Antibody Absorption ABS Exam: Quiz!

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  • 1/94 Questions

    Critical vitamin used by the liver to produce clotting factors is ____

    • Vitamin A
    • Vitamin D
    • Vitamin E
    • Vitamin K
    • Vitamin B
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Serology Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge on serological testing, focusing on conditions like Hepatitis and syphilis, and their diagnostic markers.

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  • 2. 

    Two substances that are too large to be filtered from the blood in the glomerulus are ____.

    • Urea and creatinine

    • Water and electrolytes

    • Proteins and RBCs

    • Water and sugar

    Correct Answer
    A. Proteins and RBCs
    Explanation
    The glomerulus is a part of the kidney responsible for filtering waste products from the blood. Urea and creatinine are small molecules that can easily pass through the filtration membrane of the glomerulus and be excreted in the urine. On the other hand, proteins and red blood cells (RBCs) are larger in size and cannot pass through the filtration membrane. Therefore, proteins and RBCs are too large to be filtered from the blood in the glomerulus.

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  • 3. 

    In order for a positive diagnosis of an HIV infection, two test must be positive. They are:

    • RNA viral load and RIBA

    • ELISA and Western Blot

    • CD4 and HIV-1 RNA

    • BDNA and HIV-1 RNA

    Correct Answer
    A. ELISA and Western Blot
    Explanation
    ELISA and Western Blot are used as confirmatory tests for HIV infection. ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is a screening test that detects HIV antibodies in the blood. If the ELISA test is positive, a Western Blot test is performed to confirm the results. Western Blot is a more specific test that detects specific HIV proteins in the blood. Both tests together provide a higher level of accuracy in diagnosing HIV infection. Therefore, the correct answer is ELISA and Western Blot.

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  • 4. 

    An elevation or decrease of which electrolyte can be especially dangerous for heart muscle?

    • Sodium

    • Bicarbonate

    • Potassium

    • Chloride

    • Magnesium

    Correct Answer
    A. Potassium
    Explanation
    An elevation or decrease in potassium levels can be especially dangerous for the heart muscle. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the electrical activity of the heart and ensuring proper heart function. Abnormal levels of potassium can disrupt the heart's rhythm, leading to potentially life-threatening conditions such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Therefore, any imbalance in potassium levels can have severe consequences for the heart muscle.

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  • 5. 

    When looking at a chest x-ray an area of the lung that is filled with fluid, will appear:

    • White or light gray

    • Radiolucent

    • Black or very dark

    • Marbled

    Correct Answer
    A. White or light gray
    Explanation
    When looking at a chest x-ray, an area of the lung that is filled with fluid will appear white or light gray. This is because fluid in the lungs, such as in cases of pneumonia or pulmonary edema, will block the passage of x-rays and appear as a white or light gray opacity on the x-ray film. This is in contrast to normal lung tissue, which appears darker on the x-ray due to its ability to allow x-rays to pass through.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is considered a single gene disorder

    • Parkinson’s disease

    • Alzheimer’s disease

    • Hemachromatosis

    • Hypertensiosn

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemachromatosis
    Explanation
    Hereditary hemochromatosis is the most common inherited single-gene disorder in people of northern European descent

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  • 7. 

    Laboratory evaluation of hematuria begins with:

    • Cystoscopy

    • IVP (intravenous pyelogram)

    • Serum BUN and creatinine

    • Urinalysis and urine culture

    Correct Answer
    A. Urinalysis and urine culture
    Explanation
    The correct answer is urinalysis and urine culture. This is because hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, can be caused by various conditions such as urinary tract infections, kidney stones, or bladder cancer. Urinalysis and urine culture can help identify the presence of red blood cells, white blood cells, bacteria, or other abnormalities in the urine, which can provide valuable information about the underlying cause of hematuria. This initial evaluation is less invasive and more cost-effective compared to cystoscopy or IVP, which are typically reserved for further evaluation if necessary.

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  • 8. 

    What is the term for frequency of disease in a group?

    • Frequency measurements

    • Occurrences

    • Prevalence

    • Endemic

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevalence
    Explanation
    Prevalence refers to the term for the frequency of a disease in a group. It represents the proportion of individuals in a population who have a particular disease at a specific time. Prevalence is an important measure in epidemiology as it helps in understanding the burden of the disease and its impact on a population. It is calculated by dividing the number of individuals with the disease by the total population at risk.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the statements regarding the nitrite test is incorrect? ____

    • The first morning urine is recommended because the urine has been in the urinary bladder for at least 4 hours.

    • The urine specimen must not be left standing at room temperature for a long period of time because this could cause a false positive result.

    • All bacteria can convert nitrates to nitrites.

    • A positive nitrite test is correlated with a positive leukocyte test.

    Correct Answer
    A. All bacteria can convert nitrates to nitrites.
    Explanation
    The statement that all bacteria can convert nitrates to nitrites is incorrect. Only certain types of bacteria, such as those found in the urinary tract, have the ability to convert nitrates to nitrites. Therefore, not all bacteria can produce a positive nitrite test.

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  • 10. 

    Most CLA waived hematology tests use blood from ____

    • An artery

    • Vein

    • A capillary.

    • An evacuated tube.

    Correct Answer
    A. A capillary.
    Explanation
    CLA waived hematology tests are typically performed using blood samples obtained from a capillary. This is because capillary blood provides a small, easily accessible sample that can be collected with a simple fingerstick. It is less invasive and more convenient compared to drawing blood from an artery or vein. Additionally, capillary blood can provide accurate results for a variety of hematological parameters, making it suitable for CLA waived tests. The use of an evacuated tube is not applicable in this context as it refers to the collection method rather than the source of blood.

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  • 11. 

    Blood

    • Normally found in urine in small amounts

    • Increased during fat metabolism, and an increase may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus when present with glucose

    • Red blood cells in the urine; may indicate infection, trauma, or menses

    • White blood cells in urine; found during urinary tract infections

    • Increases during liver disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Red blood cells in the urine; may indicate infection, trauma, or menses
    Explanation
    The presence of red blood cells in the urine may indicate various conditions such as infection, trauma, or menstruation. Infection in the urinary tract can cause inflammation and lead to blood in the urine. Trauma to the urinary system, such as kidney stones or bladder injury, can also result in the presence of red blood cells. Additionally, menstruation can cause blood to mix with urine, leading to its appearance. Therefore, the presence of red blood cells in the urine is a potential indicator of infection, trauma, or menstruation.

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  • 12. 

    Leukocytes

    • Normally found in urine in small amounts

    • Increased during fat metabolism, and an increase may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus when present with glucose

    • Red blood cells in the urine; may indicate infection, trauma, or menses

    • White blood cells in urine; found during urinary tract infections

    • Increases during liver disease

    Correct Answer
    A. White blood cells in urine; found during urinary tract infections
    Explanation
    White blood cells in urine are typically found during urinary tract infections. This is because when there is an infection in the urinary tract, the body's immune system responds by sending white blood cells to the site of infection to fight off the bacteria or other pathogens. Therefore, an increase in white blood cells in urine is a strong indication of a urinary tract infection.

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  • 13. 

    Choose A

    • A

    • A

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. A
  • 14. 

    Choose A

    • A

    • A

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. A
  • 15. 

    At what age should initial cholesterol and lipid screening begin

    • Age 35

    • At the age of 40 for men, 50 for women

    • Between the ages of 30-40

    • Between the age of 18-21

    Correct Answer
    A. Between the age of 18-21
    Explanation
    Cholesterol and lipid screening should begin between the ages of 18-21 because it is important to identify any potential risk factors for cardiovascular disease early on. This age range allows for early detection and intervention if necessary, as high cholesterol levels can lead to the development of heart disease later in life. Starting screening at a younger age also provides an opportunity for lifestyle modifications and preventive measures to be implemented, reducing the risk of future complications.

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  • 16. 

    Findings suggestive of bacterial vaginosis on wet mount include:

    • Budding hyphae

    • Clue cells

    • Lactobacilli

    • Trichomonas vaginalis

    Correct Answer
    A. Clue cells
    Explanation
    Clue cells are epithelial cells from the vagina that are coated with bacteria, giving them a stippled or "clue-like" appearance. The presence of clue cells on a wet mount is suggestive of bacterial vaginosis, a common vaginal infection caused by an imbalance of bacteria in the vagina. This finding is important for diagnosing and managing bacterial vaginosis.

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  • 17. 

    What is the percentage of people experiencing an acute MI with a non-diagnostic EKG

    • 25%

    • 50%

    • 75%

    • 100%

    Correct Answer
    A. 50%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50% because a non-diagnostic EKG means that the electrocardiogram does not show any clear signs of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack). However, it does not rule out the possibility of a heart attack completely. Therefore, approximately 50% of people experiencing an acute MI may have a non-diagnostic EKG.

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  • 18. 

    BNP (B natriuretic paptide’s) main benefit is its negative predictive value. If BNP levels are less than 100, which of the following conditions is ruled out?

    • Hyperparathyroidism

    • Acute MI

    • Congestive heart failure

    • COPD

    Correct Answer
    A. Congestive heart failure
    Explanation
    BNP is a hormone that is released by the heart in response to increased pressure and stretching of the heart muscle. It is primarily used as a diagnostic tool for heart failure. A BNP level of less than 100 is generally considered to be within the normal range, and it suggests that congestive heart failure is ruled out as a condition. This is because in congestive heart failure, the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid buildup and increased pressure in the heart. Therefore, a low BNP level indicates that the heart is functioning properly and there is no evidence of congestive heart failure.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following describes the process in which fluids and dissolved substances that are in the blood are forced through the pores of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule by hydrostatic pressure? ____

    • Filtration

    • Reabsorption

    • Secretion

    • Renal threshold

    Correct Answer
    A. Filtration
    Explanation
    Filtration is the correct answer because it accurately describes the process in which fluids and dissolved substances in the blood are forced through the pores of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule by hydrostatic pressure. This process occurs in the renal corpuscle, specifically in the glomerulus, and is an important step in the formation of urine. During filtration, water, electrolytes, and waste products are filtered out of the blood and into the renal tubules, while larger molecules such as proteins and blood cells are retained in the bloodstream.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following urine colors is abnormal? ____

    • Amber

    • Yellow-brown

    • Light yellow

    • Straw colored

    Correct Answer
    A. Yellow-brown
    Explanation
    The urine color that is considered abnormal is yellow-brown. Normally, urine should be a pale yellow or straw color, indicating proper hydration. However, if the urine appears dark yellow or brown, it may indicate dehydration, liver problems, or the presence of certain medications or substances in the body. It is important to consult a healthcare professional if urine color appears abnormal.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following statements regarding chemical urinalysis strip procedures is incorrect? ____

    • The chemical strip bottle must be kept tightly sealed when not in use.

    • Do not use expired strips.

    • Any bottle that has been open more than 2 months should not be used.

    • The strips must be stored in the refrigerator.

    Correct Answer
    A. The strips must be stored in the refrigerator.
    Explanation
    Chemical urinalysis strips are used to test for various substances in urine. The incorrect statement in this question is that the strips must be stored in the refrigerator. In reality, chemical urinalysis strips should be stored in a cool, dry place, but not in the refrigerator. Storing them in the refrigerator can alter the chemical reactions on the strips and give inaccurate results. It is important to follow the instructions provided with the strips for proper storage and handling.

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  • 22. 

    Which crystals are commonly seen as colorless octahedron crystals that resemble envelopes (they have the appearance of an X on them)?

    • Calcium oxalates

    • Uric acid crystals

    • Calcium carbonates

    • Leucine crystals

    Correct Answer
    A. Calcium oxalates
    Explanation
    Calcium oxalates are commonly seen as colorless octahedron crystals that resemble envelopes with an X on them. This characteristic appearance is due to the specific arrangement of atoms in the crystal lattice structure of calcium oxalates. Uric acid crystals, calcium carbonates, and leucine crystals do not typically exhibit this distinct octahedron shape with an X pattern, making them incorrect options.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is not a formed element in the blood? _____

    • Prothrombin

    • White blood cells

    • Red blood cells

    • Platelets

    Correct Answer
    A. Prothrombin
    Explanation
    Prothrombin is not a formed element in the blood. Formed elements refer to the cellular components of blood, such as white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. Prothrombin, on the other hand, is a plasma protein involved in the blood clotting process. While it is essential for clot formation, it is not a cellular component of blood like the other options mentioned.

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  • 24. 

    Ketone

    • Normally found in urine in small amounts

    • Increased during fat metabolism, and an increase may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus when present with glucose

    • Red blood cells in the urine; may indicate infection, trauma, or menses

    • White blood cells in urine; found during urinary tract infections

    • Increases during liver disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased during fat metabolism, and an increase may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus when present with glucose
    Explanation
    Ketone is normally found in urine in small amounts. However, during fat metabolism, the production of ketones increases. An increase in ketones in the urine may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus, especially when present with glucose. This is because in these conditions, the body is unable to use glucose for energy and starts breaking down fats instead, leading to the production of ketones. Therefore, an increased level of ketones in the urine can be a sign of metabolic abnormalities related to starvation or diabetes mellitus.

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  • 25. 

    A 21yr old febrile woman presents with a total WBC of 15,200.  The most likely cause for this is

    • Malignancy

    • Viral infection

    • Bacterial infection

    • Inflammation

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial infection
    Explanation
    The most likely cause for a febrile woman with a total WBC count of 15,200 is a bacterial infection. Bacterial infections often cause an increase in the total white blood cell count, known as leukocytosis. This is because the body's immune system responds to the infection by producing more white blood cells to fight off the bacteria. In contrast, viral infections usually do not cause as significant of an increase in the total white blood cell count. Other causes such as malignancy or inflammation can also lead to an elevated white blood cell count, but a bacterial infection is the most likely explanation in this case.

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  • 26. 

    Patients with Pheochromocytoma exhibit a triad of symptoms to include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • Diaphoresis

    • Hypotension

    • Palpitations

    • Headache

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypotension
    Explanation
    Patients with Pheochromocytoma exhibit a triad of symptoms including diaphoresis, palpitations, and headache. However, hypotension is not typically seen in patients with Pheochromocytoma. This is because Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal glands that causes excessive secretion of catecholamines, leading to increased blood pressure. Therefore, hypotension would be contradictory to the pathophysiology of Pheochromocytoma.

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  • 27. 

    Your patient’s Western Blot was positive for HIV.  What further testing would you do now?

    • Chest x-ray

    • CD4 counts and viral load

    • Coagulation studies

    • Immunoflourescent panel

    Correct Answer
    A. CD4 counts and viral load
    Explanation
    CD4 counts and viral load testing are essential in managing HIV infection. CD4 counts determine the level of immune system damage caused by the virus, while viral load measures the amount of HIV in the blood. These tests help in assessing disease progression, guiding treatment decisions, and monitoring the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. Chest x-ray is not directly related to HIV diagnosis or management. Coagulation studies are not necessary unless there are specific indications. Immunofluorescent panel is not typically used for HIV testing.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is not a granulocyte? ____

    • Eosinophil

    • Neutrophil

    • Lymphocyte

    • Basophil

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocyte
    Explanation
    A granulocyte is a type of white blood cell that contains granules in its cytoplasm. Eosinophil, neutrophil, and basophil are all examples of granulocytes. However, a lymphocyte is not a granulocyte. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that do not contain granules in their cytoplasm. They play a crucial role in the immune response and are responsible for producing antibodies and coordinating the immune system's response to infections.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following proteins may be found in small amounts in the urine when screening patients who have diabetes mellitus, hypertension, heart attack, stroke, and pregnancy? ____

    • Albumin

    • Tamm Horsfall protein

    • Bence Jones protein

    • Hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    A. Albumin
    Explanation
    Albumin is a protein that is normally present in the blood, but in conditions such as diabetes mellitus, hypertension, heart attack, stroke, and pregnancy, it can leak into the urine in small amounts. This is known as albuminuria or microalbuminuria and is an early sign of kidney damage. Therefore, screening for albumin in the urine can help detect and monitor kidney problems in patients with these conditions. Tamm Horsfall protein, Bence Jones protein, and hemoglobin are not typically found in the urine in these conditions.

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  • 30. 

    In health, the absolute band count is usually below:

    • 1500

    • 1000

    • 800

    • 500

    • 200

    Correct Answer
    A. 500
    Explanation
    In health, the absolute band count is usually below 500. This means that in a normal and healthy individual, the number of immature white blood cells known as bands is typically lower than 500. An elevated band count can indicate an infection or inflammation in the body.

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  • 31. 

    Anita Bruno is a 55-yr old schoolteacher with type II diabetes who presents to your office with the complaints of low-grade fever for 3 days and cramping right upper quadrant pain, radiating to the right scapula. You suspect cholecystitis.  Which is the best test to choose first?

    • KUB

    • Upper endoscopy

    • Upper GI series with small bowel follow through

    • Ultrasound and hepatobiliary imaging (HIDA scan) of the gall bladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Ultrasound and hepatobiliary imaging (HIDA scan) of the gall bladder
    Explanation
    The best test to choose first in this scenario is ultrasound and hepatobiliary imaging (HIDA scan) of the gall bladder. This is because the patient's symptoms, including cramping right upper quadrant pain and radiating pain to the right scapula, are consistent with cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gall bladder. Ultrasound and HIDA scan can help to confirm the diagnosis by evaluating the gall bladder for signs of inflammation or gallstones. Other options such as KUB, upper endoscopy, and upper GI series with small bowel follow through are not the most appropriate tests for evaluating cholecystitis.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following intial tests are most appropriate when one suspects osteoporosis?

    • CT scan of the L-S spine, serum PTH

    • DEXA scan of the L-S spine, serum calcium, and alkaline phosphatase

    • Thyroid scan and CBC

    • Serum vitamin D levels, x-rays of the L-S spine

    Correct Answer
    A. DEXA scan of the L-S spine, serum calcium, and alkaline phosphatase
    Explanation
    The most appropriate initial tests when one suspects osteoporosis are a DEXA scan of the L-S spine, serum calcium, and alkaline phosphatase. A DEXA scan is a specialized X-ray that measures bone mineral density and can accurately diagnose osteoporosis. Serum calcium levels are important to assess for any abnormalities in calcium metabolism, which can contribute to bone loss. Alkaline phosphatase levels can indicate increased bone turnover, which is often seen in osteoporosis. These tests together provide a comprehensive evaluation of bone health and help in diagnosing osteoporosis.

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  • 33. 

    What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio?

    • Less than 25%

    • Greater than 80%

    • Less than 70%

    • 100%

    Correct Answer
    A. Greater than 80%
    Explanation
    The normal FEV1/FVC ratio refers to the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully in one second compared to the total amount of air exhaled. A ratio greater than 80% indicates that the person has a normal lung function. This means that they are able to exhale a large amount of air in a short amount of time, relative to their total lung capacity.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is an incorrect association? ____

    • Urinary bladder/a hollow, muscular organ that holds urine until it is expelled

    • Glomerulus/the tubular parts of the nephron

    • Urethra/a tube that carries urine to the outside of the body

    • Ureter/a slender, muscular tube 10 to 12 inches long that carries the urine formed in the kidneys

    Correct Answer
    A. Glomerulus/the tubular parts of the nephron
    Explanation
    The glomerulus is not a part of the tubular parts of the nephron. It is actually a network of capillaries located in the renal cortex of the kidney. It is responsible for filtering blood and forming urine. The tubular parts of the nephron, on the other hand, include the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, and distal convoluted tubule, which are involved in reabsorption and secretion processes in urine formation.

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  • 35. 

    Determine the statement that is incorrect regarding a 24-hour urine collection. ____

    • After the patient has completed the procedure and returned the container, you should check the label for completeness and ask the patient whether there were any problems during the collection procedure.

    • Instruct the patient to empty the bladder into the toilet when arising on the first day of the 24-hour procedure.

    • Instruct the patient to empty the bladder into the toilet when arising on the second day of the 24-hour procedure.

    • If at any time during the procedure some urine is not collected, the test must be started again.

    Correct Answer
    A. Instruct the patient to empty the bladder into the toilet when arising on the second day of the 24-hour procedure.
    Explanation
    The statement that is incorrect regarding a 24-hour urine collection is "Instruct the patient to empty the bladder into the toilet when arising on the second day of the 24-hour procedure." In a 24-hour urine collection, the patient should empty their bladder into the toilet when arising on the first day of the procedure, not the second day. This ensures that the collection starts from the beginning of the 24-hour period.

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  • 36. 

    After migration into tissue basophils undergo transformation into

    • Kupffer cells

    • Mast cells

    • Cochle bodies

    • Macrophages

    Correct Answer
    A. Mast cells
    Explanation
    After migration into tissue, basophils undergo transformation into mast cells. Mast cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for releasing histamine, which is involved in allergic reactions, and other inflammatory mediators. This transformation allows basophils to differentiate into mast cells and carry out their specialized functions in the immune system.

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  • 37. 

    The most common disorder of the anterior pituitary is:

    • SIADH

    • Diabetes Insipidus

    • Hypogonadism

    • Hyperprolactinemia

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperprolactinemia
    Explanation
    Hyperprolactinemia is the most common disorder of the anterior pituitary. This condition is characterized by an overproduction of prolactin, a hormone responsible for milk production in women. Hyperprolactinemia can cause a variety of symptoms such as irregular menstrual periods, infertility, decreased libido, and milk production in non-lactating individuals. It can be caused by various factors including tumors in the pituitary gland, certain medications, and hormonal imbalances. Treatment options for hyperprolactinemia may include medication to reduce prolactin levels or surgery to remove the tumor if present.

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  • 38. 

    If you suspect a pneumothorax, you should order which type of chest x-ray

    • Portable

    • Lateral

    • Expiratory

    • Inspiratory

    Correct Answer
    A. Expiratory
    Explanation
    Suspected pneumothorax: Forcing air out of the lungs allows the visceral pleura and the air in the pleural
    space to be observed to greater advantage. When the air inside the lung is forced out by expiration,
    the density of the lung increases. The air trapped in the pleural space remains low in density
    (air density shows as black). The trapped air in the pneumothorax then becomes easier to identify

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  • 39. 

    In which of the following conditions might you find an elevated PSA?

    • Prostatitis

    • Prostate cancer

    • BPH

    • All of the above

    • Prostate cancer and BPH

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    An elevated PSA (prostate-specific antigen) can be found in all of the given conditions: prostatitis, prostate cancer, and BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia). Prostatitis is the inflammation of the prostate gland, which can cause an increase in PSA levels. Prostate cancer is a malignant growth in the prostate gland, and it often leads to elevated PSA levels. BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, which can also cause elevated PSA levels. Therefore, all three conditions can result in an elevated PSA.

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  • 40. 

    You have a patient with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. You suspect a pulmonary embolism.  What blood test do you want to order before sending her for a CTA (CT angiography)

    • CBC

    • PT/PTT

    • Blood gases

    • D-dimer

    Correct Answer
    A. D-dimer
    Explanation
    D-dimer is a blood test that measures the presence of a substance released when a blood clot breaks down. In the case of suspected pulmonary embolism, D-dimer can be a useful initial screening test. If the D-dimer is negative, it helps to rule out the presence of a blood clot, reducing the need for further imaging tests like CTA. However, a positive D-dimer result does not confirm the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism, so further imaging is still necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

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  • 41. 

    Deterrmine which of the urinary system functions is incorrect. ____

    • Removes unwanted wastes

    • Stabilizes blood volume, acidity, and electrolytes

    • Regulates extracellular fluids of the body and the absorption of calcium ions by activating vitamin D

    • Secretes the hormone renin, which controls the rate of red blood cell formation, and the hormone erythropoietin, which regulates blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretes the hormone renin, which controls the rate of red blood cell formation, and the hormone erythropoietin, which regulates blood pressure
    Explanation
    The incorrect function of the urinary system is that it secretes the hormone renin, which controls the rate of red blood cell formation, and the hormone erythropoietin, which regulates blood pressure. The urinary system is responsible for removing unwanted wastes, stabilizing blood volume, acidity, and electrolytes, and regulating extracellular fluids of the body and the absorption of calcium ions by activating vitamin D.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following substances is/are not normally found in urine? ____

    • Urea, uric acid

    • Creatinine

    • Ammonia

    • Glucose

    Correct Answer
    A. Glucose
    Explanation
    Glucose is not normally found in urine because it is reabsorbed by the kidneys during filtration. High levels of glucose in urine can indicate a condition called glycosuria, which is often a sign of diabetes. Urea, uric acid, creatinine, and ammonia are all waste products that are typically present in urine.

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  • 43. 

    Determine which of the following statements about bacteria in urine is incorrect: ____

    • Presence of bacteria could indicate either contamination or a urinary tract infection (UTI).

    • If WBCs are present with bacteria, this could be significant for a UTI.

    • Bacteria are viewed on low power and are reported as few, moderate, or many, or 1+, 2+, 3+, or 4+.

    • Because contaminant bacteria reproduce rapidly if the urine is kept at room temperature for a prolonged period, it is important that the testing and microscopic examination be done on fresh urine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacteria are viewed on low power and are reported as few, moderate, or many, or 1+, 2+, 3+, or 4+.
    Explanation
    The statement that bacteria are viewed on low power and reported as few, moderate, or many, or 1+, 2+, 3+, or 4+ is incorrect. Bacteria in urine are typically viewed under high power magnification, and the presence and quantity of bacteria are reported as Colony Forming Units (CFU) per milliliter of urine. The CFU count helps determine the significance of bacterial growth and whether it indicates a urinary tract infection or contamination.

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  • 44. 

    The above screening test for Hepatitis C is positive.  This indicates the patient has which form of the disease?

    • Acute

    • Chronic

    • Resolved infection

    • The test does not differentiate stages of infection

    Correct Answer
    A. The test does not differentiate stages of infection
    Explanation
    The given screening test for Hepatitis C is positive, but it does not provide any information about the specific form or stage of the disease. It only indicates that the patient has been infected with Hepatitis C, but it does not differentiate between acute, chronic, or resolved infection. Therefore, the test result alone cannot determine the form of the disease.

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  • 45. 

    You have a patient who is complaining of numbness and tingling of the first 3 fingers in her right hand.  She is a painter, but she also was in a MVA six months ago.  What tests would you order to differentiate a cervical radicular lesion from carpal tunnel syndrome?

    • EMG and ENG

    • EEG

    • MRI of the cervical spine

    • X-ray of the right wrist

    Correct Answer
    A. EMG and ENG
    Explanation
    To differentiate between a cervical radicular lesion and carpal tunnel syndrome, EMG (electromyography) and ENG (nerve conduction study) tests would be ordered. These tests can help evaluate the function of the nerves and muscles in the affected hand and arm. By measuring the electrical activity, these tests can identify if there is nerve compression or damage occurring at the level of the cervical spine or if the symptoms are due to carpal tunnel syndrome. EEG (electroencephalogram) is not relevant in this scenario as it measures brain activity and is not specific for diagnosing nerve-related conditions. An MRI of the cervical spine would be useful to visualize any structural abnormalities, while an X-ray of the right wrist would only assess the bones and not provide information about nerve involvement.

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  • 46. 

    What laboratory tests do you order to confirm a diagnosis of syphillis?

    • ELISA and confirm with Western Blot

    • VDRL or RPR and confirm with specific treponemal tests

    • VDRL and serology, confirm with a blood culture

    • ELISA and Western Blot, confirm with treponemal tests

    Correct Answer
    A. VDRL or RPR and confirm with specific treponemal tests
    Explanation
    The correct answer is VDRL or RPR and confirm with specific treponemal tests. This is because VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) and RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) tests are commonly used screening tests for syphilis. However, these tests can sometimes give false positive results. Therefore, if the initial screening test is positive, it is important to confirm the diagnosis with specific treponemal tests such as the Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) test or the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test. These tests detect antibodies against the bacteria that causes syphilis and provide a more definitive diagnosis.

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  • 47. 

    The specific gravity is determined in what part of the urinalysis procedure? ____

    • Collection

    • Physical analysis

    • Chemical analysis

    • Microscopic analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Physical analysis
    Explanation
    The specific gravity of urine is determined in the physical analysis part of the urinalysis procedure. This involves measuring the density of urine to assess its concentration and hydration status. Specific gravity is a measure of the relative density of a substance compared to the density of water. By determining the specific gravity of urine, healthcare professionals can gather important information about a person's kidney function and overall health.

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  • 48. 

    Urine that is allowed to sit for too long at room temperature will undergo which of the following changes? ____

    • Glucose will increase in the urine because of bacteria metabolism.

    • Casts and crystals will increase.

    • Cells in the urine will lyse open.

    • Bilirubin, if present, will increase.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cells in the urine will lyse open.
    Explanation
    When urine is allowed to sit for too long at room temperature, the cells present in the urine will lyse open. Lysis refers to the bursting or breaking open of cells, which can occur due to various factors such as osmotic pressure changes or bacterial activity. In this case, the prolonged exposure to room temperature can lead to changes in the urine composition, causing the cells to rupture and release their contents into the urine.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following statements regarding erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is false? ____

    • The following technical interferences will increase the ESR result: vibrating surface, reading after 60 minutes, and tilting the sed rate tube.

    • When plasma proteins increase, they cause the RBCs to stack together like poker chips, a condition known as rouleaux.

    • The following medical conditions will cause a decreased ESR result: inflammatory diseases, autoimmune disorders, cancer, and leukemia.

    • ESR tests cannot be performed on capillary blood because of the volume of blood needed.

    Correct Answer
    A. The following medical conditions will cause a decreased ESR result: inflammatory diseases, autoimmune disorders, cancer, and leukemia.
    Explanation
    The given statement states that inflammatory diseases, autoimmune disorders, cancer, and leukemia will cause a decreased ESR result. However, in reality, these conditions actually cause an increased ESR result. ESR is a marker of inflammation, and these conditions are associated with increased inflammation in the body, leading to an elevated ESR. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Nov 14, 2008
    Quiz Created by
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