CHFI Certification Test: Forensics And Network Intrusion! Trivia Quiz

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CHFI Certification Test: Forensics And Network Intrusion! Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Are you reading for the CHFI certification test? The trivia quiz below is on forensics, and network intrusion is perfect for helping you review just how conversant you are with the topic. Think you can handle it? How about you give it a try and get to see just how much you might remember in the process. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the role of an expert witness?

    • A.

      To support the defense

    • B.

      To educate the public and court

    • C.

      To evaluate the court’s decisions

    • D.

      To testify against the plaintiff 

    Correct Answer
    B. To educate the public and court
    Explanation
    An expert witness plays a crucial role in a court case by providing specialized knowledge and expertise on a particular subject matter. They are responsible for educating both the public and the court about complex issues, presenting evidence, and offering their professional opinion. Their primary focus is to provide unbiased and objective information to assist the court in making informed decisions. They do not support the defense or testify against the plaintiff, as their role is to provide impartial and factual information to aid in the legal process.

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  • 2. 

    Under which of the following circumstances has a court of law allowed investigators to perform searches without a warrant?

    • A.

      Expediting the process of obtaining a warrant may lead to a delay in prosecution of a perpetrator.

    • B.

      Delay in obtaining a warrant may lead to the destruction of evidence and hamper the investigation process.

    • C.

      Expediting the process of obtaining a warrant may lead to the timely prosecution of a perpetrator.

    • D.

      Delay in obtaining a warrant may lead to the preservation of evidence and expedite the investigation process.

    Correct Answer
    B. Delay in obtaining a warrant may lead to the destruction of evidence and hamper the investigation process.
  • 3. 

    Which of the following is NOT an objective of computer forensics?

    • A.

      Interpret, document, and present the evidence to be admissible during prosecution.

    • B.

      Track and prosecute the perpetrators in a court of law.

    • C.

      Mitigate vulnerabilities to prevent further loss of intellectual property, finances, and reputation during an attack.

    • D.

      Identify, gather, and preserve the evidence of a cybercrime.

    Correct Answer
    C. Mitigate vulnerabilities to prevent further loss of intellectual property, finances, and reputation during an attack.
    Explanation
    The objective of computer forensics is to identify, gather, and preserve the evidence of a cybercrime, interpret, document, and present the evidence to be admissible during prosecution, and track and prosecute the perpetrators in a court of law. Mitigating vulnerabilities to prevent further loss of intellectual property, finances, and reputation during an attack is not an objective of computer forensics, as it falls under the domain of cybersecurity and risk management.

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  • 4. 

    Forensic readiness refers to:

    • A.

      An organization’s ability to make optimal use of digital evidence in a limited period and with minimal investigation costs.

    • B.

      The establishment of specific incident response procedures and designated trained personnel to prevent a breach.

    • C.

      Having no impact on prospects of successful legal action.

    • D.

      Replacing the need to meet all regulatory requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. An organization’s ability to make optimal use of digital evidence in a limited period and with minimal investigation costs.
    Explanation
    Forensic readiness refers to an organization's ability to effectively utilize digital evidence within a short timeframe and with minimal expenses for investigation. This means that the organization is prepared to collect, preserve, and analyze digital evidence in a manner that is efficient and cost-effective. By being forensic ready, the organization can enhance its ability to investigate and respond to incidents, ultimately improving the prospects of successful legal action if necessary.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is TRUE of cybercrimes?

    • A.

      The claimant is responsible for the collection and analysis of the evidence.

    • B.

      Investigators attempt to demonstrate information to the opposite party to support the claims and induce settlement.

    • C.

      The searching of the devices is based on mutual understanding and provides a wider time frame to hide the evidence.

    • D.

      Investigators, with a warrant, have the authority to forcibly seize the computing devices.

    Correct Answer
    D. Investigators, with a warrant, have the authority to forcibly seize the computing devices.
    Explanation
    In cybercrimes, investigators can only forcibly seize the computing devices if they have a warrant. This means that they have legal permission to take the devices without the owner's consent. This is an important step in the investigation process as it allows investigators to secure the evidence and prevent the suspect from tampering with or hiding it. It also ensures that the evidence is legally obtained and can be admissible in court.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following should be physical location and structural design considerations for forensics labs?

    • A.

      Lab exteriors should have no windows.

    • B.

      Room size should be compact with standard HVAC equipment.

    • C.

      Lightweight construction materials need to be used.

    • D.

      Computer systems should be visible from every angle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lab exteriors should have no windows.
    Explanation
    Forensics labs require a controlled environment to prevent any external influences on the evidence being analyzed. Having no windows in the lab exteriors ensures that natural light, temperature, and sound can be regulated effectively. This helps in maintaining the integrity of the evidence and preventing any contamination or tampering. Additionally, it also ensures the privacy and security of the lab, as sensitive information and activities are not exposed to outside view.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following should be work area considerations for forensic labs?

    • A.

      Additional equipment such as notepads, printers, etc. should be stored elsewhere.

    • B.

      Physical computer examinations should take place in a separate workspace.

    • C.

      Examiner station has an area of about 50–63 square feet.

    • D.

      Multiple examiners should share workspace for efficiency.

    Correct Answer
    C. Examiner station has an area of about 50–63 square feet.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Examiner station has an area of about 50–63 square feet." This statement suggests that the work area for forensic labs should have a designated space specifically for examiners, which should be spacious enough to accommodate their work requirements. Having a defined area helps ensure that examiners have enough room to work comfortably and efficiently, allowing them to perform their tasks effectively.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of the Computer Forensics Investigation Methodology?

    • A.

      Testify as an expert defendant.

    • B.

      Data acquisition

    • C.

      Data analysis

    • D.

      Testify as an expert witness.

    Correct Answer
    A. Testify as an expert defendant.
    Explanation
    Testifying as an expert defendant is not part of the Computer Forensics Investigation Methodology. Computer forensics involves the collection and analysis of digital evidence to investigate and prevent cybercrime. Testifying as an expert witness, on the other hand, is an essential part of the methodology as it involves presenting findings and expert opinions in a court of law.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is a user-created source of potential evidence?

    • A.

      Printer spool

    • B.

      Cookies

    • C.

      Log files

    • D.

      Address book

    Correct Answer
    D. Address book
    Explanation
    An address book is a user-created source of potential evidence because it is a personal contact list that is created and maintained by the user. It contains information such as names, phone numbers, and email addresses of individuals, which can be valuable evidence in investigations or legal proceedings. Unlike printer spool, cookies, and log files, which are system-generated or automatically created by software, an address book is actively managed and updated by the user, making it a user-created source of potential evidence.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is a computer-created source of potential evidence?

    • A.

      Swap file

    • B.

      Spreadsheet

    • C.

      Steganography

    • D.

      Bookmarks

    Correct Answer
    A. Swap file
    Explanation
    A swap file is a computer-created source of potential evidence. It is a file on a computer's hard drive that is used to temporarily store data that cannot fit into the computer's random access memory (RAM). When the RAM is full, the operating system moves some of the data from RAM to the swap file. This file can contain valuable information such as recently accessed files, internet browsing history, and other activities performed on the computer. Therefore, it can serve as a potential source of evidence in computer forensic investigations.

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  • 11. 

    Under which of the following conditions will duplicate evidence NOT suffice?

    • A.

      When original evidence is in possession of the originator

    • B.

      When original evidence is destroyed due to fire and flood

    • C.

      When original evidence is in possession of a third party

    • D.

      When original evidence is destroyed in the normal course of business

    Correct Answer
    A. When original evidence is in possession of the originator
    Explanation
    Duplicate evidence will not suffice when the original evidence is in possession of the originator because the original evidence is considered to be the most reliable and authentic source of information. In this case, relying on duplicate evidence would not be sufficient as it may lack the credibility and integrity of the original evidence. Therefore, it is necessary to have access to the original evidence in order to ensure accuracy and reliability.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following Federal Rules of Evidence ensures that the truth may be ascertained and the proceedings justly determined?

    • A.

      Rule 103

    • B.

      Rule 102

    • C.

      Rule 105

    • D.

      Rule 101

    Correct Answer
    B. Rule 102
    Explanation
    Rule 102 of the Federal Rules of Evidence states that these rules should be construed to secure fairness in administration, eliminate unjustifiable expense and delay, and promote the development of evidence law to achieve the truth and just determination of proceedings. This means that Rule 102 ensures that the truth may be ascertained and the proceedings justly determined, making it the correct answer to the question.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following Federal Rules of Evidence states that the court shall restrict the evidence to its proper scope and instruct the jury accordingly?

    • A.

      Rule 103

    • B.

      Rule 102

    • C.

      Rule 105

    • D.

      Rule 101

    Correct Answer
    C. Rule 105
    Explanation
    Rule 105 of the Federal Rules of Evidence states that the court shall restrict the evidence to its proper scope and instruct the jury accordingly. This means that the court has the responsibility to ensure that only relevant and admissible evidence is presented to the jury, and to provide instructions to the jury on the proper use and interpretation of that evidence. By doing so, the court helps to ensure a fair and just trial.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is a consideration of HDDs but not SSDs?

    • A.

      Access time

    • B.

      Seek time

    • C.

      RPM speed

    • D.

      Transfer time

    Correct Answer
    C. RPM speed
    Explanation
    The correct answer is RPM speed. RPM speed refers to the rotational speed of the hard disk drive's platters. HDDs have spinning platters, while SSDs do not. Since SSDs do not have moving parts, they do not have an RPM speed. Access time, seek time, and transfer time are considerations for both HDDs and SSDs.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is NOT an advantage of SSDs over HDDs?

    • A.

      Non-volatile memory

    • B.

      Faster data access

    • C.

      Higher reliability

    • D.

      Less power usage

    Correct Answer
    A. Non-volatile memory
    Explanation
    SSDs (Solid State Drives) have non-volatile memory, which means that the data stored in them is not lost when the power is turned off. This is an advantage because it ensures that the data remains intact even during power outages or system failures. However, non-volatile memory is not an advantage of SSDs over HDDs. HDDs also have non-volatile memory, as they store data magnetically on rotating disks. Therefore, non-volatile memory is not a distinguishing advantage of SSDs over HDDs.

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  • 16. 

    How many tracks are typically contained on a platter of a 3.5″ HDD?

    • A.

      512

    • B.

      1,000

    • C.

      2,000

    • D.

      256

    Correct Answer
    B. 1,000
    Explanation
    A typical platter of a 3.5" HDD typically contains 1,000 tracks.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is NOT a common computer file system?

    • A.

      NTFS

    • B.

      EFX3

    • C.

      EXT2

    • D.

      FAT32

    Correct Answer
    B. EFX3
  • 18. 

    Which of the following items is used to describe the characteristics of the file system information present on a given CD-ROM?

    • A.

      Volume descriptor

    • B.

      POSIX attribute

    • C.

      Track header

    • D.

      Boot sector

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume descriptor
    Explanation
    A volume descriptor is used to describe the characteristics of the file system information present on a given CD-ROM. It contains important information about the volume, such as its size, type, and file system used. This descriptor helps the operating system understand how to read and access the files stored on the CD-ROM. It provides essential metadata that allows the system to properly navigate and interpret the file system structure on the CD-ROM.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following file systems are used for adding more descriptors to a CD-ROM’s file system sequence?

    • A.

      Romeo and MDF

    • B.

      ISO 9660

    • C.

      ISO 13490

    • D.

      Joliet and UDF

    Correct Answer
    D. Joliet and UDF
    Explanation
    Joliet and UDF are file systems used for adding more descriptors to a CD-ROM's file system sequence. Joliet is an extension of the ISO 9660 file system and allows for longer file names and Unicode characters. UDF, on the other hand, is a universal file system that supports various operating systems and allows for more advanced features like file compression and encryption. By using Joliet and UDF, additional descriptors can be added to enhance the functionality and compatibility of the CD-ROM's file system.

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  • 20. 

    Which field type in a volume descriptor refers to a boot record?

    • A.

      Number 2

    • B.

      Number 3

    • C.

      Number 0

    • D.

      Number 1

    Correct Answer
    C. Number 0
    Explanation
    The field type in a volume descriptor that refers to a boot record is Number 0.

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  • 21. 

    Which field type refers to the volume descriptor as a supplementary?

    • A.

      Number 0

    • B.

      Number 2

    • C.

      Number 3

    • D.

      Number 1

    Correct Answer
    B. Number 2
    Explanation
    Field type number 2 refers to the volume descriptor as a supplementary.

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  • 22. 

    Which field type refers to the volume descriptor as a set terminator?

    • A.

      Number 2

    • B.

      Number 1

    • C.

      Number 255

    • D.

      Number 3

    Correct Answer
    C. Number 255
    Explanation
    Field type number 255 refers to the volume descriptor as a set terminator. This means that when this field type is encountered in a volume descriptor set, it signifies the end of the set. It is used to mark the last descriptor in the set and indicates that there are no more descriptors following it.

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  • 23. 

    Which file system for Linux transfers all tracks and boot images on a CD as normal files?

    • A.

      CIFS

    • B.

      NTFS

    • C.

      CDFS

    • D.

      VMFS

    Correct Answer
    C. CDFS
    Explanation
    CDFS stands for Compact Disc File System, which is a file system used for reading and accessing data from CDs. Unlike other file systems like CIFS, NTFS, and VMFS, CDFS treats all tracks and boot images on a CD as normal files. This means that the tracks and boot images can be accessed and transferred just like any other file on the CD, making it easier to work with CDs in Linux.

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  • 24. 

    Which logical drive holds the information regarding the data and files that are stored in the disk?

    • A.

      Extended partition

    • B.

      Primary partition

    • C.

      Secondary partition

    • D.

      Tertiary partition

    Correct Answer
    A. Extended partition
    Explanation
    An extended partition is a type of logical drive that holds information regarding the data and files stored on a disk. It is used to create additional logical drives within a primary partition. The extended partition allows for better organization and management of data on the disk by dividing it into smaller logical drives.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is NOT a disk editor tool to help view file headers and important information about a file?

    • A.

      Win Edit

    • B.

      Disk Edit

    • C.

      WinHex

    • D.

      Hex Workshop

    Correct Answer
    A. Win Edit
    Explanation
    Win Edit is not a disk editor tool to help view file headers and important information about a file. The other options listed, Disk Edit, WinHex, and Hex Workshop, are all well-known disk editor tools that provide the functionality mentioned.

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  • 26. 

    What is a hard disk’s first sector that specifies the location of an operating system for the system to load into the main storage?

    • A.

      Primary Boot Record (PBR)

    • B.

      First Boot Record (FBR)

    • C.

      Secondary Boot Record (SBR)

    • D.

      Master Boot Record (MBR)

    Correct Answer
    D. Master Boot Record (MBR)
    Explanation
    The Master Boot Record (MBR) is the first sector of a hard disk that contains information about the disk's partition table and the location of the operating system. It is responsible for loading the operating system into the main storage of the system. The MBR also contains a small program called the boot loader, which helps initiate the booting process.

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  • 27. 

    Which commands help create MBR in Windows and DOS operating systems?

    • A.

      CD/DIR

    • B.

      IP/IFCONFIG

    • C.

      RARP/ARP

    • D.

      FDISK/MBR

    Correct Answer
    D. FDISK/MBR
    Explanation
    The FDISK/MBR commands are used to create the Master Boot Record (MBR) in Windows and DOS operating systems. The MBR is a special type of boot sector located at the beginning of a storage device, such as a hard drive, and contains the necessary information for the system to start up. FDISK is a command-line utility that allows users to create, delete, and manage disk partitions, while MBR stands for Master Boot Record, which is responsible for loading the operating system. Therefore, using FDISK/MBR commands is the correct way to create the MBR in Windows and DOS operating systems.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is a small piece of instruction in computer language, which the system loads into the BIOS and executes to initiate the system’s boot process?

    • A.

      Master Boot Process

    • B.

      Master BIOS Code

    • C.

      Master Boot Code

    • D.

      Master BIOS Process

    Correct Answer
    C. Master Boot Code
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Master Boot Code". The master boot code is a small piece of instruction in computer language that is loaded into the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) and executed to initiate the system's boot process. It is responsible for locating the operating system's boot loader and starting the system.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is a 128-bit unique number, generated by the Windows OS for identifying a specific device, document, database entry, or user?

    • A.

      Sequentially Unique Identifier (SQUID)

    • B.

      Secondary Potential Identifier (SPUD)

    • C.

      Globally Unique Identifier (GUID)

    • D.

      Galaxy Unique Identifier (GUID)

    Correct Answer
    C. Globally Unique Identifier (GUID)
    Explanation
    A Globally Unique Identifier (GUID) is a 128-bit unique number generated by the Windows OS for identifying a specific device, document, database entry, or user. It is used to ensure that each identifier is unique worldwide, reducing the chances of duplication. GUIDs are commonly used in various applications and systems to uniquely identify entities and provide a reliable way to reference them.

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  • 30. 

    What replaces legacy BIOS firmware interfaces and uses a partition interfacing system to overcome the limitations of the MBR partitioning scheme?

    • A.

      UEMR

    • B.

      UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) 

    • C.

      UEFO

    • D.

      UHFI

    Correct Answer
    B. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) 
    Explanation
    UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) replaces legacy BIOS firmware interfaces and uses a partition interfacing system to overcome the limitations of the MBR partitioning scheme. UEFI provides a more advanced and flexible interface for the firmware on modern computers. It supports larger disk sizes, faster boot times, and more secure booting processes. UEFI also allows for the use of GPT (GUID Partition Table) partitioning scheme, which can support larger disk capacities and more partitions compared to the older MBR scheme.

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  • 31. 

    How many bits are used by the MBR partition scheme for storing LBAs (Logical Block Addresses) and the size information on a 512-byte sector?

    • A.

      32

    • B.

      64

    • C.

      256

    • D.

      128

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
    Explanation
    The MBR partition scheme uses 32 bits to store LBAs (Logical Block Addresses) and the size information on a 512-byte sector. This means that it can support a maximum of 2^32 (or 4,294,967,296) LBAs, which is the maximum number of sectors that can be addressed using this scheme.

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  • 32. 

    How many bytes is each partition entry in GPT?

    • A.

      512

    • B.

      128

    • C.

      1,024

    • D.

      256

    Correct Answer
    B. 128
    Explanation
    Each partition entry in GPT is 128 bytes.

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  • 33. 

    What do GPTs use instead of the addressing used in modern MBRs?

    • A.

      Logical Block Addressing (LBA)

    • B.

      Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI)

    • C.

      Globally Unique Identifier (GUID)

    • D.

      Cylinder-Head-Sector (CHS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Logical Block Addressing (LBA)
    Explanation
    GPTs (GUID Partition Tables) use Logical Block Addressing (LBA) instead of the addressing used in modern MBRs. LBA is a method of disk addressing that allows for direct access to specific blocks of data on a storage device, such as a hard drive. It uses a linear addressing scheme, where each block is assigned a unique logical block address. This allows for more efficient and flexible disk management compared to the traditional Cylinder-Head-Sector (CHS) addressing used in MBRs.

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  • 34. 

    Which LBA contains the GPT header?

    • A.

      LBA 2

    • B.

      LBA 3

    • C.

      LBA 0

    • D.

      LBA 1

    Correct Answer
    D. LBA 1
    Explanation
    The GPT header is located in LBA 1.

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  • 35. 

    The UEFI assigns how many bytes for the Partition Entry Array?

    • A.

      16,384

    • B.

      65,536

    • C.

      32,768

    • D.

      8,192

    Correct Answer
    A. 16,384
    Explanation
    The UEFI assigns 16,384 bytes for the Partition Entry Array.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is an advantage of the GPT disk layout?

    • A.

      GPT allows users to partition disks larger than 2 terabytes.

    • B.

      GPT partition and boot data is more secure than MBR, as MBR stores data in multiple locations across the disk.

    • C.

      GPT allows users to partition disks larger than 40 gigabytes.

    • D.

      MBR partition and boot data is more secure than GPT, as GPT stores data in multiple locations across the disk.

    Correct Answer
    A. GPT allows users to partition disks larger than 2 terabytes.
    Explanation
    The advantage of the GPT disk layout is that it allows users to partition disks larger than 2 terabytes. This means that GPT is capable of handling larger storage capacities, making it more suitable for modern storage needs. Compared to MBR, GPT offers a more advanced and flexible partitioning system that can accommodate larger disk sizes.

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  • 37. 

    Which partition type designates the protective MBR from legacy MBR?

    • A.

      0xFF

    • B.

      0x01

    • C.

      0x00

    • D.

      0xEE

    Correct Answer
    D. 0xEE
    Explanation
    The partition type 0xEE designates the protective MBR from legacy MBR. This partition type is used on a GPT (GUID Partition Table) disk to indicate the presence of a protective MBR, which helps prevent older operating systems from mistakenly treating the disk as unpartitioned or damaged. The protective MBR contains a single partition that spans the entire disk, effectively protecting the GPT partition table.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following describes when the user restarts the system via the operating system?

    • A.

      Hot booting

    • B.

      Cold booting

    • C.

      Warm booting

    • D.

      Hard booting

    Correct Answer
    C. Warm booting
    Explanation
    Warm booting refers to the process of restarting the system through the operating system without turning off the power to the computer. This allows the system to reset and start fresh without going through the complete startup process. It is called "warm" booting because the system is already powered on and only the software is being restarted. This is different from cold booting, where the system is completely powered off and then turned on again. Hard booting and hot booting are not accurate descriptions for restarting the system via the operating system.

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  • 39. 

    What are the essential Windows system files?

    • A.

      Ntoskrnl.exe

    • B.

      CoreServices

    • C.

      Boot.efi

    • D.

      Inittab

    Correct Answer
    A. Ntoskrnl.exe
    Explanation
    Ntoskrnl.exe is one of the essential Windows system files. It is the kernel image for the Windows NT operating system. This file is responsible for various core functions, such as memory management, process and thread management, and input/output operations. It is loaded during system startup and remains in memory throughout the operating system's operation. Without this file, the Windows operating system would not be able to function properly.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following Windows operating systems powers on and starts up using only the traditional BIOS-MBR method?

    • A.

      Windows Vista

    • B.

      Windows 9

    • C.

      Windows 8

    • D.

      Windows 10

    Correct Answer
    A. Windows Vista
    Explanation
    Windows Vista is the correct answer because it is the only operating system listed that powers on and starts up using only the traditional BIOS-MBR method. Windows 9, Windows 8, and Windows 10 all use the newer UEFI-GPT method for booting up.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following Windows operating systems powers on and starts up using either the traditional BIOS-MBR method or the newer UEFI-GPT method?

    • A.

      Windows XP

    • B.

      Windows Vista

    • C.

      Windows 7

    • D.

      Windows 8

    Correct Answer
    D. Windows 8
    Explanation
    Windows 8 is the correct answer because it is the first Windows operating system to support both the traditional BIOS-MBR method and the newer UEFI-GPT method for powering on and starting up. This means that Windows 8 can be installed and run on older devices that use the traditional BIOS-MBR method, as well as newer devices that use the UEFI-GPT method.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is one of the five UEFI boot process phases?

    • A.

      PIE Phase

    • B.

      BSD Phase

    • C.

      SEC Phase

    • D.

      PAI Phase

    Correct Answer
    C. SEC Phase
    Explanation
    The SEC Phase is one of the five UEFI boot process phases. SEC stands for Security Phase and it is the initial phase of the boot process where the firmware initializes and verifies the platform's security features. This phase ensures that the platform is secure and trusted before proceeding to the next phases of the boot process.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is one of the five UEFI boot process phases?

    • A.

      BSD Phase

    • B.

      DXE Phase

    • C.

      PAI Phase

    • D.

      PIE Phase

    Correct Answer
    B. DXE Phase
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DXE Phase. The UEFI boot process consists of five phases: SEC (Security), PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization), DXE (Driver Execution Environment), BDS (Boot Device Selection), and RT (Runtime). The DXE Phase is responsible for executing the UEFI drivers and initializing the UEFI services, allowing the operating system to be loaded and executed.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is one of the five UEFI boot process phases?

    • A.

      RT Phase

    • B.

      PIE Phase

    • C.

      PAI Phase

    • D.

      BSD Phase

    Correct Answer
    A. RT Phase
    Explanation
    The RT Phase is one of the five UEFI boot process phases. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is a specification that defines a software interface between the operating system and the platform firmware. The RT Phase stands for Runtime Phase, which occurs after the pre-boot phase and involves the execution of UEFI drivers and applications in the operating system runtime environment. This phase allows for the initialization of hardware devices, configuration of system settings, and the loading of additional software components required for the operating system to run properly.

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  • 45. 

    Which item describes the following UEFI boot process phase?  (The phase of EFI consisting of initializing the CPU, temporary memory, and boot firmware volume (BFV); locating and executing the chapters to initialize all the found hardware in the system; and creating a Hand-Off Block List with all found resources interface descriptors.)

    • A.

      PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization) Phase

    • B.

      BDS (Boot Device Selection) Phase

    • C.

      RT (Run Time) Phase

    • D.

      DXE (Driver Execution Environment) Phase

    Correct Answer
    A. PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization) Phase
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization) Phase. This phase of the UEFI boot process involves initializing the CPU, temporary memory, and boot firmware volume (BFV). It also includes locating and executing the chapters to initialize all the found hardware in the system. Additionally, it creates a Hand-Off Block List with all found resources interface descriptors.

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  • 46. 

    Which item describes the following UEFI boot process phase?  (The phase of EFI consisting of interpreting the boot configuration data, selecting the Boot Policy for later implementation, working with the prior phase to check if the device drivers require signature verification, loading either MBR boot code into memory for Legacy BIOS Boot or the Bootloader program from the EFI partition for UEFI Boot, and providing an option for the user to choose EFI Shell or an UEFI application as the Boot Device from the Setup.)

    • A.

      PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization) Phase

    • B.

      BDS (Boot Device Selection) Phase

    • C.

      RT (Run Time) Phase

    • D.

      DXE (Driver Execution Environment) Phase

    Correct Answer
    B. BDS (Boot Device Selection) Phase
    Explanation
    The correct answer is BDS (Boot Device Selection) Phase. This phase of the UEFI boot process involves interpreting the boot configuration data, selecting the Boot Policy, checking device drivers for signature verification, and loading either the MBR boot code for Legacy BIOS Boot or the Bootloader program from the EFI partition for UEFI Boot. It also provides the user with an option to choose EFI Shell or a UEFI application as the Boot Device from the Setup.

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  • 47. 

    Which cmdlet can investigators use in Windows PowerShell to analyze the GUID Partition Table data structure of the hard disk?

    • A.

      Get-BootSector

    • B.

      Get-GPT

    • C.

      Get-PartitionTable

    • D.

      Get-MBR

    Correct Answer
    B. Get-GPT
    Explanation
    Get-GPT is the correct answer because it is a cmdlet in Windows PowerShell that investigators can use to analyze the GUID Partition Table (GPT) data structure of the hard disk. GPT is a standard for partitioning a hard drive and is commonly used in modern computers with UEFI firmware. By using the Get-GPT cmdlet, investigators can retrieve information about the partitions, volumes, and other metadata stored in the GPT, allowing them to analyze and understand the disk's layout and organization.

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  • 48. 

    Which cmdlet can investigators use in Windows PowerShell to analyze the GUID Partition Table to find the exact type of boot sector and display the partition object?

    • A.

      Get-GPT

    • B.

      Get-PartitionTable

    • C.

      Get-MBR

    • D.

      Get-BootSector

    Correct Answer
    B. Get-PartitionTable
    Explanation
    Get-PartitionTable is the correct answer because it is a cmdlet in Windows PowerShell that can be used by investigators to analyze the GUID Partition Table. This cmdlet allows them to find the exact type of boot sector and display the partition object, providing valuable information for their investigation.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following basic partitioning tools displays details about GPT partition tables in Macintosh OS?

    • A.

      Gparted

    • B.

      DiskPart

    • C.

      Disk Utility

    • D.

      Fdisk

    Correct Answer
    C. Disk Utility
    Explanation
    Disk Utility is the correct answer because it is a basic partitioning tool that is specifically designed for Macintosh OS. It allows users to manage and manipulate GPT (GUID Partition Table) partition tables on Mac systems. Disk Utility provides detailed information about the GPT partition tables, such as the partition layout, size, type, and file system format. It also offers various partitioning and formatting options, allowing users to create, resize, delete, and format partitions on their Macintosh systems.

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  • 50. 

    On Macintosh computers, which architecture utilizes Open Firmware to initialize the hardware interfaces after the BootROM performs POST?

    • A.

      PowerPC

    • B.

      SPARC

    • C.

      ARM

    • D.

      Intel

    Correct Answer
    A. PowerPC
    Explanation
    PowerPC is the correct answer because on Macintosh computers, the PowerPC architecture utilizes Open Firmware to initialize the hardware interfaces after the BootROM performs POST. Open Firmware is a standard firmware interface that provides a platform-independent way to boot the computer and configure hardware. It is commonly used on PowerPC-based systems, including older Macintosh computers.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 18, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Dale
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