Exam Prep CPT 4

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Exam Prep CPT 4 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles?

    • A.

      Scalenes

    • B.

      Diaphragm

    • C.

      Internal Oblique

    • D.

      Rectus abdominis

    Correct Answer
    A. Scalenes
    Explanation
    Dysfunctional breathing refers to abnormal breathing patterns that can lead to respiratory issues. The scalene muscles, located in the neck, are secondary respiratory muscles that assist in breathing when the primary muscles (such as the diaphragm) are not functioning properly. Therefore, an increase in the activity level of the scalenes is a characteristic of dysfunctional breathing. The diaphragm, on the other hand, is a primary respiratory muscle responsible for the majority of inhalation. The internal oblique and rectus abdominis muscles are not directly involved in respiratory function.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is an example of a force-couple relationship?

    • A.

      The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length

    • B.

      The interaction between two entities that results in either acceleration or deceleration of an object

    • C.

      The ability of muscles to produce tension at different shortening velocities

    • D.

      The effect of muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint

    Correct Answer
    D. The effect of muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint
    Explanation
    The given answer, "The effect of muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint," is an example of a force-couple relationship. In this relationship, multiple muscles work together to create a movement around a joint. These muscles produce forces in different directions, but their combined effect results in a coordinated movement. This type of relationship is commonly seen in activities that require complex movements, such as throwing a ball or performing a gymnastic routine.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following characteristics distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers?

    • A.

      Decreased oxygen delivery

    • B.

      Contractions of a longer duration

    • C.

      Smaller in size

    • D.

      More capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased oxygen delivery
    Explanation
    Type II muscle fibers are characterized by decreased oxygen delivery compared to type I muscle fibers. This means that type II fibers have a lower capacity to utilize oxygen for energy production during exercise. This is due to a lower density of capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin in type II fibers. In contrast, type I fibers have a higher density of these structures, allowing for greater oxygen delivery and endurance during prolonged contractions. Therefore, decreased oxygen delivery is a key distinguishing characteristic of type II muscle fibers.

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  • 4. 

    As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. This is an example of which of the following?

    • A.

      Rotary motion

    • B.

      Relative flexibility

    • C.

      Force-velocity curve

    • D.

      Length tension relationships

    Correct Answer
    C. Force-velocity curve
    Explanation
    The force-velocity curve describes the relationship between the force a muscle can produce and the velocity at which it contracts. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, the force it can produce decreases. This is because the muscle has less time to generate force as it contracts more quickly. Therefore, the given statement aligns with the concept of the force-velocity curve.

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  • 5. 

    A client is performing side lateral raises with dumbbells while bending his elbows 45°. The client can increase the amount of torque placed on the deltoids by doing which of the following?

    • A.

      Bend the elbows 90 degrees

    • B.

      Increase shoulder elevation

    • C.

      Reduce shoulder abduction

    • D.

      Keep the arms straight

    Correct Answer
    D. Keep the arms straight
    Explanation
    Keeping the arms straight during side lateral raises with dumbbells increases the amount of torque placed on the deltoids. When the arms are straight, the lever arm is longer, resulting in a greater torque on the deltoids. This increases the challenge and workload on the deltoids, making the exercise more effective in targeting and strengthening those muscles.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following terms describes the connective tissue that wraps each fascicle?

    • A.

      Sarcolemma

    • B.

      Sarcoplasm

    • C.

      Perimysium

    • D.

      Epimysium

    Correct Answer
    C. Perimysium
    Explanation
    Perimysium is the correct answer because it refers to the connective tissue that surrounds each fascicle. Fascicles are bundles of muscle fibers, and the perimysium acts as a protective sheath around them, providing support and structure. The other options, sarcolemma and sarcoplasm, refer to specific parts of a muscle fiber, while epimysium refers to the connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. Therefore, perimysium is the most appropriate term to describe the connective tissue that wraps each fascicle.

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  • 7. 

    During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. This is an example of which of the following concepts?

    • A.

      Force-couple relationships

    • B.

      Length-tension relationships

    • C.

      Synergistic dominance

    • D.

      Arthrokinematic dysfunction

    Correct Answer
    C. Synergistic dominance
    Explanation
    Synergistic dominance refers to the phenomenon where a muscle group takes over the function of another muscle group that is weak or inhibited. In this case, the weakened gluteus maximus is unable to perform its role effectively during the 40-yard dash, so the hamstring complex compensates by doing most of the work. This demonstrates synergistic dominance, where one muscle group compensates for the weakness or dysfunction of another muscle group.

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  • 8. 

    If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead-squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up?

    • A.

      Hip flexor complex

    • B.

      Posterior tibialis

    • C.

      Anterior tibialis

    • D.

      Hamstring complex

    Correct Answer
    A. Hip flexor complex
    Explanation
    If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead-squat assessment, it indicates tightness or weakness in the hip flexor complex. The hip flexor complex includes muscles such as the psoas major, iliacus, and rectus femoris, which are responsible for flexing the hip joint. Stretching these muscles during the client's warm-up can help improve their flexibility and range of motion, allowing them to maintain a more upright posture during the squat. This can also help prevent compensations and potential injuries.

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  • 9. 

    While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?

    • A.

      Biceps femoris

    • B.

      Latissmus dorsi

    • C.

      Rectus abdominis

    • D.

      Teres minor

    Correct Answer
    B. Latissmus dorsi
    Explanation
    The personal trainer observes a low back arch movement dysfunction during the overhead squat assessment. This suggests that the client's latissimus dorsi muscle is probably overactive. The latissimus dorsi muscle is located in the back and is responsible for movements such as shoulder extension and adduction. When this muscle is overactive, it can cause the low back to arch excessively, leading to poor posture and potential movement dysfunction.

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  • 10. 

    A client has been training three times per week in the hypertrophy phase for the last two weeks. He has worked with a repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions, at an intensity of 80% to 85%, and rested for 20 to 30 seconds in between each exercise. He is no longer improving his strength and has expressed feeling fatigued. Which of the following modifications should be made to minimize the effects of overtraining?

    • A.

      15 repetitions, 100% intensity, and rest for 3 minutes in between each exercise

    • B.

      5 repetitions, 90% intensity, and rest for 20 seconds in between each exercise

    • C.

      8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise

    • D.

      3 repetitions, 95% intensity, and rest for 30 seconds in between each exercise

    Correct Answer
    C. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise
    Explanation
    The client is experiencing fatigue and a plateau in strength gains, indicating that they may be overtraining. To minimize the effects of overtraining, it is important to decrease the intensity and increase the rest time. The option of 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise provides a slightly lower intensity and a longer rest period, allowing the client's body to recover better and reduce fatigue. This modification will help prevent further overtraining and potentially improve strength gains.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is a plyometric-power exercise?

    • A.

      Ice skaters

    • B.

      Tuck jump

    • C.

      Butt kick

    • D.

      Power step up

    Correct Answer
    A. Ice skaters
    Explanation
    Ice skaters are considered a plyometric-power exercise because they involve explosive lateral movements and require power and strength in the legs. During ice skaters, the individual jumps laterally from side to side, mimicking the movements of a skater. This exercise helps to improve power, agility, and coordination, making it an effective plyometric exercise for developing lower body strength and power. Tuck jumps, butt kicks, and power step-ups, on the other hand, are not specifically classified as plyometric-power exercises.

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  • 12. 

    When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

    • A.

      TFL

    • B.

      Adductor Brevis

    • C.

      Pectineus

    • D.

      Psoas

    Correct Answer
    D. Psoas
    Explanation
    When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on the Psoas muscle. The Psoas muscle is a primary hip flexor and is responsible for bending the hip joint and bringing the thigh towards the abdomen. Internally rotating the rear leg in this stretch increases the tension and stretch on the Psoas muscle, helping to improve flexibility and range of motion in the hip flexors.

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  • 13. 

    A client is performing a standard push-up and the trainer notes a low-back arch. Which of the following muscles are most likely weak or underactive?

    • A.

      Latissimus dorsi

    • B.

      Erector spinae

    • C.

      Transverse abdominis

    • D.

      Psoas

    Correct Answer
    C. Transverse abdominis
    Explanation
    The transverse abdominis is most likely weak or underactive in this scenario because it is responsible for stabilizing the core and maintaining proper alignment of the spine during exercises like push-ups. A low-back arch indicates a lack of core stability, which can be improved by strengthening the transverse abdominis. The other muscles listed, such as the latissimus dorsi, erector spinae, and psoas, are not directly involved in maintaining core stability during a push-up.

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  • 14. 

    A client wishes to increase muscular endurance and stabilization. Which of the following acute variables is most appropriate?

    • A.

      Three repetitions at 90% of 1RM intensity

    • B.

      Six repetitions at 80% of 1RM intensity

    • C.

      12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity

    • D.

      10 repetitions at 40% of 1RM intensity

    Correct Answer
    C. 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity
    Explanation
    Muscular endurance is best developed by performing a higher number of repetitions at a lower intensity. The option of 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity aligns with this goal as it combines a moderate intensity with a higher number of repetitions, which promotes muscular endurance and stabilization.

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  • 15. 

    A personal trainer is working with a client who has hypertension. Which of the following statements from the client indicates a need for further teaching?

    • A.

      "I should keep my back straight during the seated shoulder press."

    • B.

      "I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge."

    • C.

      "I should perform my iso-ab exercise at an incline."

    • D.

      "I should stand and squeeze my shoulder blades together when performing the cobra exercise."

    Correct Answer
    B. "I should make sure my back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge."
    Explanation
    The client's statement that they should make sure their back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge indicates a need for further teaching. This is because in a floor bridge, the client should actually maintain a neutral spine position, rather than trying to flatten their back against the floor. This is important for individuals with hypertension as it helps to avoid excessive strain on the lower back and maintain proper alignment during the exercise.

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  • 16. 

    A personal trainer suggests that his client increase her heart rate up to 95% of her heart rate maximum. Which of the following energy pathways is predominantly being used at this level of intensity?

    • A.

      Oxidative

    • B.

      Krebs Cycle

    • C.

      Phosphogen

    • D.

      Aerobic glycolysis

    Correct Answer
    C. Phosphogen
    Explanation
    At a high intensity level where the client's heart rate is increased up to 95% of her maximum heart rate, the predominantly used energy pathway is the Phosphogen system. The Phosphogen system provides immediate energy through the breakdown of stored creatine phosphate in the muscles. This system is anaerobic, meaning it does not require oxygen, and is used for short bursts of intense activity. As the intensity of the activity decreases, the body will shift to other energy pathways such as oxidative and aerobic glycolysis.

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  • 17. 

    A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat curl to press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?

    • A.

      Vertical loading

    • B.

      Pyramid

    • C.

      Drop-set

    • D.

      Peripheral heart action

    Correct Answer
    A. Vertical loading
    Explanation
    The given exercise routine represents the vertical loading resistance training system. In this system, the exercises are performed in a sequential order, with each exercise targeting a different muscle group. The client starts with a lower body exercise (ball squat curl to press), then moves to an upper body exercise (ball dumbbell chest press), followed by a back exercise (standing cable row), shoulder exercise (seated stability ball military press), and a lower body exercise again (step-up to balance). This sequence allows for efficient muscle activation and overall body training.

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  • 18. 

    During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles would he expect to be shortened?

    • A.

      Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major

    • B.

      Lower trapezius and rhomboids

    • C.

      Teres minor and posterior deltoid

    • D.

      Serratus anterior and infraspinatus

    Correct Answer
    A. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major
    Explanation
    During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. This posture is commonly associated with a rounded upper back and a tight chest. The sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major muscles are responsible for the protraction of the shoulders and the forward head position. When these muscles are tight and shortened, they can pull the shoulders forward and contribute to poor posture. Therefore, it is expected that in this case, the sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major muscles would be shortened.

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  • 19. 

    What best describes sensory function?

    • A.

      The nervous system's ability to sense changes in the internal or external environment

    • B.

      The transmitting of nerve impulses from one neuron to another

    • C.

      The cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system

    • D.

      The functional unit of the nervous system

    Correct Answer
    A. The nervous system's ability to sense changes in the internal or external environment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the nervous system's ability to sense changes in the internal or external environment. This best describes sensory function because sensory function refers to the ability of the nervous system to detect and interpret sensory stimuli from the environment. It involves the sensory organs, such as the eyes, ears, nose, and skin, detecting changes in the environment and transmitting this information to the brain for processing and interpretation.

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  • 20. 

    In which of the following structures is oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste exchanged between tissues?

    • A.

      Capillaries

    • B.

      Venules

    • C.

      Sinoatrial Node

    • D.

      Atrioventricular node

    Correct Answer
    A. Capillaries
    Explanation
    Capillaries are small blood vessels that connect arteries and veins. They have thin walls which allow for the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products between the blood and surrounding tissues. Oxygen and nutrients are delivered to the tissues, while waste products such as carbon dioxide are removed. Capillaries are highly branched and their large surface area facilitates efficient exchange. Venules, on the other hand, are small veins that collect blood from the capillaries and transport it back to the heart. The sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node are specialized cells in the heart that regulate its electrical activity and do not play a direct role in the exchange of substances between tissues.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following muscles is part of the movement system of the core?

    • A.

      Internal oblique

    • B.

      Lumbar multifidus

    • C.

      Transversus abdominis

    • D.

      Lattissimus dorsi

    Correct Answer
    D. Lattissimus dorsi
    Explanation
    The lattissimus dorsi muscle is part of the movement system of the core. It is a large muscle located in the back and is responsible for several movements including shoulder extension, adduction, and medial rotation. While it is not directly part of the deep core muscles, it plays a role in stabilizing the core during certain movements and exercises. The internal oblique, transversus abdominis, and lumbar multifidus are all deep core muscles that are directly involved in stabilizing and supporting the spine and pelvis.

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  • 22. 

    During a client's postural assessment, he exhibits pronation distortion syndrome. Which of the following static stretching techniques is most appropriate to lengthen his short muscles?

    • A.

      Erector spinae

    • B.

      Pectoral

    • C.

      Gastrocnemius

    • D.

      Scalene

    Correct Answer
    C. Gastrocnemius
    Explanation
    The client exhibits pronation distortion syndrome, which is characterized by an excessive inward rolling of the foot. The gastrocnemius muscle, located in the calf, is commonly tight and shortened in individuals with this syndrome. Stretching the gastrocnemius can help lengthen the muscle and improve the client's posture. Therefore, the most appropriate static stretching technique to address the client's short muscles would be to stretch the gastrocnemius.

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  • 23. 

    A client exhibits increased lumbar extension while performing a standing overhead press. Which of the following statements is true?

    • A.

      The client may increase external resistance as long as she changes to a seated position.

    • B.

      The client should perform straight-leg toe touches to stretch the hamstring complex.

    • C.

      The client should include the latissimus dorsi in the flexibility portion of the workout.

    • D.

      The client should foam roll the lumbar spine during the warm-up to inhibit the lumbar extensors.

    Correct Answer
    C. The client should include the latissimus dorsi in the flexibility portion of the workout.
  • 24. 

    Triple extension of the back leg while sprinting includes

    • A.

      Hip flexion

    • B.

      Ankle dorsiflexion

    • C.

      Ankle plantarflexion

    • D.

      Knee flexion

    Correct Answer
    C. Ankle plantarflexion
    Explanation
    During sprinting, the triple extension of the back leg refers to the simultaneous extension of the hip, knee, and ankle joints. Ankle plantarflexion specifically involves the movement of pointing the toes downwards, which helps to generate more power and propel the body forward during the push-off phase of the sprinting stride. This movement allows for a greater transfer of force from the leg muscles to the ground, resulting in increased speed and efficiency in sprinting.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client who has osteoarthritis?

    • A.

      Avoid balance training because a client who has osteoarthritis has a higher risk of falling.

    • B.

      Avoid cycling between 60% to 80% of maximal heart rate because it most likely will increase joint pain and stiffness of the lower extremities.

    • C.

      Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.

    • D.

      Perform self-myofascial release to reduce muscular tension during arthritic flare-ups.

    Correct Answer
    C. Limit the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model.
    Explanation
    Limiting the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model is a correct training strategy for a client who has osteoarthritis. This is because individuals with osteoarthritis often have joint pain and stiffness, and high-repetition exercises can exacerbate these symptoms. By limiting the repetitions, it helps to reduce the stress on the joints while still providing a beneficial workout. This strategy allows the client to gradually build strength and endurance without causing excessive strain or discomfort on the affected joints.

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  • 26. 

    A personal trainer observes a client's knees moving inward while performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following muscles are probably underactive?

    • A.

      Lateral gastrocnemius and soleus

    • B.

      Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus

    • C.

      Biceps femoris (short head) and tensor fascia latae (TFL)

    • D.

      Adductor complex and vastus lateralis

    Correct Answer
    B. Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
    Explanation
    When the knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment, it indicates a lack of stability in the hip area. The gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are responsible for maintaining proper alignment and stability of the hips. If these muscles are underactive, it can lead to the knees collapsing inward. Therefore, the underactivity of the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus is the likely cause of the observed knee movement.

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  • 27. 

    When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?

    • A.

      External rotation of the feet

    • B.

      Low back arches

    • C.

      Arms fall forward

    • D.

      Knees move inward

    Correct Answer
    A. External rotation of the feet
    Explanation
    External rotation of the feet during an overhead squat is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius. The lateral gastrocnemius is one of the muscles in the calf, and when it is overactive, it can cause the feet to turn outward during the squat movement. This can lead to imbalances and compensations in the lower body, affecting the alignment and stability of the squat. Therefore, external rotation of the feet is a sign that the lateral gastrocnemius is working too hard during the exercise.

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  • 28. 

    In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae during the static standing TFL stretch, a client's back leg should be in which of the following positions?

    • A.

      Adducted 90 degrees

    • B.

      Internally rotated

    • C.

      Externally rotated

    • D.

      Abducted 90 degrees

    Correct Answer
    C. Externally rotated
    Explanation
    To most effectively target the tensor fascia latae during the static standing TFL stretch, a client's back leg should be externally rotated. This position allows for a deeper stretch of the tensor fascia latae, which is a muscle located in the hip and thigh area. By externally rotating the leg, the muscle is put under tension and stretched more effectively. This can help increase flexibility and reduce tightness in the tensor fascia latae.

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  • 29. 

    A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. The trainer should encourage the client to

    • A.

      Depress her shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.

    • B.

      Perform scapular winging to increase activation of the rhomboids

    • C.

      Internally rotate the humerus to activate the lower trapezius.

    • D.

      Slightly arch the lower back to stabilize the trunk and rotator cuff.

    Correct Answer
    A. Depress her shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.
    Explanation
    When performing a standing cable row with elevated shoulders, the client should be encouraged to depress her shoulder blades. This helps to activate the scapular retractors, which are muscles responsible for pulling the shoulder blades down and back. This movement helps to stabilize the shoulder girdle and promote proper posture during the exercise. Scapular winging, internally rotating the humerus, and arching the lower back are not appropriate cues for this exercise and may lead to incorrect form and potential injury.

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  • 30. 

    During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices her client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?

    • A.

      Hamstrings

    • B.

      Quadriceps

    • C.

      Abdominals

    • D.

      Gluteals

    Correct Answer
    B. Quadriceps
    Explanation
    The client's low back arching during the butt kick exercise suggests that the muscles in the front of the thigh, the quadriceps, are most likely tight. When the quadriceps are tight, they can pull on the pelvis, causing the low back to arch. This imbalance between the quadriceps and other muscle groups can lead to postural issues and potential lower back pain. Stretching and strengthening exercises for the quadriceps can help alleviate this tightness and improve overall posture during the exercise.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is the correct position of the wrists during the end phase of a barbell clean?

    • A.

      Ulnar deviation

    • B.

      Hyperflexion

    • C.

      Radial deviation

    • D.

      Hyperextension

    Correct Answer
    D. Hyperextension
    Explanation
    During the end phase of a barbell clean, the correct position of the wrists is hyperextension. This means that the wrists are extended beyond their normal range of motion, with the back of the hand moving closer to the forearm. Hyperextension of the wrists helps to maintain a secure grip on the barbell and allows for a smooth transition of the weight from the clean to the front rack position.

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  • 32. 

    A personal trainer is working with a client who has weight-loss goals. Which of the following training strategies should the client follow to maximize caloric expenditure?

    • A.

      Seated isolated muscle exercises performed in stable environments

    • B.

      Standing compound muscle exercises performed with short rest periods

    • C.

      Seated isolated muscle exercises performed in unstable environments

    • D.

      Standing compound muscle exercises performed with long rest periods

    Correct Answer
    B. Standing compound muscle exercises performed with short rest periods
    Explanation
    To maximize caloric expenditure, the client should follow standing compound muscle exercises performed with short rest periods. Compound exercises engage multiple muscle groups simultaneously, leading to a higher energy expenditure compared to isolated muscle exercises. Standing exercises also require more stability and engagement of core muscles, resulting in increased calorie burn. Short rest periods keep the heart rate elevated and maintain a higher level of intensity throughout the workout, further enhancing caloric expenditure.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for daily protein intake?

    • A.

      1.4 g/kg

    • B.

      2.0 g/kg

    • C.

      0.8 g/kg

    • D.

      1.0 g/kg

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.8 g/kg
    Explanation
    The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for daily protein intake is 0.8 g/kg. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, it is recommended to consume 0.8 grams of protein per day. Protein is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in building and repairing tissues, producing enzymes and hormones, and supporting a healthy immune system. Meeting the RDA for protein intake ensures that the body has an adequate supply of this nutrient to support its various functions.

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  • 34. 

    Thermic effect of food (TEF) accounts for what percentage of total energy expenditure?

    • A.

      6% to 10%

    • B.

      11% to 15%

    • C.

      21% to 25%

    • D.

      16% to 20%

    Correct Answer
    A. 6% to 10%
    Explanation
    The thermic effect of food (TEF) refers to the energy expenditure required for the digestion, absorption, and processing of food. It accounts for approximately 6% to 10% of total energy expenditure. This means that when we consume food, our body uses a small percentage of the calories from that food to break it down and utilize it, while the rest is stored or used for other bodily functions. This energy expenditure is a natural process that occurs in the body after eating and contributes to overall energy balance.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?

    • A.

      A precursor to hormone production

    • B.

      A catalyst for high-intensity, short-duration exercise

    • C.

      A source of bulk to the diet

    • D.

      A source of nitrogen for building nonessential amino acids

    Correct Answer
    A. A precursor to hormone production
    Explanation
    Lipids in the body serve as a precursor to hormone production. Hormones are chemical messengers that regulate various physiological processes in the body, including growth, metabolism, and reproduction. Lipids, such as cholesterol, are used to synthesize hormones like estrogen, testosterone, and cortisol. These hormones play crucial roles in maintaining homeostasis and carrying out essential functions in the body. Therefore, lipids act as a precursor for hormone production, rather than serving as a catalyst for exercise, a source of bulk in the diet, or a source of nitrogen for building nonessential amino acids.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following divisions of the nervous system is comprised of the nerves that serve the outer areas of the body and skeletal muscle and is largely responsible for the voluntary control of movement?

    • A.

      Somatic

    • B.

      Sympathetic

    • C.

      Parasympathetic

    • D.

      Central

    Correct Answer
    A. Somatic
    Explanation
    The somatic division of the nervous system is responsible for voluntary control of movement and serves the outer areas of the body and skeletal muscles. This division includes the nerves that allow us to consciously control our movements and perceive sensations from our environment. The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, on the other hand, are part of the autonomic nervous system and control involuntary functions of the body. The central division refers to the central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following terms defines the concept used when the hamstrings, quadriceps, and gluteus maximus are recruited as a functional unit to perform a squat?

    • A.

      Muscle fiber arrangement

    • B.

      Muscle hypertrophy

    • C.

      Muscle synergy

    • D.

      Muscle action spectrum

    Correct Answer
    C. Muscle synergy
    Explanation
    Muscle synergy is the term that defines the concept used when the hamstrings, quadriceps, and gluteus maximus are recruited as a functional unit to perform a squat. Muscle synergy refers to the coordinated action of multiple muscles working together to produce a specific movement. In the case of a squat, these muscles work together to stabilize the knee joint, control the descent and ascent of the body, and generate the necessary force for the movement. This concept highlights the importance of muscle coordination and cooperation in performing complex movements.

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  • 38. 

    During the medical history portion of a PAR-Q, a client tells the personal trainer that she has undergone a recent Cesarean section. Which of the following exercises should initially be avoided?

    • A.

      Cable chops

    • B.

      Abdominal drawing in maneuver

    • C.

      Standing cable hip extension

    • D.

      Incline prone iso-abs

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable chops
    Explanation
    A recent Cesarean section involves a surgical incision in the abdominal area. Cable chops require rotational movements and can put strain on the abdominal muscles, which may not be fully healed after the surgery. Therefore, cable chops should initially be avoided to prevent any potential complications or discomfort for the client.

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  • 39. 

    A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Based on this observation, the appropriate action is to

    • A.

      Self-myofascial release the medial hamstrings, hip extensor complex, and erector spinae.

    • B.

      Static stretch the soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex.

    • C.

      Self-myofascial release the anterior tibialis, gracilis, and sartorius.

    • D.

      Static stretch the anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, and erector spinae.

    Correct Answer
    B. Static stretch the soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex.
    Explanation
    The client leaning forward excessively during an overhead squat indicates tightness in the posterior chain muscles, including the calf muscles (soleus and gastrocnemius), hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex. Static stretching these muscles will help improve their flexibility and reduce the forward lean during the squat, allowing for better form and alignment. Self-myofascial release and static stretching of other muscles mentioned in the options are not appropriate based on the observation of the client's forward lean.

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  • 40. 

    A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy phase of the OPT™ Model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?

    • A.

      Active

    • B.

      Dynamic

    • C.

      Corrective

    • D.

      Functional

    Correct Answer
    A. Active
    Explanation
    In the Hypertrophy phase of the OPT Model, the main focus is on increasing muscle size and strength. During this phase, the client is likely performing resistance training exercises with higher intensity and lower repetitions. Therefore, the most appropriate phase of the flexibility continuum would be the Active phase. In the Active phase, the client would perform dynamic stretching exercises that involve actively moving the muscles and joints through a full range of motion. This type of stretching is beneficial for improving flexibility and mobility, which is important for performing resistance exercises effectively and reducing the risk of injury.

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  • 41. 

    The proper balance progression to increase a client’s proprioception is which of the following?

    • A.

      Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable

    • B.

      Single-leg unstable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, one-leg unstable

    • C.

      Single-leg stable, two-leg stable, one-leg unstable, two-leg unstable

    • D.

      . Two-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg stable, single-leg unstable

    Correct Answer
    A. Two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg unstable
    Explanation
    The proper balance progression to increase a client's proprioception is to start with two-leg stable exercises, where both feet are planted firmly on the ground. This helps the client establish a strong base of support. Then, progress to single-leg stable exercises, where the client balances on one leg at a time. This challenges their balance further. Next, move on to two-leg unstable exercises, where the client performs balance exercises on an unstable surface, such as a balance board or foam pad. Finally, progress to single-leg unstable exercises, where the client balances on one leg on an unstable surface. This progression gradually increases the difficulty of the exercises and helps improve proprioception.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is the best example of a stabilization level plyometric exercise?

    • A.

      Have a client perform a single-leg squat with a 4-2-1 tempo

    • B.

      Have the client use a repeating tempo on a squat jump.

    • C.

      Have the client perform a squat jump and hold the landing for five seconds before performing another rep.

    • D.

      Have the client perform ice skaters with as fast a tempo as he can control.

    Correct Answer
    C. Have the client perform a squat jump and hold the landing for five seconds before performing another rep.
    Explanation
    The best example of a stabilization level plyometric exercise is having the client perform a squat jump and hold the landing for five seconds before performing another rep. This exercise focuses on stability by requiring the client to control their landing and hold the position, which helps to improve balance and proprioception. The 5-second hold adds an additional challenge to the exercise and engages the stabilizing muscles further.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following exercises is a dynamic stretch?

    • A.

      Step up to balance

    • B.

      Single leg squat touchdown

    • C.

      Active latissimus dorsi ball stretch

    • D.

      Static 90/90 hamstring stretch

    Correct Answer
    B. Single leg squat touchdown
    Explanation
    The single leg squat touchdown is a dynamic stretch because it involves movement and stretching of multiple muscle groups simultaneously. This exercise requires balance, coordination, and flexibility as it targets the lower body, including the quadriceps, hamstrings, glutes, and calves. By performing this exercise, the muscles are stretched and lengthened through a full range of motion, promoting increased mobility and flexibility.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is classified as a carbohydrate?

    • A.

      Insulin

    • B.

      Monosaccharide

    • C.

      Cholecystokinin

    • D.

      Phenylalanine

    Correct Answer
    B. Monosaccharide
    Explanation
    Monosaccharide is classified as a carbohydrate because it is the simplest form of sugar and is composed of a single sugar molecule. Carbohydrates are organic compounds that provide energy to the body and are essential for various biological processes. Insulin, Cholecystokinin, and Phenylalanine are not carbohydrates. Insulin is a hormone, Cholecystokinin is a peptide hormone, and Phenylalanine is an amino acid.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is a physiologic adaptation a client experiences from high-volume resistance training?

    • A.

      Increased resting heart rate

    • B.

      Increased metabolic rate

    • C.

      Increased LDL cholesterol

    • D.

      Increased resting arterial blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased metabolic rate
    Explanation
    High-volume resistance training involves lifting heavy weights for multiple sets and repetitions, which leads to increased muscle mass and improved muscle strength. This increase in muscle mass requires more energy, resulting in an increased metabolic rate. A higher metabolic rate means that the body is able to burn more calories at rest, which can aid in weight loss or weight maintenance. Therefore, increased metabolic rate is a physiological adaptation that clients can experience from high-volume resistance training.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following supersets is appropriate for a client training in Phase 5 of the OPT™ model?

    • A.

      Barbell squat superset with a squat jump

    • B.

      Bench press superset with a dumbbell chest press

    • C.

      Barbell squat superset with a single leg squat

    • D.

      Bench press superset with a stability ball push up

    Correct Answer
    A. Barbell squat superset with a squat jump
    Explanation
    In Phase 5 of the OPT model, the focus is on power and strength. The combination of a barbell squat and a squat jump is appropriate because it targets the lower body muscles, specifically the quadriceps, hamstrings, and glutes, which are important for power and strength development. The barbell squat is a compound exercise that works multiple muscle groups, while the squat jump is a plyometric exercise that improves explosive power. By combining these two exercises in a superset, the client can maximize their power and strength gains.

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  • 47. 

    An excess of which of the following vitamins may cause complications in a client who is taking blood thinners?

    • A.

      Biotin

    • B.

      Riboflavin

    • C.

      Vitamin E

    • D.

      Vitamin B12

    Correct Answer
    C. Vitamin E
    Explanation
    Taking excessive amounts of Vitamin E can cause complications in a client who is taking blood thinners. Vitamin E has anticoagulant properties, which means it can increase the risk of bleeding and interfere with the effectiveness of blood thinners. Therefore, it is important for clients on blood thinners to avoid excessive intake of Vitamin E to prevent potential complications.

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  • 48. 

    Which form of stretching should be used to decrease muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?

    • A.

      Ballistic stretching

    • B.

      Dynamic stretching

    • C.

      Static stretching

    • D.

      Active isolated stretching

    Correct Answer
    C. Static stretching
    Explanation
    Static stretching is the recommended form of stretching to decrease muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity. This type of stretching involves holding a stretch for an extended period of time, typically around 30 seconds. It helps to relax and lengthen the muscle, reducing muscle tension and increasing flexibility. This can be beneficial in reducing muscle soreness, preventing injury, and improving overall performance.

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  • 49. 

    Contracting the quadriceps while performing a hamstring stretch will cause which of the following effects?

    • A.

      Synergistic dominance of the quadriceps

    • B.

      Arthrokinetic dysfunction of the hamstrings

    • C.

      Reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings

    • D.

      Relative flexibility of the quadriceps

    Correct Answer
    C. Reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings
    Explanation
    When the quadriceps muscles are contracted while performing a hamstring stretch, it causes reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings. Reciprocal inhibition is a neurophysiological phenomenon where the contraction of one muscle group leads to the relaxation of its antagonist muscle group. In this case, the quadriceps are the antagonists of the hamstrings. By contracting the quadriceps, it signals the nervous system to relax and inhibit the activity of the hamstrings, allowing for a deeper and more effective hamstring stretch.

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  • 50. 

    During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?

    • A.

      Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

    • B.

      Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation

    • C.

      Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension

    • D.

      Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation

    Correct Answer
    C. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
    Explanation
    During sprinting, the backside mechanics involve the extension of the ankle, knee, and hip joints. This means that the ankle is in a plantarflexed position (pointed downwards), the knee is fully extended (straightened), and the hip is also extended (moving the leg backwards). These motions help propel the body forward and generate power during sprinting.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 04, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Ambrose.laney

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