energy to be carried out

    Correct Answer
    A. A passive process
    Explanation
    Expiration is the process of exhaling air from the lungs. It is considered a passive process because it does not require any active muscle contraction. The diaphragm and other respiratory muscles relax, allowing the elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall to push the air out. The length of expiration is typically longer than inspiration, and stridor, a high-pitched wheezing sound, is not commonly heard during expiration. No energy is required for expiration to occur.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is TRUE in postural drainage?

    • A.

      Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes

    • B.

      Should last only for 60 minutes

    • C.

      Done best P.C

    • D.

      An independent nursing action

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes
    Explanation
    Postural drainage is a technique used to help mobilize and remove secretions from the lungs. The correct answer states that the patient assumes a specific position for 10 to 15 minutes. This is true because during postural drainage, the patient is positioned in a way that allows gravity to assist in moving secretions from the lungs to the larger airways, where they can be coughed up or suctioned out. This position is typically held for a specific duration to ensure adequate drainage.

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  • 18. 

    All but one of the following is a purpose of steam inhalation

    • A.

      Mucolytic

    • B.

      Warm and humidify air

    • C.

      Administer medications

    • D.

      Promote bronchoconstriction

    Correct Answer
    D. Promote bronchoconstriction
    Explanation
    Steam inhalation is a common home remedy used to relieve congestion and respiratory symptoms. It involves inhaling warm, moist air, which can help to loosen mucus and soothe irritated airways. However, promoting bronchoconstriction, which is the narrowing of the airways, is not a purpose of steam inhalation. In fact, steam inhalation is often used to alleviate bronchoconstriction and improve breathing. Therefore, the correct answer is "Promote bronchoconstriction."

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is NOT TRUE in steam inhalation?

    • A.

      It is a dependent nursing action

    • B.

      Spout is put 12-18 inches away from the nose

    • C.

      Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutes

    • D.

      Cover the client’s eye with wash cloth to prevent irritation

    Correct Answer
    C. Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutes
  • 20. 

    When should a nurse suction a client?

    • A.

      As desired

    • B.

      As needed

    • C.

      Every 1 hour

    • D.

      Every 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    B. As needed
    Explanation
    A nurse should suction a client as needed. Suctioning is a procedure used to remove secretions or obstructions from the airway to maintain a clear passage for breathing. The need for suctioning can vary depending on the client's condition and symptoms. It is not necessary to suction a client at fixed time intervals such as every 1 hour or every 4 hours, as this may cause unnecessary discomfort and potential harm to the client. Instead, the nurse should assess the client's respiratory status and only perform suctioning when there are indications of airway obstruction or excessive secretions.

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  • 21. 

    Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New york, Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical Center and was Unconscious. You are his nurse and you are to suction his secretions. In which position should you place Mr. Hamilton?

    • A.

      High fowlers

    • B.

      Semi fowlers

    • C.

      Prone

    • D.

      Side lying

    Correct Answer
    D. Side lying
    Explanation
    The correct position to place Mr. Hamilton in is side lying. This position is beneficial for patients who are unconscious and need to have their secretions suctioned. Side lying helps to prevent aspiration and allows for easier access to the airway for suctioning. Additionally, this position helps to maintain proper alignment of the body and prevent pressure ulcers.

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  • 22. 

    You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Hamilton. You are using a Wall unit suction machine. How much pressure should you set the valve before suctioning Mr. Hamilton?

    • A.

      50-95 mmHg

    • B.

      200-350 mmHg

    • C.

      100-120 mmHg

    • D.

      10-15 mmHg

    Correct Answer
    C. 100-120 mmHg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 100-120 mmHg. This range of pressure is typically used for suctioning patients using a Wall unit suction machine. It is important to set the valve within this range to ensure effective suctioning without causing harm or discomfort to the patient. Setting the pressure too low may result in inadequate suctioning, while setting it too high may cause tissue damage or discomfort for the patient.

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  • 23. 

    The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use the portable suction equipment available. How much pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in case of portable suction units?

    • A.

      2-5 mmHg

    • B.

      5-10 mmHg

    • C.

      10-15 mmHg

    • D.

      15-25 mmHg

    Correct Answer
    C. 10-15 mmHg
  • 24. 

    There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should you use for Mr. Hamilton?

    • A.

      Fr. 18

    • B.

      Fr. 12

    • C.

      Fr. 10

    • D.

      Fr, 5

    Correct Answer
    A. Fr. 18
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fr. 18. The size of the catheter needed for a patient depends on various factors such as the purpose of the catheterization, the patient's age, and the condition of the patient's urethra. In this case, since there is no additional information provided about Mr. Hamilton, it is assumed that Fr. 18 is the appropriate size based on general guidelines. Fr. 18 is a larger size compared to the other options, indicating that it may be suitable for a variety of purposes, including urinary catheterization in adults.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following, if done by the nurse, indicates incompetence during suctioning an unconscious client?

    • A.

      Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process

    • B.

      Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal secretion

    • C.

      The maximum time of suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds

    • D.

      Allow 30 seconds interval between suctioning

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure the length of the suction catheter to be inserted by measuring from the tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process
    Explanation
    The nurse measuring the length of the suction catheter by measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process indicates incompetence during suctioning an unconscious client because this is an incorrect method of measuring the length of the catheter. The correct method is to measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and then to the angle of the jaw. Measuring to the xiphoid process is not necessary and may result in the catheter being inserted too far into the airway.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is the initial sign of hypoxemia in an adult client?1. Tachypnea2. Tachycardia3. Cyanosis4. Pallor5. Irritability6. Flaring of Nares

    • A.

      1,2

    • B.

      2,5

    • C.

      2,6

    • D.

      3,4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2,5
    Explanation
    Tachycardia and irritability are the initial signs of hypoxemia in an adult client. Tachycardia refers to an abnormally fast heart rate, which can occur in response to a decrease in oxygen levels in the body. Irritability is a common symptom that can be caused by hypoxemia, as the brain may not be receiving enough oxygen. These signs can be early indicators of hypoxemia and should be monitored closely in order to provide appropriate medical intervention.

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  • 27. 

    Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?

    • A.

      Nasal Cannula

    • B.

      Simple Face mask

    • C.

      Non Rebreather mask

    • D.

      Partial Rebreather mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasal Cannula
    Explanation
    The nasal cannula is the method of oxygenation that least likely produces anxiety and apprehension because it is the most comfortable and least invasive option. It delivers low to moderate levels of oxygen through two small prongs that sit in the nostrils, allowing the patient to breathe normally. The nasal cannula does not cover the face or restrict movement, which can help alleviate anxiety and apprehension. In contrast, the other options (simple face mask, non-rebreather mask, and partial rebreather mask) cover the nose and mouth, which may cause discomfort and make breathing feel more restricted, potentially leading to increased anxiety and apprehension.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?

    • A.

      Nasal Cannula

    • B.

      Simple Face mask

    • C.

      Non Rebreather mask

    • D.

      Partial Rebreather mask

    Correct Answer
    C. Non Rebreather mask
    Explanation
    A non-rebreather mask is capable of delivering 100% oxygen at a flow rate of 15 LPM. This type of mask has a reservoir bag attached to it, which allows the patient to inhale a higher concentration of oxygen with each breath. The mask also has one-way valves that prevent the patient from rebreathing exhaled air, ensuring that they receive a continuous supply of fresh oxygen. This makes the non-rebreather mask an effective method for delivering high concentrations of oxygen to patients in need.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?

    • A.

      Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas.

    • B.

      Oxygen can irritate mucus membrane

    • C.

      Oxygen supports combustion

    • D.

      Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis
    Explanation
    Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis. This means that when too much oxygen is administered, it can lead to a condition called respiratory acidosis, where there is an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the body, causing a decrease in blood pH. This is the opposite of what oxygen is typically known for, which is supporting combustion and being odorless, tasteless, and colorless.

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  • 30. 

    Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient with Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Roberto will:

    • A.

      Uses venture mask in oxygen administration

    • B.

      Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source

    • C.

      Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygen

    • D.

      Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration

    Correct Answer
    B. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source
  • 31. 

    Which of the following will alert the nurse as an early sign of hypoxia?

    • A.

      Client is tired and dyspneic

    • B.

      The client is coughing out blood

    • C.

      The client’s heart rate is 50 BPM

    • D.

      Client is frequently turning from side to side

    Correct Answer
    D. Client is frequently turning from side to side
    Explanation
    Frequent turning from side to side can be an early sign of hypoxia because the body is trying to find a position that allows for better oxygenation. This behavior may indicate that the client is experiencing difficulty breathing or is not getting enough oxygen. It is important for the nurse to recognize this early sign and intervene appropriately to ensure the client's oxygenation needs are met.

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  • 32. 

    Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, Which of the following associated finding should the nurse expect?

    • A.

      Pancytopenia

    • B.

      Anemia

    • C.

      Fingers are Club-like

    • D.

      Hematocrit of client is decreased

    Correct Answer
    C. Fingers are Club-like
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Fingers are Club-like." Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the fingertips become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. It is often associated with chronic respiratory or cardiovascular diseases. In this case, Miguelito de balboa, an OFW (Overseas Filipino Worker), presents with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, which indicates an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This finding, along with the clubbing of the fingers, suggests that Miguelito may have a chronic respiratory condition, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

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  • 33. 

    The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:

    • A.

      Cannula

    • B.

      Simple Face mask

    • C.

      Non rebreather mask

    • D.

      Venturi mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Cannula
    Explanation
    The best method of oxygen administration for a client with COPD is a cannula. A cannula is a small, flexible tube that is inserted into the nostrils and delivers a low flow of oxygen. This method is preferred for COPD patients because it provides a continuous and low level of oxygen, which helps to prevent oxygen toxicity and reduce the risk of carbon dioxide retention. Additionally, a cannula is comfortable and allows the client to eat, drink, and talk while receiving oxygen therapy.

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  • 34. 

    Mang dagul, a 50 year old chronic smoker was brought to the E.R because of difficulty in breathing. Pleural effusion was the diagnosis and CTT was ordered. What does C.T.T Stands for?

    • A.

      Chest tube thoracotomy

    • B.

      Chest tube thoracostomy

    • C.

      Closed tube thoracotomy

    • D.

      Closed tube thoracostmy

    Correct Answer
    C. Closed tube thoracotomy
    Explanation
    CTT stands for Closed tube thoracotomy. In this scenario, the patient has been diagnosed with pleural effusion, which is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space around the lungs. A closed tube thoracotomy is a surgical procedure where a chest tube is inserted into the pleural space to drain the fluid and relieve the pressure on the lungs, allowing the patient to breathe more easily. This procedure is commonly performed in cases of pleural effusion to improve respiratory function.

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  • 35. 

    Where will the CTT be inserted if we are to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul’s pleura?

    • A.

      2nd ICS

    • B.

      4th ICS

    • C.

      5th ICS

    • D.

      8th ICS

    Correct Answer
    D. 8th ICS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8th ICS. The intercostal space (ICS) refers to the space between two adjacent ribs. In this case, the CTT (chest tube thoracostomy) will be inserted in the 8th ICS to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul's pleura. The pleura is the membrane that lines the chest cavity and covers the lungs. By inserting the CTT in the 8th ICS, it allows for effective drainage of the accumulated fluids from the pleural space to relieve any potential complications or discomfort.

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  • 36. 

    There is a continuous bubbling in the water sealed drainage system with suction. And oscillation is observed. As a nurse, what should you do?

    • A.

      Consider this as normal findings

    • B.

      Notify the physician

    • C.

      Check for tube leak

    • D.

      Prepare a petrolatum gauze dressing

    Correct Answer
    A. Consider this as normal findings
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the correct answer is to consider the continuous bubbling and oscillation in the water sealed drainage system with suction as normal findings. This is because the water sealed drainage system is designed to create bubbling and oscillation as a means of maintaining proper suction and preventing air from entering the system. Therefore, as a nurse, there is no need to be alarmed or take any further action in response to these observations.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is true about nutrition?

    • A.

      It is the process in which food are broken down, for the body to use in growth and development

    • B.

      It is a process in which digested proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates are transported into the circulation

    • C.

      It is a chemical process that occurs in the cell that allows for energy production, energy use, growth and tissue repair

    • D.

      It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the body

    Correct Answer
    D. It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the body
    Explanation
    Nutrition is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are used by the body. It involves understanding the different types of nutrients, such as proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins, and carbohydrates, and how they are broken down and utilized by the body for growth, development, energy production, and tissue repair.

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  • 38. 

    The majority of the digestion processes take place in the

    • A.

      Mouth

    • B.

      Small intestine

    • C.

      Large intestine

    • D.

      Stomach

    Correct Answer
    B. Small intestine
    Explanation
    The majority of digestion processes take place in the small intestine. This is because the small intestine is responsible for breaking down food into smaller molecules, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, through the action of digestive enzymes. It also absorbs the nutrients from the digested food into the bloodstream for distribution to the rest of the body. The mouth starts the process of digestion by breaking down food mechanically through chewing and mixing it with saliva, but the actual breakdown of nutrients occurs primarily in the small intestine. The stomach plays a role in digestion by secreting gastric juices and breaking down proteins, but it is not where the majority of digestion takes place. The large intestine mainly absorbs water and electrolytes from the remaining undigested food, but it is not involved in the majority of digestion processes.

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  • 39. 

    All of the following is true about digestion that occurs in the Mouth except

    • A.

      It is where the digestion process starts

    • B.

      Mechanical digestion is brought about by mastication

    • C.

      The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose

    • D.

      Deglutition occurs after food is broken down into small pieces and well mixed with saliva

    Correct Answer
    C. The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose
    Explanation
    The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following foods lowers the cardiac sphincter pressure?

    • A.

      Roast beef, Steamed cauliflower and Rice

    • B.

      Orange juice, Non fat milk, Dry crackers

    • C.

      Decaffeinated coffee, Sky flakes crackers, Suman

    • D.

      Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg

    Correct Answer
    D. Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg
    Explanation
    Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg can lower the cardiac sphincter pressure. The cardiac sphincter is a muscle that separates the stomach from the esophagus and helps prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Certain foods can weaken this muscle and increase the risk of acid reflux. Coffee, especially when consumed with high-fat foods like bacon and eggs, can relax the cardiac sphincter and lead to acid reflux symptoms. Additionally, coffee mate, which is a non-dairy creamer, may also contribute to this effect.

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  • 41. 

    Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?

    • A.

      Mouth

    • B.

      Esophagus

    • C.

      Small intestine

    • D.

      Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Mouth
    Explanation
    The digestion of carbohydrates starts in the mouth. Salivary amylase, an enzyme present in saliva, begins breaking down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars like maltose. This initial breakdown of carbohydrates in the mouth is the first step in the digestive process, allowing for easier absorption and utilization of carbohydrates by the body.

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  • 42. 

    Protein and Fat digestion begins where?

    • A.

      Mouth

    • B.

      Esophagus

    • C.

      Small intestine

    • D.

      Stomach

    Correct Answer
    D. Stomach
    Explanation
    Protein and fat digestion begins in the stomach. The stomach produces gastric juice, which contains enzymes like pepsin that break down proteins into smaller peptides. Additionally, the stomach secretes gastric lipase, an enzyme that begins the breakdown of fats. This initial digestion in the stomach prepares the proteins and fats for further breakdown and absorption in the small intestine. The mouth and esophagus primarily play a role in the mechanical digestion of food, while the small intestine is mainly responsible for the absorption of nutrients.

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  • 43. 

    All but one is true about digestion that occurs in the Stomach

    • A.

      Carbohydrates are the fastest to be digested, in about an hour

    • B.

      Fat is the slowest to be digested, in about 5 hours

    • C.

      HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosa

    • D.

      HCl converts pepsinogen to pepsin, which starts the complex process of protein digestion

    Correct Answer
    C. HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosa
    Explanation
    HCl inhibits the absorption of calcium in the gastric mucosa. This means that when HCl is present in the stomach, it prevents the absorption of calcium from the food that is being digested. This can have implications for calcium levels in the body, as it may lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially contribute to calcium deficiencies or imbalances. It is important for the body to regulate calcium absorption in order to maintain proper bone health and other physiological functions.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is NOT an enzyme secreted by the small intestine?

    • A.

      Sucrase

    • B.

      Enterokinase

    • C.

      Amylase

    • D.

      Enterokinase

    Correct Answer
    C. Amylase
    Explanation
    Amylase is not an enzyme secreted by the small intestine. It is an enzyme produced primarily in the salivary glands and pancreas. Amylase is responsible for breaking down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars. In the small intestine, other enzymes like sucrase and enterokinase are secreted. Sucrase aids in the digestion of sucrose, while enterokinase activates trypsinogen, an inactive enzyme produced in the pancreas, into trypsin, which helps in the digestion of proteins.

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  • 45. 

    The hormone secreted by the Small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice which primarily aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the Stomach

    • A.

      Enterogastrone

    • B.

      Cholecystokinin

    • C.

      Pancreozymin

    • D.

      Enterokinase

    Correct Answer
    C. Pancreozymin
    Explanation
    Pancreozymin is the correct answer because it is a hormone secreted by the small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice. Pancreatic juice aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the stomach, helping to neutralize the acidity and create a more favorable environment for digestion in the small intestine.

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  • 46. 

    When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are formed?

    • A.

      Galactose + Galactose

    • B.

      Glucose + Fructose

    • C.

      Glucose + Galactose

    • D.

      Fructose + Fructose

    Correct Answer
    B. Glucose + Fructose
    Explanation
    When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on sucrose, it breaks it down into two monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. This is because sucrase specifically hydrolyzes the glycosidic bond between glucose and fructose in sucrose, resulting in the formation of these two monosaccharides.

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  • 47. 

    This is the enzyme secreted by the pancrease that completes the protein digestion

    • A.

      Trypsin

    • B.

      Enterokinase

    • C.

      Enterogastrone

    • D.

      Amylase

    Correct Answer
    A. Trypsin
    Explanation
    Trypsin is an enzyme secreted by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in completing protein digestion. It helps break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids, which can then be absorbed by the body. Enterokinase is an enzyme that activates trypsinogen to form trypsin. Enterogastrone is a hormone that regulates the movement of food through the digestive system. Amylase is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of carbohydrates, not proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is Trypsin.

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  • 48. 

    The end product of protein digestion or the “Building blocks of Protein” is what we call

    • A.

      Nucleotides

    • B.

      Fatty acids

    • C.

      Glucose

    • D.

      Amino Acids

    Correct Answer
    D. Amino Acids
    Explanation
    Amino acids are the end product of protein digestion. Proteins are broken down into their individual amino acid components during the process of digestion. These amino acids are then used by the body to build new proteins, repair tissues, and perform various other functions. Nucleotides are the building blocks of DNA and RNA, not proteins. Fatty acids are the building blocks of lipids, not proteins. Glucose is a type of sugar and is not directly related to protein digestion.

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  • 49. 

    Enzyme secreted by the small intestine after it detects a bolus of fatty food. This will contract the gallbladder to secrete bile and relax the sphincter of Oddi to aid in the emulsification of fats and its digestion.

    • A.

      Lipase

    • B.

      Amylase

    • C.

      Cholecystokinin

    • D.

      Pancreozymin

    Correct Answer
    C. Cholecystokinin
    Explanation
    Cholecystokinin is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is secreted by the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty food. It stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder, causing it to release bile, which aids in the emulsification of fats. Cholecystokinin also relaxes the sphincter of Oddi, allowing the bile to flow into the small intestine and aid in the digestion of fats. Therefore, cholecystokinin plays a crucial role in the digestion of fatty foods.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following is not true about the Large Intestine?

    • A.

      It absorbs around 1 L of water making the feces around 75% water and 25% solid

    • B.

      The stool formed in the transverse colon is not yet well formed

    • C.

      It is a sterile body cavity

    • D.

      It is called large intestine because it is longer than the small intestine

    Correct Answer
    C. It is a sterile body cavity
    Explanation
    The large intestine is not a sterile body cavity. It contains a large number of bacteria that play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients. These bacteria also produce certain vitamins, such as vitamin K. Therefore, the statement that the large intestine is a sterile body cavity is not true.

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