Antibody Absorption ABS Exam: Quiz!

94 Questions | Total Attempts: 274

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ABS Exam Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Your patient has a negative RPR, but a positive treponemal test (FTA-ABS).  Which of the following is NOT a possible explanation?
    • A. 

      Lyme disease

    • B. 

      Untreated early syphilis

    • C. 

      Adequately treated syphilis

    • D. 

      Untreated late syphilis

    • E. 

      All of the above are possibilities

  • 2. 
    When making a wet mount slide for evaluation of your patient’s vaginitis, the KOH prep (potassium hydroxide) is used for:
    • A. 

      Checking for GNIDS (gram negative intracellular bacteria)

    • B. 

      Checking for hyphae and spores of fungal infections

    • C. 

      Viewing aclue cells

    • D. 

      Keeping trichomonads motile

  • 3. 
    The first serology test to detect Hepatitis A virus infection is:
    • A. 

      Anti-hepatitis B core

    • B. 

      IgM anti-HAV antibody

    • C. 

      IgG anti-HAV antibody

    • D. 

      Hepatitis A antigen

  • 4. 
    Which serology test indicates immunity and confirmation of Hepatitis A?
    • A. 

      Anti-hepatitis A IgG antibody

    • B. 

      Hepatitis A serum antigen

    • C. 

      Transaminases

    • D. 

      Anti-hepatitis A IgM antibody

  • 5. 
    The first serological marker to appear in a person with  Hepatitis B is the:
    • A. 

      Hepatitis B core antigen

    • B. 

      Hepatitis B IgM antibody

    • C. 

      Hepatitis B IgG antibody

    • D. 

      Hepatitis B surface antigen

  • 6. 
    A serology test that is helpful in detecting Hepatitis B infections during the “window” period:
    • A. 

      IgM antibody Hepatitis B

    • B. 

      IgG antibody Hepatitis B

    • C. 

      IgE antibody Hepatitis B

    • D. 

      IgC antibody Hepatitis B

  • 7. 
    Which serology marker, when persistently present in the blood beyond 6 months, indicates development of chronic Hepatitis B?
    • A. 

      Hepatitis B core antigen antibody

    • B. 

      IgG antibody HepatitisB

    • C. 

      Hepatitis B surface antigen

    • D. 

      IgM antibody Hepatitis B

  • 8. 
                          A screening test for Hepatitis C in a high risk patient is the:      
    • A. 

      ELISA

    • B. 

      EIA-III

    • C. 

      Hepatitis C surface antigen

    • D. 

      Heptitis C antigen antibody

  • 9. 
    The above screening test for Hepatitis C is positive.  This indicates the patient has which form of the disease?
    • A. 

      Acute

    • B. 

      Chronic

    • C. 

      Resolved infection

    • D. 

      The test does not differentiate stages of infection

  • 10. 
    Confirmation of Hepaitis C is determined by a second test which is the:    
    • A. 

      Recombinant Immunoblot (RIBA)

    • B. 

      DNA quantification

    • C. 

      HCV antibody titer

    • D. 

      HCV surface antibody

  • 11. 
    In order for a positive diagnosis of an HIV infection, two test must be positive. They are:
    • A. 

      RNA viral load and RIBA

    • B. 

      ELISA and Western Blot

    • C. 

      CD4 and HIV-1 RNA

    • D. 

      BDNA and HIV-1 RNA

  • 12. 
    You perform iron studies to try to discern whether your patient with microcytic, hypochromic anemia has anemia of chronic disease or iron deficiency anemia.  Which of the following findings would indicate anemia of chronic disease
    • A. 

      Low serum iron, elevated TIBC, low serum ferritin

    • B. 

      Elevated serum ferritin, elevated TIBC, elevated transferrin, elevated serum iron

    • C. 

      Low serum iron, low TIBC, elevated transferrin, elevated serum iron

    • D. 

      Low serum iron, low TIBC, low transferrin, elevated ferritin

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is NOT a secondary cause for hyperlipidemia?
    • A. 

      Hypothyroidism

    • B. 

      Diabetes Mellitus

    • C. 

      Addison’s disease

    • D. 

      Nephrotic syndrome

    • E. 

      Alcohol abuse

  • 14. 
    An elevation or decrease of which electrolyte can be especially dangerous for heart muscle?
    • A. 

      Sodium

    • B. 

      Bicarbonate

    • C. 

      Potassium

    • D. 

      Chloride

    • E. 

      Magnesium

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is often seen in liver disease?
    • A. 

      Hyperglycemia

    • B. 

      Elevated serum albumin

    • C. 

      Enhanced production of clotting factors

    • D. 

      Hypoglycemia

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is most consistent with the hepatic enzyme profile of a person who abuses alcohol?
    • A. 

      AST 98 U/L, ALT 210 U/L

    • B. 

      AST 1208 U/L , ALT 560 U/L

    • C. 

      AST 101 U/L, ALT 53 U/L

    • D. 

      AST 678 U/L , ALT 990 U/L

  • 17. 
    A 21yr old febrile woman presents with a total WBC of 15,200.  The most likely cause for this is
    • A. 

      Malignancy

    • B. 

      Viral infection

    • C. 

      Bacterial infection

    • D. 

      Inflammation

  • 18. 
    Macrocytes may be seen on the peripheral smear of all of the following except:
    • A. 

      Alcoholism

    • B. 

      Folate deficiency

    • C. 

      Iron deficiency

    • D. 

      Vitamin B12 deficiency

  • 19. 
    In health, the absolute band count is usually below:
    • A. 

      1500

    • B. 

      1000

    • C. 

      800

    • D. 

      500

    • E. 

      200

  • 20. 
    After migration into tissue basophils undergo transformation into
    • A. 

      Kupffer cells

    • B. 

      Mast cells

    • C. 

      Cochle bodies

    • D. 

      Macrophages

  • 21. 
    Patients with Pheochromocytoma exhibit a triad of symptoms to include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Diaphoresis

    • B. 

      Hypotension

    • C. 

      Palpitations

    • D. 

      Headache

  • 22. 
    The most common disorder of the anterior pituitary is:
    • A. 

      SIADH

    • B. 

      Diabetes Insipidus

    • C. 

      Hypogonadism

    • D. 

      Hyperprolactinemia

  • 23. 
    When looking at a chest x-ray an area of the lung that is filled with fluid, will appear:
    • A. 

      White or light gray

    • B. 

      Radiolucent

    • C. 

      Black or very dark

    • D. 

      Marbled

  • 24. 
    When ordering a chest x-ray for a patient with a cough and fever, the appropriate outpatient view is:
    • A. 

      AP and lateral

    • B. 

      PA and lateral

    • C. 

      AP and decubitus

    • D. 

      PA and decubitus

  • 25. 
    There are four densities (fat, water, air, metal) in the human body which absorb varying degrees of radiation.  Which of the following correctly ranks these densities from most radiolucent to most radiodense?
    • A. 

      Air, fat, water, metal

    • B. 

      Fat, water, air, metal

    • C. 

      Metal, water, fat, air

    • D. 

      Air, water, fat, metal

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