Antibody Absorption ABS Exam: Quiz!

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Alexlai67
A
Alexlai67
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 1,301
| Attempts: 305 | Questions: 94
Please wait...
Question 1 / 94
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. Critical vitamin used by the liver to produce clotting factors is ____

Explanation

Vitamin K is the critical vitamin used by the liver to produce clotting factors. It plays a crucial role in the blood clotting process by activating proteins that help form blood clots and prevent excessive bleeding. Without sufficient vitamin K, the liver would not be able to produce these clotting factors, leading to impaired blood clotting and an increased risk of bleeding disorders.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
Serology Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz assesses knowledge on serological testing, focusing on conditions like Hepatitis and syphilis, and their diagnostic markers.

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. Two substances that are too large to be filtered from the blood in the glomerulus are ____.

Explanation

The glomerulus is a part of the kidney responsible for filtering waste products from the blood. Urea and creatinine are small molecules that can easily pass through the filtration membrane of the glomerulus and be excreted in the urine. On the other hand, proteins and red blood cells (RBCs) are larger in size and cannot pass through the filtration membrane. Therefore, proteins and RBCs are too large to be filtered from the blood in the glomerulus.

Submit
3. In order for a positive diagnosis of an HIV infection, two test must be positive. They are:

Explanation

ELISA and Western Blot are used as confirmatory tests for HIV infection. ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is a screening test that detects HIV antibodies in the blood. If the ELISA test is positive, a Western Blot test is performed to confirm the results. Western Blot is a more specific test that detects specific HIV proteins in the blood. Both tests together provide a higher level of accuracy in diagnosing HIV infection. Therefore, the correct answer is ELISA and Western Blot.

Submit
4. An elevation or decrease of which electrolyte can be especially dangerous for heart muscle?

Explanation

An elevation or decrease in potassium levels can be especially dangerous for the heart muscle. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the electrical activity of the heart and ensuring proper heart function. Abnormal levels of potassium can disrupt the heart's rhythm, leading to potentially life-threatening conditions such as arrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Therefore, any imbalance in potassium levels can have severe consequences for the heart muscle.

Submit
5. When looking at a chest x-ray an area of the lung that is filled with fluid, will appear:

Explanation

When looking at a chest x-ray, an area of the lung that is filled with fluid will appear white or light gray. This is because fluid in the lungs, such as in cases of pneumonia or pulmonary edema, will block the passage of x-rays and appear as a white or light gray opacity on the x-ray film. This is in contrast to normal lung tissue, which appears darker on the x-ray due to its ability to allow x-rays to pass through.

Submit
6. Which of the following is considered a single gene disorder

Explanation

Hereditary hemochromatosis is the most common inherited single-gene disorder in people of northern European descent

Submit
7. Laboratory evaluation of hematuria begins with:

Explanation

The correct answer is urinalysis and urine culture. This is because hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, can be caused by various conditions such as urinary tract infections, kidney stones, or bladder cancer. Urinalysis and urine culture can help identify the presence of red blood cells, white blood cells, bacteria, or other abnormalities in the urine, which can provide valuable information about the underlying cause of hematuria. This initial evaluation is less invasive and more cost-effective compared to cystoscopy or IVP, which are typically reserved for further evaluation if necessary.

Submit
8. What is the term for frequency of disease in a group?

Explanation

Prevalence refers to the term for the frequency of a disease in a group. It represents the proportion of individuals in a population who have a particular disease at a specific time. Prevalence is an important measure in epidemiology as it helps in understanding the burden of the disease and its impact on a population. It is calculated by dividing the number of individuals with the disease by the total population at risk.

Submit
9. Which of the statements regarding the nitrite test is incorrect? ____

Explanation

The statement that all bacteria can convert nitrates to nitrites is incorrect. Only certain types of bacteria, such as those found in the urinary tract, have the ability to convert nitrates to nitrites. Therefore, not all bacteria can produce a positive nitrite test.

Submit
10. Most CL
A waived hematology tests use blood from ____

Explanation

CLA waived hematology tests are typically performed using blood samples obtained from a capillary. This is because capillary blood provides a small, easily accessible sample that can be collected with a simple fingerstick. It is less invasive and more convenient compared to drawing blood from an artery or vein. Additionally, capillary blood can provide accurate results for a variety of hematological parameters, making it suitable for CLA waived tests. The use of an evacuated tube is not applicable in this context as it refers to the collection method rather than the source of blood.

Submit
11. Blood

Explanation

The presence of red blood cells in the urine may indicate various conditions such as infection, trauma, or menstruation. Infection in the urinary tract can cause inflammation and lead to blood in the urine. Trauma to the urinary system, such as kidney stones or bladder injury, can also result in the presence of red blood cells. Additionally, menstruation can cause blood to mix with urine, leading to its appearance. Therefore, the presence of red blood cells in the urine is a potential indicator of infection, trauma, or menstruation.

Submit
12. Leukocytes

Explanation

White blood cells in urine are typically found during urinary tract infections. This is because when there is an infection in the urinary tract, the body's immune system responds by sending white blood cells to the site of infection to fight off the bacteria or other pathogens. Therefore, an increase in white blood cells in urine is a strong indication of a urinary tract infection.

Submit
13. Choose A

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
14. Choose A

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
15. At what age should initial cholesterol and lipid screening begin

Explanation

Cholesterol and lipid screening should begin between the ages of 18-21 because it is important to identify any potential risk factors for cardiovascular disease early on. This age range allows for early detection and intervention if necessary, as high cholesterol levels can lead to the development of heart disease later in life. Starting screening at a younger age also provides an opportunity for lifestyle modifications and preventive measures to be implemented, reducing the risk of future complications.

Submit
16.
Findings suggestive of bacterial vaginosis on wet mount include:

Explanation

Clue cells are epithelial cells from the vagina that are coated with bacteria, giving them a stippled or "clue-like" appearance. The presence of clue cells on a wet mount is suggestive of bacterial vaginosis, a common vaginal infection caused by an imbalance of bacteria in the vagina. This finding is important for diagnosing and managing bacterial vaginosis.

Submit
17. What is the percentage of people experiencing an acute MI with a non-diagnostic EKG

Explanation

The correct answer is 50% because a non-diagnostic EKG means that the electrocardiogram does not show any clear signs of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack). However, it does not rule out the possibility of a heart attack completely. Therefore, approximately 50% of people experiencing an acute MI may have a non-diagnostic EKG.

Submit
18. BNP (B natriuretic paptide’s) main benefit is its negative predictive value. If BNP levels are less than 100, which of the following conditions is ruled out?

Explanation

BNP is a hormone that is released by the heart in response to increased pressure and stretching of the heart muscle. It is primarily used as a diagnostic tool for heart failure. A BNP level of less than 100 is generally considered to be within the normal range, and it suggests that congestive heart failure is ruled out as a condition. This is because in congestive heart failure, the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, leading to fluid buildup and increased pressure in the heart. Therefore, a low BNP level indicates that the heart is functioning properly and there is no evidence of congestive heart failure.

Submit
19. Which of the following describes the process in which fluids and dissolved substances that are in the blood are forced through the pores of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule by hydrostatic pressure? ____

Explanation

Filtration is the correct answer because it accurately describes the process in which fluids and dissolved substances in the blood are forced through the pores of the glomerulus into the glomerular capsule by hydrostatic pressure. This process occurs in the renal corpuscle, specifically in the glomerulus, and is an important step in the formation of urine. During filtration, water, electrolytes, and waste products are filtered out of the blood and into the renal tubules, while larger molecules such as proteins and blood cells are retained in the bloodstream.

Submit
20. Which of the following urine colors is abnormal? ____

Explanation

The urine color that is considered abnormal is yellow-brown. Normally, urine should be a pale yellow or straw color, indicating proper hydration. However, if the urine appears dark yellow or brown, it may indicate dehydration, liver problems, or the presence of certain medications or substances in the body. It is important to consult a healthcare professional if urine color appears abnormal.

Submit
21.
Which of the following statements regarding chemical urinalysis strip procedures is incorrect? ____

Explanation

Chemical urinalysis strips are used to test for various substances in urine. The incorrect statement in this question is that the strips must be stored in the refrigerator. In reality, chemical urinalysis strips should be stored in a cool, dry place, but not in the refrigerator. Storing them in the refrigerator can alter the chemical reactions on the strips and give inaccurate results. It is important to follow the instructions provided with the strips for proper storage and handling.

Submit
22. Which crystals are commonly seen as colorless octahedron crystals that resemble envelopes (they have the appearance of an X on them)?

Explanation

Calcium oxalates are commonly seen as colorless octahedron crystals that resemble envelopes with an X on them. This characteristic appearance is due to the specific arrangement of atoms in the crystal lattice structure of calcium oxalates. Uric acid crystals, calcium carbonates, and leucine crystals do not typically exhibit this distinct octahedron shape with an X pattern, making them incorrect options.

Submit
23. Which of the following is not a formed element in the blood? _____

Explanation

Prothrombin is not a formed element in the blood. Formed elements refer to the cellular components of blood, such as white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. Prothrombin, on the other hand, is a plasma protein involved in the blood clotting process. While it is essential for clot formation, it is not a cellular component of blood like the other options mentioned.

Submit
24. Ketone

Explanation

Ketone is normally found in urine in small amounts. However, during fat metabolism, the production of ketones increases. An increase in ketones in the urine may indicate starvation or diabetes mellitus, especially when present with glucose. This is because in these conditions, the body is unable to use glucose for energy and starts breaking down fats instead, leading to the production of ketones. Therefore, an increased level of ketones in the urine can be a sign of metabolic abnormalities related to starvation or diabetes mellitus.

Submit
25. A 21yr old febrile woman presents with a total WBC of 15,200.  The most likely cause for this is

Explanation

The most likely cause for a febrile woman with a total WBC count of 15,200 is a bacterial infection. Bacterial infections often cause an increase in the total white blood cell count, known as leukocytosis. This is because the body's immune system responds to the infection by producing more white blood cells to fight off the bacteria. In contrast, viral infections usually do not cause as significant of an increase in the total white blood cell count. Other causes such as malignancy or inflammation can also lead to an elevated white blood cell count, but a bacterial infection is the most likely explanation in this case.

Submit
26. Patients with Pheochromocytoma exhibit a triad of symptoms to include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Patients with Pheochromocytoma exhibit a triad of symptoms including diaphoresis, palpitations, and headache. However, hypotension is not typically seen in patients with Pheochromocytoma. This is because Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal glands that causes excessive secretion of catecholamines, leading to increased blood pressure. Therefore, hypotension would be contradictory to the pathophysiology of Pheochromocytoma.

Submit
27.
Your patient’s Western Blot was positive for HIV.  What further testing would you do now?

Explanation

CD4 counts and viral load testing are essential in managing HIV infection. CD4 counts determine the level of immune system damage caused by the virus, while viral load measures the amount of HIV in the blood. These tests help in assessing disease progression, guiding treatment decisions, and monitoring the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. Chest x-ray is not directly related to HIV diagnosis or management. Coagulation studies are not necessary unless there are specific indications. Immunofluorescent panel is not typically used for HIV testing.

Submit
28. Which of the following is not a granulocyte? ____

Explanation

A granulocyte is a type of white blood cell that contains granules in its cytoplasm. Eosinophil, neutrophil, and basophil are all examples of granulocytes. However, a lymphocyte is not a granulocyte. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that do not contain granules in their cytoplasm. They play a crucial role in the immune response and are responsible for producing antibodies and coordinating the immune system's response to infections.

Submit
29. Which of the following proteins may be found in small amounts in the urine when screening patients who have diabetes mellitus, hypertension, heart attack, stroke, and pregnancy? ____

Explanation

Albumin is a protein that is normally present in the blood, but in conditions such as diabetes mellitus, hypertension, heart attack, stroke, and pregnancy, it can leak into the urine in small amounts. This is known as albuminuria or microalbuminuria and is an early sign of kidney damage. Therefore, screening for albumin in the urine can help detect and monitor kidney problems in patients with these conditions. Tamm Horsfall protein, Bence Jones protein, and hemoglobin are not typically found in the urine in these conditions.

Submit
30. In health, the absolute band count is usually below:

Explanation

In health, the absolute band count is usually below 500. This means that in a normal and healthy individual, the number of immature white blood cells known as bands is typically lower than 500. An elevated band count can indicate an infection or inflammation in the body.

Submit
31. Anita Bruno is a 55-yr old schoolteacher with type II diabetes who presents to your office with the complaints of low-grade fever for 3 days and cramping right upper quadrant pain, radiating to the right scapula. You suspect cholecystitis.  Which is the best test to choose first?

Explanation

The best test to choose first in this scenario is ultrasound and hepatobiliary imaging (HIDA scan) of the gall bladder. This is because the patient's symptoms, including cramping right upper quadrant pain and radiating pain to the right scapula, are consistent with cholecystitis, which is inflammation of the gall bladder. Ultrasound and HIDA scan can help to confirm the diagnosis by evaluating the gall bladder for signs of inflammation or gallstones. Other options such as KUB, upper endoscopy, and upper GI series with small bowel follow through are not the most appropriate tests for evaluating cholecystitis.

Submit
32.
Which of the following intial tests are most appropriate when one suspects osteoporosis?

Explanation

The most appropriate initial tests when one suspects osteoporosis are a DEXA scan of the L-S spine, serum calcium, and alkaline phosphatase. A DEXA scan is a specialized X-ray that measures bone mineral density and can accurately diagnose osteoporosis. Serum calcium levels are important to assess for any abnormalities in calcium metabolism, which can contribute to bone loss. Alkaline phosphatase levels can indicate increased bone turnover, which is often seen in osteoporosis. These tests together provide a comprehensive evaluation of bone health and help in diagnosing osteoporosis.

Submit
33. What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio?

Explanation

The normal FEV1/FVC ratio refers to the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully in one second compared to the total amount of air exhaled. A ratio greater than 80% indicates that the person has a normal lung function. This means that they are able to exhale a large amount of air in a short amount of time, relative to their total lung capacity.

Submit
34. Which of the following is an incorrect association? ____

Explanation

The glomerulus is not a part of the tubular parts of the nephron. It is actually a network of capillaries located in the renal cortex of the kidney. It is responsible for filtering blood and forming urine. The tubular parts of the nephron, on the other hand, include the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, and distal convoluted tubule, which are involved in reabsorption and secretion processes in urine formation.

Submit
35. Determine the statement that is incorrect regarding a 24-hour urine collection. ____

Explanation

The statement that is incorrect regarding a 24-hour urine collection is "Instruct the patient to empty the bladder into the toilet when arising on the second day of the 24-hour procedure." In a 24-hour urine collection, the patient should empty their bladder into the toilet when arising on the first day of the procedure, not the second day. This ensures that the collection starts from the beginning of the 24-hour period.

Submit
36. After migration into tissue basophils undergo transformation into

Explanation

After migration into tissue, basophils undergo transformation into mast cells. Mast cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They are responsible for releasing histamine, which is involved in allergic reactions, and other inflammatory mediators. This transformation allows basophils to differentiate into mast cells and carry out their specialized functions in the immune system.

Submit
37. The most common disorder of the anterior pituitary is:

Explanation

Hyperprolactinemia is the most common disorder of the anterior pituitary. This condition is characterized by an overproduction of prolactin, a hormone responsible for milk production in women. Hyperprolactinemia can cause a variety of symptoms such as irregular menstrual periods, infertility, decreased libido, and milk production in non-lactating individuals. It can be caused by various factors including tumors in the pituitary gland, certain medications, and hormonal imbalances. Treatment options for hyperprolactinemia may include medication to reduce prolactin levels or surgery to remove the tumor if present.

Submit
38. If you suspect a pneumothorax, you should order which type of chest x-ray

Explanation

Suspected pneumothorax: Forcing air out of the lungs allows the visceral pleura and the air in the pleural
space to be observed to greater advantage. When the air inside the lung is forced out by expiration,
the density of the lung increases. The air trapped in the pleural space remains low in density
(air density shows as black). The trapped air in the pneumothorax then becomes easier to identify

Submit
39.
In which of the following conditions might you find an elevated PSA?

Explanation

An elevated PSA (prostate-specific antigen) can be found in all of the given conditions: prostatitis, prostate cancer, and BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia). Prostatitis is the inflammation of the prostate gland, which can cause an increase in PSA levels. Prostate cancer is a malignant growth in the prostate gland, and it often leads to elevated PSA levels. BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, which can also cause elevated PSA levels. Therefore, all three conditions can result in an elevated PSA.

Submit
40. You have a patient with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. You suspect a pulmonary embolism.  What blood test do you want to order before sending her for a CTA (CT angiography)

Explanation

D-dimer is a blood test that measures the presence of a substance released when a blood clot breaks down. In the case of suspected pulmonary embolism, D-dimer can be a useful initial screening test. If the D-dimer is negative, it helps to rule out the presence of a blood clot, reducing the need for further imaging tests like CTA. However, a positive D-dimer result does not confirm the diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism, so further imaging is still necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

Submit
41.
Deterrmine which of the urinary system functions is incorrect. ____

Explanation

The incorrect function of the urinary system is that it secretes the hormone renin, which controls the rate of red blood cell formation, and the hormone erythropoietin, which regulates blood pressure. The urinary system is responsible for removing unwanted wastes, stabilizing blood volume, acidity, and electrolytes, and regulating extracellular fluids of the body and the absorption of calcium ions by activating vitamin D.

Submit
42. Which of the following substances is/are not normally found in urine? ____

Explanation

Glucose is not normally found in urine because it is reabsorbed by the kidneys during filtration. High levels of glucose in urine can indicate a condition called glycosuria, which is often a sign of diabetes. Urea, uric acid, creatinine, and ammonia are all waste products that are typically present in urine.

Submit
43. Determine which of the following statements about bacteria in urine is incorrect: ____

Explanation

The statement that bacteria are viewed on low power and reported as few, moderate, or many, or 1+, 2+, 3+, or 4+ is incorrect. Bacteria in urine are typically viewed under high power magnification, and the presence and quantity of bacteria are reported as Colony Forming Units (CFU) per milliliter of urine. The CFU count helps determine the significance of bacterial growth and whether it indicates a urinary tract infection or contamination.

Submit
44. The above screening test for Hepatitis C is positive.  This indicates the patient has which form of the disease?

Explanation

The given screening test for Hepatitis C is positive, but it does not provide any information about the specific form or stage of the disease. It only indicates that the patient has been infected with Hepatitis C, but it does not differentiate between acute, chronic, or resolved infection. Therefore, the test result alone cannot determine the form of the disease.

Submit
45. You have a patient who is complaining of numbness and tingling of the first 3 fingers in her right hand.  She is a painter, but she also was in a MVA six months ago.  What tests would you order to differentiate a cervical radicular lesion from carpal tunnel syndrome?

Explanation

To differentiate between a cervical radicular lesion and carpal tunnel syndrome, EMG (electromyography) and ENG (nerve conduction study) tests would be ordered. These tests can help evaluate the function of the nerves and muscles in the affected hand and arm. By measuring the electrical activity, these tests can identify if there is nerve compression or damage occurring at the level of the cervical spine or if the symptoms are due to carpal tunnel syndrome. EEG (electroencephalogram) is not relevant in this scenario as it measures brain activity and is not specific for diagnosing nerve-related conditions. An MRI of the cervical spine would be useful to visualize any structural abnormalities, while an X-ray of the right wrist would only assess the bones and not provide information about nerve involvement.

Submit
46.
What laboratory tests do you order to confirm a diagnosis of syphillis?

Explanation

The correct answer is VDRL or RPR and confirm with specific treponemal tests. This is because VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) and RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) tests are commonly used screening tests for syphilis. However, these tests can sometimes give false positive results. Therefore, if the initial screening test is positive, it is important to confirm the diagnosis with specific treponemal tests such as the Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) test or the fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) test. These tests detect antibodies against the bacteria that causes syphilis and provide a more definitive diagnosis.

Submit
47. The specific gravity is determined in what part of the urinalysis procedure? ____

Explanation

The specific gravity of urine is determined in the physical analysis part of the urinalysis procedure. This involves measuring the density of urine to assess its concentration and hydration status. Specific gravity is a measure of the relative density of a substance compared to the density of water. By determining the specific gravity of urine, healthcare professionals can gather important information about a person's kidney function and overall health.

Submit
48. Urine that is allowed to sit for too long at room temperature will undergo which of the following changes? ____

Explanation

When urine is allowed to sit for too long at room temperature, the cells present in the urine will lyse open. Lysis refers to the bursting or breaking open of cells, which can occur due to various factors such as osmotic pressure changes or bacterial activity. In this case, the prolonged exposure to room temperature can lead to changes in the urine composition, causing the cells to rupture and release their contents into the urine.

Submit
49. Which of the following statements regarding erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is false? ____

Explanation

The given statement states that inflammatory diseases, autoimmune disorders, cancer, and leukemia will cause a decreased ESR result. However, in reality, these conditions actually cause an increased ESR result. ESR is a marker of inflammation, and these conditions are associated with increased inflammation in the body, leading to an elevated ESR. Therefore, the statement is false.

Submit
50. Urobilinogen

Explanation

Urobilinogen is a substance that is normally present in small amounts in urine. It is a byproduct of the breakdown of bilirubin, which is formed when red blood cells are broken down in the liver. An increase in urobilinogen levels can indicate certain medical conditions such as liver disease, but in normal circumstances, it is only found in small amounts in urine.

Submit
51. You perform iron studies to try to discern whether your patient with microcytic, hypochromic anemia has anemia of chronic disease or iron deficiency anemia.  Which of the following findings would indicate anemia of chronic disease

Explanation

In anemia of chronic disease, the body's iron stores are normal or high, but the iron is not available for use in the production of red blood cells. This is reflected in the low serum iron, low TIBC (total iron-binding capacity), and low transferrin levels. However, ferritin, which is an indicator of iron stores, is elevated as the body tries to sequester iron. Therefore, the correct answer is "Low serum iron, low TIBC, low transferrin, elevated ferritin."

Submit
52. There are four densities (fat, water, air, metal) in the human body which absorb varying degrees of radiation.  Which of the following correctly ranks these densities from most radiolucent to most radiodense?

Explanation

Air is the most radiolucent density because it absorbs the least amount of radiation. Fat is less radiolucent than air but more radiolucent than water and metal. Water is less radiolucent than both air and fat but more radiolucent than metal. Metal is the most radiodense density because it absorbs the most amount of radiation. Therefore, the correct ranking from most radiolucent to most radiodense is air, fat, water, metal.

Submit
53. A distortion commonly seen in a portable chest radiograph is:

Explanation

http://books.google.com/books?id=fvM-QJaRzsgC&pg=PA116&lpg=PA116&dq=portable+chest+radiograph+distortion+enlarged+heart&source=web&ots=scxSGm8vJx&sig=rqpnF5wJ7-NoFfJxczhCaF8-JfY&hl=en&sa=X&oi=book_result&resnum=6&ct=result#PPA117,M1

Submit
54. CA 125 is an excellent screening test to use to rule out ovarian cancer.

Explanation

CA 125 is not an excellent screening test to use to rule out ovarian cancer. While CA 125 levels can be elevated in women with ovarian cancer, they can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis or pelvic inflammatory disease. Therefore, CA 125 is not specific enough to be used as a reliable screening test for ovarian cancer and should not be solely relied upon to rule out the disease.

Submit
55. Your patient has a negative RPR, but a positive treponemal test (FTA-ABS).  Which of the following is NOT a possible explanation?

Explanation

microbiology ppt slide 41

Submit
56. Which of the following statements is true? ____

Explanation

Crystal formation is affected by the temperature and pH of the urine. The formation of crystals in urine is influenced by the temperature and acidity or alkalinity (pH) of the urine. Different types of crystals can form under specific conditions, such as high or low pH levels or changes in temperature. Therefore, the statement that crystal formation is affected by the temperature and pH of the urine is true.

Submit
57. Determine which of the following statements best describes a waxy cast: ____

Explanation

A waxy cast appears very refractile, is homogenously smooth, has blunt and cracked ends, and represents extreme urine stasis signifying chronic renal failure.

Submit
58. Which of the following statements about the formation of crystals in urine is incorrect?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
59. Which of the following crystals resemble coffin lids? ____

Explanation

Triple phosphate crystals resemble coffin lids because they have a coffin-shaped or rectangular appearance under a microscope. These crystals are commonly found in urine samples and are composed of magnesium ammonium phosphate. The unique shape of triple phosphate crystals, resembling the lid of a coffin, helps in their identification and diagnosis in urinary tract infections and kidney stones.

Submit
60. The first serology test to detect Hepatitis A virus infection is:

Explanation

The correct answer is IgM anti-HAV antibody. IgM anti-HAV antibody is the first serology test used to detect Hepatitis A virus infection. IgM antibodies are produced early in the infection and can be detected within 2-3 weeks after exposure. They indicate an acute or recent infection. IgG anti-HAV antibodies, on the other hand, are produced later in the infection and can be detected during the convalescent phase and provide long-term immunity. Anti-hepatitis B core and Hepatitis A antigen are not specific tests for Hepatitis A virus infection.

Submit
61. A person with a BRCA1 mutation has an increased risk of which of the following cancer(s)?
1. Breast 2. Ovarian 3. Colon 4. Prostate

Explanation

genetics ppt slide 22

Submit
62. Your patient who returned from a camping trip in the northeast a few weeks ago is complaining of an erthematous lesion on her right forearm that is increasing in size, a mild headache, malaise and occasional fever and chills. You suspect lyme disease.  Which tests do you order?

Explanation

All of the above tests should be ordered to confirm the diagnosis of Lyme disease. IgG and IgM tests for B. burgdorferi antibodies can help detect the presence of antibodies in the patient's blood, indicating an immune response to the Lyme disease bacteria. ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) is a screening test that can detect antibodies against B. burgdorferi, and if positive, a Western Blot test can be done to confirm the diagnosis. Therefore, ordering all of these tests would provide a comprehensive evaluation for Lyme disease.

Submit
63.
Which of the following is NOT a secondary cause for hyperlipidemia?

Explanation

Addison's disease is not a secondary cause for hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia refers to high levels of lipids (such as cholesterol and triglycerides) in the blood. It can be caused by various factors, including hypothyroidism, diabetes mellitus, nephrotic syndrome, and alcohol abuse. However, Addison's disease, which is a condition characterized by insufficient production of adrenal hormones, is not directly associated with hyperlipidemia.

Submit
64. Macrocytes may be seen on the peripheral smear of all of the following except:

Explanation

Macrocytes are larger than normal red blood cells and can be seen on a peripheral smear. They are typically associated with certain conditions, such as alcoholism, folate deficiency, and vitamin B12 deficiency. However, iron deficiency is not typically associated with macrocytes. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by microcytic red blood cells, which are smaller than normal. Therefore, macrocytes would not be seen on the peripheral smear of a patient with iron deficiency.

Submit
65. When ordering a chest x-ray for a patient with a cough and fever, the appropriate outpatient view is:

Explanation

The appropriate outpatient view for ordering a chest x-ray for a patient with a cough and fever is PA and lateral. PA stands for Posteroanterior, which means that the x-ray beam enters the patient's back and exits through the front of the chest. This view is commonly used for chest x-rays as it provides a clear image of the lungs and other structures in the chest. The lateral view is taken from the side of the patient and helps to provide a comprehensive view of the chest. Together, these views can help to identify any abnormalities or infections in the lungs.

Submit
66. Immature red cell in bone marrow (also called rubriblast)

Explanation

An erythroblast is an immature red blood cell found in the bone marrow. It is the earliest stage of red blood cell development and is responsible for producing hemoglobin, the protein that carries oxygen in the blood. Erythroblasts eventually mature into reticulocytes, which are then released into the bloodstream. This process is closely monitored by hematologists, who specialize in studying and treating blood disorders. Anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, on the other hand, are terms used to describe abnormal variations in the size and shape of red blood cells.

Submit
67. Variances in red blood cell (RBC) size

Explanation

Anisocytosis refers to the condition of having red blood cells (RBCs) of unequal sizes. This can be observed under a microscope and is often an indicator of certain medical conditions. Hematologists, who are specialists in blood disorders, study and analyze the variances in RBC size to diagnose and monitor patients. Anisocytosis can be caused by various factors, such as nutritional deficiencies or certain diseases. It is important for hematologists to identify anisocytosis as it can provide valuable insights into a patient's health and guide further treatment decisions.

Submit
68. A blunted or obscured costophrenic angle on a chest x-ray is most likely due to

Explanation

A blunted or obscured costophrenic angle on a chest x-ray is most likely due to pleural effusion. Pleural effusion refers to the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This fluid accumulation can cause the costophrenic angle, which is the sharp angle formed by the diaphragm and the ribs, to appear blunted or obscured on a chest x-ray. This finding is a common sign of pleural effusion and can help in diagnosing this condition.

Submit
69. Joey Fastdriver was in a head on collision. He reports hitting his head on the windshield. His neuro exam is wnl, however you still would like to rule out any lesions that might need immediate surgical intervention.  The best test to choose is:

Explanation

A head CT without contrast is the best test to choose in this scenario because it is a quick and effective way to evaluate for any acute intracranial lesions that may require immediate surgical intervention. This test can help identify any fractures, hemorrhages, or other abnormalities in the brain that may not be visible on a neuro exam. Contrast is not necessary in this case as it primarily helps to enhance the visualization of blood vessels, which is not the main concern in ruling out lesions that require surgical intervention.

Submit
70.
Harry Grant is a 47 yr old caucasian who had a previous history of IV drug abuse. His only complaint is fatigue Liver enzymes and hepatitis screen were ordered.  What would these results indicate to you? HBsAG positive HBcAB positive Anti HBe positive HBe antigen negative Anti-HBs negative

Explanation

The presence of the positive surface antigen and core antibody, along with the antibody to e antigen, suggests that Harry is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B. However, the low risk of infectivity indicates that he is less likely to transmit the infection to others.

Submit
71. Confirmation of Hepaitis C is determined by a second test which is the:    

Explanation

The correct answer is Recombinant Immunoblot (RIBA). This test is used as a confirmatory test for Hepatitis C. It detects specific antibodies against the virus in the blood. The RIBA test is highly specific and can help to confirm the presence of Hepatitis C infection. It is often used after an initial screening test, such as an HCV antibody test, comes back positive. The RIBA test helps to rule out false-positive results and provides a more accurate diagnosis of Hepatitis C.

Submit
72. What test must be checked before spinal puncture to rule out increased intracranial pressure?

Explanation

Before performing a spinal puncture, a test that must be checked to rule out increased intracranial pressure is a CT scan of the head. This test can provide detailed images of the brain and is useful in identifying any abnormalities or signs of increased pressure within the cranial cavity. It helps in assessing the risk of complications during the spinal puncture procedure and ensures the safety of the patient. MRI and PET scan of the brain may also provide valuable information, but CT of the head is specifically mentioned as the correct answer in this case. Blood pressure alone is not sufficient to rule out increased intracranial pressure.

Submit
73.
Evaluate which of the statements regarding cells found in microscopic urine is incorrect: ____

Explanation

The statement that the most common white blood cell found in the urine is the monocyte is incorrect. The most common white blood cell found in the urine is actually the neutrophil. Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that are typically found in the bloodstream and not in urine.

Submit
74. Which crystals are yellow-brown granules often found in clumps that give the urine a macroscopic (large enough to see with the eyes) pink, “brick dust” color and are found in urine at pH levels under 7? ____

Explanation

Amorphous urates are yellow-brown granules often found in clumps that can give the urine a macroscopic pink, "brick dust" color. They are commonly found in urine with pH levels under 7. Calcium oxalates are crystals that are not specifically associated with the described color or pH levels. Uric acid crystals and leucine crystals are also not associated with the described color or pH levels.

Submit
75. Which of the following white blood cells does not match the associated description? ____

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
76. The erythrocyte indices ____

Explanation

The erythrocyte indices aid in diagnosing anemia classifications because they provide important information about the size, shape, and hemoglobin content of red blood cells. By analyzing these indices, healthcare professionals can determine the specific type of anemia a patient may have, such as iron deficiency anemia or sickle cell anemia. This information is crucial for developing an appropriate treatment plan and monitoring the effectiveness of interventions.

Submit
77. What are the screening guidelines for lung cancer?

Explanation

us preventive guidelines booklet. thanks michele!

Submit
78. A serology test that is helpful in detecting Hepatitis B infections during the “window” period:

Explanation

The IgM antibody for Hepatitis B is helpful in detecting infections during the "window" period. This is because IgM antibodies are the first type of antibodies produced by the immune system in response to an infection. During the window period, the body is still in the early stages of fighting the infection and may not have produced enough IgG antibodies yet. Therefore, testing for IgM antibodies can provide an early indication of a Hepatitis B infection.

Submit
79. Which serology marker, when persistently present in the blood beyond 6 months, indicates development of chronic Hepatitis B?

Explanation

http://enotes.tripod.com/hepatitisserology.htm

Submit
80. Which of the following is often seen in liver disease?

Explanation

Hypoglycemia is often seen in liver disease because the liver plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. In liver disease, the liver may not be able to produce enough glucose or store glycogen properly, leading to low blood sugar levels. This can cause symptoms such as weakness, confusion, and sweating. Elevated serum albumin, hyperglycemia, and enhanced production of clotting factors are not typically associated with liver disease.

Submit
81. Tumor markers are useful for everything below except:

Explanation

genetics ppt, slide 30

Submit
82. CEA antigen is a useful test for screening for gastric carcinomas, pancreatic carcinoma, breast cancer, lung cancer, ovarian cancer

Explanation

Not all cancers produce CEA; therefore, the CEA test is not used for screening the general population.

Submit
83.
Which serology test indicates immunity and confirmation of Hepatitis A?

Explanation

The correct answer is Anti-hepatitis A IgG antibody. This serology test indicates immunity and confirmation of Hepatitis A because the presence of IgG antibodies suggests that the person has been previously infected with the virus or has received a vaccination. IgG antibodies are produced in response to an infection and provide long-term immunity. IgM antibodies, on the other hand, indicate acute or recent infection. Hepatitis A serum antigen and transaminases are not specific serology tests for indicating immunity or confirmation of Hepatitis A.

Submit
84. When making a wet mount slide for evaluation of your patient’s vaginitis, the KOH prep (potassium hydroxide) is used for:

Explanation

The correct answer is checking for hyphae and spores of fungal infections. KOH prep is commonly used in the evaluation of vaginal discharge to detect fungal infections. The KOH solution dissolves the cells and mucus, allowing for better visualization of the hyphae and spores of fungi under a microscope. This helps in diagnosing conditions such as Candida albicans, which is a common cause of vaginal yeast infections.

Submit
85. When calculating a microscopic urinalysis, which of the following is incorrect?

Explanation

When calculating a microscopic urinalysis, casts are not observed, counted, and identified on high power. They are actually observed, counted, and identified on low power field (lpf). Casts are reported as the average seen on lpf, while cells are reported using numerical ranges based on the average per high power field (hpf). It is important to use standard counting and reporting systems in the same laboratory to ensure consistency and accuracy in the results.

Submit
86. Which term does not match its description? ____

Explanation

Basophils do not have coarse red granules in their cytoplasm. This statement is incorrect because basophils actually have coarse dark blue or purple granules in their cytoplasm.

Submit
87. Which of the following is most consistent with the hepatic enzyme profile of a person who abuses alcohol?

Explanation

e-reserves "abnormal liver studies" by Askey. Pg 27. thanks michele!

Submit
88. A patient has an FEV1 of 1.91 liters (52% of the predicted value).  Which of the following might result in this low value?
1.     Small airways obstruction 2.     Poor effort at the start of the test 3.     Restriction due to fibrosis 4.     COPD

Explanation

This low value of FEV1 can be caused by small airways obstruction, poor effort at the start of the test, and COPD. Small airways obstruction can restrict the flow of air, leading to a decrease in FEV1. Poor effort at the start of the test can result in inaccurate measurements of lung function. COPD, which is characterized by chronic bronchitis and emphysema, can also cause a decrease in FEV1. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 4 are all possible explanations for the low FEV1 value.

Submit
89. A definitive diagnosis fo DVT is most often made with

Explanation

Contrast venography is the most common method used to definitively diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This procedure involves injecting a contrast dye into the veins and then taking X-ray images to visualize the blood flow and identify any blockages caused by blood clots. It provides a detailed and accurate assessment of the veins and is considered the gold standard for diagnosing DVT. Doppler ultrasonography and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) are also used in diagnosing DVT, but they are not as definitive as contrast venography. Positive Homan's sign is a clinical test that is not specific to DVT diagnosis and is not considered a reliable method on its own.

Submit
90. When evaluating chest radiographs, a generalized decrease in vascular markings as you view outward to the periphery may be suggestive of:  (not sure)

Explanation

Molly's radiology lecture. Thanks Judith!

Submit
91.                       A screening test for Hepatitis C in a high risk patient is the:      

Explanation

Hep C screening is done by ELISA method-Bakerman's pg 296. Thanks Judith!

Submit
92. Which of the following statements regarding Pro Time testing is false? ____

Explanation

Theraputic range: ProTime 16-18, INR 2-2.5

Submit
93. The first serological marker to appear in a person with  Hepatitis B is the:

Explanation

Hep B core antigen rises before the B surface antigen. See Bakerman's pg 294. Thanks, Judith!

Submit
94. Choose A

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 17, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 14, 2008
    Quiz Created by
    Alexlai67
Cancel
  • All
    All (94)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
Critical vitamin used by the liver to produce clotting factors is ____
Two substances that are too large to be filtered from the blood in the...
In order for a positive diagnosis of an HIV infection, two test must...
An elevation or decrease of which electrolyte can be especially...
When looking at a chest x-ray an area of the lung that is filled with...
Which of the following is considered a single gene disorder
Laboratory evaluation of hematuria begins with:
What is the term for frequency of disease in a group?
Which of the statements regarding the nitrite test is incorrect? ____
Most CLA waived hematology tests use blood from ____
Blood
Leukocytes
Choose A
Choose A
At what age should initial cholesterol and lipid screening begin
Findings suggestive of bacterial vaginosis on wet mount include:
What is the percentage of people experiencing an acute MI with a...
BNP (B natriuretic paptide’s) main benefit is its negative...
Which of the following describes the process in which fluids and...
Which of the following urine colors is abnormal? ____
Which of the following statements regarding chemical urinalysis strip...
Which crystals are commonly seen as colorless octahedron crystals that...
Which of the following is not a formed element in the blood? _____
Ketone
A 21yr old febrile woman presents with a total WBC of 15,200. ...
Patients with Pheochromocytoma exhibit a triad of symptoms to include...
Your patient’s Western Blot was positive for HIV.  What further...
Which of the following is not a granulocyte? ____
Which of the following proteins may be found in small amounts in the...
In health, the absolute band count is usually below:
Anita Bruno is a 55-yr old schoolteacher with type II diabetes who...
Which of the following intial tests are most appropriate when one...
What is the normal FEV1/FVC ratio?
Which of the following is an incorrect association? ____
Determine the statement that is incorrect regarding a 24-hour urine...
After migration into tissue basophils undergo transformation into
The most common disorder of the anterior pituitary is:
If you suspect a pneumothorax, you should order which type of chest...
In which of the following conditions might you find an elevated PSA?
You have a patient with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. You...
Deterrmine which of the urinary system functions is incorrect. ____
Which of the following substances is/are not normally found in urine?...
Determine which of the following statements about bacteria in urine is...
The above screening test for Hepatitis C is positive.  This...
You have a patient who is complaining of numbness and tingling of the...
What laboratory tests do you order to confirm a diagnosis of...
The specific gravity is determined in what part of the urinalysis...
Urine that is allowed to sit for too long at room temperature will...
Which of the following statements regarding erythrocyte sedimentation...
Urobilinogen
You perform iron studies to try to discern whether your patient with...
There are four densities (fat, water, air, metal) in the human body...
A distortion commonly seen in a portable chest radiograph is:
CA 125 is an excellent screening test to use to rule out ovarian...
Your patient has a negative RPR, but a positive treponemal test...
Which of the following statements is true? ____
Determine which of the following statements best describes a waxy...
Which of the following statements about the formation of crystals in...
Which of the following crystals resemble coffin lids? ____
The first serology test to detect Hepatitis A virus infection is:
A person with a BRCA1 mutation has an increased risk of which of the...
Your patient who returned from a camping trip in the northeast a few...
Which of the following is NOT a secondary cause for hyperlipidemia?
Macrocytes may be seen on the peripheral smear of all of the following...
When ordering a chest x-ray for a patient with a cough and fever, the...
Immature red cell in bone marrow (also called rubriblast)
Variances in red blood cell (RBC) size
A blunted or obscured costophrenic angle on a chest x-ray is most...
Joey Fastdriver was in a head on collision. He reports hitting his...
Harry Grant is a 47 yr old caucasian who had a previous history of IV...
Confirmation of Hepaitis C is determined by a second test which is...
What test must be checked before spinal puncture to rule out increased...
Evaluate which of the statements regarding cells found in microscopic...
Which crystals are yellow-brown granules often found in clumps that...
Which of the following white blood cells does not match the associated...
The erythrocyte indices ____
What are the screening guidelines for lung cancer?
A serology test that is helpful in detecting Hepatitis B infections...
Which serology marker, when persistently present in the blood beyond 6...
Which of the following is often seen in liver disease?
Tumor markers are useful for everything below except:
CEA antigen is a useful test for screening for gastric carcinomas,...
Which serology test indicates immunity and confirmation of Hepatitis...
When making a wet mount slide for evaluation of your patient’s...
When calculating a microscopic urinalysis, which of the following is...
Which term does not match its description? ____
Which of the following is most consistent with the hepatic enzyme...
A patient has an FEV1 of 1.91 liters (52% of the predicted...
A definitive diagnosis fo DVT is most often made with
When evaluating chest radiographs, a generalized decrease in vascular...
                     ...
Which of the following statements regarding Pro Time testing is false?...
The first serological marker to appear in a person with ...
Choose A
Alert!

Advertisement