NASM Tutor Final Exam II
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Practice Exam for the NASM-CPT exam. Send me your opinions of the test. God bless and good luck!
- 1.The ability of the neuromuscular system to contract eccentrically, isometrically and concentrically in all three planes of motion.
- A.
Postural equilibrium
- B.
Functional efficiency
- C.
Functional strength
- D.
Structural efficiency
- 2.The highest volume of oxygen a person can consume during exercise.
- A.
Vertical loading
- B.
VO2 Max
- C.
Tolerable upper intake level
- D.
Training duration
- 3.The main function of the gluteus medius is...
- A.
Hip extension
- B.
Hip abduction
- C.
Hip adduction
- D.
Hip flexion
- 4.A male client weighs 200 pounds. His body fat is 20%. How much of you client's weight is body fat?
- A.
60 pounds
- B.
45 pounds
- C.
40 pounds
- D.
32 pounds
- 5.AA male client weighs 195 pounds. His body fat is 26%. How much of your client's weight is lean body weight?
- A.
165 pounds
- B.
175 pounds
- C.
152.50 pounds
- D.
144.30 pounds
- 6.The minimum arterial pressure during a full cardiac cycle.
- A.
Aortic
- B.
Diastolic
- C.
Systolic
- D.
VO2 Max
- 7.220 - age =
- A.
Maximum heart rate
- B.
Blood pressure
- C.
Resting heart rate
- D.
BMI
- 8.A client has a resting heart rate of 75. What is their target heart rate at 70% of maximum.
- A.
80 beats per minute
- B.
85 beats per minute
- C.
Not enough information
- D.
100 beats per minute
- 9.VO2 Max is ___________ in females when compared to males.
- A.
Higher
- B.
Lower
- C.
No difference
- 10.Which form is considered legally bindin?
- A.
Liability waiver
- B.
Informed consent
- C.
Fitness assessment form
- D.
Medical release
- 11.Nicole is 30 years old and has a resting heart rate of 75. What is her heart rate at 70%?
- A.
175 beats per minute
- B.
155.5 beats per minute
- C.
115.5 beats per minute
- D.
125 beats per minute
- 12.Your client is 50 years old and has a resting heart rate of 80. What is the target range of their heart in the aerobic zone.
- A.
160 - 172
- B.
125 -133
- C.
150 - 160
- D.
143 - 152
- 13.BMI is usually ______ in females than in males.
- A.
Higher
- B.
Lower
- C.
No difference
- 14.BMI is a ratio of..
- A.
Lean muscle to weight
- B.
Width to length
- C.
Height to weight
- D.
Body fat to lean muscle
- 15.Skin fold measurement are to be taken on which side of the client?
- A.
Left side
- B.
Right side
- C.
Both sides
- D.
Doesn't make a difference
- 16.1 RM
- A.
The weight accumalated with 3 reps
- B.
The weight of one max rep
- C.
The weight of 10 reps
- D.
The weight of 6 - 12 reps
- 17.A client just beginning to work out will experience pain after a heavy workout due to...
- A.
Muscle growth
- B.
DOMS
- C.
Adrenaline
- D.
Blood pooling
- 18.The hamstrings are responsible for
- A.
Knee flexion, hip flexion
- B.
Knee extension, hip extension
- C.
Hip extension, knee flexion
- D.
Knee extension, hip flexion
- 19.When bending the elbow the bicep is the...
- A.
Agonist
- B.
Antagonist
- C.
Stabilizer
- D.
Synergist
- 20.The quadriceps are responsibe for...
- A.
Hip adduction
- B.
Knee extensions
- C.
Hip flexion
- D.
Knee flexion
- 21.The pectorial major is responsible for...
- A.
Shoulder retraction
- B.
Scapular elevation
- C.
Shoulder external rotation
- D.
Shoulder horizontal adduction
- 22.The triceps are responsible for...
- A.
Elbow flexion
- B.
Bicep adduction
- C.
Elbow extension
- D.
Forearm rotation
- 23.The extenal obliques are responsible for..
- A.
Scaplar depression
- B.
Spinal rotation
- C.
Spinal flexion
- D.
Spinal extension
- 24.Predictable occurances of muscle imbalances caused by altered movement patterns.
- A.
Postural distortion patterns
- B.
Synergeistic dominance
- C.
Relative flexibility
- D.
Neuromuscular deficiency
- 25.During an overhead squat assessment you notice that the client's lower back arches. This could be due to an overactive...
- A.
Rhomboid
- B.
Latissimus dorsi
- C.
Hip flexor complex
- D.
Soleus
- 26.During a pushing and pulling assessment you notice that the client's shoulder elevates. This could be due to an underactive...
- A.
Intrinsic cor stabilizers
- B.
Mid and lower trapezius
- C.
Deep cervical flexors
- D.
Upper trapezius
- 27.During a single leg squat assessment you notice that your client's knee moves inward. This could be due to an overactive...
- A.
Vastus medialis oblique (VMO)
- B.
Gluteus medius
- C.
Gluteus maximus
- D.
TFL
- 28.This observation test is designed to assess upper extremity agility and stabilization.
- A.
Shark skill test
- B.
Three minute step test
- C.
Davies test
- D.
Rockport walk test
- 29.This observation test is designed to assess lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control.
- A.
Shark skill test
- B.
Davies test
- C.
Rockport walk test
- D.
Three minute step test
- 30.Designed to estimate the one-rep maximum, for training intensity purposes.
- A.
Upper Extremity Strength Assessment: Curl
- B.
Upper Extremity Strength Assessment: Military Press
- C.
Upper Extremity Strength Assessment: Bench Press
- D.
Upper Extremity Strength Assessment: Deadlift
- 31.Observation designed to estimate the one-rep squat maximum, for training intensity purposes.
- A.
Lower Extremity Strength Assessment: Leg Extension
- B.
Lower Extremity Strength Assessment: Leg Curls
- C.
Lower Extremity Strength Assessment: Squat
- D.
Lower Extremity Strength Assessment: Lunges
- 32.Which four parts of the body are used to measure body fat percentage?
- A.
Thighs, triceps, iliac crest, biceps
- B.
Biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest
- C.
Biceps, thighs, subscapular, iliac crest
- D.
Biceps, triceps, thighs, stomach
- 33.What is the maximum heart rate range for Zone three?
- A.
Maximum heart rate x 0.86 maximum heart rate x 0.90
- B.
Maximum heart rate x 0.80 maximum heart rate x 0.85
- C.
Maximum heart rate x 0.65 maximum heart rate x 0.75
- D.
Maximum heart rate x 0.90 maximum heart rate x 0.95
- 34.The normal extensibility of all soft tissue that allow the full range of motion of a joint.
- A.
Flexibility
- B.
Extensibility
- C.
Dynamic range of motion
- D.
Neuromuscular efficiency
- 35.Capability to elongated or stretched.
- A.
Flexibility
- B.
Extensibility
- C.
Dynamic range of motion
- D.
Neuromuscular efficiency
- 36.The combination of flexibility and the nervous system's ability to control this range of motion efficiently.
- A.
Flexibility
- B.
Extensibility
- C.
Dynamic range of motion
- D.
Neuromuscular efficiency
- 37.The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonist, antagonist and stabilizer to work synergistically to produce, reduce and dynamically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion.
- A.
Flexibility
- B.
Extensibility
- C.
Dynamic range of motion
- D.
Neuromuscular efficiency
- 38.The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during funtional movement patterns.
- A.
Postural distortion patterns
- B.
Relative flexibility
- C.
Muscle imbalance
- D.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
- 39.The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist
- A.
Postural distortion patterns
- B.
Relative flexibility
- C.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
- D.
Synergistic dominance
- 40.The neuromusclar phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.
- A.
Altered reciprocal inhibition
- B.
Postural distortion
- C.
Synergistic dominance
- D.
Relative flexibility
- 41.The process when neural impulses that sense tension is greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing and inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.
- A.
Neuromuscular efficiency
- B.
Autogenic inhibition
- C.
Relative flexibility
- D.
Synergistic dominance
- 42.Is designed to improve muscle imbalances and altered joint motion. It usese the principals of autogenic inhibition.
- A.
Corrective flexibility
- B.
Active flexibility
- C.
Functional flexibility
- D.
Relative flexibility
- 43.Designed to improve the extensibility of soft tissue an increase neuromuscular efficiency by using reciprocal inhibition. It allows for the agonists and synergist muscles to move a limb through a full range of motion while the functional antagonists are being stretched.
- A.
Corrective flexibility
- B.
Active flexibility
- C.
Functional flexibility
- D.
Relative flexibility
- 44.Integrated, multiplanar soft tissue extensibility, with optimum neuromuscular control, through the full range of motion.
- A.
Corrective flexibility
- B.
Active flexibility
- C.
Functional flexibility
- D.
Relative flexibility
- 45.A stretching technique that focuses on the neural system and fasical system in the body. It applies gentle force to an adhesion or "knot" and the elastic muscle fibers are altered from a bundled position. Hold for a minimum of 20 - 30 seconds.
- A.
Static stretching
- B.
Self-myofascial release
- C.
Active-isolated stretching
- D.
Dynamic stretching
- 46.The process of passively taking a muscle to the point on tension and holding the stretch for minimum of 20 seconds.
- A.
Static stretching
- B.
Self-myofascial release
- C.
Active-isolated stretching
- D.
Dynamic stretching
- 47.The process of using agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion. Typically, 5 - 10 reps of each stretch is performed holding for 1 - 2 seconds.
- A.
Static stretching
- B.
Self-myofacial release
- C.
Active-isolated stretching
- D.
Dynamic stretching
- 48.The active extension of a muscle, using force production and momentum, to move the joint through the full available range of motion. 1 set, 10 reps and 3 - 10 exercises.
- A.
Static stretching
- B.
Self-myofacial release
- C.
Active-isolated stretching
- D.
Dynamic stetching
- 49.Low intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intnse exercise to follow.
- A.
Specific warm-up
- B.
General warm-up
- C.
Cool down
- D.
Swimming
- 50.Low intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those that will be included in the more intense exercise that is to follow.
- A.
Specific warm-up
- B.
General warm-up
- C.
Cood down
- D.
Sprinting
- 51.Training that involves and places a stress on the cardiorespiratory system.
- A.
Core training
- B.
Balance training
- C.
Reactive training
- D.
Integrated cardiorespiratory training
- 52.The lumbo-pelvic-hip complex and the thoractic and cervical spine where the body's center of gravity is located.
- A.
Core
- B.
Spine
- C.
Rib cage
- D.
Hips
- 53.The drawing in maneuver is:
- A.
The action of pushing the belly button in toward the spine.
- B.
The action of pushing the chin in toward the chest.
- C.
The action of pulling the spine towards the bell button.
- D.
The action of pulling the belly button toward the spine.
- 54.The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronation within a muscle.
- A.
Intermuscular coordination
- B.
Neuromuscular efficiency
- C.
Intramuscular coordination
- D.
Muscular endurance
- 55.The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow all muscles to work together with proper activation and timing between them.
- A.
Neuromuscular efficiency
- B.
Intramuscular coordination
- C.
Intermuscular coordination
- D.
Muscular endurance
- 56.The ability of the kinetic chain to stabilize a joint during movement.
- A.
Dynamic joint stabilization
- B.
Multisensory condition
- C.
Controlled instability
- D.
Joint dysfunction
- 57.Training environment that provides heightened stimulation to proprioceptors and mechanoreceptors.
- A.
Controlled instability
- B.
Multisensory condition
- C.
Dynamic joint stabilization
- D.
Fitness center
- 58.Training environment that is as unstable as can safely be controlled by an individual.
- A.
Flat floor
- B.
Controlled instability
- C.
Multisensory conditon
- D.
Football field
- 59.Exercises that use quick, powerful movements involving an eccentric contraction immediately followed by an explosive concentric contraction.
- A.
Core training
- B.
Balance training
- C.
Reactive training
- D.
Resistance training
- 60.To move with efficiency, forces must be reduced (eccentrically) and then produced (concentrically).
- A.
Integrated performance paradigm
- B.
Rate of force production
- C.
Ballet
- D.
Fast
- 61.Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.
- A.
Flexibility
- B.
Balance
- C.
Timing
- D.
Rate of force production
- 62.The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.
- A.
Speed
- B.
Agility
- C.
Quickness
- D.
Power
- 63.The ability to accelerate, declerate, stabilze and change direction quickly, while maintaining proper posture.
- A.
Speed
- B.
Agility
- C.
Quickness
- D.
Power
- 64.The ability to react and change body position with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, from all body positions, during funtional activities.
- A.
Speed
- B.
Agility
- C.
Quickness
- D.
Power
- 65.Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension and keeping the lumbar spine neutral is:
- A.
Frontside mechanics
- B.
Backside mechanics
- C.
Neural integration
- D.
Muscular efficiency
- 66.The kinetic chain's ability to adapt to stresses placed on it.
- A.
Alarm reaction
- B.
Resistance development
- C.
General adaptation syndrome
- D.
Periodization
- 67.The initial reaction to a stressor.
- A.
Alarm reaction
- B.
Resistance development
- C.
Exhaustion
- D.
Periodization
- 68.The body increases its functional capacity to adapt to stressor.
- A.
Alarm reaction
- B.
Resistance development
- C.
Exhaustion
- D.
Periodization
- 69.Prolonged stress or stress that is intolerable and will produce exhaustion or distress to the system.
- A.
Alarm reaction
- B.
Resistance development
- C.
Exhaustion
- D.
Periodization
- 70.Division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages.
- A.
Phases of training
- B.
Levels of exercise
- C.
Periodization
- D.
Mechanical specificity
- 71.SAID
- A.
Special adaptation to important demands
- B.
Specific alarms to imposed decisions
- C.
Special adaptation to imposed demands
- D.
Specific adaptation to imposed demands
- 72.Refers to the weight and movements placed on it.
- A.
Neuromuscular specificity
- B.
Metabolic specificity
- C.
Mechanical specificity
- D.
Rate of force production
- 73.Refers to the speed of contraction and exercise selection.
- A.
Neuromuscular specificity
- B.
Metabolic specificity
- C.
Mechanical specificity
- D.
Rate of force production
- 74.Refers to the energy demand placed on the body.
- A.
Neuromuscular specificity
- B.
Mechanical specificity
- C.
Metabolic specificity
- D.
Rate of force production
- 75.The ability of the neuromuscular system to produce internal tension to overcome an external force.
- A.
Strength
- B.
Stability
- C.
Hypertrophy
- D.
Power
- 76.The ability of the body to produce low levels of force and maintain them for extended periods.
- A.
Muscular exhaustion
- B.
Muscular power
- C.
Muscular stability
- D.
Muscular endurance
- 77.The ability of the body to maintain postural equilibrium and support joints during movements.
- A.
Strength
- B.
Stability
- C.
Hypertrophy
- D.
Maximal strength
- 78.The ability of the body to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods.
- A.
Muscular endurance
- B.
Maximal strength
- C.
Strength endurance
- D.
Stability
- 79.Enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension.
- A.
Tumor
- B.
Hypertrophy
- C.
Flexibility
- D.
Hyperactive
- 80.The maximum force that a muscle can produce in a single, voluntary effort, regardless of velocity.
- A.
Power
- B.
Stability
- C.
Maximal strength
- D.
Hypertrophy
- 81.Ability of the neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest time.
- A.
Power
- B.
Speed
- C.
Quickness
- D.
Stability
- 82.Training system that consists of performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise.
- A.
Multiple-set system
- B.
Pyramid system
- C.
Superset system
- D.
Circuit-training system
- 83.A system of training that involves a progressive or regressive step approach the either increases weight with each set or decreases weight with each set. Light-to-heavy or heavy-to-light.
- A.
Multiple-set system
- B.
Pyramid system
- C.
Superset system
- D.
Circuit-training system
- 84.A training system that uses a couple of exercises performed in rapid succession of one another.
- A.
Multiple-set system
- B.
Pyramid system
- C.
Superset system
- D.
Circuit-training system
- 85.A training system that consists of a series of exercises that an individual performs one after the other with minimal rest.
- A.
Multiple-set system
- B.
Pyramid system
- C.
Superset system
- D.
Circuit-training system
- 86.A purposeful system or plan put together to help an individual achieve a specific goal.
- A.
Acute variables
- B.
Program design
- C.
PAR-Q
- D.
Fitness assessment
- 87.Important components that specify how each exercise is to be performed.
- A.
Program design
- B.
Acute variables
- C.
PAR-Q
- D.
Fitness assessment
- 88.One complete movement of a particular exercise.
- A.
Sets
- B.
Programs
- C.
Intensity
- D.
Rep
- 89.A group of consecutive repetitions.
- A.
Set
- B.
Program
- C.
Intensity
- D.
Press
- 90.An individual's level of effort, compared with their maximal effort, which is usually expressed as a percentage. ie...50-70% of 1RM, 70-100% of 1RM
- A.
Repetition tempo
- B.
Power
- C.
Training intensity
- D.
Training duration
- 91.The speed with which each repetition is performed. ie...4/2/1...2/0/2...x/x/x
- A.
Training intensity
- B.
Repetition tempo
- C.
Rest interval
- D.
Set duration
- 92.The time taken to recuperate between sets.
- A.
Training volume
- B.
Training frequency
- C.
Rest interval
- D.
Training intensity
- 93.Amount of physical training performed within a specific period.
- A.
Training intensity
- B.
Repetition tempo
- C.
Training volume
- D.
Training frequency
- 94.The number of training sessions performed during a specified period (usually one week).
- A.
Training intensity
- B.
Training volume
- C.
Training frequency
- D.
Training duration
- 95.The timeframe of a workout (including warm-up and cool down) or the length of time spent in one phase of training.
- A.
Training intensity
- B.
Training volume
- C.
Training frequency
- D.
Training duration
- 96.The condition of subcutaneous fat exceeding the amount of lean body mass.
- A.
Hypertension
- B.
Obesity
- C.
Osteoporosis
- D.
Diabetes
- 97.Chronic metabolic disorder, caused by insulin deficiency, which impairs carbohydrate usage and enhances usage of fat and protein.
- A.
Obesity
- B.
Diabetes
- C.
Hypertension
- D.
Osteoporosis
- 98.Raised systemic arterial blood pressure, which, if sustained at a high enough level, is likely to induce cardiovascular or end-organ damage.
- A.
Obesity
- B.
Diabetes
- C.
Hypertension
- D.
Coronary heart disease
- 99.A decrease in the calcification or density of bone as well as reduced bone mass.
- A.
Osteopenia
- B.
Osteoporosis
- C.
Arthritis
- D.
Osteoarthritis
- 100.Condition in which there is a decrease in bone mass and density as well as an increase in the space between bones, resulting in porosity and fragility.
- A.
Osteopenia
- B.
Osteoporosis
- C.
Arthritis
- D.
Osteoarthritis
- 101.Chronic inflammation of the joints.
- A.
Osteopenia
- B.
Osteoporosis
- C.
Arthritis
- D.
Obesity
- 102.Arthritis in which cartilage becomes soft, frayed or thins out as a result of trauma or other conditions.
- A.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- B.
Osteoarthritis
- C.
Osteopenia
- D.
Osteoporosis
- 103.Arthritis primarily affecting connective tissues, in which there is a thickening of articular soft tissue and extension of synovial tissue over articular cartilages that have become eroded.
- A.
Osteoarthritis
- B.
Osteoporosis
- C.
Osteopenia
- D.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- 104.Any of various types of malignant neoplasms, most of which invade surrounding tissues, may metastasize to several sites, and are likely to recur after attempted removal and to cause death of the patient unless adequately treated.
- A.
Diabetes
- B.
Arthritis
- C.
Cancer
- D.
Obesity
- 105.The condition of a fibrous lung tissue, which results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs.
- A.
Restrictive lung disease
- B.
Obstructive lung disease
- C.
Asthma
- D.
Diabetes
- 106.The condition of altered air flow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction as a result of mucus production.
- A.
Restrictive lung disease
- B.
Obstructive lung disease
- C.
Asthma
- D.
Athritis
- 107.The manifestation of the symptoms caused by peripheral arterial disease.
- A.
Arthritis
- B.
Osteoarthritis
- C.
Intemittent claudication
- D.
Restrictive lung disease
- 108.A condition characterized by narrowing of the major arteries that are responsible for supplying blood to the lower extremities.
- A.
Intermittent claudication
- B.
Peripheral arterial disease
- C.
Leg cramps
- D.
Coronary heart disease
- 109.In overweight or obese adults, exercise capacity should be no greater than:
- A.
10% - 30% of work capacity
- B.
25% - 55% of work capacity
- C.
40% - 70% of work capacity
- D.
60% - 80% of work capacity
- 110.Because of a lack of insulin in Type 1 diabetes, blood sugar is not optimally delivered to the cells, which results in:
- A.
Hypoglycemia
- B.
Hyperglycemia
- C.
Hyperactivity
- D.
Hypoactivity
- 111.The sum of the processes by which an animal or plant takes in and uses food substances.
- A.
Protein
- B.
Carbohydrates
- C.
Nutrition
- D.
Dietary supplements
- 112.Amino acids linked by peptide bonds.
- A.
Nutrition
- B.
Carbohydrates
- C.
Minerals
- D.
Protein
- 113.Neutral compounds of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen (such as sugars, starches and celluloses) which make up a large portion of animal food.
- A.
Proteins
- B.
Minerals
- C.
Carbohydrates
- D.
Dietary supplement
- 114.A group of compounds that includes triglycerides (fats and oils), phospholipids and sterols.
- A.
Proteins
- B.
Lipids
- C.
Carbohydrates
- D.
Fiber
- 115.Which kinds of fatty acids is considered to have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis and cancer?
- A.
Monounsaturated fatty acid & polyunsaturated fatty acid
- B.
Saturated fat and polysaturated fat
- C.
Trans-fatty acid and margerine
- D.
Bisaturated fattyacid and butter
- 116.A substance that completes or make an addition to daily dietary intake.
- A.
Fiber
- B.
Nutrition
- C.
Dietary supplement
- D.
Protein
- 117.The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group.
- A.
Estimated average requirement (EAR)
- B.
Recommended dietary allowance (RDA)
- C.
Adequate intake (AI)
- D.
Tolerable upper intake level
- 118.The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirement of nearly all (97 to 98%) healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group.
- A.
Estimated average requirement (EAR)
- B.
Recommended dietary allowance (RDA)
- C.
Adequate intake (AI)
- D.
Tolerable upper intake level
- 119.Provides guidelines for what constitutes an adequate intake of a nutrient.
- A.
Dietary supplement
- B.
Estimated average requirement
- C.
Dietary reference intakes
- D.
Tolerable upper intake level (UL)
- 120.The acronym for READ is...
- A.
Realize, enthusiasm, associate, define
- B.
Relax, enjoy, associate, determined
- C.
Rapport, empathy, assessment, development
- D.
Rotate, exercise, athletic, dependable
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