Forensics And Network Intrusion Practice Exam- I

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Forensics And Network Intrusion Practice Exam- I - Quiz

Welcome to Forensics and Network Intrusion!
This course provides you with the knowledge and skills needed to work in the exciting, high-demand field of digital forensics. In preparation for the highly regarded Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator (CHFI) certification, you will learn about how to detect hacking attacks, how to properly extract and preserve evidence, and how to get the evidence needed for audits aimed at preventing future attacks.
Throughout the course, you will find readings, videos, labs, and learning checks. These activities are designed to let you check your retention of the topics presented. It is important to note that the Read morelabs and learning checks are not meant to reveal any characteristics of the format or design of the final assessment. Instead, they are explicitly designed to help you learn, and are offered as tools for you to use to your advantage as you work through the course.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What must an investigator do in order to offer a good report to a court of law and ease the prosecution?

    • A.

      Prosecute the evidence

    • B.

      Obfuscate the evidence

    • C.

      Authorize the evidence

    • D.

      Preserve the evidence

    Correct Answer
    D. Preserve the evidence
    Explanation
    In order to offer a good report to a court of law and ease the prosecution, an investigator must preserve the evidence. Preserving the evidence ensures that it remains intact and uncontaminated, allowing for a thorough examination and analysis. By preserving the evidence, the investigator can present a clear and accurate report to the court, providing crucial information that supports the prosecution's case.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is NOT a legitimate authorizer of a search warrant?

    • A.

      Magistrate

    • B.

      Court of law

    • C.

      First responder

    • D.

      Concerned authority

    Correct Answer
    C. First responder
    Explanation
    A first responder is not a legitimate authorizer of a search warrant. First responders, such as police officers or emergency medical personnel, are typically involved in immediate response and assistance during emergencies. They are not responsible for the legal process of authorizing search warrants. Instead, search warrants are typically authorized by a magistrate, a court of law, or a concerned authority who has the legal jurisdiction and power to grant such warrants based on probable cause and adherence to legal procedures.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is TRUE regarding computer forensics?

    • A.

      Computer forensics deals with the monetary cost of finding evidence related to a crime to find the culprits and initiate legal action against them.

    • B.

      Computer forensics deals with the search for evidence related to a digital crime, but the forensics specialist does not need to be concerned about the legal admissibility of the evidence he or she finds.

    • C.

      Computer forensics deals with the process of finding evidence related to a digital crime to find the culprits and initiate legal action against them.

    • D.

      Computer forensics deals only with the process of finding evidence related to a digital crime and does not try to estimate the monetary damages caused by that crime.

    Correct Answer
    C. Computer forensics deals with the process of finding evidence related to a digital crime to find the culprits and initiate legal action against them.
    Explanation
    Computer forensics deals with the process of finding evidence related to a digital crime to find the culprits and initiate legal action against them. This means that computer forensics focuses on investigating and gathering evidence from digital devices to identify and apprehend individuals involved in criminal activities. It does not involve estimating the monetary damages caused by the crime or being concerned about the legal admissibility of the evidence found.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is TRUE regarding Enterprise Theory of Investigation (ETI)?

    • A.

      It adopts an approach toward criminal activity as a criminal act.

    • B.

      It adopts a holistic approach toward any criminal activity as a criminal operation rather than as a single criminal activity.

    • C.

      It differs from traditional investigative methods and is less complex and less time- consuming.

    • D.

      It encourages reactive action on the structure of the criminal enterprise.

    Correct Answer
    B. It adopts a holistic approach toward any criminal activity as a criminal operation rather than as a single criminal activity.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the Enterprise Theory of Investigation (ETI) adopts a holistic approach toward any criminal activity as a criminal operation rather than as a single criminal activity. This means that instead of focusing on individual criminal acts, ETI looks at the bigger picture and investigates criminal activities as part of a larger criminal enterprise. This approach allows for a more comprehensive understanding of the criminal organization and its operations.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is NOT an element of cybercrime?

    • A.

      Fast-paced speed

    • B.

      Smaller evidence in size

    • C.

      Anonymity through masquerading

    • D.

      Volatile evidence

    Correct Answer
    B. Smaller evidence in size
    Explanation
    Cybercrime refers to criminal activities conducted through digital means. It involves various elements such as fast-paced speed, anonymity through masquerading, and volatile evidence. However, the statement "smaller evidence in size" does not fit the definition of an element of cybercrime. The size of evidence is not a defining characteristic of cybercrime, but rather the nature of the criminal activity itself.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is TRUE of civil crimes?

    • A.

      The initial reporting of the evidence is generally informal.

    • B.

      Law enforcement agencies are responsible for collecting and analyzing evidence.

    • C.

      The standards of proof need to be very high.

    • D.

      A formal investigation report is required.

    Correct Answer
    A. The initial reporting of the evidence is generally informal.
    Explanation
    Civil crimes typically refer to offenses that involve disputes between individuals or organizations, rather than crimes against society as a whole. In these cases, the initial reporting of the evidence is generally informal, meaning that it does not follow the formal procedures and protocols of criminal investigations. This is because civil crimes are typically resolved through civil lawsuits rather than criminal prosecutions. Law enforcement agencies are not usually involved in collecting and analyzing evidence for civil crimes, as their primary role is to handle criminal offenses. Additionally, the standards of proof for civil crimes are generally lower than those for criminal offenses, as the burden of proof is typically on the balance of probabilities rather than beyond a reasonable doubt. A formal investigation report is not required for civil crimes, as the resolution of these cases often occurs through negotiation, mediation, or a civil trial.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is NOT a consideration during a cybercrime investigation?

    • A.

      Presentation of admissible evidence

    • B.

      Value or cost to the victim

    • C.

      Collection of clues and forensic evidence

    • D.

      Analysis of digital evidence

    Correct Answer
    B. Value or cost to the victim
    Explanation
    During a cybercrime investigation, the value or cost to the victim is not a consideration. The focus of the investigation is primarily on the collection of clues and forensic evidence, as well as the analysis of digital evidence. The presentation of admissible evidence is crucial in order to build a strong case against the perpetrator. However, the financial impact on the victim is not a determining factor in the investigation process.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following should be considered before planning and evaluating the budget for the forensic investigation case?

    • A.

      Breakdown of costs into daily and annual expenditure

    • B.

      Current media coverage of high-profile computer crimes

    • C.

      Past success rate as a measure of value

    • D.

      Use of outdated, but trusted, technologies

    Correct Answer
    A. Breakdown of costs into daily and annual expenditure
    Explanation
    Before planning and evaluating the budget for a forensic investigation case, it is important to consider the breakdown of costs into daily and annual expenditure. This allows for a clear understanding of the financial resources required for the investigation and helps in effective allocation of funds. It helps in identifying any potential areas of overspending or underspending and ensures that the budget is well-managed throughout the investigation process.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of the Computer Forensics Investigation Methodology?

    • A.

      Secure the evidence.

    • B.

      Collect the evidence.

    • C.

      Destroy the evidence.

    • D.

      Assess the evidence.

    Correct Answer
    C. Destroy the evidence.
    Explanation
    Destroying the evidence is not part of the Computer Forensics Investigation Methodology. The purpose of computer forensics is to collect, secure, and assess the evidence in order to investigate and analyze digital crimes. Destroying the evidence would be counterproductive and could potentially hinder the investigation process.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is NOT where potential evidence may be located?

    • A.

      Thumb drive

    • B.

      Digital camera

    • C.

      Smart card

    • D.

      Processor

    Correct Answer
    D. Processor
    Explanation
    Potential evidence may be located on a thumb drive, digital camera, or smart card, as these devices can store data. However, the processor is not a storage device but rather the central processing unit (CPU) of a computer. While it may process and execute instructions, it does not typically store evidence directly. Therefore, the processor is not a location where potential evidence may be located.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following Federal Rules of Evidence governs proceedings in the courts of the United States?

    • A.

      Rule 105

    • B.

      Rule 102

    • C.

      Rule 103

    • D.

      Rule 101

    Correct Answer
    D. Rule 101
    Explanation
    Rule 101 governs proceedings in the courts of the United States. This rule establishes the scope and applicability of the Federal Rules of Evidence. It outlines the purpose of the rules and provides definitions for key terms used throughout the rules. Rule 101 is the foundational rule that sets the stage for the application of the other rules in the Federal Rules of Evidence.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following Federal Rules of Evidence contains Rulings on Evidence?

    • A.

      Rule 105

    • B.

      Rule 101

    • C.

      Rule 102

    • D.

      Rule 103

    Correct Answer
    D. Rule 103
    Explanation
    Rule 103 of the Federal Rules of Evidence contains the Rulings on Evidence. This rule outlines the procedure for making objections during trial, preserving a claim of error, and the effect of an error on a party's substantial rights. It also provides guidance on when a court must take notice of plain errors that affect substantial rights, even if they were not raised at trial. Therefore, Rule 103 is the correct answer as it specifically deals with the rulings on evidence.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is NOT a digital data storage type?

    • A.

      Magnetic storage devices

    • B.

      Optical storage devices

    • C.

      Flash memory devices

    • D.

      Quantum storage devices

    Correct Answer
    D. Quantum storage devices
    Explanation
    Quantum storage devices are not a digital data storage type. While magnetic storage devices, optical storage devices, and flash memory devices are commonly used for digital data storage, quantum storage devices are still in the experimental phase and not widely available. Quantum storage relies on the principles of quantum mechanics to store and process data, making it a potential future technology for data storage.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is NOT a type of flash-based memory?

    • A.

      Double-level cell (DLC)

    • B.

      Single-level cell (SLC)

    • C.

      Multi-level cell (MLC)

    • D.

      Triple-level cell (TLC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Double-level cell (DLC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is double-level cell (DLC). DLC is not a type of flash-based memory. Flash-based memory refers to the type of memory that uses a technology called NAND flash, which is commonly used in USB drives, SSDs, and memory cards. DLC is not a recognized term in the context of flash-based memory.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is unique to SSDs?

    • A.

      Spindle

    • B.

      NAND chips

    • C.

      Read/write heads

    • D.

      Platters

    Correct Answer
    B. NAND chips
    Explanation
    NAND chips are unique to SSDs. NAND flash memory is a type of non-volatile storage technology that is commonly used in solid-state drives (SSDs). Unlike traditional hard disk drives (HDDs), SSDs do not have spindles, read/write heads, or platters. Instead, they use NAND chips to store data. NAND chips are made up of memory cells that can retain data even when the power is turned off. This allows SSDs to provide faster access times, lower power consumption, and greater durability compared to HDDs.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is NOT used in the calculation of HDD density?

    • A.

      Area density

    • B.

      Bit density

    • C.

      Block density

    • D.

      Track density

    Correct Answer
    C. Block density
    Explanation
    Block density is not used in the calculation of HDD density. HDD density typically refers to the amount of data that can be stored on a given area of the hard disk drive platter. It is determined by factors such as the area density, which represents the number of bits that can be stored in a given area, the bit density, which represents the number of bits that can be stored in a single track, and the track density, which represents the number of tracks that can be packed into a given area. Block density, on the other hand, refers to the number of data blocks that can be stored in a given area, and is not directly related to HDD density.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is the correct number of bytes reserved at the beginning of a CD-ROM for booting a computer?

    • A.

      16,384

    • B.

      32,768

    • C.

      512

    • D.

      256

    Correct Answer
    B. 32,768
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 32,768. This is the correct number of bytes reserved at the beginning of a CD-ROM for booting a computer. The boot sector on a CD-ROM contains vital information for the computer to start up and load the operating system. This reserved space ensures that the necessary boot files are located in a specific location on the CD-ROM, allowing the computer to properly boot from it.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following specifications is used as a standard to define the use of file systems on CD-ROM and DVD media?

    • A.

      ISO 9431

    • B.

      ISO 6990

    • C.

      ISO 1349

    • D.

      ISO 9660

    Correct Answer
    D. ISO 9660
    Explanation
    ISO 9660 is the correct answer because it is the specification used as a standard to define the use of file systems on CD-ROM and DVD media. ISO 9660 is a file system standard that allows for the interchangeability of data between different computer systems. It ensures that CDs and DVDs are formatted in a way that can be read by various operating systems, making them universally compatible. ISO 9431, ISO 6990, and ISO 1349 are not relevant specifications for CD-ROM and DVD file systems.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following ISO 9660–compliant portions of a compact disc describes the location of the contiguous root directory similar to the super block of the UNIX file system?

    • A.

      The primary track sector

    • B.

      The secondary volume descriptor

    • C.

      The primary volume descriptor

    • D.

      The secondary track sector

    Correct Answer
    C. The primary volume descriptor
    Explanation
    The primary volume descriptor is an ISO 9660-compliant portion of a compact disc that describes the location of the contiguous root directory similar to the super block of the UNIX file system. It provides information about the volume, such as volume size, volume creation date, and location of the root directory. This descriptor is crucial for the proper functioning and organization of the files and directories on the disc.

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  • 20. 

    Which field type refers to the volume descriptor as a primary?

    • A.

      Number 3

    • B.

      Number 1

    • C.

      Number 2

    • D.

      Number 0

    Correct Answer
    B. Number 1
    Explanation
    Field type Number 1 refers to the volume descriptor as a primary.

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  • 21. 

    Which field type refers to the volume descriptor as a partition descriptor?

    • A.

      Number 2

    • B.

      Number 0

    • C.

      Number 3

    • D.

      Number 1

    Correct Answer
    C. Number 3
    Explanation
    The field type that refers to the volume descriptor as a partition descriptor is Number 3.

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  • 22. 

    Which field is the standard identifier set to CD001 for a CD-ROM compliant to the ISO 9660 standard?

    • A.

      Third

    • B.

      Fourth

    • C.

      Second

    • D.

      First

    Correct Answer
    C. Second
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the second option. In the ISO 9660 standard for CD-ROMs, the standard identifier field is set to CD001. This field is located in the second position, hence the second option is the correct answer.

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  • 23. 

    What partition holds the information regarding the operating system, system area, and other information required for booting?

    • A.

      Extended partition

    • B.

      Tertiary partition

    • C.

      Primary partition

    • D.

      Secondary partition

    Correct Answer
    C. Primary partition
    Explanation
    The primary partition holds the information regarding the operating system, system area, and other information required for booting. It is the main partition on a hard drive and is typically used to install the operating system. The primary partition is necessary for the computer to start up and run properly.

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  • 24. 

    In MS-DOS and earlier versions of Microsoft Windows, which partition must be first and a primary partition?

    • A.

      (C:)

    • B.

      (B:)

    • C.

      (A:)

    • D.

      (D:)

    Correct Answer
    A. (C:)
    Explanation
    In MS-DOS and earlier versions of Microsoft Windows, the first and primary partition is typically assigned the letter "C:". This is because the operating system is usually installed on this partition and it contains the necessary system files and boot records. Other partitions, such as "D:", "E:", etc., can be created for additional storage or organization purposes.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is a data structure situated at sector 1 in the volume boot record of a hard disk to explain the physical layout of a disk volume?

    • A.

      Boot Parameter Block (BPB)

    • B.

      BIOS Parameter Block (BPB)

    • C.

      Primary Sequential Sector (PSS)

    • D.

      Primary Reserved Sector (PRS)

    Correct Answer
    B. BIOS Parameter Block (BPB)
    Explanation
    The BIOS Parameter Block (BPB) is a data structure situated at sector 1 in the volume boot record of a hard disk. It is used to explain the physical layout of a disk volume. The BPB contains important information about the disk volume, such as the number of sectors per cluster, the number of reserved sectors, the number of FAT copies, and the size of the root directory. This information is crucial for the operating system to access and manage the disk volume effectively.

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  • 26. 

    MBR almost always refers to the partition sector of a disk also known as:

    • A.

      Primary Boot Record (PBR)

    • B.

      512-byte boot sector

    • C.

      256-byte boot sector

    • D.

      First Boot Record (FBR)

    Correct Answer
    B. 512-byte boot sector
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the 512-byte boot sector. MBR stands for Master Boot Record, which is a small section at the beginning of a disk that contains important information about the disk's partitions and how the operating system should boot. The MBR is typically 512 bytes in size and is also known as the 512-byte boot sector. It is responsible for locating the active partition and loading the initial boot code.

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  • 27. 

    How large is the partition table structure that stores information about the partitions present on the hard disk?

    • A.

      32-bit

    • B.

      32-byte

    • C.

      64-bit

    • D.

      64-byte

    Correct Answer
    D. 64-byte
    Explanation
    The partition table structure that stores information about the partitions present on the hard disk is 64-byte in size. This means that each entry in the partition table occupies 64 bytes of memory. The size of the partition table structure is important because it determines the maximum number of partitions that can be stored on the hard disk. A larger partition table structure allows for more partitions to be created and managed on the disk.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following UNIX/Linux commands can be used to help back up and restore the MBR?

    • A.

      BB

    • B.

      FDISK

    • C.

      DD

    • D.

      CP

    Correct Answer
    C. DD
    Explanation
    DD is the correct answer because it is a command in UNIX/Linux that can be used for low-level copying and converting data. It can be used to back up and restore the Master Boot Record (MBR) which contains the information about the partitions and the boot loader of the system. By using the DD command, the MBR can be copied to a file for backup purposes or restored from a backup file if it gets corrupted or damaged.

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  • 29. 

    GUIDs are displayed as how many hexadecimal digits with groups separated by hyphens?

    • A.

      64

    • B.

      128

    • C.

      32

    • D.

      256

    Correct Answer
    C. 32
    Explanation
    GUIDs (Globally Unique Identifiers) are displayed as 32 hexadecimal digits with groups separated by hyphens. Each hexadecimal digit represents 4 bits, so a 32-digit hexadecimal number represents a total of 128 bits. The groups separated by hyphens help to improve readability and make it easier to distinguish between different sections of the GUID.

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  • 30. 

    What is a standard partitioning scheme for hard disks and part of the Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)? 

    • A.

      UEFI Partition Table (UPT)

    • B.

      Universal Partition Table (UPT)

    • C.

      General Partition Table (GPT)

    • D.

      GUID Partition Table (GPT)

    Correct Answer
    D. GUID Partition Table (GPT)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GUID Partition Table (GPT). GPT is a standard partitioning scheme for hard disks and is part of the Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI). It is a modern replacement for the older Master Boot Record (MBR) partitioning scheme. GPT allows for larger disk sizes, supports more partitions, and provides better data integrity and reliability. It also uses globally unique identifiers (GUIDs) to identify partitions, hence the name.

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  • 31. 

    How many bytes is each logical block in GPT?

    • A.

      256

    • B.

      128

    • C.

      512

    • D.

      1,024

    Correct Answer
    C. 512
    Explanation
    Each logical block in GPT is 512 bytes.

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  • 32. 

    What is the last addressable block where negative addressing of the logical blocks starts from the end of the volume in GPT?

    • A.

      -255

    • B.

      -1

    • C.

      0

    • D.

      255

    Correct Answer
    B. -1
    Explanation
    In GPT (GUID Partition Table), negative addressing of logical blocks starts from the end of the volume. The last addressable block in this scenario would be -1.

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  • 33. 

    Which LBA stores the protective MBR?

    • A.

      LBA 2

    • B.

      LBA 3

    • C.

      LBA 0

    • D.

      LBA 1

    Correct Answer
    C. LBA 0
    Explanation
    The protective MBR is stored in LBA 0. LBA stands for Logical Block Address, and it is a way to identify specific blocks of data on a storage device. In this case, the protective MBR is stored in the first logical block of the device, which is LBA 0. This protective MBR is used to protect the disk from being overwritten by other operating systems or boot managers, ensuring that the original partition table remains intact.

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  • 34. 

    In the GUID Partition Table, which Logical Block Address contains the Partition Entry Array?

    • A.

      LBA 2

    • B.

      LBA 0

    • C.

       LBA 3

    • D.

      LBA 1

    Correct Answer
    A. LBA 2
    Explanation
    In the GUID Partition Table, the Partition Entry Array is stored in Logical Block Address (LBA) 2.

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  • 35. 

    Which LBA will be the first usable sector?

    • A.

      LBA 36

    • B.

      LBA 33

    • C.

      LBA 35

    • D.

      LBA 34

    Correct Answer
    D. LBA 34
    Explanation
    LBA 34 will be the first usable sector because the numbering of sectors starts from 0, so LBA 34 will be the 35th sector in the sequence. Since the question asks for the first usable sector, LBA 34 is the correct answer.

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  • 36. 

    Which position does the protective MBR occupy in the GPT at Logical Block Address 0?

    • A.

      Second

    • B.

      First

    • C.

      Last

    • D.

      Third

    Correct Answer
    B. First
    Explanation
    The protective MBR (Master Boot Record) occupies the first position in the GPT (GUID Partition Table) at Logical Block Address 0. The protective MBR is a special partition that helps prevent older systems from mistakenly interpreting the GPT as an MBR partition table. It serves as a protective barrier for the GPT and is placed at the beginning of the disk.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following describes when a user plugs in a computer and starts it from a fully off condition?

    • A.

      Warm booting

    • B.

      Soft booting

    • C.

      Hot booting

    • D.

      Cold booting

    Correct Answer
    D. Cold booting
    Explanation
    Cold booting refers to the process of starting a computer from a fully off condition. When a user plugs in the computer and turns it on, it goes through a series of hardware checks and loads the operating system. This process is known as cold booting because the computer starts from a completely powered-off state, as opposed to warm booting or soft booting where the computer is restarted without being fully powered off. Hot booting, on the other hand, refers to the process of restarting a computer without turning it off first.

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  • 38. 

    What is the meaning of the acronym POST?

    • A.

      Power-on self-test

    • B.

      Power-off system-test

    • C.

      Power-on system-test

    • D.

      Power-off self-test

    Correct Answer
    A. Power-on self-test
    Explanation
    The acronym POST stands for power-on self-test. This refers to a diagnostic test that a computer performs on itself when it is powered on. The purpose of this test is to check the hardware components of the computer and ensure that they are functioning properly. It helps in identifying any issues or errors that may be present in the system before the operating system is loaded. Therefore, the correct answer is power-on self-test.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following Windows operating systems powers on and starts up using only the traditional BIOS-MBR method?

    • A.

      Windows 8

    • B.

      Windows 9

    • C.

      Windows XP

    • D.

      Windows 10

    Correct Answer
    C. Windows XP
    Explanation
    Windows XP is the correct answer because it is an older operating system that was released before the introduction of UEFI. Windows XP uses the traditional BIOS-MBR method to power on and start up, whereas newer operating systems like Windows 8, Windows 9, and Windows 10 are designed to work with UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) instead.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following Windows operating systems powers on and starts up using only the traditional BIOS-MBR method?

    • A.

      Windows 7

    • B.

      Windows 8

    • C.

      Windows 9

    • D.

      Windows 10

    Correct Answer
    A. Windows 7
    Explanation
    Windows 7 powers on and starts up using only the traditional BIOS-MBR method. This means that it uses the Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) to initialize hardware and load the Master Boot Record (MBR) to locate the operating system. Windows 7 does not support the newer Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) that is used by Windows 8, Windows 9 (which does not exist), and Windows 10.

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  • 41. 

    Which Windows operating system powers on and starts up using either the traditional BIOS-MBR method or the newer UEFI-GPT method?

    • A.

      Windows 10

    • B.

      Windows 7

    • C.

      Windows Vista

    • D.

      Windows XP

    Correct Answer
    A. Windows 10
    Explanation
    Windows 10 is the correct answer because it is the latest version of the Windows operating system. It is designed to be compatible with both the traditional BIOS-MBR method and the newer UEFI-GPT method of powering on and starting up. This flexibility allows Windows 10 to be installed on a wide range of devices, from older systems that use the traditional method to newer systems that use the newer method.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is one of the five UEFI boot process phases?

    • A.

      PAI Phase

    • B.

      PEI Phase

    • C.

      BSD Phase

    • D.

      PIE Phase

    Correct Answer
    B. PEI Phase
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PEI Phase. The UEFI boot process consists of several phases, and one of them is the PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization) Phase. During this phase, the UEFI firmware initializes the necessary hardware components and performs basic system checks. It also sets up the memory and initializes the PEI Foundation, which is responsible for loading and executing the next phase of the boot process.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is one of the five UEFI boot process phases?

    • A.

      PAI Phase

    • B.

      PIE Phase

    • C.

      BDS Phase

    • D.

      BSD Phase

    Correct Answer
    C. BDS Phase
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BDS Phase. UEFI boot process consists of several phases, and one of them is the BDS Phase. This phase stands for Boot Device Selection, where the firmware identifies and selects the boot device from which the operating system will be loaded. During this phase, the firmware searches for bootable devices such as hard drives, USB drives, or network devices, and determines the order in which they will be checked for bootable files. Once the boot device is selected, the firmware hands over control to the operating system loader to continue the boot process.

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  • 44. 

    Which item describes the following UEFI boot process phase? (The phase of EFI consisting of initialization code the system executes after powering the system on, manages platform reset events, and sets the system state.)

    • A.

      BDS (Boot Device Selection) Phase

    • B.

      PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization) Phase

    • C.

      DXE (Driver Execution Environment) Phase

    • D.

      SEC (Security) Phase

    Correct Answer
    D. SEC (Security) Phase
    Explanation
    The SEC (Security) Phase of the UEFI boot process is responsible for initializing the system after it is powered on, managing platform reset events, and setting the system state. This phase executes the initialization code that ensures the security of the system by verifying the integrity of firmware and hardware components before allowing the boot process to proceed further. It establishes a trusted environment for the subsequent phases of the boot process to execute securely.

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  • 45. 

    Which item describes the UEFI boot process phase in which the majority of the initialization occurs?

    • A.

      PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization) Phase

    • B.

      DXE (Driver Execution Environment) Phase

    • C.

      BDS (Boot Device Selection) Phase

    • D.

      RT (Run Time) Phase

    Correct Answer
    B. DXE (Driver Execution Environment) Phase
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DXE (Driver Execution Environment) Phase. During this phase, the UEFI firmware initializes all the necessary drivers and services needed for the operating system to boot. This includes initializing hardware devices, configuring memory, and setting up the runtime environment. The DXE phase is responsible for loading and executing the UEFI drivers, which are essential for the functioning of the system during the boot process.

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  • 46. 

    Which item describes the following UEFI boot process phase? (The phase of EFI consisting of clearing the UEFI program from memory, transferring the UEFI program to the OS, and updating the OS calls for the run time service using a small part of the memory.)

    • A.

      RT (Run Time) Phase

    • B.

      PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization) Phase

    • C.

      BDS (Boot Device Selection) Phase

    • D.

      DXE (Driver Execution Environment) Phase

    Correct Answer
    A. RT (Run Time) Phase
    Explanation
    The RT (Run Time) Phase of the UEFI boot process is described as the phase where the UEFI program is cleared from memory, the UEFI program is transferred to the OS, and the OS calls for the run time service using a small part of the memory. This phase occurs after the DXE (Driver Execution Environment) Phase, where the UEFI drivers are executed and initialized. The RT Phase is responsible for transitioning control to the OS and ensuring that the necessary services are available for the OS to run properly.

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  • 47. 

    Which cmdlet can investigators use in Windows PowerShell to parse GPTs of both types of hard disks, including the ones formatted with either UEFI or MBR?

    • A.

      Get-GPT

    • B.

      Get-MBR

    • C.

      Get-BootSector

    • D.

      Get-PartitionTable

    Correct Answer
    C. Get-BootSector
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Get-BootSector. This cmdlet can be used by investigators in Windows PowerShell to parse the GPTs (GUID Partition Tables) of both types of hard disks, whether they are formatted with UEFI or MBR. By using Get-BootSector, investigators can gather information about the boot sectors of the hard disks, which can be helpful in understanding the disk's partitioning and file system.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following basic partitioning tools displays details about GPT partition tables in Windows OS?

    • A.

      DiskPart

    • B.

      Gparted

    • C.

      Disk Utility

    • D.

      Fdisk

    Correct Answer
    A. DiskPart
    Explanation
    DiskPart is a command-line utility in Windows OS that allows users to manage disks, partitions, and volumes. It can be used to create, delete, format, and resize partitions, including GPT (GUID Partition Table) partitions. It provides detailed information about GPT partition tables, such as the partition type, size, and status. Gparted is a partition editor for Linux, Disk Utility is a disk management tool for macOS, and Fdisk is a command-line utility for managing partitions in Linux and Unix-like systems. Therefore, DiskPart is the correct answer for displaying details about GPT partition tables in Windows OS.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following basic partitioning tools displays details about GPT partition tables in Linux OS?

    • A.

      Fdisk

    • B.

      GNU Parted

    • C.

      Disk Utility

    • D.

      DiskPart

    Correct Answer
    B. GNU Parted
    Explanation
    GNU Parted is the correct answer because it is a basic partitioning tool in Linux OS that displays details about GPT (GUID Partition Table) partition tables. Fdisk is another partitioning tool in Linux, but it does not specifically provide details about GPT partition tables. Disk Utility is a graphical tool for managing disks and partitions in Linux, but it may not display detailed information about GPT partition tables. DiskPart is a partitioning tool in Windows OS, not Linux.

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  • 50. 

    On Macintosh computers, which architecture utilizes EFI to initialize the hardware interfaces after the BootROM performs POST?

    • A.

      PowerPC

    • B.

      Intel

    • C.

      SPARC

    • D.

      ARM

    Correct Answer
    B. Intel
    Explanation
    On Macintosh computers, the architecture that utilizes EFI (Extensible Firmware Interface) to initialize the hardware interfaces after the BootROM performs POST is Intel. EFI is a firmware interface that replaces the older BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) and is used by Intel-based Macintosh computers to boot up and initialize the hardware components. This architecture is specific to Intel processors and is not used by other architectures such as PowerPC, SPARC, or ARM.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 03, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Dale

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