Antibody Absorption ABS Exam: Quiz!

Vitamin K is the critical vitamin used by the liver to produce clotting factors. It plays a crucial role in the blood clotting process by activating proteins that help form blood clots and prevent excessive bleeding. Without sufficient vitamin K, the liver would not be able to produce these clotting factors, leading to impaired blood clotting and an increased risk of bleeding disorders.

The glomerulus is a part of the kidney responsible for filtering waste products from the blood. Urea and creatinine are small molecules that can easily pass through the filtration membrane of the glomerulus and be excreted in the urine. On the other hand, proteins and red blood cells (RBCs) are larger in size and cannot pass through the filtration membrane. Therefore, proteins and RBCs are too large to be filtered from the blood in the glomerulus.

ELISA and Western Blot are used as confirmatory tests for HIV infection. ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is a screening test that detects HIV antibodies in the blood. If the ELISA test is positive, a Western Blot test is performed to confirm the results. Western Blot is a more specific test that detects specific HIV proteins in the blood. Both tests together provide a higher level of accuracy in diagnosing HIV infection. Therefore, the correct answer is ELISA and Western Blot.

An elevation or decrease in potassium levels can be especially dangerous for the heart muscle. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the electrical activity of the heart and ensuring proper heart function. Abnormal levels of potassium can disrupt the heart's rhythm, leading to potentially life-threatening conditions such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Therefore, any imbalance in potassium levels can have severe consequences for the heart muscle.

When looking at a chest x-ray, an area of the lung that is filled with fluid will appear white or light gray. This is because fluid in the lungs, such as in cases of pneumonia or pulmonary edema, will block the passage of x-rays and appear as a white or light gray opacity on the x-ray film. This is in contrast to normal lung tissue, which appears darker on the x-ray due to its ability to allow x-rays to pass through.

Hereditary hemochromatosis is the most common inherited single-gene disorder in people of northern European descent

The correct answer is urinalysis and urine culture. This is because hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, can be caused by various conditions such as urinary tract infections, kidney stones, or bladder cancer. Urinalysis and urine culture can help identify the presence of red blood cells, white blood cells, bacteria, or other abnormalities in the urine, which can provide valuable information about the underlying cause of hematuria. This initial evaluation is less invasive and more cost-effective compared to cystoscopy or IVP, which are typically reserved for further evaluation if necessary.

Prevalence refers to the term for the frequency of a disease in a group. It represents the proportion of individuals in a population who have a particular disease at a specific time. Prevalence is an important measure in epidemiology as it helps in understanding the burden of the disease and its impact on a population. It is calculated by dividing the number of individuals with the disease by the total population at risk.

The statement that all bacteria can convert nitrates to nitrites is incorrect. Only certain types of bacteria, such as those found in the urinary tract, have the ability to convert nitrates to nitrites. Therefore, not all bacteria can produce a positive nitrite test.

CLA waived hematology tests are typically performed using blood samples obtained from a capillary. This is because capillary blood provides a small, easily accessible sample that can be collected with a simple fingerstick. It is less invasive and more convenient compared to drawing blood from an artery or vein. Additionally, capillary blood can provide accurate results for a variety of hematological parameters, making it suitable for CLA waived tests. The use of an evacuated tube is not applicable in this context as it refers to the collection method rather than the source of blood.

The presence of red blood cells in the urine may indicate various conditions such as infection, trauma, or menstruation. Infection in the urinary tract can cause inflammation and lead to blood in the urine. Trauma to the urinary system, such as kidney stones or bladder injury, can also result in the presence of red blood cells. Additionally, menstruation can cause blood to mix with urine, leading to its appearance. Therefore, the presence of red blood cells in the urine is a potential indicator of infection, trauma, or menstruation.

White blood cells in urine are typically found during urinary tract infections. This is because when there is an infection in the urinary tract, the body's immune system responds by sending white blood cells to the site of infection to fight off the bacteria or other pathogens. Therefore, an increase in white blood cells in urine is a strong indication of a urinary tract infection.

not-available-via-ai

not-available-via-ai

Cholesterol and lipid screening should begin between the ages of 18-21 because it is important to identify any potential risk factors for cardiovascular disease early on. This age range allows for early detection and intervention if necessary, as high cholesterol levels can lead to the development of heart disease later in life. Starting screening at a younger age also provides an opportunity for lifestyle modifications and preventive measures to be implemented, reducing the risk of future complications.

Clue cells are epithelial cells from the vagina that are coated with bacteria, giving them a stippled or "clue-like" appearance. The presence of clue cells on a wet mount is suggestive of bacterial vaginosis, a common vaginal infection caused by an imbalance of bacteria in the vagina. This finding is important for diagnosing and managing bacterial vaginosis.

The correct answer is 50% because a non-diagnostic EKG means that the electrocardiogram does not show any clear signs of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack). However, it does not rule out the possibility of a heart attack completely. Therefore, approximately 50% of people experiencing an acute MI may have a non-diagnostic EKG.

BNP is a hormone that is released by the heart in response to increased pressure and stretching of the heart muscle. It is primarily used as a diagnostic tool for heart failure. A BNP level of less than 100 is generally considered to be within the normal range, and it suggests that congestive heart failure is ruled out as a condition. This is because in congestive heart failure, the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid buildup and increased pressure in the heart. Therefore, a low BNP level indicates that the heart is functioning properly and there is no evidence of congestive heart failure.

Filtration is the correct answer because it accurately describes the process in which fluids and dissolved substances in the blood are forced through the pores of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule by hydrostatic pressure. This process occurs in the renal corpuscle, specifically in the glomerulus, and is an important step in the formation of urine. During filtration, water, electrolytes, and waste products are filtered out of the blood and into the renal tubules, while larger molecules such as proteins and blood cells are retained in the bloodstream.

The urine color that is considered abnormal is yellow-brown. Normally, urine should be a pale yellow or straw color, indicating proper hydration. However, if the urine appears dark yellow or brown, it may indicate dehydration, liver problems, or the presence of certain medications or substances in the body. It is important to consult a healthcare professional if urine color appears abnormal.

Chemical urinalysis strips are used to test for various substances in urine. The incorrect statement in this question is that the strips must be stored in the refrigerator. In reality, chemical urinalysis strips should be stored in a cool, dry place, but not in the refrigerator. Storing them in the refrigerator can alter the chemical reactions on the strips and give inaccurate results. It is important to follow the instructions provided with the strips for proper storage and handling.

Calcium oxalates are commonly seen as colorless octahedron crystals that resemble envelopes with an X on them. This characteristic appearance is due to the specific arrangement of atoms in the crystal lattice structure of calcium oxalates. Uric acid crystals, calcium carbonates, and leucine crystals do not typically exhibit this distinct octahedron shape with an X pattern, making them incorrect options.

Prothrombin is not a formed element in the blood. Formed elements refer to the cellular components of blood, such as white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. Prothrombin, on the other hand, is a plasma protein involved in the blood clotting process. While it is essential for clot formation, it is not a cellular component of blood like the other options mentioned.

Ketone is normally found in urine in small amounts. However, during fat metabolism, the production of ketones increases. An increase in ketones in the urine may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus, especially when present with glucose. This is because in these conditions, the body is unable to use glucose for energy and starts breaking down fats instead, leading to the production of ketones. Therefore, an increased level of ketones in the urine can be a sign of metabolic abnormalities related to starvation or diabetes mellitus.

The most likely cause for a febrile woman with a total WBC count of 15,200 is a bacterial infection. Bacterial infections often cause an increase in the total white blood cell count, known as leukocytosis. This is because the body's immune system responds to the infection by producing more white blood cells to fight off the bacteria. In contrast, viral infections usually do not cause as significant of an increase in the total white blood cell count. Other causes such as malignancy or inflammation can also lead to an elevated white blood cell count, but a bacterial infection is the most likely explanation in this case.

Patients with Pheochromocytoma exhibit a triad of symptoms including diaphoresis, palpitations, and headache. However, hypotension is not typically seen in patients with Pheochromocytoma. This is because Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal glands that causes excessive secretion of catecholamines, leading to increased blood pressure. Therefore, hypotension would be contradictory to the pathophysiology of Pheochromocytoma.

CD4 counts and viral load testing are essential in managing HIV infection. CD4 counts determine the level of immune system damage caused by the virus, while viral load measures the amount of HIV in the blood. These tests help in assessing disease progression, guiding treatment decisions, and monitoring the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. Chest x-ray is not directly related to HIV diagnosis or management. Coagulation studies are not necessary unless there are specific indications. Immunofluorescent panel is not typically used for HIV testing.

A granulocyte is a type of white blood cell that contains granules in its cytoplasm. Eosinophil, neutrophil, and basophil are all examples of granulocytes. However, a lymphocyte is not a granulocyte. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that do not contain granules in their cytoplasm. They play a crucial role in the immune response and are responsible for producing antibodies and coordinating the immune system's response to infections.

Albumin is a protein that is normally present in the blood, but in conditions such as diabetes mellitus, hypertension, heart attack, stroke, and pregnancy, it can leak into the urine in small amounts. This is known as albuminuria or microalbuminuria and is an early sign of kidney damage. Therefore, screening for albumin in the urine can help detect and monitor kidney problems in patients with these conditions. Tamm Horsfall protein, Bence Jones protein, and hemoglobin are not typically found in the urine in these conditions.

In health, the absolute band count is usually below 500. This means that in a normal and healthy individual, the number of immature white blood cells known as bands is typically lower than 500. An elevated band count can indicate an infection or inflammation in the body.

The best test to choose first in this scenario is ultrasound and hepatobiliary imaging (HIDA scan) of the gall bladder. This is because the patient's symptoms, including cramping right upper quadrant pain and radiating pain to the right scapula, are consistent with cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gall bladder. Ultrasound and HIDA scan can help to confirm the diagnosis by evaluating the gall bladder for signs of inflammation or gallstones. Other options such as KUB, upper endoscopy, and upper GI series with small bowel follow through are not the most appropriate tests for evaluating cholecystitis.

The most appropriate initial tests when one suspects osteoporosis are a DEXA scan of the L-S spine, serum calcium, and alkaline phosphatase. A DEXA scan is a specialized X-ray that measures bone mineral density and can accurately diagnose osteoporosis. Serum calcium levels are important to assess for any abnormalities in calcium metabolism, which can contribute to bone loss. Alkaline phosphatase levels can indicate increased bone turnover, which is often seen in osteoporosis. These tests together provide a comprehensive evaluation of bone health and help in diagnosing osteoporosis.

The normal FEV1/FVC ratio refers to the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully in one second compared to the total amount of air exhaled. A ratio greater than 80% indicates that the person has a normal lung function. This means that they are able to exhale a large amount of air in a short amount of time, relative to their total lung capacity.

The glomerulus is not a part of the tubular parts of the nephron. It is actually a network of capillaries located in the renal cortex of the kidney. It is responsible for filtering blood and forming urine. The tubular parts of the nephron, on the other hand, include the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, and distal convoluted tubule, which are involved in reabsorption and secretion processes in urine formation.

The statement that is incorrect regarding a 24-hour urine collection is "Instruct the patient to empty the bladder into the toilet when arising on the second day of the 24-hour procedure." In a 24-hour urine collection, the patient should empty their bladder into the toilet when arising on the first day of the procedure, not the second day. This ensures that the collection starts from the beginning of the 24-hour period.

After migration into tissue, basophils undergo transformation into mast cells. Mast cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for releasing histamine, which is involved in allergic reactions, and other inflammatory mediators. This transformation allows basophils to differentiate into mast cells and carry out their specialized functions in the immune system.

Hyperprolactinemia is the most common disorder of the anterior pituitary. This condition is characterized by an overproduction of prolactin, a hormone responsible for milk production in women. Hyperprolactinemia can cause a variety of symptoms such as irregular menstrual periods, infertility, decreased libido, and milk production in non-lactating individuals. It can be caused by various factors including tumors in the pituitary gland, certain medications, and hormonal imbalances. Treatment options for hyperprolactinemia may include medication to reduce prolactin levels or surgery to remove the tumor if present.

Suspected pneumothorax: Forcing air out of the lungs allows the visceral pleura and the air in the pleural
space to be observed to greater advantage. When the air inside the lung is forced out by expiration,
the density of the lung increases. The air trapped in the pleural space remains low in density
(air density shows as black). The trapped air in the pneumothorax then becomes easier to identify

An elevated PSA (prostate-specific antigen) can be found in all of the given conditions: prostatitis, prostate cancer, and BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia). Prostatitis is the inflammation of the prostate gland, which can cause an increase in PSA levels. Prostate cancer is a malignant growth in the prostate gland, and it often leads to elevated PSA levels. BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, which can also cause elevated PSA levels. Therefore, all three conditions can result in an elevated PSA.

D-dimer is a blood test that measures the presence of a substance released when a blood clot breaks down. In the case of suspected pulmonary embolism, D-dimer can be a useful initial screening test. If the D-dimer is negative, it helps to rule out the presence of a blood clot, reducing the need for further imaging tests like CTA. However, a positive D-dimer result does not confirm the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism, so further imaging is still necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

The incorrect function of the urinary system is that it secretes the hormone renin, which controls the rate of red blood cell formation, and the hormone erythropoietin, which regulates blood pressure. The urinary system is responsible for removing unwanted wastes, stabilizing blood volume, acidity, and electrolytes, and regulating extracellular fluids of the body and the absorption of calcium ions by activating vitamin D.

Glucose is not normally found in urine because it is reabsorbed by the kidneys during filtration. High levels of glucose in urine can indicate a condition called glycosuria, which is often a sign of diabetes. Urea, uric acid, creatinine, and ammonia are all waste products that are typically present in urine.

The statement that bacteria are viewed on low power and reported as few, moderate, or many, or 1+, 2+, 3+, or 4+ is incorrect. Bacteria in urine are typically viewed under high power magnification, and the presence and quantity of bacteria are reported as Colony Forming Units (CFU) per milliliter of urine. The CFU count helps determine the significance of bacterial growth and whether it indicates a urinary tract infection or contamination.

The given screening test for Hepatitis C is positive, but it does not provide any information about the specific form or stage of the disease. It only indicates that the patient has been infected with Hepatitis C, but it does not differentiate between acute, chronic, or resolved infection. Therefore, the test result alone cannot determine the form of the disease.

To differentiate between a cervical radicular lesion and carpal tunnel syndrome, EMG (electromyography) and ENG (nerve conduction study) tests would be ordered. These tests can help evaluate the function of the nerves and muscles in the affected hand and arm. By measuring the electrical activity, these tests can identify if there is nerve compression or damage occurring at the level of the cervical spine or if the symptoms are due to carpal tunnel syndrome. EEG (electroencephalogram) is not relevant in this scenario as it measures brain activity and is not specific for diagnosing nerve-related conditions. An MRI of the cervical spine would be useful to visualize any structural abnormalities, while an X-ray of the right wrist would only assess the bones and not provide information about nerve involvement.

The correct answer is VDRL or RPR and confirm with specific treponemal tests. This is because VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) and RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) tests are commonly used screening tests for syphilis. However, these tests can sometimes give false positive results. Therefore, if the initial screening test is positive, it is important to confirm the diagnosis with specific treponemal tests such as the Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) test or the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test. These tests detect antibodies against the bacteria that causes syphilis and provide a more definitive diagnosis.

The specific gravity of urine is determined in the physical analysis part of the urinalysis procedure. This involves measuring the density of urine to assess its concentration and hydration status. Specific gravity is a measure of the relative density of a substance compared to the density of water. By determining the specific gravity of urine, healthcare professionals can gather important information about a person's kidney function and overall health.

When urine is allowed to sit for too long at room temperature, the cells present in the urine will lyse open. Lysis refers to the bursting or breaking open of cells, which can occur due to various factors such as osmotic pressure changes or bacterial activity. In this case, the prolonged exposure to room temperature can lead to changes in the urine composition, causing the cells to rupture and release their contents into the urine.

The given statement states that inflammatory diseases, autoimmune disorders, cancer, and leukemia will cause a decreased ESR result. However, in reality, these conditions actually cause an increased ESR result. ESR is a marker of inflammation, and these conditions are associated with increased inflammation in the body, leading to an elevated ESR. Therefore, the statement is false.

Urobilinogen is a substance that is normally present in small amounts in urine. It is a byproduct of the breakdown of bilirubin, which is formed when red blood cells are broken down in the liver. An increase in urobilinogen levels can indicate certain medical conditions such as liver disease, but in normal circumstances, it is only found in small amounts in urine.