Fire Inspector I Study Guide IV

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  • 1/100 Questions

    A high expansion foam system can fill an entire building to several feet above the highest storage area within a few minutes.

    • True
    • False
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Fire Inspector Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This 'Fire Inspector I Study Guide IV' assesses knowledge crucial for fire safety professionals. It covers high expansion foam systems, AFFF usage, fire detection and alarm system functionalities, and nuances of fire detection technology. Ideal for those preparing for fire inspector roles to ensure safety and compliance.

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  • 2. 

    Discharging the AFFF through standard sprinklers rather than foam sprinklers tends to undermine the spray & penetration.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because discharging the AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam) through standard sprinklers does not undermine the spray and penetration. In fact, AFFF is designed to be discharged through standard sprinklers as it forms a foam blanket on the surface of flammable liquids, suppressing the fire by separating the fuel from the oxygen. The foam sprinklers, on the other hand, are specifically designed for high-expansion foam systems, which are used in areas with large open spaces.

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  • 3. 

    Fire detection & alarm systems can be designed to shut down HVAC systems, close fire doors, pressurize stairwells, and automatically return elevators to a designated floor.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Fire detection and alarm systems are capable of performing various actions to enhance the safety of a building during a fire incident. These actions include shutting down HVAC systems to prevent the spread of smoke, closing fire doors to contain the fire, pressurizing stairwells to keep them smoke-free for evacuation, and automatically returning elevators to a designated floor to prevent people from getting trapped. Therefore, the statement is true as fire detection and alarm systems can indeed be designed to perform these functions.

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  • 4. 

    Remote stations must be monitored by fire department personnel.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Remote stations do not necessarily need to be monitored by fire department personnel. They can be monitored through various means such as surveillance cameras, remote sensors, and automated systems. This allows for efficient monitoring and response to any potential fire incidents without the need for physical presence by fire department personnel at all times. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 5. 

    A smoke detector senses fire much more quickly than does a heat detector.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Smoke detectors are designed to detect the presence of smoke particles in the air, which are typically present during the early stages of a fire. On the other hand, heat detectors are triggered when a certain temperature threshold is reached. Since smoke is typically produced before a significant rise in temperature occurs during a fire, smoke detectors are able to sense fire much more quickly than heat detectors. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 6. 

    Fire department personnel must participate in every performance or service test of a fire detection and signaling system.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Fire department personnel are not required to participate in every performance or service test of a fire detection and signaling system. While it is important for fire department personnel to be knowledgeable about these systems and their operation, their participation in every test is not necessary. They may be involved in certain tests or inspections to ensure compliance with regulations and standards, but their involvement is not mandatory for every test.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the floowing portable fire extinguishers is suitable for use on electrical fires?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C
    Explanation
    Class C fire extinguishers are suitable for use on electrical fires. This is because Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment, such as appliances, wiring, circuit breakers, and outlets. These fires can be extinguished by using fire extinguishers specifically designed to safely extinguish electrical fires. Class C fire extinguishers contain non-conductive extinguishing agents that do not conduct electricity, allowing them to effectively suppress the fire without the risk of electrical shock.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following portable fire extinguishers is suitable for use on combustible metal fires?

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class D
    Explanation
    Class D fire extinguishers are specifically designed for use on combustible metal fires. These fires involve metals such as magnesium, titanium, potassium, and sodium, which require a specialized extinguishing agent. Class D extinguishers contain a dry powder that smothers the fire and prevents oxygen from reaching the metal surface, effectively extinguishing the fire. Class B extinguishers are suitable for flammable liquid fires, while Class C extinguishers are designed for electrical fires. Therefore, Class D is the correct answer for use on combustible metal fires.

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  • 9. 

    According to extinguisher tests, how much water does a water-type portable extinguisher rated 1-A require?

    • 1 gallon

    • 1 1/4 gallons

    • 2 gallons

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 1/4 gallons
    Explanation
    According to extinguisher tests, a water-type portable extinguisher rated 1-A requires 1 1/4 gallons of water.

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  • 10. 

    For what type fires woud a portable extinguisher marked with a red square be suitable?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    Correct Answer
    A. Class B
    Explanation
    A portable extinguisher marked with a red square would be suitable for Class B fires. Class B fires involve flammable liquids such as gasoline, oil, or grease. The red square symbolizes that the extinguisher is specifically designed to combat fires caused by flammable liquids. This type of extinguisher is not suitable for Class A fires (ordinary combustibles) or Class C fires (electrical equipment) as indicated by the other options.

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  • 11. 

    For what type fires would a portable extinguisher marked with a yellow star be suitable?

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class D
    Explanation
    A portable extinguisher marked with a yellow star would be suitable for Class D fires. Class D fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, titanium, potassium, etc. These fires require a specialized extinguishing agent that can effectively smother the burning metal and prevent re-ignition. The yellow star marking indicates that the extinguisher is specifically designed and rated for Class D fires, making it the correct choice for this type of fire.

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  • 12. 

    What size is the largest water extinguisher that can be considered portable?

    • 1 1/4 gallon

    • 5 gallon

    • 10 gallon

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 gallon
    Explanation
    The largest water extinguisher that can be considered portable is a 5-gallon size. This size is large enough to hold a significant amount of water to extinguish fires, but still manageable to carry and transport. A 10-gallon size would be too heavy and cumbersome to be considered portable, while a 1 1/4 gallon size would not hold enough water to effectively put out fires.

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  • 13. 

    How does carbon dioxide CO2 primarily extinguish a fire?

    • Cooling

    • Chemical reaction

    • Smothering

    Correct Answer
    A. Smothering
    Explanation
    Carbon dioxide primarily extinguishes a fire by smothering it. When carbon dioxide is released onto a fire, it displaces the oxygen around the fire, creating an oxygen-deficient environment. Fire requires oxygen to sustain itself, so by removing the oxygen, the fire is deprived of its fuel source and is extinguished. This method of extinguishing a fire is effective because it does not involve any chemical reactions or cooling, but instead focuses on removing the necessary element for the fire to burn.

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  • 14. 

    For what class(es) of fire would an AFFF portable exinguisher be suitable?

    • Class A but not B or C

    • Class B but not A or C

    • Class A and B but not C

    Correct Answer
    A. Class A and B but not C
    Explanation
    An AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam) portable extinguisher would be suitable for Class A and B fires but not for Class C fires. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, and cloth. Class B fires involve flammable liquids such as gasoline, oil, and grease. AFFF extinguishers are effective in suppressing these types of fires by forming a foam blanket that separates the fuel from the oxygen. However, they are not suitable for Class C fires, which involve energized electrical equipment, as the foam can conduct electricity and pose a risk to the user.

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  • 15. 

    What is the primary advantage of halon extinguishers?

    • Nontoxic

    • Clean nature

    • Universally accepted

    Correct Answer
    A. Clean nature
    Explanation
    Halon extinguishers have the primary advantage of having a clean nature. This means that when they are used to put out fires, they do not leave behind any residue or byproducts that could be harmful or cause damage. This is particularly important in situations where sensitive equipment or materials are present, as the clean nature of halon extinguishers ensures that there is no additional damage caused during the fire suppression process.

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  • 16. 

    On what classes of fire is sodium bicarbonate MOST effective?

    • Classes A & C

    • Classes B & C

    • Classes C & D

    Correct Answer
    A. Classes B & C
    Explanation
    Sodium bicarbonate is most effective on Class B and Class C fires. Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases, while Class C fires involve electrical equipment. Sodium bicarbonate, also known as baking soda, works by releasing carbon dioxide when heated, which helps to smother the fire and prevent it from spreading. Therefore, it is effective in extinguishing both flammable liquid and gas fires (Class B) as well as electrical fires (Class C).

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  • 17. 

    Which dry-chemical agent comes closest to being equally effective on all fires?

    • Sodium bicarbonate

    • Monoammonium phosphate

    • Potassium bicarbonate

    Correct Answer
    A. Monoammonium phosphate
    Explanation
    Monoammonium phosphate comes closest to being equally effective on all fires because it is a versatile dry-chemical agent that can effectively extinguish Class A, B, and C fires. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials, Class B fires involve flammable liquids and gases, and Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment. Monoammonium phosphate works by smothering the fire, interrupting the chemical reaction, and cooling the fuel source. Its effectiveness on different types of fires makes it a commonly used dry-chemical agent in fire extinguishers.

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  • 18. 

    Which dry chemical agent melts & forms a solid coating on Class A materials?

    • Sodium bicarbonate

    • Monoammonium phosphate

    • Potassium bicarbonate

    Correct Answer
    A. Monoammonium phosphate
    Explanation
    Monoammonium phosphate is the correct answer because it is a dry chemical agent that melts and forms a solid coating on Class A materials. This coating helps to smother the fire and prevent oxygen from reaching the fuel source, thereby extinguishing the fire. Sodium bicarbonate and potassium bicarbonate are also dry chemical agents commonly used for fire extinguishment, but they do not form a solid coating on Class A materials like monoammonium phosphate does.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following statements about auxiliary fire extinguishing equipment is true?

    • Hanging buckets should have flat bottoms so that they will be easier to handle in an emergency

    • Buckets filled with sand are mainly used to extinguish incipient Class A fires

    • Flame resistant wool is a suitable fiber for fire blankets

    Correct Answer
    A. Flame resistant wool is a suitable fiber for fire blankets
    Explanation
    Flame resistant wool is a suitable fiber for fire blankets because wool has natural fire-resistant properties. It has a high ignition temperature and does not melt or stick to the skin when exposed to flames. Wool fire blankets are effective in smothering small fires by cutting off the oxygen supply. They are commonly used in kitchens, laboratories, and other areas where small fires may occur.

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  • 20. 

    The general operating instructions for portable extinguishers follow the acronym

    • PASS

    • FIRE

    • PUMP

    Correct Answer
    A. PASS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PASS. PASS is an acronym that stands for Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side. These are the general operating instructions for using portable extinguishers. By pulling the pin, aiming at the base of the fire, squeezing the handle, and sweeping the extinguisher from side to side, the user can effectively extinguish the fire.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following would be a light hazard occupancy?

    • Paint shop

    • Mercantile display

    • School classroom

    Correct Answer
    A. School classroom
    Explanation
    A school classroom would be considered a light hazard occupancy because it typically contains minimal quantities of combustible materials and does not involve any hazardous processes or activities. It is a low-risk environment in terms of fire safety and is designed to provide a safe learning space for students.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following would be an ordinary hazard occupancy?

    • Church

    • Automobile showroom

    • Restaurant with deep fat fryers

    Correct Answer
    A. Automobile showroom
    Explanation
    An automobile showroom would be considered an ordinary hazard occupancy because it typically involves the display and sale of vehicles, which do not pose significant risks or hazards. Unlike a restaurant with deep fat fryers, which involves the use of open flames and hot oil, or a church that may have candles and incense, an automobile showroom is generally a low-risk environment in terms of fire hazards.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following would be an extra hazard occupancy?

    • Auditorium

    • Parking garage

    • Boat maintenance facility

    Correct Answer
    A. Boat maintenance facility
    Explanation
    A boat maintenance facility would be an extra hazard occupancy because it involves activities such as repairing, fueling, and storing boats, which can pose additional risks compared to other occupancies like an auditorium or parking garage. These risks may include the potential for fuel leaks, fires, or explosions, as well as the handling of hazardous materials. Therefore, a boat maintenance facility would require specific safety measures and precautions to mitigate these extra hazards.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following extinguisher ratings is required to protect a flammable liquid fire hazard of 25 square feet with depth?

    • 20-B

    • 25-B

    • 50-B

    Correct Answer
    A. 50-B
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50-B because a flammable liquid fire hazard of 25 square feet with depth requires a higher extinguisher rating to effectively extinguish the fire. A 50-B rated extinguisher is suitable for flammable liquid fires involving a larger area and can provide enough extinguishing agent to suppress the fire. A lower rating, such as 20-B or 25-B, may not have enough capacity to extinguish the fire completely, leading to potential re-ignition or spread of the fire.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following statements about portable extinguisher placement is true?

    • Extinguishers with a gross weight greater than 40 pounds should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is no more than 5 feet above the floor

    • The clearance between the bottom of the extinguisher and the floor should never be less than 4 inches

    • Extinguishers should never be installed where temperatures are expected to fall below freezing.

    Correct Answer
    A. The clearance between the bottom of the extinguisher and the floor should never be less than 4 inches
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the clearance between the bottom of the extinguisher and the floor should never be less than 4 inches. This is important because it allows for proper airflow and prevents the extinguisher from being blocked or obstructed. Having a minimum clearance ensures that the extinguisher is easily accessible and can be quickly grabbed and used in case of a fire emergency.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible for inspecting portable extinguishers?

    • Property owner or building occupant

    • Fire inspector

    • Extinguisher manufacturer

    Correct Answer
    A. Property owner or building occupant
    Explanation
    The property owner or building occupant is responsible for inspecting portable extinguishers. This is because they are the ones who have control and ownership of the property or building and therefore have the responsibility to ensure the safety measures are in place. Fire inspectors may also inspect extinguishers, but the primary responsibility lies with the property owner or building occupant. The extinguisher manufacturer is not responsible for inspecting the extinguishers once they have been sold to the property owner or building occupant.

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  • 27. 

    What is the minimum weight by which an extinguisher may be deficient before it should be removed from service?

    • 5 percent

    • 10 percent

    • 20 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 percent
    Explanation
    An extinguisher should be removed from service if it is deficient by at least 10 percent of its minimum weight. This means that if the extinguisher weighs less than 90 percent of its required weight, it is considered deficient and should no longer be used. This threshold ensures that the extinguisher has enough extinguishing agent to effectively put out fires and maintain safety standards.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following statements about extinguisher maintenance is correct?

    • The fire inspector is responsible for reviewing all extinguisher maintenance records

    • Carbon dioxide hoses must be nonconductive

    • NFPA 10 requires all fire extinguishers to be thoroughly inspected at least twice a year

    Correct Answer
    A. The fire inspector is responsible for reviewing all extinguisher maintenance records
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the fire inspector is responsible for reviewing all extinguisher maintenance records." This means that it is the responsibility of the fire inspector to review and ensure that all maintenance records for fire extinguishers are properly maintained and up to date. This is an important task as it helps to ensure that the fire extinguishers are in proper working condition and ready to be used in case of a fire emergency. It also helps to identify any maintenance issues or deficiencies that need to be addressed.

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  • 29. 

    How often should building representatives inspect pressure gauges and manual actuators on dry chemical extinguishing systems?

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    Building representatives should inspect pressure gauges and manual actuators on dry chemical extinguishing systems on a monthly basis. This regular inspection ensures that the gauges and actuators are functioning properly and are ready to be used in case of a fire emergency. By inspecting them monthly, any potential issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, reducing the risk of equipment failure during an actual fire situation.

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  • 30. 

    How often should dry chemical extinguishing agents be inspected for obstructions, reduction of flow capabilities, and caking?

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Semiannually
    Explanation
    Dry chemical extinguishing agents should be inspected semiannually for obstructions, reduction of flow capabilities, and caking. This frequency allows for regular maintenance and ensures that the extinguishing agents are in proper working condition. Inspecting them less frequently could result in obstructions or caking going unnoticed, compromising their effectiveness in case of a fire. However, inspecting them more frequently, such as weekly or monthly, might be excessive and not necessary unless there are specific concerns or requirements in place.

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  • 31. 

    At minimum, how often should fusible-link actuators in dry-chemical extinguishing systems be replaced?

    • Weekly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    Fusible-link actuators in dry-chemical extinguishing systems should be replaced annually. This ensures that the actuators are in good working condition and can effectively activate the extinguishing system when needed. Regular replacement helps to prevent any potential failures or malfunctions that could compromise the system's ability to suppress fires.

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  • 32. 

    Who should inspect halon extinguishing systems?

    • Any fire brigade member

    • Only property maintenance staff

    • Only specially trained personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Only specially trained personnel
    Explanation
    Halon extinguishing systems are specialized fire suppression systems that require specific knowledge and training to inspect and maintain. Regular fire brigade members may not have the necessary expertise to properly inspect these systems. Similarly, property maintenance staff may not have the specialized training required to handle and inspect halon extinguishing systems. Therefore, only specially trained personnel should inspect these systems to ensure their proper functioning and safety.

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  • 33. 

    How often should halon extinguishing systems be inspected?

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Semiannually
    Explanation
    Halon extinguishing systems should be inspected semiannually. This means that the systems should be checked every six months. Regular inspections are necessary to ensure that the halon extinguishing systems are in proper working condition and ready to be used in case of a fire emergency. Semiannual inspections allow for any potential issues or malfunctions to be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring the effectiveness and reliability of the system.

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  • 34. 

    How often should agent cylinders in CO2 systems be inspected?

    • Monthly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    Agent cylinders in CO2 systems should be inspected annually. This is because CO2 systems typically require regular maintenance and inspection to ensure their proper functioning. Inspecting the agent cylinders annually allows for any potential issues or concerns to be identified and addressed in a timely manner. Regular inspections also help to ensure that the CO2 system is ready to effectively suppress fires when needed.

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  • 35. 

    What proportion of foam concentrate do polar solvent fires require?

    • 2 or 4 percent

    • 3 or 6 percent

    • 2 percent

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 or 6 percent
    Explanation
    Polar solvent fires require a higher proportion of foam concentrate compared to other types of fires. The correct answer is 3 or 6 percent, which indicates that either 3 or 6 percent of foam concentrate is needed to effectively suppress and extinguish polar solvent fires. This higher concentration is necessary because polar solvents, such as alcohol and acetone, have a higher affinity for water and can dilute the foam more easily. Therefore, a higher concentration of foam concentrate is needed to effectively smother the fire and prevent re-ignition.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of aqueous film forming foam?

    • Can be premixed

    • Can be used common fog nozzles

    • Can be stored in temperatures below 32 degrees F

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be stored in temperatures below 32 degrees F
    Explanation
    Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) is a type of fire suppression foam that is commonly used in firefighting. It is known for its ability to be premixed and used with common fog nozzles. However, AFFF cannot be stored in temperatures below 32 degrees F. This is because freezing temperatures can cause the water in the foam solution to expand, potentially damaging the foam concentrate and rendering it ineffective. Therefore, the correct answer is that AFFF cannot be stored in temperatures below 32 degrees F.

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  • 37. 

    What foam proportioner has the ability to discharge foam from some outlets and plain water from others at the same time?

    • Around the pump

    • Coupled water motor pump

    • Balanced pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Balanced pressure
    Explanation
    A balanced pressure foam proportioner is able to discharge foam from some outlets and plain water from others at the same time. This is achieved by maintaining a balanced pressure within the system, allowing for the simultaneous discharge of foam and water. This type of foam proportioner is commonly used in firefighting applications, where it is necessary to have the flexibility to discharge foam or water as needed.

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  • 38. 

    What foam proportioner uses an in-line eductor on a pump-bypass line?

    • Pressure proportioning tank system

    • Around the pump

    • Coupled water motor pump

    Correct Answer
    A. Around the pump
    Explanation
    An in-line eductor on a pump-bypass line is used around the pump. This means that the foam proportioner is located in close proximity to the pump, allowing for efficient mixing of foam concentrate with water. By placing the eductor around the pump, the foam solution can be easily injected into the water flow, ensuring accurate and effective foam proportioning.

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  • 39. 

    In which of the following foam proportioners does water from the supply source displace water in the foam concentrate tank?

    • Pressure proportioning tank system

    • Around the pump

    • Coupled water motor pump

    Correct Answer
    A. Pressure proportioning tank system
    Explanation
    The pressure proportioning tank system is a foam proportioner where water from the supply source displaces water in the foam concentrate tank. This system works by using the pressure of the water supply to force water into the foam concentrate tank, causing the foam concentrate to mix with the water and create foam solution. The pressure of the water supply displaces the water in the foam concentrate tank, allowing the foam concentrate to be drawn into the system and mixed with the water. This system is commonly used in firefighting applications to produce foam for extinguishing fires.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following foam proportioners uses two positive-displacement rotary gear pumps?

    • Pressure proportioning tank system

    • Around the pump

    • Coupled water motor pump

    Correct Answer
    A. Coupled water motor pump
    Explanation
    The coupled water motor pump is the correct answer because it uses two positive-displacement rotary gear pumps. This type of foam proportioner is commonly used in firefighting systems to accurately mix foam concentrate with water. The two gear pumps work together to ensure a precise ratio of foam concentrate to water, resulting in an effective firefighting foam solution.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following foam systems is a complete installation piped from a central foam station?

    • Fixed

    • Semifixed Type A

    • High expansion

    Correct Answer
    A. Fixed
    Explanation
    A fixed foam system is a complete installation that is piped from a central foam station. This means that the foam is distributed through a network of pipes from a central location to the desired areas. It is a permanent and stationary system that is designed to provide fire protection in specific areas or throughout an entire facility. The foam is activated by a control panel or a manual release system. This system is commonly used in industrial settings, such as refineries or chemical plants, where there is a high risk of fire hazards.

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  • 42. 

    Which foam system uses a mobile foam solution apparatus?

    • Fixed

    • Semifixed Type A

    • Foam/water

    Correct Answer
    A. Semifixed Type A
    Explanation
    A semifixed Type A foam system uses a mobile foam solution apparatus. This means that the foam solution apparatus can be moved or transported to different locations as needed. The foam solution apparatus is not permanently fixed in one place, allowing for flexibility and mobility in its usage.

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  • 43. 

    How often should valves & alarms attached to foam extinguishing systems be inspected?

    • Weekly

    • Montly

    • Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Semiannually
    Explanation
    Valves and alarms attached to foam extinguishing systems should be inspected semiannually. This means that they should be checked every six months. Regular inspections ensure that these components are in proper working condition and can effectively respond in case of a fire emergency. By conducting inspections semiannually, any potential issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of the foam extinguishing system.

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  • 44. 

    How often should a foam extinguishing system's foam concentrates, equipment, and proportioning systems be checked?

    • Weekly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually
    Explanation
    A foam extinguishing system's foam concentrates, equipment, and proportioning systems should be checked annually. This ensures that the system is in proper working condition and ready to effectively extinguish fires. Regular checks help identify any potential issues or maintenance needs, allowing for timely repairs or replacements. Conducting these checks on an annual basis strikes a balance between ensuring system functionality and minimizing disruptions to normal operations.

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  • 45. 

    How soon after the main power supply's failure must the secondary system be able to make the detection and signaling system fully operational?

    • 15 seconds

    • 20 seconds

    • 30 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 seconds
    Explanation
    The secondary system must be able to make the detection and signaling system fully operational within 30 seconds after the main power supply's failure. This suggests that there is a need for a backup system to quickly take over and ensure the continuous functioning of the detection and signaling system in case of a power outage.

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  • 46. 

    How long must a secondary power supply be able to supply a remote station system's maximum normal load?

    • 5 minutes

    • 24 hours

    • 60 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 60 hours
    Explanation
    The secondary power supply must be able to supply a remote station system's maximum normal load for 60 hours. This means that in the event of a power outage or failure, the secondary power supply should have enough capacity to keep the system running at its peak load for a continuous period of 60 hours. This ensures that the remote station system remains operational and functional for an extended period of time without any interruption or downtime.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following statements about manual alarm-initiating devices is true?

    • Fire alarm pull stations should be no less than 4 1/4 feet from the floor

    • Travel distances to the nearest pull station may not exceed 100 feet

    • Multistory buildings should have at least two pull stations on each floor

    Correct Answer
    A. Travel distances to the nearest pull station may not exceed 100 feet
    Explanation
    The statement "travel distances to the nearest pull station may not exceed 100 feet" is true. This means that in a building, the distance from any point to the nearest fire alarm pull station should not be more than 100 feet. This is important because it ensures that in case of an emergency, occupants can quickly and easily access a pull station to activate the fire alarm system. By limiting the travel distance, it reduces the time it takes for individuals to initiate the alarm and helps to ensure a prompt response to a fire incident.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following statements about flame detectors is true?

    • Arc welding can trigger false alarms in ultraviolet detectors

    • They are relatively slow to respond to fire

    • Infrared detectors are ineffective in monitoring large areas

    Correct Answer
    A. Arc welding can trigger false alarms in ultraviolet detectors
    Explanation
    Arc welding can trigger false alarms in ultraviolet detectors. This is because arc welding produces intense ultraviolet radiation, which can be detected by ultraviolet flame detectors and mistakenly interpreted as a fire. As a result, these detectors may trigger false alarms in environments where arc welding is taking place.

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  • 49. 

    For fire protection purposes, it is only practical to monitory the levels of ____ and ____

    • Water vapor and carbon dioxide

    • Hydrogen fluoride and hydrogen chloride

    • Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
    Explanation
    For fire protection purposes, it is only practical to monitor the levels of carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. Carbon monoxide is a toxic gas produced during combustion, and its presence indicates the potential danger of a fire. Carbon dioxide is also produced during combustion and is commonly used in fire suppression systems. Monitoring the levels of these gases can help identify the presence of a fire and ensure the effectiveness of fire protection measures.

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