Fundamentals Of Nursing V : Www.Rnpedia.Com

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  • 1/100 Questions

    The end product of protein digestion or the “Building blocks of Protein” is what we call

    • Nucleotides
    • Fatty acids
    • Glucose
    • Amino Acids
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About This Quiz

Mark the letter of the letter of choice then click on the next button. Score will be posted as soon as the you are done with the quiz. You got 120 minutes to finish the exam. Good luck!Content Outline1. Oxygenation2. Nutrition

Fundamentals Of Nursing V : Www.Rnpedia.Com - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    When should a nurse suction a client?

    • As desired

    • As needed

    • Every 1 hour

    • Every 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. As needed
    Explanation
    A nurse should suction a client as needed. Suctioning is a procedure used to remove secretions or obstructions from the airway to maintain a clear passage for breathing. The need for suctioning can vary depending on the client's condition and symptoms. It is not necessary to suction a client at fixed time intervals such as every 1 hour or every 4 hours, as this may cause unnecessary discomfort and potential harm to the client. Instead, the nurse should assess the client's respiratory status and only perform suctioning when there are indications of airway obstruction or excessive secretions.

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  • 3. 

    A client with TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The client said “I feel weak” You saw that his TPN is already empty and another TPN is scheduled to replace the previous one but its provision is already 3 hours late. Which of the following is the probable complication being experienced by the client?

    • Hyperglycemia

    • Hypoglycemia

    • Infection

    • Fluid overload

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoglycemia
    Explanation
    The client is experiencing hypoglycemia due to the sudden onset of symptoms such as tremors, dizziness, weakness, and diaphoresis. TPN (total parenteral nutrition) is a method of providing nutrition directly into the bloodstream, and if the TPN is empty and the replacement is delayed, it can lead to a drop in blood sugar levels. This can cause the client to feel weak and experience symptoms associated with hypoglycemia.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following if done by the nurse, is correct during NGT Insertion?

    • Use an oil based lubricant

    • Measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process

    • Soak the NGT in a basin of ice water to facilitate easy insertion

    • Check the placement of the tube by introducing 10 cc of sterile water and auscultating for bubbling sound

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process. This is the correct procedure for determining the appropriate length of the NGT to be inserted into the patient's body.

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  • 5. 

    When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are formed?

    • Galactose + Galactose

    • Glucose + Fructose

    • Glucose + Galactose

    • Fructose + Fructose

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucose + Fructose
    Explanation
    When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on sucrose, it breaks it down into two monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. This is because sucrase specifically hydrolyzes the glycosidic bond between glucose and fructose in sucrose, resulting in the formation of these two monosaccharides.

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  • 6. 

    The most threatening complication of vomiting in client’s with stroke is

    • Aspiration

    • Dehydration

    • Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

    • Malnutrition

    Correct Answer
    A. Aspiration
    Explanation
    The most threatening complication of vomiting in clients with stroke is aspiration. Aspiration occurs when vomit enters the airway and lungs, leading to a potential blockage or infection. This can result in pneumonia, respiratory distress, and even death. Aspiration is particularly dangerous for stroke patients who may already have weakened swallowing reflexes or impaired coughing ability. It is important to closely monitor and manage vomiting in these clients to prevent aspiration and its severe consequences.

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  • 7. 

    A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a nurse, which of the following food should you instruct the client to avoid?

    • Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, Liver

    • Salmon, Sardines, Tuna

    • Butter, Egg yolk, breakfast cereals

    • Banana, Yeast, Wheat germ, Chicken

    Correct Answer
    A. Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, Liver
    Explanation
    These foods are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin (a blood thinner). Coumadin works by blocking the action of vitamin K, which is necessary for blood clotting. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid consuming large amounts of vitamin K-rich foods to prevent potential complications or fluctuations in their INR (International Normalized Ratio) levels.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is the BEST method in assessing for the correct placement of the NGT?

    • X-Ray

    • Immerse tip of the tube in water to check for bubbles produced

    • Aspirating gastric content to check if the content is acidic

    • Instilling air in the NGT and listening for a gurgling sound at the epigastric area

    Correct Answer
    A. X-Ray
    Explanation
    The best method for assessing the correct placement of the NGT is X-Ray. X-Ray provides a clear and accurate visualization of the NGT's location within the body, ensuring that it is correctly placed in the gastrointestinal tract. The other options listed may provide some indication of placement, but they are not as reliable or definitive as an X-Ray.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is considered as the main muscle of respiration?

    • Lungs

    • Intercostal Muscles

    • Diaphragm

    • Pectoralis major

    Correct Answer
    A. Diaphragm
    Explanation
    The diaphragm is considered as the main muscle of respiration. It is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, creating more space in the chest cavity and allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. This muscle plays a crucial role in the process of breathing and is responsible for the majority of the work involved in respiration.

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  • 10. 

    Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?

    • Mouth

    • Esophagus

    • Small intestine

    • Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Mouth
    Explanation
    The digestion of carbohydrates starts in the mouth. Salivary amylase, an enzyme present in saliva, begins breaking down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars like maltose. This initial breakdown of carbohydrates in the mouth is the first step in the digestive process, allowing for easier absorption and utilization of carbohydrates by the body.

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  • 11. 

    Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and rickets.

    • Vitamin D

    • Iron

    • Calcium

    • Sodium

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium
    Explanation
    Calcium is essential for maintaining healthy bones and teeth. A deficiency of calcium can lead to various conditions such as tetany, which is characterized by muscle spasms and contractions, as well as osteomalacia, which is the softening of bones. Osteoporosis, a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, can also result from a lack of calcium. Additionally, calcium deficiency can lead to rickets, a condition that affects bone development in children. Therefore, the correct answer is calcium.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following provides the richest source of Iron per area of their meat?

    • Pork meat

    • Lean read meat

    • Pork liver

    • Green mongo

    Correct Answer
    A. Pork liver
    Explanation
    Pork liver provides the richest source of iron per area of their meat compared to the other options. Liver is known to be a highly concentrated source of iron, making it an excellent choice for individuals looking to increase their iron intake. While lean red meat also contains iron, pork liver is typically higher in iron content. Green mongo and pork meat may contain some iron, but they are not as rich in iron as pork liver.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is true about an individual’s caloric needs?

    • All individual have the same caloric needs

    • Females in general have higher BMR and therefore, require more calories

    • During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMR

    • Dinner should be the heaviest meal of the day

    Correct Answer
    A. During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMR
    Explanation
    During cold weather, people need more calories due to an increase in Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR). BMR is the amount of energy the body needs to maintain basic functions while at rest. When exposed to cold temperatures, the body needs to work harder to maintain its core temperature, resulting in an increase in BMR. To meet this increased energy requirement, people need to consume more calories during cold weather.

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  • 14. 

    Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the intake of LEVODOPA in cases of Parkinson’s Disease due to the fact that levodopa increases its level in the body?

    • Vitamin B1

    • Vitamin B2

    • Vitamin B3

    • Vitamin B6

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin B6
    Explanation
    Levodopa is a medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. It is converted into dopamine in the brain, which helps to alleviate the symptoms of the disease. However, levodopa can also increase the levels of Vitamin B6 in the body. High levels of Vitamin B6 can interfere with the effectiveness of levodopa and reduce its ability to alleviate symptoms. Therefore, it is not recommended to take Vitamin B6 in conjunction with levodopa in cases of Parkinson's disease.

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  • 15. 

    There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should you use for Mr. Hamilton?

    • Fr. 18

    • Fr. 12

    • Fr. 10

    • Fr, 5

    Correct Answer
    A. Fr. 18
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Fr. 18. The size of the catheter needed for a patient depends on various factors such as the purpose of the catheterization, the patient's age, and the condition of the patient's urethra. In this case, since there is no additional information provided about Mr. Hamilton, it is assumed that Fr. 18 is the appropriate size based on general guidelines. Fr. 18 is a larger size compared to the other options, indicating that it may be suitable for a variety of purposes, including urinary catheterization in adults.

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  • 16. 

    Which food group should you emphasize giving on a pregnant mother in first trimester to prevent neural tube defects?

    • Broccoli, Guava, Citrus fruits, Tomatoes

    • Butter, Sardines, Tuna, Salmon, Egg yolk

    • Wheat germ, Vegetable Oil, soybeans, corn, peanuts

    • Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs

    Correct Answer
    A. Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs
    Explanation
    During the first trimester of pregnancy, it is crucial to emphasize foods that are rich in folate in order to prevent neural tube defects. Organ meats, green leafy vegetables, liver, and eggs are all excellent sources of folate, which is a B-vitamin that plays a key role in the development of the baby's neural tube. Neural tube defects can occur if there is a deficiency in folate during pregnancy, so it is important for pregnant mothers to consume foods that are high in folate to ensure the healthy development of the baby's neural tube.

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  • 17. 

    How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG?

    • One

    • Two

    • Three

    • Four

    Correct Answer
    A. Three
    Explanation
    The right lung is divided into three lobes: the superior, middle, and inferior lobes. Each lobe has its own blood supply and is responsible for specific functions in the respiratory system. The lobes of the right lung allow for efficient oxygen exchange and help in maintaining proper lung function.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is included in a full liquid diet?

    • Popsicles

    • Pureed vegetable meat

    • Pineapple juice with pulps

    • Mashed potato

    Correct Answer
    A. Popsicles
    Explanation
    A full liquid diet consists of foods that are liquid or semi-liquid at room temperature. Popsicles are included in a full liquid diet because they are frozen liquids that melt into a liquid form when consumed. Pureed vegetable meat, pineapple juice with pulps, and mashed potato are not included in a full liquid diet as they are not in a liquid form.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is the first sign of dehydration?

    • Tachycardia

    • Restlessness

    • Thirst

    • Poor skin turgor

    Correct Answer
    A. Thirst
    Explanation
    Thirst is the first sign of dehydration because when the body is lacking sufficient fluids, it sends signals to the brain to trigger the sensation of thirst. Thirst is the body's way of indicating that it needs more water to maintain proper hydration levels. It is a natural response to prevent further dehydration and to encourage the individual to drink fluids. Therefore, out of the given options, thirst is the earliest and most common sign of dehydration.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?

    • Nasal Cannula

    • Simple Face mask

    • Non Rebreather mask

    • Partial Rebreather mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Non Rebreather mask
    Explanation
    A non-rebreather mask is capable of delivering 100% oxygen at a flow rate of 15 LPM. This type of mask has a reservoir bag attached to it, which allows the patient to inhale a higher concentration of oxygen with each breath. The mask also has one-way valves that prevent the patient from rebreathing exhaled air, ensuring that they receive a continuous supply of fresh oxygen. This makes the non-rebreather mask an effective method for delivering high concentrations of oxygen to patients in need.

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  • 21. 

    Assuming a cup of rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates. How many calories are there in that cup of rice?

    • 150 calories

    • 200 calories

    • 250 calories

    • 400 calories

    Correct Answer
    A. 200 calories
    Explanation
    A cup of rice typically provides around 200 calories. This is because carbohydrates contain 4 calories per gram, and since the rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates, it would amount to 200 calories.

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  • 22. 

    A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis

    • Vitamin B1

    • Vitamin B2

    • Vitamin B3

    • Vitamin B6

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin B6
    Explanation
    Vitamin B6 is taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis. This is because ISONIAZID, a medication used to treat tuberculosis, can lead to a deficiency of vitamin B6 in the body. Vitamin B6 is essential for nerve function and deficiency can cause peripheral neuritis, which is inflammation of the nerves in the hands and feet. Therefore, taking vitamin B6 along with ISONIAZID helps to prevent this side effect and maintain proper nerve health.

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  • 23. 

    The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby viable is

    • 1:2

    • 2:1

    • 3:1

    • 1:3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2:1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2:1. The L:S Ratio refers to the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin in the amniotic fluid, which is an indicator of lung maturity in a newborn baby. A ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates that the baby's lungs are mature enough for them to be considered viable outside the womb.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?

    • Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas.

    • Oxygen can irritate mucus membrane

    • Oxygen supports combustion

    • Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis
    Explanation
    Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis. This means that when too much oxygen is administered, it can lead to a condition called respiratory acidosis, where there is an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the body, causing a decrease in blood pH. This is the opposite of what oxygen is typically known for, which is supporting combustion and being odorless, tasteless, and colorless.

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  • 25. 

    Which finding is consistent with PERNICIOUS ANEMIA?

    • Strawberry tongue

    • Currant Jelly stool

    • Beefy red tongue

    • Pale [ HYPOCHROMIC ] RBC

    Correct Answer
    A. Beefy red tongue
    Explanation
    A beefy red tongue is a consistent finding in pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells. One of the symptoms of pernicious anemia is glossitis, which is the inflammation and swelling of the tongue. This can cause the tongue to appear beefy red in color. Therefore, a beefy red tongue is a characteristic finding in pernicious anemia.

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  • 26. 

    Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New york, Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical Center and was Unconscious. You are his nurse and you are to suction his secretions. In which position should you place Mr. Hamilton?

    • High fowlers

    • Semi fowlers

    • Prone

    • Side lying

    Correct Answer
    A. Side lying
    Explanation
    The correct position to place Mr. Hamilton in is side lying. This position is beneficial for patients who are unconscious and need to have their secretions suctioned. Side lying helps to prevent aspiration and allows for easier access to the airway for suctioning. Additionally, this position helps to maintain proper alignment of the body and prevent pressure ulcers.

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  • 27. 

    Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?

    • Nasal Cannula

    • Simple Face mask

    • Non Rebreather mask

    • Partial Rebreather mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Nasal Cannula
    Explanation
    The nasal cannula is the method of oxygenation that least likely produces anxiety and apprehension because it is the most comfortable and least invasive option. It delivers low to moderate levels of oxygen through two small prongs that sit in the nostrils, allowing the patient to breathe normally. The nasal cannula does not cover the face or restrict movement, which can help alleviate anxiety and apprehension. In contrast, the other options (simple face mask, non-rebreather mask, and partial rebreather mask) cover the nose and mouth, which may cause discomfort and make breathing feel more restricted, potentially leading to increased anxiety and apprehension.

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  • 28. 

    This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after a forceful expiration

    • Inspiratory reserve volume

    • Expiratory reserve volume

    • Functional residual capacity

    • Residual volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Residual volume
    Explanation
    Residual volume refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a forceful expiration. It represents the air that cannot be expelled from the lungs and is necessary to maintain lung function and prevent lung collapse. This volume is important for gas exchange and ensures that there is always a supply of oxygen available in the lungs.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following if done by a nurse indicates deviation from the standards of NGT feeding?

    • Do not give the feeding and notify the doctor of residual of the last feeding is greater than or equal to 50 ml

    • Height of the feeding should be 12 inches about the tube point of insertion to allow slow introduction of feeding

    • Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndrome

    • Clamp the NGT before all of the water is instilled to prevent air entry in the stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndrome
    Explanation
    The nurse deviates from the standards of NGT feeding by asking the client to position in a supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndrome. Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine, causing symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The correct position to prevent dumping syndrome after NGT feeding is to elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees for 1-2 hours after feeding.

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  • 30. 

    Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?

    • Ehtmoid

    • Sphenoid

    • Maxillary

    • Frontal

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontal
    Explanation
    The frontal sinus is found over the eyebrow. It is one of the paranasal sinuses located in the frontal bone of the skull. These sinuses are air-filled cavities that help to lighten the weight of the skull and produce mucus that moisturizes and filters the air we breathe. The frontal sinus is important for the drainage of mucus and plays a role in the resonance of the voice.

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  • 31. 

    Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human requires? Which of the following is the best response :

    • God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

    • Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have 35% available in our air

    • Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have 50% available in our air

    • Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

    Correct Answer
    A. Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air
    Explanation
    The best response is "Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air" because it directly answers Cassandra's question about the amount of oxygen in the air and how much humans require. It provides the correct information that humans need 21% of oxygen and that the air contains 21% oxygen, indicating that the available oxygen meets the human requirement.

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  • 32. 

    Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient with Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Roberto will:

    • Uses venture mask in oxygen administration

    • Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source

    • Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygen

    • Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source
  • 33. 

    Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume

    • Inspiratory reserve volume

    • Expiratory reserve volume

    • Functional residual capacity

    • Residual volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspiratory reserve volume
    Explanation
    The inspiratory reserve volume refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume. This means that it is the amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation. It represents the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled during deep breathing or exercise.

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  • 34. 

    Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked you, how many spikes of bones are there in my ribs? Your best response is which of the following?

    • We have 13 pairs of ribs Cassandra

    • We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra

    • Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was noted by Vesalius in 1543

    • Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are floating

    Correct Answer
    A. We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra
  • 35. 

    Which of the following is TRUE in postural drainage?

    • Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes

    • Should last only for 60 minutes

    • Done best P.C

    • An independent nursing action

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes
    Explanation
    Postural drainage is a technique used to help mobilize and remove secretions from the lungs. The correct answer states that the patient assumes a specific position for 10 to 15 minutes. This is true because during postural drainage, the patient is positioned in a way that allows gravity to assist in moving secretions from the lungs to the larger airways, where they can be coughed up or suctioned out. This position is typically held for a specific duration to ensure adequate drainage.

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  • 36. 

    The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:

    • Cannula

    • Simple Face mask

    • Non rebreather mask

    • Venturi mask

    Correct Answer
    A. Cannula
    Explanation
    The best method of oxygen administration for a client with COPD is a cannula. A cannula is a small, flexible tube that is inserted into the nostrils and delivers a low flow of oxygen. This method is preferred for COPD patients because it provides a continuous and low level of oxygen, which helps to prevent oxygen toxicity and reduce the risk of carbon dioxide retention. Additionally, a cannula is comfortable and allows the client to eat, drink, and talk while receiving oxygen therapy.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is not true about the Large Intestine?

    • It absorbs around 1 L of water making the feces around 75% water and 25% solid

    • The stool formed in the transverse colon is not yet well formed

    • It is a sterile body cavity

    • It is called large intestine because it is longer than the small intestine

    Correct Answer
    A. It is a sterile body cavity
    Explanation
    The large intestine is not a sterile body cavity. It contains a large number of bacteria that play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients. These bacteria also produce certain vitamins, such as vitamin K. Therefore, the statement that the large intestine is a sterile body cavity is not true.

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  • 38. 

    An average adult filipino requires how many calories in a day?

    • 1,000 calories

    • 1,500 calories

    • 2,000 calories

    • 2,500 calories

    Correct Answer
    A. 2,000 calories
    Explanation
    The average adult Filipino requires around 2,000 calories in a day. This is considered the recommended daily calorie intake for maintaining a healthy weight and meeting the body's energy needs. The specific calorie requirement may vary depending on factors such as age, gender, activity level, and overall health. However, 2,000 calories is generally a good estimate for an average adult Filipino.

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  • 39. 

    An average adult filipino requires how many calories in a day?

    • 1,000 calories

    • 1,500 calories

    • 2,000 calories

    • 2,500 calories

    Correct Answer
    A. 2,000 calories
    Explanation
    An average adult Filipino requires 2,000 calories in a day. This is a general guideline for maintaining a healthy diet and providing enough energy for daily activities. The specific calorie requirement may vary depending on factors such as age, gender, weight, and level of physical activity. However, 2,000 calories is a commonly recommended amount for adults to meet their nutritional needs and maintain a balanced diet.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?

    • A passive process

    • The length of which is half of the length of Inspiration

    • Stridor is commonly heard during expiration

    • Requires energy to be carried out

    Correct Answer
    A. A passive process
    Explanation
    Expiration is the process of exhaling air from the lungs. It is considered a passive process because it does not require any active muscle contraction. The diaphragm and other respiratory muscles relax, allowing the elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall to push the air out. The length of expiration is typically longer than inspiration, and stridor, a high-pitched wheezing sound, is not commonly heard during expiration. No energy is required for expiration to occur.

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  • 41. 

    The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use the portable suction equipment available. How much pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in case of portable suction units?

    • 2-5 mmHg

    • 5-10 mmHg

    • 10-15 mmHg

    • 15-25 mmHg

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-15 mmHg
  • 42. 

    Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, Which of the following associated finding should the nurse expect?

    • Pancytopenia

    • Anemia

    • Fingers are Club-like

    • Hematocrit of client is decreased

    Correct Answer
    A. Fingers are Club-like
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Fingers are Club-like." Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the fingertips become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. It is often associated with chronic respiratory or cardiovascular diseases. In this case, Miguelito de balboa, an OFW (Overseas Filipino Worker), presents with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, which indicates an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This finding, along with the clubbing of the fingers, suggests that Miguelito may have a chronic respiratory condition, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

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  • 43. 

    This is the enzyme secreted by the pancrease that completes the protein digestion

    • Trypsin

    • Enterokinase

    • Enterogastrone

    • Amylase

    Correct Answer
    A. Trypsin
    Explanation
    Trypsin is an enzyme secreted by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in completing protein digestion. It helps break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids, which can then be absorbed by the body. Enterokinase is an enzyme that activates trypsinogen to form trypsin. Enterogastrone is a hormone that regulates the movement of food through the digestive system. Amylase is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of carbohydrates, not proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is Trypsin.

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  • 44. 

    You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Hamilton. You are using a Wall unit suction machine. How much pressure should you set the valve before suctioning Mr. Hamilton?

    • 50-95 mmHg

    • 200-350 mmHg

    • 100-120 mmHg

    • 10-15 mmHg

    Correct Answer
    A. 100-120 mmHg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 100-120 mmHg. This range of pressure is typically used for suctioning patients using a Wall unit suction machine. It is important to set the valve within this range to ensure effective suctioning without causing harm or discomfort to the patient. Setting the pressure too low may result in inadequate suctioning, while setting it too high may cause tissue damage or discomfort for the patient.

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  • 45. 

    The majority of the digestion processes take place in the

    • Mouth

    • Small intestine

    • Large intestine

    • Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Small intestine
    Explanation
    The majority of digestion processes take place in the small intestine. This is because the small intestine is responsible for breaking down food into smaller molecules, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, through the action of digestive enzymes. It also absorbs the nutrients from the digested food into the bloodstream for distribution to the rest of the body. The mouth starts the process of digestion by breaking down food mechanically through chewing and mixing it with saliva, but the actual breakdown of nutrients occurs primarily in the small intestine. The stomach plays a role in digestion by secreting gastric juices and breaking down proteins, but it is not where the majority of digestion takes place. The large intestine mainly absorbs water and electrolytes from the remaining undigested food, but it is not involved in the majority of digestion processes.

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  • 46. 

    What Specific gravity lab result is compatible with a dehydrated client?

    • 1.007

    • 1.020

    • 1.039

    • 1.029

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.039
    Explanation
    A specific gravity lab result of 1.039 is compatible with a dehydrated client because a high specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, which is a common characteristic of dehydration. When the body is dehydrated, it conserves water by producing less urine, resulting in a higher concentration of waste products and electrolytes in the urine. Therefore, a specific gravity of 1.039 suggests that the client is dehydrated.

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  • 47. 

    Which is not a clear liquid diet?

    • Hard candy

    • Gelatin

    • Coffee with Coffee mate

    • Bouillon

    Correct Answer
    A. Coffee with Coffee mate
    Explanation
    Coffee with Coffee mate is not considered a clear liquid diet because it contains Coffee mate, which is a creamer that is not transparent. A clear liquid diet typically consists of liquids that are transparent and do not contain any solid particles or additives. Hard candy, gelatin, and bouillon can all be considered clear liquids as they are transparent and do not contain any solid particles.

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  • 48. 

    The nurse is browsing the chart of the patient and notes a normal serum lipase level. Which of the following is a normal serum lipase value?

    • 10 U/L

    • 100 U/L

    • 200 U/L

    • 350 U/L

    Correct Answer
    A. 200 U/L
    Explanation
    A normal serum lipase value is typically around 200 U/L. This value indicates that the patient's pancreas is functioning properly and there are no signs of pancreatic inflammation or injury.

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  • 49. 

    Gene De Vonne Katrouchuacheulujiki wants to change her surname to something shorter, The court denied her request which depresses her and find herself binge eating. She accidentally aspirate a large piece of nut and it passes the carina. Probabilty wise, Where will the nut go?

    • Right main stem bronchus

    • Left main stem bronchus

    • Be dislodged in between the carina

    • Be blocked by the closed epiglottis

    Correct Answer
    A. Right main stem bronchus

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Aug 25, 2010
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