Fundamentals Of Nursing V : Www.Rnpedia.Com

1. The end product of protein digestion or the “Building blocks of Protein” is what we call

Nucleotides

Fatty acids

Glucose

Amino Acids

Amino acids are the end product of protein digestion. Proteins are broken down into their individual amino acid components during the process of digestion. These amino acids are then used by the body to build new proteins, repair tissues, and perform various other functions. Nucleotides are the building blocks of DNA and RNA, not proteins. Fatty acids are the building blocks of lipids, not proteins. Glucose is a type of sugar and is not directly related to protein digestion.

Explanation

Amino acids are the end product of protein digestion. Proteins are broken down into their individual amino acid components during the process of digestion. These amino acids are then used by the body to build new proteins, repair tissues, and perform various other functions. Nucleotides are the building blocks of DNA and RNA, not proteins. Fatty acids are the building blocks of lipids, not proteins. Glucose is a type of sugar and is not directly related to protein digestion.

2. When should a nurse suction a client?

As desired

As needed

Every 1 hour

Every 4 hours

A nurse should suction a client as needed. Suctioning is a procedure used to remove secretions or obstructions from the airway to maintain a clear passage for breathing. The need for suctioning can vary depending on the client's condition and symptoms. It is not necessary to suction a client at fixed time intervals such as every 1 hour or every 4 hours, as this may cause unnecessary discomfort and potential harm to the client. Instead, the nurse should assess the client's respiratory status and only perform suctioning when there are indications of airway obstruction or excessive secretions.

Explanation

A nurse should suction a client as needed. Suctioning is a procedure used to remove secretions or obstructions from the airway to maintain a clear passage for breathing. The need for suctioning can vary depending on the client's condition and symptoms. It is not necessary to suction a client at fixed time intervals such as every 1 hour or every 4 hours, as this may cause unnecessary discomfort and potential harm to the client. Instead, the nurse should assess the client's respiratory status and only perform suctioning when there are indications of airway obstruction or excessive secretions.

3. A client with TPN suddenly develops tremors, dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The client said “I feel weak” You saw that his TPN is already empty and another TPN is scheduled to replace the previous one but its provision is already 3 hours late. Which of the following is the probable complication being experienced by the client?

Hyperglycemia

Hypoglycemia

Infection

Fluid overload

The client is experiencing hypoglycemia due to the sudden onset of symptoms such as tremors, dizziness, weakness, and diaphoresis. TPN (total parenteral nutrition) is a method of providing nutrition directly into the bloodstream, and if the TPN is empty and the replacement is delayed, it can lead to a drop in blood sugar levels. This can cause the client to feel weak and experience symptoms associated with hypoglycemia.

Explanation

The client is experiencing hypoglycemia due to the sudden onset of symptoms such as tremors, dizziness, weakness, and diaphoresis. TPN (total parenteral nutrition) is a method of providing nutrition directly into the bloodstream, and if the TPN is empty and the replacement is delayed, it can lead to a drop in blood sugar levels. This can cause the client to feel weak and experience symptoms associated with hypoglycemia.

4. Which of the following if done by the nurse, is correct during NGT Insertion?

Use an oil based lubricant

Soak the NGT in a basin of ice water to facilitate easy insertion

Check the placement of the tube by introducing 10 cc of sterile water and auscultating for bubbling sound

The correct answer is to measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process. This is the correct procedure for determining the appropriate length of the NGT to be inserted into the patient's body.

Explanation

The correct answer is to measure the amount of the tube to be inserted from the Tip of the nose, to the earlobe, to the xiphoid process. This is the correct procedure for determining the appropriate length of the NGT to be inserted into the patient's body.

5. When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on SUCROSE, which 2 monosaccharides are formed?

Galactose + Galactose

Glucose + Fructose

Glucose + Galactose

Fructose + Fructose

When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on sucrose, it breaks it down into two monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. This is because sucrase specifically hydrolyzes the glycosidic bond between glucose and fructose in sucrose, resulting in the formation of these two monosaccharides.

Explanation

When the duodenal enzyme sucrase acts on sucrose, it breaks it down into two monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. This is because sucrase specifically hydrolyzes the glycosidic bond between glucose and fructose in sucrose, resulting in the formation of these two monosaccharides.

6. The most threatening complication of vomiting in client’s with stroke is

Aspiration

Dehydration

Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

Malnutrition

The most threatening complication of vomiting in clients with stroke is aspiration. Aspiration occurs when vomit enters the airway and lungs, leading to a potential blockage or infection. This can result in pneumonia, respiratory distress, and even death. Aspiration is particularly dangerous for stroke patients who may already have weakened swallowing reflexes or impaired coughing ability. It is important to closely monitor and manage vomiting in these clients to prevent aspiration and its severe consequences.

Explanation

The most threatening complication of vomiting in clients with stroke is aspiration. Aspiration occurs when vomit enters the airway and lungs, leading to a potential blockage or infection. This can result in pneumonia, respiratory distress, and even death. Aspiration is particularly dangerous for stroke patients who may already have weakened swallowing reflexes or impaired coughing ability. It is important to closely monitor and manage vomiting in these clients to prevent aspiration and its severe consequences.

7. A client taking Coumadin is to be educated on his diet. As a nurse, which of the following food should you instruct the client to avoid?

Spinach, Green leafy vegetables, Cabbage, Liver

Salmon, Sardines, Tuna

Butter, Egg yolk, breakfast cereals

Banana, Yeast, Wheat germ, Chicken

These foods are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin (a blood thinner). Coumadin works by blocking the action of vitamin K, which is necessary for blood clotting. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid consuming large amounts of vitamin K-rich foods to prevent potential complications or fluctuations in their INR (International Normalized Ratio) levels.

Explanation

These foods are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin (a blood thinner). Coumadin works by blocking the action of vitamin K, which is necessary for blood clotting. Therefore, it is important for the client to avoid consuming large amounts of vitamin K-rich foods to prevent potential complications or fluctuations in their INR (International Normalized Ratio) levels.

8. Which of the following is the BEST method in assessing for the correct placement of the NGT?

X-Ray

Immerse tip of the tube in water to check for bubbles produced

Aspirating gastric content to check if the content is acidic

Instilling air in the NGT and listening for a gurgling sound at the epigastric area

The best method for assessing the correct placement of the NGT is X-Ray. X-Ray provides a clear and accurate visualization of the NGT's location within the body, ensuring that it is correctly placed in the gastrointestinal tract. The other options listed may provide some indication of placement, but they are not as reliable or definitive as an X-Ray.

Explanation

The best method for assessing the correct placement of the NGT is X-Ray. X-Ray provides a clear and accurate visualization of the NGT's location within the body, ensuring that it is correctly placed in the gastrointestinal tract. The other options listed may provide some indication of placement, but they are not as reliable or definitive as an X-Ray.

9. Which of the following is considered as the main muscle of respiration?

Lungs

Intercostal Muscles

Diaphragm

Pectoralis major

The diaphragm is considered as the main muscle of respiration. It is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, creating more space in the chest cavity and allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. This muscle plays a crucial role in the process of breathing and is responsible for the majority of the work involved in respiration.

Explanation

The diaphragm is considered as the main muscle of respiration. It is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, creating more space in the chest cavity and allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. This muscle plays a crucial role in the process of breathing and is responsible for the majority of the work involved in respiration.

10. Where does the digestion of carbohydrates start?

Mouth

Esophagus

Small intestine

Stomach

The digestion of carbohydrates starts in the mouth. Salivary amylase, an enzyme present in saliva, begins breaking down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars like maltose. This initial breakdown of carbohydrates in the mouth is the first step in the digestive process, allowing for easier absorption and utilization of carbohydrates by the body.

Explanation

The digestion of carbohydrates starts in the mouth. Salivary amylase, an enzyme present in saliva, begins breaking down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars like maltose. This initial breakdown of carbohydrates in the mouth is the first step in the digestive process, allowing for easier absorption and utilization of carbohydrates by the body.

11. Deficiency of this mineral results in tetany, osteomalacia, osteoporosis and rickets.

Vitamin D

Iron

Calcium

Sodium

Calcium is essential for maintaining healthy bones and teeth. A deficiency of calcium can lead to various conditions such as tetany, which is characterized by muscle spasms and contractions, as well as osteomalacia, which is the softening of bones. Osteoporosis, a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, can also result from a lack of calcium. Additionally, calcium deficiency can lead to rickets, a condition that affects bone development in children. Therefore, the correct answer is calcium.

Explanation

Calcium is essential for maintaining healthy bones and teeth. A deficiency of calcium can lead to various conditions such as tetany, which is characterized by muscle spasms and contractions, as well as osteomalacia, which is the softening of bones. Osteoporosis, a condition characterized by weak and brittle bones, can also result from a lack of calcium. Additionally, calcium deficiency can lead to rickets, a condition that affects bone development in children. Therefore, the correct answer is calcium.

12. Which of the following provides the richest source of Iron per area of their meat?

Pork meat

Lean read meat

Pork liver

Green mongo

Pork liver provides the richest source of iron per area of their meat compared to the other options. Liver is known to be a highly concentrated source of iron, making it an excellent choice for individuals looking to increase their iron intake. While lean red meat also contains iron, pork liver is typically higher in iron content. Green mongo and pork meat may contain some iron, but they are not as rich in iron as pork liver.

Explanation

Pork liver provides the richest source of iron per area of their meat compared to the other options. Liver is known to be a highly concentrated source of iron, making it an excellent choice for individuals looking to increase their iron intake. While lean red meat also contains iron, pork liver is typically higher in iron content. Green mongo and pork meat may contain some iron, but they are not as rich in iron as pork liver.

13. Which of the following is true about an individual’s caloric needs?

All individual have the same caloric needs

Females in general have higher BMR and therefore, require more calories

During cold weather, people need more calories due to increase BMR

Dinner should be the heaviest meal of the day

During cold weather, people need more calories due to an increase in Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR). BMR is the amount of energy the body needs to maintain basic functions while at rest. When exposed to cold temperatures, the body needs to work harder to maintain its core temperature, resulting in an increase in BMR. To meet this increased energy requirement, people need to consume more calories during cold weather.

Explanation

During cold weather, people need more calories due to an increase in Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR). BMR is the amount of energy the body needs to maintain basic functions while at rest. When exposed to cold temperatures, the body needs to work harder to maintain its core temperature, resulting in an increase in BMR. To meet this increased energy requirement, people need to consume more calories during cold weather.

14. Which Vitamin is not given in conjunction with the intake of LEVODOPA in cases of Parkinson’s Disease due to the fact that levodopa increases its level in the body?

Vitamin B1

Vitamin B2

Vitamin B3

Vitamin B6

Levodopa is a medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. It is converted into dopamine in the brain, which helps to alleviate the symptoms of the disease. However, levodopa can also increase the levels of Vitamin B6 in the body. High levels of Vitamin B6 can interfere with the effectiveness of levodopa and reduce its ability to alleviate symptoms. Therefore, it is not recommended to take Vitamin B6 in conjunction with levodopa in cases of Parkinson's disease.

Explanation

Levodopa is a medication commonly used to treat Parkinson's disease. It is converted into dopamine in the brain, which helps to alleviate the symptoms of the disease. However, levodopa can also increase the levels of Vitamin B6 in the body. High levels of Vitamin B6 can interfere with the effectiveness of levodopa and reduce its ability to alleviate symptoms. Therefore, it is not recommended to take Vitamin B6 in conjunction with levodopa in cases of Parkinson's disease.

15. There are four catheter sizes available for use, which one of these should you use for Mr. Hamilton?

Fr. 18

Fr. 12

Fr. 10

Fr, 5

The correct answer is Fr. 18. The size of the catheter needed for a patient depends on various factors such as the purpose of the catheterization, the patient's age, and the condition of the patient's urethra. In this case, since there is no additional information provided about Mr. Hamilton, it is assumed that Fr. 18 is the appropriate size based on general guidelines. Fr. 18 is a larger size compared to the other options, indicating that it may be suitable for a variety of purposes, including urinary catheterization in adults.

Explanation

The correct answer is Fr. 18. The size of the catheter needed for a patient depends on various factors such as the purpose of the catheterization, the patient's age, and the condition of the patient's urethra. In this case, since there is no additional information provided about Mr. Hamilton, it is assumed that Fr. 18 is the appropriate size based on general guidelines. Fr. 18 is a larger size compared to the other options, indicating that it may be suitable for a variety of purposes, including urinary catheterization in adults.

16. Which food group should you emphasize giving on a pregnant mother in first trimester to prevent neural tube defects?

Broccoli, Guava, Citrus fruits, Tomatoes

Butter, Sardines, Tuna, Salmon, Egg yolk

Wheat germ, Vegetable Oil, soybeans, corn, peanuts

Organ meats, Green leafy vegetables, Liver, Eggs

During the first trimester of pregnancy, it is crucial to emphasize foods that are rich in folate in order to prevent neural tube defects. Organ meats, green leafy vegetables, liver, and eggs are all excellent sources of folate, which is a B-vitamin that plays a key role in the development of the baby's neural tube. Neural tube defects can occur if there is a deficiency in folate during pregnancy, so it is important for pregnant mothers to consume foods that are high in folate to ensure the healthy development of the baby's neural tube.

Explanation

During the first trimester of pregnancy, it is crucial to emphasize foods that are rich in folate in order to prevent neural tube defects. Organ meats, green leafy vegetables, liver, and eggs are all excellent sources of folate, which is a B-vitamin that plays a key role in the development of the baby's neural tube. Neural tube defects can occur if there is a deficiency in folate during pregnancy, so it is important for pregnant mothers to consume foods that are high in folate to ensure the healthy development of the baby's neural tube.

17. How many lobes are there in the RIGHT LUNG?

One

Two

Three

Four

The right lung is divided into three lobes: the superior, middle, and inferior lobes. Each lobe has its own blood supply and is responsible for specific functions in the respiratory system. The lobes of the right lung allow for efficient oxygen exchange and help in maintaining proper lung function.

Explanation

The right lung is divided into three lobes: the superior, middle, and inferior lobes. Each lobe has its own blood supply and is responsible for specific functions in the respiratory system. The lobes of the right lung allow for efficient oxygen exchange and help in maintaining proper lung function.

18. Which of the following is included in a full liquid diet?

Popsicles

Pureed vegetable meat

Pineapple juice with pulps

Mashed potato

A full liquid diet consists of foods that are liquid or semi-liquid at room temperature. Popsicles are included in a full liquid diet because they are frozen liquids that melt into a liquid form when consumed. Pureed vegetable meat, pineapple juice with pulps, and mashed potato are not included in a full liquid diet as they are not in a liquid form.

Explanation

A full liquid diet consists of foods that are liquid or semi-liquid at room temperature. Popsicles are included in a full liquid diet because they are frozen liquids that melt into a liquid form when consumed. Pureed vegetable meat, pineapple juice with pulps, and mashed potato are not included in a full liquid diet as they are not in a liquid form.

19. Which of the following is the first sign of dehydration?

Tachycardia

Restlessness

Thirst

Poor skin turgor

Thirst is the first sign of dehydration because when the body is lacking sufficient fluids, it sends signals to the brain to trigger the sensation of thirst. Thirst is the body's way of indicating that it needs more water to maintain proper hydration levels. It is a natural response to prevent further dehydration and to encourage the individual to drink fluids. Therefore, out of the given options, thirst is the earliest and most common sign of dehydration.

Explanation

Thirst is the first sign of dehydration because when the body is lacking sufficient fluids, it sends signals to the brain to trigger the sensation of thirst. Thirst is the body's way of indicating that it needs more water to maintain proper hydration levels. It is a natural response to prevent further dehydration and to encourage the individual to drink fluids. Therefore, out of the given options, thirst is the earliest and most common sign of dehydration.

20. Which of the following oxygen delivery method can deliver 100% Oxygen at 15 LPM?

Nasal Cannula

Simple Face mask

Non Rebreather mask

Partial Rebreather mask

A non-rebreather mask is capable of delivering 100% oxygen at a flow rate of 15 LPM. This type of mask has a reservoir bag attached to it, which allows the patient to inhale a higher concentration of oxygen with each breath. The mask also has one-way valves that prevent the patient from rebreathing exhaled air, ensuring that they receive a continuous supply of fresh oxygen. This makes the non-rebreather mask an effective method for delivering high concentrations of oxygen to patients in need.

Explanation

A non-rebreather mask is capable of delivering 100% oxygen at a flow rate of 15 LPM. This type of mask has a reservoir bag attached to it, which allows the patient to inhale a higher concentration of oxygen with each breath. The mask also has one-way valves that prevent the patient from rebreathing exhaled air, ensuring that they receive a continuous supply of fresh oxygen. This makes the non-rebreather mask an effective method for delivering high concentrations of oxygen to patients in need.

21. Assuming a cup of rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates. How many calories are there in that cup of rice?

150 calories

200 calories

250 calories

400 calories

A cup of rice typically provides around 200 calories. This is because carbohydrates contain 4 calories per gram, and since the rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates, it would amount to 200 calories.

Explanation

A cup of rice typically provides around 200 calories. This is because carbohydrates contain 4 calories per gram, and since the rice provides 50 grams of carbohydrates, it would amount to 200 calories.

22. A vitamin taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis

Vitamin B1

Vitamin B2

Vitamin B3

Vitamin B6

Vitamin B6 is taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis. This is because ISONIAZID, a medication used to treat tuberculosis, can lead to a deficiency of vitamin B6 in the body. Vitamin B6 is essential for nerve function and deficiency can cause peripheral neuritis, which is inflammation of the nerves in the hands and feet. Therefore, taking vitamin B6 along with ISONIAZID helps to prevent this side effect and maintain proper nerve health.

Explanation

Vitamin B6 is taken in conjunction with ISONIAZID to prevent peripheral neuritis. This is because ISONIAZID, a medication used to treat tuberculosis, can lead to a deficiency of vitamin B6 in the body. Vitamin B6 is essential for nerve function and deficiency can cause peripheral neuritis, which is inflammation of the nerves in the hands and feet. Therefore, taking vitamin B6 along with ISONIAZID helps to prevent this side effect and maintain proper nerve health.

23. The normal L:S Ratio to consider the newborn baby viable is

1:2

2:1

3:1

1:3

The correct answer is 2:1. The L:S Ratio refers to the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin in the amniotic fluid, which is an indicator of lung maturity in a newborn baby. A ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates that the baby's lungs are mature enough for them to be considered viable outside the womb.

Explanation

The correct answer is 2:1. The L:S Ratio refers to the ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin in the amniotic fluid, which is an indicator of lung maturity in a newborn baby. A ratio of 2:1 or higher indicates that the baby's lungs are mature enough for them to be considered viable outside the womb.

24. Which of the following is not true about OXYGEN?

Oxygen is odorless, tasteless and colorless gas.

Oxygen can irritate mucus membrane

Oxygen supports combustion

Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis

Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis. This means that when too much oxygen is administered, it can lead to a condition called respiratory acidosis, where there is an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the body, causing a decrease in blood pH. This is the opposite of what oxygen is typically known for, which is supporting combustion and being odorless, tasteless, and colorless.

Explanation

Excessive oxygen administration results in respiratory acidosis. This means that when too much oxygen is administered, it can lead to a condition called respiratory acidosis, where there is an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the body, causing a decrease in blood pH. This is the opposite of what oxygen is typically known for, which is supporting combustion and being odorless, tasteless, and colorless.

25. Which finding is consistent with PERNICIOUS ANEMIA?

Strawberry tongue

Currant Jelly stool

Beefy red tongue

Pale [ HYPOCHROMIC ] RBC

A beefy red tongue is a consistent finding in pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells. One of the symptoms of pernicious anemia is glossitis, which is the inflammation and swelling of the tongue. This can cause the tongue to appear beefy red in color. Therefore, a beefy red tongue is a characteristic finding in pernicious anemia.

Explanation

A beefy red tongue is a consistent finding in pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells. One of the symptoms of pernicious anemia is glossitis, which is the inflammation and swelling of the tongue. This can cause the tongue to appear beefy red in color. Therefore, a beefy red tongue is a characteristic finding in pernicious anemia.

26. Ernest Arnold Hamilton, a 60 year old American client was mobbed by teen gangsters near New york, Cubao. He was rushed to John John Hopio Medical Center and was Unconscious. You are his nurse and you are to suction his secretions. In which position should you place Mr. Hamilton?

High fowlers

Semi fowlers

Prone

Side lying

The correct position to place Mr. Hamilton in is side lying. This position is beneficial for patients who are unconscious and need to have their secretions suctioned. Side lying helps to prevent aspiration and allows for easier access to the airway for suctioning. Additionally, this position helps to maintain proper alignment of the body and prevent pressure ulcers.

Explanation

The correct position to place Mr. Hamilton in is side lying. This position is beneficial for patients who are unconscious and need to have their secretions suctioned. Side lying helps to prevent aspiration and allows for easier access to the airway for suctioning. Additionally, this position helps to maintain proper alignment of the body and prevent pressure ulcers.

27. Which method of oxygenation least likely produces anxiety and apprehension?

Nasal Cannula

Simple Face mask

Non Rebreather mask

Partial Rebreather mask

The nasal cannula is the method of oxygenation that least likely produces anxiety and apprehension because it is the most comfortable and least invasive option. It delivers low to moderate levels of oxygen through two small prongs that sit in the nostrils, allowing the patient to breathe normally. The nasal cannula does not cover the face or restrict movement, which can help alleviate anxiety and apprehension. In contrast, the other options (simple face mask, non-rebreather mask, and partial rebreather mask) cover the nose and mouth, which may cause discomfort and make breathing feel more restricted, potentially leading to increased anxiety and apprehension.

Explanation

The nasal cannula is the method of oxygenation that least likely produces anxiety and apprehension because it is the most comfortable and least invasive option. It delivers low to moderate levels of oxygen through two small prongs that sit in the nostrils, allowing the patient to breathe normally. The nasal cannula does not cover the face or restrict movement, which can help alleviate anxiety and apprehension. In contrast, the other options (simple face mask, non-rebreather mask, and partial rebreather mask) cover the nose and mouth, which may cause discomfort and make breathing feel more restricted, potentially leading to increased anxiety and apprehension.

28. This is the amount of air remained in the lungs after a forceful expiration

Inspiratory reserve volume

Expiratory reserve volume

Functional residual capacity

Residual volume

Residual volume refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a forceful expiration. It represents the air that cannot be expelled from the lungs and is necessary to maintain lung function and prevent lung collapse. This volume is important for gas exchange and ensures that there is always a supply of oxygen available in the lungs.

Explanation

Residual volume refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a forceful expiration. It represents the air that cannot be expelled from the lungs and is necessary to maintain lung function and prevent lung collapse. This volume is important for gas exchange and ensures that there is always a supply of oxygen available in the lungs.

29. Which of the following if done by a nurse indicates deviation from the standards of NGT feeding?

Height of the feeding should be 12 inches about the tube point of insertion to allow slow introduction of feeding

Ask the client to position in supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndrome

Clamp the NGT before all of the water is instilled to prevent air entry in the stomach

The nurse deviates from the standards of NGT feeding by asking the client to position in a supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndrome. Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine, causing symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The correct position to prevent dumping syndrome after NGT feeding is to elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees for 1-2 hours after feeding.

Explanation

The nurse deviates from the standards of NGT feeding by asking the client to position in a supine position immediately after feeding to prevent dumping syndrome. Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine, causing symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The correct position to prevent dumping syndrome after NGT feeding is to elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees for 1-2 hours after feeding.

30. Which paranasal sinus is found over the eyebrow?

Ehtmoid

Sphenoid

Maxillary

Frontal

The frontal sinus is found over the eyebrow. It is one of the paranasal sinuses located in the frontal bone of the skull. These sinuses are air-filled cavities that help to lighten the weight of the skull and produce mucus that moisturizes and filters the air we breathe. The frontal sinus is important for the drainage of mucus and plays a role in the resonance of the voice.

Explanation

The frontal sinus is found over the eyebrow. It is one of the paranasal sinuses located in the frontal bone of the skull. These sinuses are air-filled cavities that help to lighten the weight of the skull and produce mucus that moisturizes and filters the air we breathe. The frontal sinus is important for the drainage of mucus and plays a role in the resonance of the voice.

31. Cassandra asked you : How many air is there in the oxygen and how many does human requires? Which of the following is the best response :

God is good, Man requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

Man requires 16% of oxygen and we have 35% available in our air

Man requires 10% of oxygen and we have 50% available in our air

Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air

The best response is "Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air" because it directly answers Cassandra's question about the amount of oxygen in the air and how much humans require. It provides the correct information that humans need 21% of oxygen and that the air contains 21% oxygen, indicating that the available oxygen meets the human requirement.

Explanation

The best response is "Human requires 21% of oxygen and we have 21% available in our air" because it directly answers Cassandra's question about the amount of oxygen in the air and how much humans require. It provides the correct information that humans need 21% of oxygen and that the air contains 21% oxygen, indicating that the available oxygen meets the human requirement.

32. Roberto San Andres, A new nurse in the hospital is about to administer oxygen on patient with Respiratory distress. As his senior nurse, you should intervene if Roberto will:

Uses venture mask in oxygen administration

Put a non rebreather mask in the patient before opening the oxygen source

Use a partial rebreather mask to deliver oxygen

Check for the doctor’s order for Oxygen administration

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Explanation

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33. Refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume

Inspiratory reserve volume

Expiratory reserve volume

Functional residual capacity

Residual volume

The inspiratory reserve volume refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume. This means that it is the amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation. It represents the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled during deep breathing or exercise.

Explanation

The inspiratory reserve volume refers to the extra air that can be inhaled beyond the normal tidal volume. This means that it is the amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal inhalation. It represents the maximum amount of air that can be inhaled during deep breathing or exercise.

34. Casssandra, A 22 year old grade Agnostic, Asked you, how many spikes of bones are there in my ribs? Your best response is which of the following?

We have 13 pairs of ribs Cassandra

We have 12 pairs of ribs Cassandra

Humans have 16 pairs of ribs, and that was noted by Vesalius in 1543

Humans have 8 pairs of ribs. 4 of which are floating

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Explanation

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35. Which of the following is TRUE in postural drainage?

Patient assumes position for 10 to 15 minutes

Should last only for 60 minutes

Done best P.C

An independent nursing action

Postural drainage is a technique used to help mobilize and remove secretions from the lungs. The correct answer states that the patient assumes a specific position for 10 to 15 minutes. This is true because during postural drainage, the patient is positioned in a way that allows gravity to assist in moving secretions from the lungs to the larger airways, where they can be coughed up or suctioned out. This position is typically held for a specific duration to ensure adequate drainage.

Explanation

Postural drainage is a technique used to help mobilize and remove secretions from the lungs. The correct answer states that the patient assumes a specific position for 10 to 15 minutes. This is true because during postural drainage, the patient is positioned in a way that allows gravity to assist in moving secretions from the lungs to the larger airways, where they can be coughed up or suctioned out. This position is typically held for a specific duration to ensure adequate drainage.

36. The best method of oxygen administration for client with COPD uses:

Cannula

Simple Face mask

Non rebreather mask

Venturi mask

The best method of oxygen administration for a client with COPD is a cannula. A cannula is a small, flexible tube that is inserted into the nostrils and delivers a low flow of oxygen. This method is preferred for COPD patients because it provides a continuous and low level of oxygen, which helps to prevent oxygen toxicity and reduce the risk of carbon dioxide retention. Additionally, a cannula is comfortable and allows the client to eat, drink, and talk while receiving oxygen therapy.

Explanation

The best method of oxygen administration for a client with COPD is a cannula. A cannula is a small, flexible tube that is inserted into the nostrils and delivers a low flow of oxygen. This method is preferred for COPD patients because it provides a continuous and low level of oxygen, which helps to prevent oxygen toxicity and reduce the risk of carbon dioxide retention. Additionally, a cannula is comfortable and allows the client to eat, drink, and talk while receiving oxygen therapy.

37. Which of the following is not true about the Large Intestine?

It absorbs around 1 L of water making the feces around 75% water and 25% solid

The stool formed in the transverse colon is not yet well formed

It is a sterile body cavity

It is called large intestine because it is longer than the small intestine

The large intestine is not a sterile body cavity. It contains a large number of bacteria that play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients. These bacteria also produce certain vitamins, such as vitamin K. Therefore, the statement that the large intestine is a sterile body cavity is not true.

Explanation

The large intestine is not a sterile body cavity. It contains a large number of bacteria that play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients. These bacteria also produce certain vitamins, such as vitamin K. Therefore, the statement that the large intestine is a sterile body cavity is not true.

38. An average adult filipino requires how many calories in a day?

1,000 calories

1,500 calories

2,000 calories

2,500 calories

The average adult Filipino requires around 2,000 calories in a day. This is considered the recommended daily calorie intake for maintaining a healthy weight and meeting the body's energy needs. The specific calorie requirement may vary depending on factors such as age, gender, activity level, and overall health. However, 2,000 calories is generally a good estimate for an average adult Filipino.

Explanation

The average adult Filipino requires around 2,000 calories in a day. This is considered the recommended daily calorie intake for maintaining a healthy weight and meeting the body's energy needs. The specific calorie requirement may vary depending on factors such as age, gender, activity level, and overall health. However, 2,000 calories is generally a good estimate for an average adult Filipino.

39. An average adult filipino requires how many calories in a day?

1,000 calories

1,500 calories

2,000 calories

2,500 calories

An average adult Filipino requires 2,000 calories in a day. This is a general guideline for maintaining a healthy diet and providing enough energy for daily activities. The specific calorie requirement may vary depending on factors such as age, gender, weight, and level of physical activity. However, 2,000 calories is a commonly recommended amount for adults to meet their nutritional needs and maintain a balanced diet.

Explanation

An average adult Filipino requires 2,000 calories in a day. This is a general guideline for maintaining a healthy diet and providing enough energy for daily activities. The specific calorie requirement may vary depending on factors such as age, gender, weight, and level of physical activity. However, 2,000 calories is a commonly recommended amount for adults to meet their nutritional needs and maintain a balanced diet.

40. Which of the following is TRUE about Expiration?

A passive process

The length of which is half of the length of Inspiration

Stridor is commonly heard during expiration

Requires energy to be carried out

Expiration is the process of exhaling air from the lungs. It is considered a passive process because it does not require any active muscle contraction. The diaphragm and other respiratory muscles relax, allowing the elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall to push the air out. The length of expiration is typically longer than inspiration, and stridor, a high-pitched wheezing sound, is not commonly heard during expiration. No energy is required for expiration to occur.

Explanation

Expiration is the process of exhaling air from the lungs. It is considered a passive process because it does not require any active muscle contraction. The diaphragm and other respiratory muscles relax, allowing the elastic recoil of the lungs and chest wall to push the air out. The length of expiration is typically longer than inspiration, and stridor, a high-pitched wheezing sound, is not commonly heard during expiration. No energy is required for expiration to occur.

41. The wall unit is not functioning; You then try to use the portable suction equipment available. How much pressure of suction equipment is needed to prevent trauma to mucus membrane and air ways in case of portable suction units?

2-5 mmHg

5-10 mmHg

10-15 mmHg

15-25 mmHg

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

42. Miguelito de balboa, An OFW presents at the admission with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, Which of the following associated finding should the nurse expect?

Pancytopenia

Anemia

Fingers are Club-like

Hematocrit of client is decreased

The correct answer is "Fingers are Club-like." Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the fingertips become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. It is often associated with chronic respiratory or cardiovascular diseases. In this case, Miguelito de balboa, an OFW (Overseas Filipino Worker), presents with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, which indicates an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This finding, along with the clubbing of the fingers, suggests that Miguelito may have a chronic respiratory condition, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

Explanation

The correct answer is "Fingers are Club-like." Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the fingertips become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. It is often associated with chronic respiratory or cardiovascular diseases. In this case, Miguelito de balboa, an OFW (Overseas Filipino Worker), presents with an A:P Diameter ratio of 2:1, which indicates an increased anterior-posterior diameter of the chest. This finding, along with the clubbing of the fingers, suggests that Miguelito may have a chronic respiratory condition, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

43. This is the enzyme secreted by the pancrease that completes the protein digestion

Trypsin

Enterokinase

Enterogastrone

Amylase

Trypsin is an enzyme secreted by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in completing protein digestion. It helps break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids, which can then be absorbed by the body. Enterokinase is an enzyme that activates trypsinogen to form trypsin. Enterogastrone is a hormone that regulates the movement of food through the digestive system. Amylase is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of carbohydrates, not proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is Trypsin.

Explanation

Trypsin is an enzyme secreted by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in completing protein digestion. It helps break down proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids, which can then be absorbed by the body. Enterokinase is an enzyme that activates trypsinogen to form trypsin. Enterogastrone is a hormone that regulates the movement of food through the digestive system. Amylase is an enzyme that aids in the digestion of carbohydrates, not proteins. Therefore, the correct answer is Trypsin.

44. You are about to set the suction pressure to be used to Mr. Hamilton. You are using a Wall unit suction machine. How much pressure should you set the valve before suctioning Mr. Hamilton?

50-95 mmHg

200-350 mmHg

100-120 mmHg

10-15 mmHg

The correct answer is 100-120 mmHg. This range of pressure is typically used for suctioning patients using a Wall unit suction machine. It is important to set the valve within this range to ensure effective suctioning without causing harm or discomfort to the patient. Setting the pressure too low may result in inadequate suctioning, while setting it too high may cause tissue damage or discomfort for the patient.

Explanation

The correct answer is 100-120 mmHg. This range of pressure is typically used for suctioning patients using a Wall unit suction machine. It is important to set the valve within this range to ensure effective suctioning without causing harm or discomfort to the patient. Setting the pressure too low may result in inadequate suctioning, while setting it too high may cause tissue damage or discomfort for the patient.

45. The majority of the digestion processes take place in the

Mouth

Small intestine

Large intestine

Stomach

The majority of digestion processes take place in the small intestine. This is because the small intestine is responsible for breaking down food into smaller molecules, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, through the action of digestive enzymes. It also absorbs the nutrients from the digested food into the bloodstream for distribution to the rest of the body. The mouth starts the process of digestion by breaking down food mechanically through chewing and mixing it with saliva, but the actual breakdown of nutrients occurs primarily in the small intestine. The stomach plays a role in digestion by secreting gastric juices and breaking down proteins, but it is not where the majority of digestion takes place. The large intestine mainly absorbs water and electrolytes from the remaining undigested food, but it is not involved in the majority of digestion processes.

Explanation

The majority of digestion processes take place in the small intestine. This is because the small intestine is responsible for breaking down food into smaller molecules, such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, through the action of digestive enzymes. It also absorbs the nutrients from the digested food into the bloodstream for distribution to the rest of the body. The mouth starts the process of digestion by breaking down food mechanically through chewing and mixing it with saliva, but the actual breakdown of nutrients occurs primarily in the small intestine. The stomach plays a role in digestion by secreting gastric juices and breaking down proteins, but it is not where the majority of digestion takes place. The large intestine mainly absorbs water and electrolytes from the remaining undigested food, but it is not involved in the majority of digestion processes.

46. What Specific gravity lab result is compatible with a dehydrated client?

1.007

1.020

1.039

1.029

A specific gravity lab result of 1.039 is compatible with a dehydrated client because a high specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, which is a common characteristic of dehydration. When the body is dehydrated, it conserves water by producing less urine, resulting in a higher concentration of waste products and electrolytes in the urine. Therefore, a specific gravity of 1.039 suggests that the client is dehydrated.

Explanation

A specific gravity lab result of 1.039 is compatible with a dehydrated client because a high specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, which is a common characteristic of dehydration. When the body is dehydrated, it conserves water by producing less urine, resulting in a higher concentration of waste products and electrolytes in the urine. Therefore, a specific gravity of 1.039 suggests that the client is dehydrated.

47. Which is not a clear liquid diet?

Hard candy

Gelatin

Coffee with Coffee mate

Bouillon

Coffee with Coffee mate is not considered a clear liquid diet because it contains Coffee mate, which is a creamer that is not transparent. A clear liquid diet typically consists of liquids that are transparent and do not contain any solid particles or additives. Hard candy, gelatin, and bouillon can all be considered clear liquids as they are transparent and do not contain any solid particles.

Explanation

Coffee with Coffee mate is not considered a clear liquid diet because it contains Coffee mate, which is a creamer that is not transparent. A clear liquid diet typically consists of liquids that are transparent and do not contain any solid particles or additives. Hard candy, gelatin, and bouillon can all be considered clear liquids as they are transparent and do not contain any solid particles.

48. The nurse is browsing the chart of the patient and notes a normal serum lipase level. Which of the following is a normal serum lipase value?

10 U/L

100 U/L

200 U/L

350 U/L

A normal serum lipase value is typically around 200 U/L. This value indicates that the patient's pancreas is functioning properly and there are no signs of pancreatic inflammation or injury.

Explanation

A normal serum lipase value is typically around 200 U/L. This value indicates that the patient's pancreas is functioning properly and there are no signs of pancreatic inflammation or injury.

49. Gene De Vonne Katrouchuacheulujiki wants to change her surname to something shorter, The court denied her request which depresses her and find herself binge eating. She accidentally aspirate a large piece of nut and it passes the carina. Probabilty wise, Where will the nut go?

Right main stem bronchus

Left main stem bronchus

Be dislodged in between the carina

Be blocked by the closed epiglottis

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

50. Which cell secretes mucus that help protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract?

Type I pneumocytes

Type II pneumocytes

Goblet cells

Adipose cells

Goblet cells are responsible for secreting mucus that helps protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract. Mucus acts as a sticky barrier, trapping particles such as dust, bacteria, and viruses, preventing them from reaching the lungs and causing damage or infection. Goblet cells are found in the respiratory epithelium and are specialized in producing and secreting mucus to maintain the health and integrity of the respiratory system.

Explanation

Goblet cells are responsible for secreting mucus that helps protect the lungs by trapping debris in the respiratory tract. Mucus acts as a sticky barrier, trapping particles such as dust, bacteria, and viruses, preventing them from reaching the lungs and causing damage or infection. Goblet cells are found in the respiratory epithelium and are specialized in producing and secreting mucus to maintain the health and integrity of the respiratory system.

51. All but one of the following is a purpose of steam inhalation

Mucolytic

Warm and humidify air

Administer medications

Promote bronchoconstriction

Steam inhalation is a common home remedy used to relieve congestion and respiratory symptoms. It involves inhaling warm, moist air, which can help to loosen mucus and soothe irritated airways. However, promoting bronchoconstriction, which is the narrowing of the airways, is not a purpose of steam inhalation. In fact, steam inhalation is often used to alleviate bronchoconstriction and improve breathing. Therefore, the correct answer is "Promote bronchoconstriction."

Explanation

Steam inhalation is a common home remedy used to relieve congestion and respiratory symptoms. It involves inhaling warm, moist air, which can help to loosen mucus and soothe irritated airways. However, promoting bronchoconstriction, which is the narrowing of the airways, is not a purpose of steam inhalation. In fact, steam inhalation is often used to alleviate bronchoconstriction and improve breathing. Therefore, the correct answer is "Promote bronchoconstriction."

52. The hormone secreted by the Small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice which primarily aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the Stomach

Enterogastrone

Cholecystokinin

Pancreozymin

Enterokinase

Pancreozymin is the correct answer because it is a hormone secreted by the small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice. Pancreatic juice aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the stomach, helping to neutralize the acidity and create a more favorable environment for digestion in the small intestine.

Explanation

Pancreozymin is the correct answer because it is a hormone secreted by the small intestine that stimulates the production of pancreatic juice. Pancreatic juice aids in buffering the acidic bolus passed by the stomach, helping to neutralize the acidity and create a more favorable environment for digestion in the small intestine.

53. A client is scheduled for NGT Feeding. Checking the residual volume, you determined that he has 40 cc residual from the last feeding. You reinstill the 40 cc of residual volume and added the 250 cc of feeding ordered by the doctor. You then instill 60 cc of water to clear the lumen and the tube. How much will you put in the client’s chart as input?

250 cc

290 cc

350 cc

310 cc

The client's chart should be recorded with 310 cc as input. This is calculated by adding the 250 cc of feeding ordered by the doctor, the 40 cc of residual volume, and the 60 cc of water used to clear the lumen and tube.

Explanation

The client's chart should be recorded with 310 cc as input. This is calculated by adding the 250 cc of feeding ordered by the doctor, the 40 cc of residual volume, and the 60 cc of water used to clear the lumen and tube.

54. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in steam inhalation?

It is a dependent nursing action

Spout is put 12-18 inches away from the nose

Render steam inhalation for atleast 60 minutes

Cover the client’s eye with wash cloth to prevent irritation

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

55. Which of the following statement by a client with prolonged vomiting indicates the initial onset of hypokalemia?

My arm feels so weak

I felt my heart beat just right now

My face muscle is twitching

Nurse, help! My legs are cramping

Prolonged vomiting can lead to a loss of potassium from the body, which can result in hypokalemia. One of the symptoms of hypokalemia is muscle cramping, which is indicated by the client's statement "Nurse, help! My legs are cramping." This suggests that the client may be experiencing a decrease in potassium levels due to the vomiting.

Explanation

Prolonged vomiting can lead to a loss of potassium from the body, which can result in hypokalemia. One of the symptoms of hypokalemia is muscle cramping, which is indicated by the client's statement "Nurse, help! My legs are cramping." This suggests that the client may be experiencing a decrease in potassium levels due to the vomiting.

56. There is a continuous bubbling in the water sealed drainage system with suction. And oscillation is observed. As a nurse, what should you do?

Consider this as normal findings

Notify the physician

Check for tube leak

Prepare a petrolatum gauze dressing

In this scenario, the correct answer is to consider the continuous bubbling and oscillation in the water sealed drainage system with suction as normal findings. This is because the water sealed drainage system is designed to create bubbling and oscillation as a means of maintaining proper suction and preventing air from entering the system. Therefore, as a nurse, there is no need to be alarmed or take any further action in response to these observations.

Explanation

In this scenario, the correct answer is to consider the continuous bubbling and oscillation in the water sealed drainage system with suction as normal findings. This is because the water sealed drainage system is designed to create bubbling and oscillation as a means of maintaining proper suction and preventing air from entering the system. Therefore, as a nurse, there is no need to be alarmed or take any further action in response to these observations.

57. To assess the adequacy of food intake, which of the following assessment parameters is best used?

Food likes and dislikes

Regularity of meal times

3 day diet recall

Eating style and habits

A 3 day diet recall is the best assessment parameter to assess the adequacy of food intake. This method involves the individual recalling and providing detailed information about their food and beverage consumption over a period of three days. It allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the types and quantities of foods consumed, providing valuable insights into the individual's overall dietary patterns and nutrient intake. This information can then be used to assess the adequacy of their food intake and identify any potential deficiencies or imbalances in their diet.

Explanation

A 3 day diet recall is the best assessment parameter to assess the adequacy of food intake. This method involves the individual recalling and providing detailed information about their food and beverage consumption over a period of three days. It allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the types and quantities of foods consumed, providing valuable insights into the individual's overall dietary patterns and nutrient intake. This information can then be used to assess the adequacy of their food intake and identify any potential deficiencies or imbalances in their diet.

58. The vomiting center is found in the

Medulla Oblongata

Pons

Hypothalamus

Cerebellum

The vomiting center is responsible for triggering the reflex that causes vomiting. It is located in the Medulla Oblongata, which is a part of the brainstem. The Medulla Oblongata controls various vital functions including breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. It receives signals from various parts of the body and coordinates the vomiting response when necessary. The Pons, Hypothalamus, and Cerebellum are not directly involved in the control of vomiting.

Explanation

The vomiting center is responsible for triggering the reflex that causes vomiting. It is located in the Medulla Oblongata, which is a part of the brainstem. The Medulla Oblongata controls various vital functions including breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. It receives signals from various parts of the body and coordinates the vomiting response when necessary. The Pons, Hypothalamus, and Cerebellum are not directly involved in the control of vomiting.

59. This is the paranasal sinus found between the eyes and the nose that extends backward into the skull

Ehtmoid

Sphenoid

Maxillary

Frontal

The ethmoid sinus is a paranasal sinus located between the eyes and the nose, extending backward into the skull. It is responsible for producing mucus that helps to humidify and filter the air we breathe. The ethmoid sinus plays a crucial role in our overall respiratory health.

Explanation

The ethmoid sinus is a paranasal sinus located between the eyes and the nose, extending backward into the skull. It is responsible for producing mucus that helps to humidify and filter the air we breathe. The ethmoid sinus plays a crucial role in our overall respiratory health.

60. Which of the following is the initial sign of hypoxemia in an adult client?

1. Tachypnea
2. Tachycardia
3. Cyanosis
4. Pallor
5. Irritability
6. Flaring of Nares

1,2

2,5

2,6

3,4

Tachycardia and irritability are the initial signs of hypoxemia in an adult client. Tachycardia refers to an abnormally fast heart rate, which can occur in response to a decrease in oxygen levels in the body. Irritability is a common symptom that can be caused by hypoxemia, as the brain may not be receiving enough oxygen. These signs can be early indicators of hypoxemia and should be monitored closely in order to provide appropriate medical intervention.

Explanation

Tachycardia and irritability are the initial signs of hypoxemia in an adult client. Tachycardia refers to an abnormally fast heart rate, which can occur in response to a decrease in oxygen levels in the body. Irritability is a common symptom that can be caused by hypoxemia, as the brain may not be receiving enough oxygen. These signs can be early indicators of hypoxemia and should be monitored closely in order to provide appropriate medical intervention.

61. Which of the following is true about nutrition?

It is the process in which food are broken down, for the body to use in growth and development

It is a process in which digested proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins and carbohydrates are transported into the circulation

It is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are use by the body

Nutrition is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are used by the body. It involves understanding the different types of nutrients, such as proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins, and carbohydrates, and how they are broken down and utilized by the body for growth, development, energy production, and tissue repair.

Explanation

Nutrition is the study of nutrients and the process in which they are used by the body. It involves understanding the different types of nutrients, such as proteins, fats, minerals, vitamins, and carbohydrates, and how they are broken down and utilized by the body for growth, development, energy production, and tissue repair.

62. All of the following is true about digestion that occurs in the Mouth except

It is where the digestion process starts

Mechanical digestion is brought about by mastication

The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose

Deglutition occurs after food is broken down into small pieces and well mixed with saliva

The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose.

Explanation

The action of ptyalin or the salivary tyrpsin breaks down starches into maltose.

63. Which hematocrit value is expected in a dehydrated male client?

67%

50%

36%

45%

A hematocrit value of 67% is expected in a dehydrated male client. Hematocrit is the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. Dehydration leads to a decrease in plasma volume, causing the concentration of red blood cells to increase. This results in an elevated hematocrit value. A value of 67% indicates severe dehydration and is significantly higher than the normal range of 40-54% in males.

Explanation

A hematocrit value of 67% is expected in a dehydrated male client. Hematocrit is the percentage of red blood cells in the total blood volume. Dehydration leads to a decrease in plasma volume, causing the concentration of red blood cells to increase. This results in an elevated hematocrit value. A value of 67% indicates severe dehydration and is significantly higher than the normal range of 40-54% in males.

64. Which of the following is TRUE in colostomy feeding?

Hold the syringe 18 inches above the stoma and administer the feeding slowly

Pour 30 ml of water before and after feeding administration

Insert the ostomy feeding tube 1 inch towards the stoma

A Pink stoma means that circulation towards the stoma is all well

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

65. What is the BMI Of Budek, weighing 120 lbs and has a height of 5 feet 7 inches.

20

19

15

25

BMI stands for Body Mass Index, which is a measure of body fat based on height and weight. To calculate BMI, the weight in pounds is divided by the square of the height in inches, and then multiplied by a conversion factor of 703. In this case, Budek weighs 120 lbs and has a height of 5 feet 7 inches, which is equivalent to 67 inches. So, the BMI would be calculated as (120 / (67^2)) * 703, which equals approximately 19. Therefore, the correct answer is 19.

Explanation

BMI stands for Body Mass Index, which is a measure of body fat based on height and weight. To calculate BMI, the weight in pounds is divided by the square of the height in inches, and then multiplied by a conversion factor of 703. In this case, Budek weighs 120 lbs and has a height of 5 feet 7 inches, which is equivalent to 67 inches. So, the BMI would be calculated as (120 / (67^2)) * 703, which equals approximately 19. Therefore, the correct answer is 19.

66. Which one of the following is NOT a function of the Upper airway?

For clearance mechanism such as coughing

Transport gases to the lower airways

Warming, Filtration and Humidification of inspired air

Protect the lower airway from foreign mater

The upper airway is responsible for warming, filtering, and humidifying inspired air, as well as protecting the lower airway from foreign matter. However, it is not directly involved in clearance mechanisms such as coughing. Coughing is a reflex action that occurs in the lower airway to remove any foreign material or excess mucus.

Explanation

The upper airway is responsible for warming, filtering, and humidifying inspired air, as well as protecting the lower airway from foreign matter. However, it is not directly involved in clearance mechanisms such as coughing. Coughing is a reflex action that occurs in the lower airway to remove any foreign material or excess mucus.

67. The presence of the liver causes which anatomical difference of the Kidneys and the Lungs?

Left kidney slightly lower, Left lung slightly shorter

Left kidney slightly higher, Left lung slightly shorter

Right kidney lower, Right lung shorter

Right kidney higher, Right lung shorter

The presence of the liver causes the right kidney to be positioned lower than the left kidney. This is because the liver takes up space on the right side of the abdominal cavity, pushing the right kidney down. Additionally, the right lung is slightly shorter than the left lung due to the liver occupying space in the right thoracic cavity, restricting the lung's expansion.

Explanation

The presence of the liver causes the right kidney to be positioned lower than the left kidney. This is because the liver takes up space on the right side of the abdominal cavity, pushing the right kidney down. Additionally, the right lung is slightly shorter than the left lung due to the liver occupying space in the right thoracic cavity, restricting the lung's expansion.

68. Which of the following will alert the nurse as an early sign of hypoxia?

Client is tired and dyspneic

The client is coughing out blood

The client’s heart rate is 50 BPM

Client is frequently turning from side to side

Frequent turning from side to side can be an early sign of hypoxia because the body is trying to find a position that allows for better oxygenation. This behavior may indicate that the client is experiencing difficulty breathing or is not getting enough oxygen. It is important for the nurse to recognize this early sign and intervene appropriately to ensure the client's oxygenation needs are met.

Explanation

Frequent turning from side to side can be an early sign of hypoxia because the body is trying to find a position that allows for better oxygenation. This behavior may indicate that the client is experiencing difficulty breathing or is not getting enough oxygen. It is important for the nurse to recognize this early sign and intervene appropriately to ensure the client's oxygenation needs are met.

69. Vitamin E plus this mineral works as one of the best anti oxidant in the body according to the latest research. They are combined with 5 Alpha reductase inhibitor to reduce the risk of acquiring prostate cancer

Zinc

Iron

Selenium

Vanadium

Selenium, when combined with Vitamin E, acts as a powerful antioxidant in the body, as supported by recent research. This combination is also used in conjunction with a 5 Alpha reductase inhibitor to lower the chances of developing prostate cancer.

Explanation

Selenium, when combined with Vitamin E, acts as a powerful antioxidant in the body, as supported by recent research. This combination is also used in conjunction with a 5 Alpha reductase inhibitor to lower the chances of developing prostate cancer.

70. Micronutrients are those nutrients needed by the body in a very minute amount. Which of the following vitamin is considered as a MICRONUTRIENT

Phosphorous

Iron

Calcium

Sodium

Iron is considered a micronutrient because it is needed by the body in very small amounts. Micronutrients are essential for maintaining overall health and well-being, but are required in smaller quantities compared to macronutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Iron plays a crucial role in the production of red blood cells and the transportation of oxygen throughout the body. It is also necessary for the proper functioning of the immune system and the synthesis of DNA. Iron deficiency can lead to anemia and other health problems, highlighting its importance as a micronutrient.

Explanation

Iron is considered a micronutrient because it is needed by the body in very small amounts. Micronutrients are essential for maintaining overall health and well-being, but are required in smaller quantities compared to macronutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. Iron plays a crucial role in the production of red blood cells and the transportation of oxygen throughout the body. It is also necessary for the proper functioning of the immune system and the synthesis of DNA. Iron deficiency can lead to anemia and other health problems, highlighting its importance as a micronutrient.

71. A client has HEMOSIDEROSIS. Which of the following drug would you expect to be given to the client?

Acetazolamide

Deferoxamine

Calcium EDTA

Activated charcoal

Deferoxamine is the correct answer because hemosiderosis is a condition characterized by the accumulation of iron in the body. Deferoxamine is an iron-chelating agent that helps remove excess iron from the body. Acetazolamide is a diuretic used to treat glaucoma and altitude sickness. Calcium EDTA is used to treat heavy metal poisoning. Activated charcoal is used to treat drug overdose or poisoning by absorbing toxins in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, Deferoxamine is the most appropriate drug for a client with hemosiderosis.

Explanation

Deferoxamine is the correct answer because hemosiderosis is a condition characterized by the accumulation of iron in the body. Deferoxamine is an iron-chelating agent that helps remove excess iron from the body. Acetazolamide is a diuretic used to treat glaucoma and altitude sickness. Calcium EDTA is used to treat heavy metal poisoning. Activated charcoal is used to treat drug overdose or poisoning by absorbing toxins in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, Deferoxamine is the most appropriate drug for a client with hemosiderosis.

72. Protein and Fat digestion begins where?

Mouth

Esophagus

Small intestine

Stomach

Protein and fat digestion begins in the stomach. The stomach produces gastric juice, which contains enzymes like pepsin that break down proteins into smaller peptides. Additionally, the stomach secretes gastric lipase, an enzyme that begins the breakdown of fats. This initial digestion in the stomach prepares the proteins and fats for further breakdown and absorption in the small intestine. The mouth and esophagus primarily play a role in the mechanical digestion of food, while the small intestine is mainly responsible for the absorption of nutrients.

Explanation

Protein and fat digestion begins in the stomach. The stomach produces gastric juice, which contains enzymes like pepsin that break down proteins into smaller peptides. Additionally, the stomach secretes gastric lipase, an enzyme that begins the breakdown of fats. This initial digestion in the stomach prepares the proteins and fats for further breakdown and absorption in the small intestine. The mouth and esophagus primarily play a role in the mechanical digestion of food, while the small intestine is mainly responsible for the absorption of nutrients.

73. Which of the following, if done by the nurse, indicates incompetence during suctioning an unconscious client?

Use KY Jelly if suctioning nasopharyngeal secretion

The maximum time of suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds

Allow 30 seconds interval between suctioning

The nurse measuring the length of the suction catheter by measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process indicates incompetence during suctioning an unconscious client because this is an incorrect method of measuring the length of the catheter. The correct method is to measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and then to the angle of the jaw. Measuring to the xiphoid process is not necessary and may result in the catheter being inserted too far into the airway.

Explanation

The nurse measuring the length of the suction catheter by measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe to the xiphoid process indicates incompetence during suctioning an unconscious client because this is an incorrect method of measuring the length of the catheter. The correct method is to measure from the tip of the nose to the earlobe and then to the angle of the jaw. Measuring to the xiphoid process is not necessary and may result in the catheter being inserted too far into the airway.

74. Which food is included in a BLAND DIET?

Steamed broccoli

Creamed potato

Spinach in garlic

Sweet potato

A bland diet is typically recommended for individuals with digestive issues or those recovering from certain medical conditions. It consists of easily digestible foods that are low in fiber, fat, and spices. Creamed potato is a suitable option for a bland diet as it is soft, easily chewed and digested, and does not contain any spicy or irritating ingredients.

Explanation

A bland diet is typically recommended for individuals with digestive issues or those recovering from certain medical conditions. It consists of easily digestible foods that are low in fiber, fat, and spices. Creamed potato is a suitable option for a bland diet as it is soft, easily chewed and digested, and does not contain any spicy or irritating ingredients.

75. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme secreted by the small intestine?

Sucrase

Enterokinase

Amylase

Enterokinase

Amylase is not an enzyme secreted by the small intestine. It is an enzyme produced primarily in the salivary glands and pancreas. Amylase is responsible for breaking down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars. In the small intestine, other enzymes like sucrase and enterokinase are secreted. Sucrase aids in the digestion of sucrose, while enterokinase activates trypsinogen, an inactive enzyme produced in the pancreas, into trypsin, which helps in the digestion of proteins.

Explanation

Amylase is not an enzyme secreted by the small intestine. It is an enzyme produced primarily in the salivary glands and pancreas. Amylase is responsible for breaking down complex carbohydrates into simpler sugars. In the small intestine, other enzymes like sucrase and enterokinase are secreted. Sucrase aids in the digestion of sucrose, while enterokinase activates trypsinogen, an inactive enzyme produced in the pancreas, into trypsin, which helps in the digestion of proteins.

76. This is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg water to 1 degree Celsius

Calorie

Joules

Metabolism

Basal metabolic rate

A calorie is the correct answer because it is a unit of measurement for energy. In this context, it refers to the amount of heat needed to increase the temperature of 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. Calories are commonly used to measure the energy content of food and the energy expended during physical activity.

Explanation

A calorie is the correct answer because it is a unit of measurement for energy. In this context, it refers to the amount of heat needed to increase the temperature of 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. Calories are commonly used to measure the energy content of food and the energy expended during physical activity.

77. Enzyme secreted by the small intestine after it detects a bolus of fatty food. This will contract the gallbladder to secrete bile and relax the sphincter of Oddi to aid in the emulsification of fats and its digestion.

Lipase

Amylase

Cholecystokinin

Pancreozymin

Cholecystokinin is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is secreted by the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty food. It stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder, causing it to release bile, which aids in the emulsification of fats. Cholecystokinin also relaxes the sphincter of Oddi, allowing the bile to flow into the small intestine and aid in the digestion of fats. Therefore, cholecystokinin plays a crucial role in the digestion of fatty foods.

Explanation

Cholecystokinin is the correct answer because it is a hormone that is secreted by the small intestine in response to the presence of fatty food. It stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder, causing it to release bile, which aids in the emulsification of fats. Cholecystokinin also relaxes the sphincter of Oddi, allowing the bile to flow into the small intestine and aid in the digestion of fats. Therefore, cholecystokinin plays a crucial role in the digestion of fatty foods.

78. Which of the following is considered the best indicator of nutritional status of an individual?

Height

Weight

Arm muscle circumference

BMI

Weight is considered the best indicator of nutritional status of an individual because it takes into account both muscle mass and fat mass. Weight can be affected by various factors such as muscle growth, fat accumulation, and fluid retention, making it a comprehensive measure of overall nutritional status. Additionally, weight can be easily measured and tracked over time, making it a practical and reliable indicator for assessing nutritional health.

Explanation

Weight is considered the best indicator of nutritional status of an individual because it takes into account both muscle mass and fat mass. Weight can be affected by various factors such as muscle growth, fat accumulation, and fluid retention, making it a comprehensive measure of overall nutritional status. Additionally, weight can be easily measured and tracked over time, making it a practical and reliable indicator for assessing nutritional health.

79. What is the most common problem in TUBE FEEDING?

Diarrhea

Infection

Hyperglycemia

Vomiting

Diarrhea is the most common problem in tube feeding. This is because the introduction of formula or liquid nutrition into the gastrointestinal tract can cause changes in the normal bowel function. Diarrhea can occur due to multiple factors such as the type of formula used, intolerance to certain ingredients, bacterial contamination, or a rapid increase in feeding rate. It is important to monitor and adjust the feeding regimen to prevent or manage diarrhea in tube-fed patients.

Explanation

Diarrhea is the most common problem in tube feeding. This is because the introduction of formula or liquid nutrition into the gastrointestinal tract can cause changes in the normal bowel function. Diarrhea can occur due to multiple factors such as the type of formula used, intolerance to certain ingredients, bacterial contamination, or a rapid increase in feeding rate. It is important to monitor and adjust the feeding regimen to prevent or manage diarrhea in tube-fed patients.

80. All but one is true about digestion that occurs in the Stomach

Carbohydrates are the fastest to be digested, in about an hour

Fat is the slowest to be digested, in about 5 hours

HCl inhibits absorption of Calcium in the gastric mucosa

HCl converts pepsinogen to pepsin, which starts the complex process of protein digestion

HCl inhibits the absorption of calcium in the gastric mucosa. This means that when HCl is present in the stomach, it prevents the absorption of calcium from the food that is being digested. This can have implications for calcium levels in the body, as it may lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially contribute to calcium deficiencies or imbalances. It is important for the body to regulate calcium absorption in order to maintain proper bone health and other physiological functions.

Explanation

HCl inhibits the absorption of calcium in the gastric mucosa. This means that when HCl is present in the stomach, it prevents the absorption of calcium from the food that is being digested. This can have implications for calcium levels in the body, as it may lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially contribute to calcium deficiencies or imbalances. It is important for the body to regulate calcium absorption in order to maintain proper bone health and other physiological functions.

81. Which nutrient deficiency is associated with the development of Pellagra, Dermatitis and Diarrhea?

Vitamin B1

Vitamin B2

Vitamin B3

Vitamin B6

Pellagra, dermatitis, and diarrhea are all symptoms associated with a deficiency in Vitamin B3, also known as niacin. Niacin is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in energy metabolism and the maintenance of healthy skin, nerves, and digestive system. A deficiency in Vitamin B3 can lead to the development of these symptoms, as well as other complications such as mental confusion and inflammation of the mouth and tongue.

Explanation

Pellagra, dermatitis, and diarrhea are all symptoms associated with a deficiency in Vitamin B3, also known as niacin. Niacin is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in energy metabolism and the maintenance of healthy skin, nerves, and digestive system. A deficiency in Vitamin B3 can lead to the development of these symptoms, as well as other complications such as mental confusion and inflammation of the mouth and tongue.

82. The most important nursing action before gastrostomy feeding is

Check V/S

Assess for patency of the tube

Measure residual feeding

Check the placement of the tube

Before initiating gastrostomy feeding, it is crucial for the nurse to assess for the patency of the tube. This is important to ensure that the tube is not blocked or obstructed, which could prevent the proper delivery of nutrition and fluids to the patient. By assessing the patency of the tube, the nurse can identify any potential issues or complications that may arise during the feeding process and take appropriate actions to address them. This ensures the safety and well-being of the patient during gastrostomy feeding.

Explanation

Before initiating gastrostomy feeding, it is crucial for the nurse to assess for the patency of the tube. This is important to ensure that the tube is not blocked or obstructed, which could prevent the proper delivery of nutrition and fluids to the patient. By assessing the patency of the tube, the nurse can identify any potential issues or complications that may arise during the feeding process and take appropriate actions to address them. This ensures the safety and well-being of the patient during gastrostomy feeding.

83. Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of which Vitamin?

Vitamin B1

Vitamin B2

Vitamin B3

Vitamin C

Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin B1. Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system and the metabolism of carbohydrates. A deficiency in this vitamin can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, muscle weakness, and nerve damage. Beri beri is a condition characterized by these symptoms, and it can be prevented or treated by ensuring an adequate intake of Vitamin B1 through a balanced diet or supplementation.

Explanation

Beri beri is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin B1. Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is essential for the proper functioning of the nervous system and the metabolism of carbohydrates. A deficiency in this vitamin can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, muscle weakness, and nerve damage. Beri beri is a condition characterized by these symptoms, and it can be prevented or treated by ensuring an adequate intake of Vitamin B1 through a balanced diet or supplementation.

84. The inflammation of the Lips, Palate and Tongue is associated in the deficiency of this vitamin

Vitamin B1

Vitamin B2

Vitamin B3

Vitamin B6

The inflammation of the lips, palate, and tongue is associated with a deficiency of Vitamin B2. Vitamin B2, also known as riboflavin, is essential for maintaining healthy skin, eyes, and mucous membranes. A deficiency of this vitamin can lead to a condition called angular cheilitis, which causes redness, swelling, and cracking of the lips. It can also cause glossitis, which is inflammation of the tongue, and stomatitis, which is inflammation of the palate. Therefore, a deficiency of Vitamin B2 can result in inflammation of the lips, palate, and tongue.

Explanation

The inflammation of the lips, palate, and tongue is associated with a deficiency of Vitamin B2. Vitamin B2, also known as riboflavin, is essential for maintaining healthy skin, eyes, and mucous membranes. A deficiency of this vitamin can lead to a condition called angular cheilitis, which causes redness, swelling, and cracking of the lips. It can also cause glossitis, which is inflammation of the tongue, and stomatitis, which is inflammation of the palate. Therefore, a deficiency of Vitamin B2 can result in inflammation of the lips, palate, and tongue.

85. Where will the CTT be inserted if we are to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul’s pleura?

2nd ICS

4th ICS

5th ICS

8th ICS

The correct answer is 8th ICS. The intercostal space (ICS) refers to the space between two adjacent ribs. In this case, the CTT (chest tube thoracostomy) will be inserted in the 8th ICS to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul's pleura. The pleura is the membrane that lines the chest cavity and covers the lungs. By inserting the CTT in the 8th ICS, it allows for effective drainage of the accumulated fluids from the pleural space to relieve any potential complications or discomfort.

Explanation

The correct answer is 8th ICS. The intercostal space (ICS) refers to the space between two adjacent ribs. In this case, the CTT (chest tube thoracostomy) will be inserted in the 8th ICS to drain fluids accumulated in Mang dagul's pleura. The pleura is the membrane that lines the chest cavity and covers the lungs. By inserting the CTT in the 8th ICS, it allows for effective drainage of the accumulated fluids from the pleural space to relieve any potential complications or discomfort.

86. Jose Miguel is a little bit nauseous. Among the following beverages, Which could help relieve JM’s nausea?

Coke

Sprite

Mirinda

Orange Juice or Lemon Juice

Coke could help relieve Jose Miguel's nausea because it contains carbonation and caffeine, which can both help settle the stomach. Additionally, the acidic nature of Coke may also help to alleviate nausea symptoms.

Explanation

Coke could help relieve Jose Miguel's nausea because it contains carbonation and caffeine, which can both help settle the stomach. Additionally, the acidic nature of Coke may also help to alleviate nausea symptoms.

87. Surfactant is produced by what cells in the alveoli?

Type I pneumocytes

Type II pneumocytes

Goblet cells

Adipose cells

Surfactant is a substance that helps reduce surface tension in the alveoli, preventing them from collapsing. Type II pneumocytes are responsible for producing surfactant in the alveoli. These cells secrete surfactant to keep the alveoli open and facilitate efficient gas exchange in the lungs. Type I pneumocytes, on the other hand, are involved in the actual gas exchange process, while goblet cells produce mucus in the airways and adipose cells store fat.

Explanation

Surfactant is a substance that helps reduce surface tension in the alveoli, preventing them from collapsing. Type II pneumocytes are responsible for producing surfactant in the alveoli. These cells secrete surfactant to keep the alveoli open and facilitate efficient gas exchange in the lungs. Type I pneumocytes, on the other hand, are involved in the actual gas exchange process, while goblet cells produce mucus in the airways and adipose cells store fat.

88. Which of the following foods lowers the cardiac sphincter pressure?

Roast beef, Steamed cauliflower and Rice

Orange juice, Non fat milk, Dry crackers

Decaffeinated coffee, Sky flakes crackers, Suman

Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg

Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg can lower the cardiac sphincter pressure. The cardiac sphincter is a muscle that separates the stomach from the esophagus and helps prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Certain foods can weaken this muscle and increase the risk of acid reflux. Coffee, especially when consumed with high-fat foods like bacon and eggs, can relax the cardiac sphincter and lead to acid reflux symptoms. Additionally, coffee mate, which is a non-dairy creamer, may also contribute to this effect.

Explanation

Coffee with coffee mate, Bacon and Egg can lower the cardiac sphincter pressure. The cardiac sphincter is a muscle that separates the stomach from the esophagus and helps prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. Certain foods can weaken this muscle and increase the risk of acid reflux. Coffee, especially when consumed with high-fat foods like bacon and eggs, can relax the cardiac sphincter and lead to acid reflux symptoms. Additionally, coffee mate, which is a non-dairy creamer, may also contribute to this effect.

89. Which of the following is the best source of Vitamin E?

Green leafy vegetables

Vegetable oil

Fortified Milk

Fish liver oil

Vegetable oil is the best source of Vitamin E because it contains high levels of alpha-tocopherol, the most biologically active form of Vitamin E. It is easily absorbed by the body and helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Green leafy vegetables also contain Vitamin E, but the absorption of this nutrient from vegetables is lower compared to vegetable oil. Fortified milk and fish liver oil may contain some amounts of Vitamin E, but they are not as rich in this nutrient as vegetable oil.

Explanation

Vegetable oil is the best source of Vitamin E because it contains high levels of alpha-tocopherol, the most biologically active form of Vitamin E. It is easily absorbed by the body and helps protect cells from damage caused by free radicals. Green leafy vegetables also contain Vitamin E, but the absorption of this nutrient from vegetables is lower compared to vegetable oil. Fortified milk and fish liver oil may contain some amounts of Vitamin E, but they are not as rich in this nutrient as vegetable oil.

90. Which of the following is a good source of Vitamin A?

Egg yolk

Liver

Fish

Peanuts

Liver is a good source of Vitamin A because it contains high levels of retinol, which is a form of Vitamin A that is easily absorbed by the body. It is also a rich source of other essential nutrients such as iron, zinc, and B vitamins. Consuming liver can help in maintaining healthy vision, boosting the immune system, and promoting overall growth and development.

Explanation

Liver is a good source of Vitamin A because it contains high levels of retinol, which is a form of Vitamin A that is easily absorbed by the body. It is also a rich source of other essential nutrients such as iron, zinc, and B vitamins. Consuming liver can help in maintaining healthy vision, boosting the immune system, and promoting overall growth and development.

91. Among the following foods, which food should you emphasize giving on an Alcoholic client?

Pork liver and organ meats, Pork

Red meat, Eggs and Dairy products

Green leafy vegetables, Yellow vegetables, Cantaloupe and Dairy products

Chicken, Peanuts, Bananas, Wheat germs and yeasts

The correct answer is Pork liver and organ meats, Pork. These foods are rich in vitamin B12 and folic acid, which are often deficient in individuals who consume excessive alcohol. Vitamin B12 helps to protect the liver from damage caused by alcohol, while folic acid aids in the production of new cells and helps to repair damaged cells. Therefore, emphasizing these foods in the diet of an alcoholic client can help support liver health and overall well-being.

Explanation

The correct answer is Pork liver and organ meats, Pork. These foods are rich in vitamin B12 and folic acid, which are often deficient in individuals who consume excessive alcohol. Vitamin B12 helps to protect the liver from damage caused by alcohol, while folic acid aids in the production of new cells and helps to repair damaged cells. Therefore, emphasizing these foods in the diet of an alcoholic client can help support liver health and overall well-being.

92. Which of the following is not an anti-emetic?

Marinol

Dramamine

Benadryl

Alevaire

Alevaire is not an anti-emetic because it is not commonly used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting. Marinol, Dramamine, and Benadryl are all known anti-emetics that are often prescribed or recommended for these purposes. However, Alevaire is not a widely recognized medication for anti-emetic effects.

Explanation

Alevaire is not an anti-emetic because it is not commonly used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting. Marinol, Dramamine, and Benadryl are all known anti-emetics that are often prescribed or recommended for these purposes. However, Alevaire is not a widely recognized medication for anti-emetic effects.

93. It is the hair the lines the vestibule which function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects

Cilia

Nares

Carina

Vibrissae

Vibrissae are specialized hairs that line the vestibule of certain animals, including mammals. They function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects, such as dust or debris, that may enter the nasal passages. These long, stiff hairs are highly sensitive and can detect even slight movements in the surrounding air, allowing animals to navigate and avoid obstacles in dark or narrow spaces. Vibrissae are particularly well-developed in animals like rats and cats, where they play a crucial role in their sensory perception and spatial awareness.

Explanation

Vibrissae are specialized hairs that line the vestibule of certain animals, including mammals. They function as a filtering mechanism for foreign objects, such as dust or debris, that may enter the nasal passages. These long, stiff hairs are highly sensitive and can detect even slight movements in the surrounding air, allowing animals to navigate and avoid obstacles in dark or narrow spaces. Vibrissae are particularly well-developed in animals like rats and cats, where they play a crucial role in their sensory perception and spatial awareness.

94. The primary advantage of gastrostomy feeding is

Ensures adequate nutrition

It prevents aspiration

Maintains Gastro esophageal sphincter integrity

Minimizes fluid-electrolyte imbalance

Gastrostomy feeding is a method of providing nutrition directly into the stomach through a tube inserted into the abdomen. One of the primary advantages of this method is that it maintains the integrity of the gastroesophageal sphincter. The gastroesophageal sphincter is a muscle that acts as a valve between the stomach and the esophagus, preventing the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus. By maintaining the integrity of this sphincter, gastrostomy feeding helps to prevent the reflux of stomach contents, reducing the risk of aspiration and related complications.

Explanation

Gastrostomy feeding is a method of providing nutrition directly into the stomach through a tube inserted into the abdomen. One of the primary advantages of this method is that it maintains the integrity of the gastroesophageal sphincter. The gastroesophageal sphincter is a muscle that acts as a valve between the stomach and the esophagus, preventing the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus. By maintaining the integrity of this sphincter, gastrostomy feeding helps to prevent the reflux of stomach contents, reducing the risk of aspiration and related complications.

95. Among the following foods, which has the highest amount of potassium per area of their meat?

Cantaloupe

Avocado

Raisin

Banana

Cantaloupe has the highest amount of potassium per area of its meat compared to avocado, raisin, and banana. Potassium is an essential mineral that helps maintain proper heart and muscle function, as well as balance fluid levels in the body. Cantaloupe is known for its high water content and is a good source of potassium, making it the food with the highest potassium concentration per unit of meat. Avocado, raisin, and banana also contain potassium but in lower amounts compared to cantaloupe.

Explanation

Cantaloupe has the highest amount of potassium per area of its meat compared to avocado, raisin, and banana. Potassium is an essential mineral that helps maintain proper heart and muscle function, as well as balance fluid levels in the body. Cantaloupe is known for its high water content and is a good source of potassium, making it the food with the highest potassium concentration per unit of meat. Avocado, raisin, and banana also contain potassium but in lower amounts compared to cantaloupe.

96. Mang dagul, a 50 year old chronic smoker was brought to the E.R because of difficulty in breathing. Pleural effusion was the diagnosis and CTT was ordered. What does C.T.T Stands for?

Chest tube thoracotomy

Chest tube thoracostomy

Closed tube thoracotomy

Closed tube thoracostmy

CTT stands for Closed tube thoracotomy. In this scenario, the patient has been diagnosed with pleural effusion, which is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space around the lungs. A closed tube thoracotomy is a surgical procedure where a chest tube is inserted into the pleural space to drain the fluid and relieve the pressure on the lungs, allowing the patient to breathe more easily. This procedure is commonly performed in cases of pleural effusion to improve respiratory function.

Explanation

CTT stands for Closed tube thoracotomy. In this scenario, the patient has been diagnosed with pleural effusion, which is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space around the lungs. A closed tube thoracotomy is a surgical procedure where a chest tube is inserted into the pleural space to drain the fluid and relieve the pressure on the lungs, allowing the patient to breathe more easily. This procedure is commonly performed in cases of pleural effusion to improve respiratory function.

97. Among the following people, who requires the greatest caloric intake?

An individual in a long state of gluconeogenesis

An individual in a long state of glycogenolysis

A pregnant individual

An adolescent with a BMI of 25

An individual in a long state of gluconeogenesis requires the greatest caloric intake because gluconeogenesis is a metabolic process in which the body produces glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids. This process requires energy and therefore increases the overall caloric needs of the individual. Additionally, gluconeogenesis is often associated with a state of fasting or prolonged periods without food, which further increases the need for calories to sustain bodily functions and energy production.

Explanation

An individual in a long state of gluconeogenesis requires the greatest caloric intake because gluconeogenesis is a metabolic process in which the body produces glucose from non-carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids. This process requires energy and therefore increases the overall caloric needs of the individual. Additionally, gluconeogenesis is often associated with a state of fasting or prolonged periods without food, which further increases the need for calories to sustain bodily functions and energy production.

98. Which among this food is the richest source of Iron?

Ampalaya

Broccoli

Mongo

Malunggay leaves

Mongo is the richest source of iron among the given food options. Mongo, also known as mung beans, is a legume that is highly nutritious and contains a significant amount of iron. Iron is an essential mineral that is necessary for the production of red blood cells and the transportation of oxygen in the body. Consuming mongo can help prevent iron deficiency anemia and promote overall health.

Explanation

Mongo is the richest source of iron among the given food options. Mongo, also known as mung beans, is a legume that is highly nutritious and contains a significant amount of iron. Iron is an essential mineral that is necessary for the production of red blood cells and the transportation of oxygen in the body. Consuming mongo can help prevent iron deficiency anemia and promote overall health.

99. Jose Miguel, a 50 year old business man is 6’0 Tall and weights 179 lbs. As a nurse, you know that Jose Miguel is :

Overweight

Underweight

Normal

Obese

Based on the given information, Jose Miguel is 50 years old, 6'0 tall, and weighs 179 lbs. To determine if he is underweight, overweight, normal, or obese, we need to calculate his body mass index (BMI). BMI is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms by the square of their height in meters. Since we do not have Jose Miguel's weight in kilograms or his height in meters, we cannot calculate his BMI accurately. Therefore, an explanation for the answer is not available.

Explanation

Based on the given information, Jose Miguel is 50 years old, 6'0 tall, and weighs 179 lbs. To determine if he is underweight, overweight, normal, or obese, we need to calculate his body mass index (BMI). BMI is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms by the square of their height in meters. Since we do not have Jose Miguel's weight in kilograms or his height in meters, we cannot calculate his BMI accurately. Therefore, an explanation for the answer is not available.

100. A terminally ill cancer patient is scheduled for an NGT feeding today. How should you position the patient?

Semi fowlers in bed

Bring the client into a chair

Slightly elevated right side lying position

Supine in bed

The correct answer is to bring the client into a chair. This is because an NGT (nasogastric tube) feeding requires the patient to be in an upright position to prevent aspiration and ensure proper flow of the feeding solution. Placing the patient in a chair allows for better positioning and reduces the risk of complications.

Explanation

The correct answer is to bring the client into a chair. This is because an NGT (nasogastric tube) feeding requires the patient to be in an upright position to prevent aspiration and ensure proper flow of the feeding solution. Placing the patient in a chair allows for better positioning and reduces the risk of complications.