Exam Prep CPT 4

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1. Which of the following terms defines the concept used when the hamstrings, quadriceps, and gluteus maximus are recruited as a functional unit to perform a squat?

Explanation

Muscle synergy is the term that defines the concept used when the hamstrings, quadriceps, and gluteus maximus are recruited as a functional unit to perform a squat. Muscle synergy refers to the coordinated action of multiple muscles working together to produce a specific movement. In the case of a squat, these muscles work together to stabilize the knee joint, control the descent and ascent of the body, and generate the necessary force for the movement. This concept highlights the importance of muscle coordination and cooperation in performing complex movements.

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About This Quiz
Exam Prep CPT 4 - Quiz

Exam Prep CPT 4 focuses on key aspects of exercise science, particularly muscle physiology and biomechanics. It assesses understanding of muscle fiber types, force-couple relationships, and the impact... see moreof biomechanical principles like the force-velocity curve on training effectiveness. see less

2. Which of the following is classified as a carbohydrate?

Explanation

Monosaccharide is classified as a carbohydrate because it is the simplest form of sugar and is composed of a single sugar molecule. Carbohydrates are organic compounds that provide energy to the body and are essential for various biological processes. Insulin, Cholecystokinin, and Phenylalanine are not carbohydrates. Insulin is a hormone, Cholecystokinin is a peptide hormone, and Phenylalanine is an amino acid.

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3. The external obliques are responsible for

Explanation

The external obliques are responsible for spinal rotation. These muscles are located on the sides of the abdomen and play a crucial role in rotating the spine. When the external obliques contract, they help to twist the torso and rotate the spine to the side. This movement is important for activities such as swinging a golf club or throwing a ball, where rotational force is required.

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4. Which bones comprise the respiratory pump?

Explanation

The bones that comprise the respiratory pump are the sternum, ribs, and vertebrae. These bones work together to facilitate the movement of air in and out of the lungs during breathing. The sternum provides support and protection for the organs in the chest, while the ribs attach to the sternum and help expand the chest cavity. The vertebrae support the ribcage and allow for movement and flexibility in the spine, which is important for proper breathing mechanics.

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5. A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. The trainer should encourage the client to

Explanation

When performing a standing cable row with elevated shoulders, the client should be encouraged to depress her shoulder blades. This helps to activate the scapular retractors, which are muscles responsible for pulling the shoulder blades down and back. This movement helps to stabilize the shoulder girdle and promote proper posture during the exercise. Scapular winging, internally rotating the humerus, and arching the lower back are not appropriate cues for this exercise and may lead to incorrect form and potential injury.

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6. What best describes flexion?

Explanation

Flexion is a bending movement that decreases the relative angle between two adjacent segments. It is the opposite of extension, which is a straightening movement that increases the relative angle between two adjacent segments. Flexion usually occurs in the sagittal plane and is commonly seen in joints such as the elbow, knee, and spine. It allows for movement and brings body parts closer together.

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7. A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Based on this observation, the appropriate action is to

Explanation

The client leaning forward excessively during an overhead squat indicates tightness in the posterior chain muscles, including the calf muscles (soleus and gastrocnemius), hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex. Static stretching these muscles will help improve their flexibility and reduce the forward lean during the squat, allowing for better form and alignment. Self-myofascial release and static stretching of other muscles mentioned in the options are not appropriate based on the observation of the client's forward lean.

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8. A client wishes to increase muscular endurance and stabilization. Which of the following acute variables is most appropriate?

Explanation

Muscular endurance is best developed by performing a higher number of repetitions at a lower intensity. The option of 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity aligns with this goal as it combines a moderate intensity with a higher number of repetitions, which promotes muscular endurance and stabilization.

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9. If an individual has an overactive hip flexor complex and abdominal complex, which compensation(s) will most likely take place during a squat assessment?

Explanation

When an individual has an overactive hip flexor complex and abdominal complex, these muscles tend to pull the pelvis into anterior tilt, causing excessive lumbar extension (low back arch) and decreasing the ability to stabilize the core. This can result in compensations during a squat assessment, such as excessive forward lean, as the individual tries to maintain balance and compensate for the lack of core stability. Therefore, the correct answer is excessive forward lean or low back arch.

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10. During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles would he expect to be shortened?

Explanation

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. This posture is commonly associated with a rounded upper back and a tight chest. The sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major muscles are responsible for the protraction of the shoulders and the forward head position. When these muscles are tight and shortened, they can pull the shoulders forward and contribute to poor posture. Therefore, it is expected that in this case, the sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major muscles would be shortened.

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11. A personal trainer is working with a client who has weight-loss goals. Which of the following training strategies should the client follow to maximize caloric expenditure?

Explanation

To maximize caloric expenditure, the client should follow standing compound muscle exercises performed with short rest periods. Compound exercises engage multiple muscle groups simultaneously, leading to a higher energy expenditure compared to isolated muscle exercises. Standing exercises also require more stability and engagement of core muscles, resulting in increased calorie burn. Short rest periods keep the heart rate elevated and maintain a higher level of intensity throughout the workout, further enhancing caloric expenditure.

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12. During an overhead squat assessment you notice that the client's lower back arches.  This could be due to an overactive...

Explanation

During an overhead squat assessment, if the client's lower back arches, it suggests that the hip flexor complex is overactive. The hip flexor complex consists of several muscles, including the psoas major, iliacus, and rectus femoris. When these muscles are tight or overactive, they can pull the pelvis into an anterior tilt, causing excessive arching of the lower back. This can lead to poor movement patterns and potential lower back pain. Stretching and releasing the hip flexor complex can help alleviate this issue.

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13. A client has been training three times per week in the hypertrophy phase for the last two weeks. He has worked with a repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions, at an intensity of 80% to 85%, and rested for 20 to 30 seconds in between each exercise. He is no longer improving his strength and has expressed feeling fatigued. Which of the following modifications should be made to minimize the effects of overtraining?

Explanation

The client is experiencing fatigue and a plateau in strength gains, indicating that they may be overtraining. To minimize the effects of overtraining, it is important to decrease the intensity and increase the rest time. The option of 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise provides a slightly lower intensity and a longer rest period, allowing the client's body to recover better and reduce fatigue. This modification will help prevent further overtraining and potentially improve strength gains.

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14. What is the isolated function of the biceps brachii?

Explanation

The biceps brachii muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating elbow extension, supination of the radioulnar joint, and shoulder flexion. This means that when the muscle contracts, it helps to extend the elbow joint, rotate the forearm to face upwards (supination), and flex the shoulder joint. It does not have any isolated function related to shoulder external rotation, scapular retraction, or stabilizing the clavicle.

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15. Which exercise occurs predominantly in the saggital plane?

Explanation

The biceps curl exercise occurs predominantly in the sagittal plane. This is because the movement of the exercise involves flexion and extension of the elbow joint, which is primarily in the sagittal plane. The other exercises mentioned, hip abduction, side lateral raise, and ice skater, involve movements in different planes such as frontal and transverse planes.

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16. Which of the following is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for daily protein intake?

Explanation

The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for daily protein intake is 0.8 g/kg. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, it is recommended to consume 0.8 grams of protein per day. Protein is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in building and repairing tissues, producing enzymes and hormones, and supporting a healthy immune system. Meeting the RDA for protein intake ensures that the body has an adequate supply of this nutrient to support its various functions.

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17. What part of the vertebral column is best known as the tailbone?

Explanation

The part of the vertebral column that is best known as the tailbone is the coccyx. The coccyx is a small triangular bone located at the bottom of the vertebral column, consisting of three to five fused vertebrae. It is commonly referred to as the tailbone because it is the remnant of a tail that our ancestors once had. The coccyx serves as an attachment point for various muscles and ligaments and provides support for sitting.

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18. Which of the following supersets is appropriate for a client training in Phase 5 of the OPT™ model?

Explanation

In Phase 5 of the OPT model, the focus is on power and strength. The combination of a barbell squat and a squat jump is appropriate because it targets the lower body muscles, specifically the quadriceps, hamstrings, and glutes, which are important for power and strength development. The barbell squat is a compound exercise that works multiple muscle groups, while the squat jump is a plyometric exercise that improves explosive power. By combining these two exercises in a superset, the client can maximize their power and strength gains.

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19. Arterioles branch out into a multitude of microscopic blood vessels known as:

Explanation

Arterioles are small branches of arteries that lead to capillaries. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels in the body, where the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products occurs between the blood and surrounding tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is capillaries.

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20. During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. This is an example of which of the following concepts?

Explanation

Synergistic dominance refers to the phenomenon where a muscle group takes over the function of another muscle group that is weak or inhibited. In this case, the weakened gluteus maximus is unable to perform its role effectively during the 40-yard dash, so the hamstring complex compensates by doing most of the work. This demonstrates synergistic dominance, where one muscle group compensates for the weakness or dysfunction of another muscle group.

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21. If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead-squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up?

Explanation

If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead-squat assessment, it indicates tightness or weakness in the hip flexor complex. The hip flexor complex includes muscles such as the psoas major, iliacus, and rectus femoris, which are responsible for flexing the hip joint. Stretching these muscles during the client's warm-up can help improve their flexibility and range of motion, allowing them to maintain a more upright posture during the squat. This can also help prevent compensations and potential injuries.

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22. What role does the sarcomere play for the muscular system?

Explanation

The sarcomere plays a crucial role in the muscular system as it is responsible for producing muscular contraction. It is the basic functional unit of a muscle and consists of overlapping actin and myosin filaments. When the muscle contracts, these filaments slide past each other, causing the sarcomere to shorten and resulting in the overall contraction of the muscle. This contraction allows for movement and the generation of force in the body.

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23. A personal trainer is working with a client who is having trouble performing a single-leg balance on a foam pad. Which of the following balance training modalities is appropriate for this client?

Explanation

A half foam roll is the appropriate balance training modality for a client who is having trouble performing a single-leg balance on a foam pad. A half foam roll provides a less unstable surface compared to a foam pad, allowing the client to work on their balance and stability while still providing some support. This can help the client progress gradually and build their confidence before transitioning to a more unstable surface like a balance disk, BOSU ball, or wobble board.

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24. Which of these is not a muscle trained in the seated cable row exercise?

Explanation

The pectorals are not trained in the seated cable row exercise. This exercise primarily targets the muscles of the back, including the mid trap, lower trap, and lattissimus dorsi. The pectorals are primarily worked in exercises such as chest presses and flyes.

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25. In which of the following structures is oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste exchanged between tissues?

Explanation

Capillaries are small blood vessels that connect arteries and veins. They have thin walls which allow for the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products between the blood and surrounding tissues. Oxygen and nutrients are delivered to the tissues, while waste products such as carbon dioxide are removed. Capillaries are highly branched and their large surface area facilitates efficient exchange. Venules, on the other hand, are small veins that collect blood from the capillaries and transport it back to the heart. The sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node are specialized cells in the heart that regulate its electrical activity and do not play a direct role in the exchange of substances between tissues.

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26. What is the name of the reflex that helps to maintain the eyes on a level plane?

Explanation

The pelvo-ocular reflex is the correct answer because it refers to the reflex that helps maintain the eyes on a level plane. This reflex is responsible for adjusting the position of the eyes in response to changes in the orientation of the head or body. It ensures that the eyes remain level and aligned with the horizon, allowing for clear vision and balance.

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27. From top to bottom, what are the five sections of the vertebrae?

Explanation

The correct answer is "cervical spine, thoracic spine, lumbar spine, sacrum, coccyx". This is the correct order of the five sections of the vertebrae from top to bottom. The cervical spine is located at the top of the spine and consists of seven vertebrae. The thoracic spine is in the middle and consists of twelve vertebrae. The lumbar spine is below the thoracic spine and consists of five vertebrae. The sacrum is a triangular bone below the lumbar spine and is made up of five fused vertebrae. The coccyx, also known as the tailbone, is located at the very bottom of the spine and consists of four fused vertebrae.

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28. Which of the following is an example of a force-couple relationship?

Explanation

The given answer, "The effect of muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint," is an example of a force-couple relationship. In this relationship, multiple muscles work together to create a movement around a joint. These muscles produce forces in different directions, but their combined effect results in a coordinated movement. This type of relationship is commonly seen in activities that require complex movements, such as throwing a ball or performing a gymnastic routine.

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29. A client is performing side lateral raises with dumbbells while bending his elbows 45°. The client can increase the amount of torque placed on the deltoids by doing which of the following?

Explanation

Keeping the arms straight during side lateral raises with dumbbells increases the amount of torque placed on the deltoids. When the arms are straight, the lever arm is longer, resulting in a greater torque on the deltoids. This increases the challenge and workload on the deltoids, making the exercise more effective in targeting and strengthening those muscles.

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30. What is the recommended intensity and rest interval for resistance training in Phase 4 of the OPT model?

Explanation

In Phase 4 of the OPT model, the recommended intensity for resistance training is 85-100%. This means that individuals should be lifting weights that are challenging and close to their maximum capacity. The recommended rest interval is 3-5 minutes, which allows for sufficient recovery between sets to maintain the high intensity of the workout. This combination of high intensity and longer rest periods helps to promote muscle strength and hypertrophy.

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31. What do arteries do for the cardiorespiratory system?

Explanation

Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to various parts of the body. They play a crucial role in the cardiorespiratory system by delivering oxygen and nutrients to the tissues and organs. This helps maintain the overall functioning of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "transport blood away from the heart."

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32. During a client's postural assessment, he exhibits pronation distortion syndrome. Which of the following static stretching techniques is most appropriate to lengthen his short muscles?

Explanation

The client exhibits pronation distortion syndrome, which is characterized by an excessive inward rolling of the foot. The gastrocnemius muscle, located in the calf, is commonly tight and shortened in individuals with this syndrome. Stretching the gastrocnemius can help lengthen the muscle and improve the client's posture. Therefore, the most appropriate static stretching technique to address the client's short muscles would be to stretch the gastrocnemius.

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33. Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?

Explanation

Lipids in the body serve as a precursor to hormone production. Hormones are chemical messengers that regulate various physiological processes in the body, including growth, metabolism, and reproduction. Lipids, such as cholesterol, are used to synthesize hormones like estrogen, testosterone, and cortisol. These hormones play crucial roles in maintaining homeostasis and carrying out essential functions in the body. Therefore, lipids act as a precursor for hormone production, rather than serving as a catalyst for exercise, a source of bulk in the diet, or a source of nitrogen for building nonessential amino acids.

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34. Triple extension of the back leg while sprinting includes

Explanation

During sprinting, the triple extension of the back leg refers to the simultaneous extension of the hip, knee, and ankle joints. Ankle plantarflexion specifically involves the movement of pointing the toes downwards, which helps to generate more power and propel the body forward during the push-off phase of the sprinting stride. This movement allows for a greater transfer of force from the leg muscles to the ground, resulting in increased speed and efficiency in sprinting.

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35. A healthy total cholesterol level is:

Explanation

A healthy total cholesterol level is typically considered to be less than 200 mg dL. This is because high levels of cholesterol in the blood can increase the risk of heart disease and other health problems. Therefore, it is generally recommended to maintain a total cholesterol level below 200 mg dL to promote good cardiovascular health.

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36. A personal trainer observes a client's knees moving inward while performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following muscles are probably underactive?

Explanation

When the knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment, it indicates a lack of stability in the hip area. The gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are responsible for maintaining proper alignment and stability of the hips. If these muscles are underactive, it can lead to the knees collapsing inward. Therefore, the underactivity of the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus is the likely cause of the observed knee movement.

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37. During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?

Explanation

During sprinting, the backside mechanics involve the extension of the ankle, knee, and hip joints. This means that the ankle is in a plantarflexed position (pointed downwards), the knee is fully extended (straightened), and the hip is also extended (moving the leg backwards). These motions help propel the body forward and generate power during sprinting.

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38. Which of the following energy systems will be stressed the most when a client is jogging for 20 minutes at 65% of maximal heart rate?

Explanation

When a client is jogging for 20 minutes at 65% of maximal heart rate, the oxidative energy system will be stressed the most. The oxidative energy system primarily uses oxygen to produce ATP, which is the main source of energy for longer duration, lower intensity activities like jogging. This system relies on the aerobic metabolism of carbohydrates and fats to produce ATP, providing a sustained energy source for endurance activities. The other energy systems mentioned, such as the phosphagen system and anaerobic glycolysis, are more involved in shorter, high-intensity activities and would not be as stressed during a 20-minute jog at a moderate intensity.

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39. What most closely describes a sesamoid bone?

Explanation

A sesamoid bone is a small, often round bone that is embedded within a joint capsule. These bones are unique in that they are located within tendons or ligaments, and their purpose is to reduce friction and provide mechanical advantage to the joint. They are typically found in areas of high stress, such as the hands and feet.

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40. During a single leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices his client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?

Explanation

The gluteus medius is probably underactive if the client's knee is drifting inward during a single leg squat assessment. The gluteus medius is responsible for stabilizing the pelvis and preventing excessive inward movement of the knee. If it is underactive, the client may experience poor hip stability and compensatory movements, such as knee valgus (inward drift of the knee). Strengthening the gluteus medius through specific exercises can help address this issue and improve overall lower body stability.

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41. A trainer is working with a senior client. The trainer should be aware of which of the following physiological characteristics?

Explanation

As individuals age, they tend to experience a decrease in lean body mass. Lean body mass refers to the weight of the body's muscles, organs, bones, and tissues, excluding fat. This decrease in lean body mass is a common physiological characteristic in older adults and is often associated with a loss of muscle mass and strength. It is important for a trainer to be aware of this because it can affect the client's ability to perform certain exercises and may require modifications to their workout routine in order to maintain or build muscle mass.

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42. Which of the following is the correct position of the wrists during the end phase of a barbell clean?

Explanation

During the end phase of a barbell clean, the correct position of the wrists is hyperextension. This means that the wrists are extended beyond their normal range of motion, with the back of the hand moving closer to the forearm. Hyperextension of the wrists helps to maintain a secure grip on the barbell and allows for a smooth transition of the weight from the clean to the front rack position.

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43. What type of bone is the vertebrae considered?

Explanation

The vertebrae are considered irregular bones. Unlike long bones, which have a shaft and two ends, or flat bones, which are thin and flat, the vertebrae have a complex shape with multiple projections and irregular surfaces. They are part of the axial skeleton and provide protection and support for the spinal cord.

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44. If a diabetic client has peripheral neuropathy, which of the following exercises should be avoided?

Explanation

The exercise that should be avoided for a diabetic client with peripheral neuropathy is foam roll calves. Peripheral neuropathy can cause numbness, tingling, and loss of sensation in the feet and legs. Foam rolling the calves involves applying pressure to the muscles using a foam roller, which can potentially cause further damage or injury to the already compromised nerves in the feet and legs. Therefore, it is best for the client to avoid this exercise to prevent any potential harm.

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45. Thermic effect of food (TEF) accounts for what percentage of total energy expenditure?

Explanation

The thermic effect of food (TEF) refers to the energy expenditure required for the digestion, absorption, and processing of food. It accounts for approximately 6% to 10% of total energy expenditure. This means that when we consume food, our body uses a small percentage of the calories from that food to break it down and utilize it, while the rest is stored or used for other bodily functions. This energy expenditure is a natural process that occurs in the body after eating and contributes to overall energy balance.

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46. What is the appropriate regression of the prone iso-ab exercise?

Explanation

The appropriate regression for the prone iso-ab exercise is to perform it with hands on a bench. This modification allows for greater stability and support during the exercise, making it easier for individuals who may have less core strength or stability. By placing the hands on a bench, it reduces the amount of weight and strain on the core muscles, making it a suitable regression for beginners or those with limited strength or stability.

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47. What best describes the function of agonist muscles?

Explanation

Agonist muscles are the primary muscles responsible for creating a specific movement or action. They contract and generate force to produce the desired movement. Therefore, the statement "act as prime movers" best describes the function of agonist muscles.

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48. Which of the following is directly associated with the lifting portion of a resistance exercise?

Explanation

Concentric muscle action refers to the phase of a resistance exercise where the muscle shortens as it generates force to lift a weight. This is the portion of the exercise where the muscle contracts and overcomes the resistance. Isometric muscle action refers to a static contraction where the muscle generates force without changing length. Eccentric muscle action refers to the phase where the muscle lengthens while generating force, often during the lowering phase of an exercise. Isokinetic muscle action refers to a type of muscle contraction where the muscle shortens at a constant speed throughout the range of motion.

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49. When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?

Explanation

External rotation of the feet during an overhead squat is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius. The lateral gastrocnemius is one of the muscles in the calf, and when it is overactive, it can cause the feet to turn outward during the squat movement. This can lead to imbalances and compensations in the lower body, affecting the alignment and stability of the squat. Therefore, external rotation of the feet is a sign that the lateral gastrocnemius is working too hard during the exercise.

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50. When making a circumference measurement of the thigh...

Explanation

To ensure standardization in circumference measurements of the thigh, it is recommended to measure 10 inches above the top of the patella. This specific location is chosen as it allows for consistent and comparable measurements across different individuals. By measuring at this specific point, variations in thigh size and shape can be accounted for, providing more accurate and reliable data for analysis or comparison purposes.

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51. What most accurately describes an extension movement?

Explanation

An extension movement refers to a straightening movement that increases the relative angle between two adjacent segments. This means that the joint involved in the movement is being straightened, causing the angle between the segments to become larger. It is important to note that extension movements occur within the typical range of motion for the joint.

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52. Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels?

Explanation

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through the pulmonary arteries. These arteries carry oxygen-poor blood from the heart to the lungs, where it gets oxygenated and then returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins. The aortic valve is responsible for preventing the backflow of oxygenated blood from the aorta into the left ventricle, while the aortic arch is a part of the aorta that curves and gives rise to branches supplying blood to various parts of the body.

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53. What is an effect that exercise has on insulin and glucagon?

Explanation

Exercise increases glucose uptake. During exercise, the muscles require more energy, which is supplied by glucose. To meet this demand, the body increases the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into the muscles. This is facilitated by the hormone insulin, which promotes the uptake of glucose into cells. Therefore, as exercise increases the demand for glucose, the body responds by increasing glucose uptake, leading to higher insulin levels.

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54. The active extension of a muscle, using force production and momentum, to move the joint through the full available range of motion.  1 set, 10 reps and 3 - 10 exercises.

Explanation

Dynamic stretching involves actively moving the muscles and joints through a full range of motion. It uses force production and momentum to extend the muscles and move the joints. This type of stretching is beneficial for warming up the body before physical activity, as it increases blood flow and prepares the muscles for movement. It is typically performed in sets, with 10 repetitions, and can include 3-10 different exercises.

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55. What is the isolated function of the TFL?

Explanation

The correct answer is "concentrically accelerating hip flexion, abduction, and internal rotation." This means that the TFL (tensor fasciae latae) muscle is responsible for actively contracting and generating force to move the hip joint in a forward flexion, outward abduction, and internal rotation motion.

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56. What is it called when the shoulder blades move away from the midline?

Explanation

Scapular protraction refers to the movement of the shoulder blades away from the midline of the body. This movement is commonly observed when reaching forward or pushing an object away from the body. It is important for activities that involve reaching and pushing movements, as it allows for greater range of motion and stability in the shoulder joint.

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57. Contracting the quadriceps while performing a hamstring stretch will cause which of the following effects?

Explanation

When the quadriceps muscles are contracted while performing a hamstring stretch, it causes reciprocal inhibition of the hamstrings. Reciprocal inhibition is a neurophysiological phenomenon where the contraction of one muscle group leads to the relaxation of its antagonist muscle group. In this case, the quadriceps are the antagonists of the hamstrings. By contracting the quadriceps, it signals the nervous system to relax and inhibit the activity of the hamstrings, allowing for a deeper and more effective hamstring stretch.

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58. What is the proper formula to calculate a client's BMI?

Explanation

The proper formula to calculate a client's BMI is weight (kg) divided by height (m2). This formula takes into account both the weight and height of the individual to determine their body mass index.

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59. A personal trainer suggests that his client increase her heart rate up to 95% of her heart rate maximum. Which of the following energy pathways is predominantly being used at this level of intensity?

Explanation

At a high intensity level where the client's heart rate is increased up to 95% of her maximum heart rate, the predominantly used energy pathway is the Phosphogen system. The Phosphogen system provides immediate energy through the breakdown of stored creatine phosphate in the muscles. This system is anaerobic, meaning it does not require oxygen, and is used for short bursts of intense activity. As the intensity of the activity decreases, the body will shift to other energy pathways such as oxidative and aerobic glycolysis.

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60. A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat curl to press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?

Explanation

The given exercise routine represents the vertical loading resistance training system. In this system, the exercises are performed in a sequential order, with each exercise targeting a different muscle group. The client starts with a lower body exercise (ball squat curl to press), then moves to an upper body exercise (ball dumbbell chest press), followed by a back exercise (standing cable row), shoulder exercise (seated stability ball military press), and a lower body exercise again (step-up to balance). This sequence allows for efficient muscle activation and overall body training.

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61. Which of the following is an example of an extension movement?

Explanation

An extension movement refers to the movement of a body part away from the midline or straightening of a joint. The side lateral raise involves lifting the arms out to the sides, away from the body, which is an example of an extension movement at the shoulder joint. The biceps curl involves flexing the elbow joint, the squat involves bending the knee joint, and the trunk rotation involves twisting the torso, none of which are examples of extension movements.

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62. Which of the following is an example of a second class lever?

Explanation

A second class lever is a lever where the load is located between the fulcrum and the effort. In the case of a calf raise, the fulcrum is the ball of the foot, the load is the body weight, and the effort is applied by the calf muscles. When the calf muscles contract, they lift the body weight (load) by extending the ankle joint (fulcrum). This fulfills the definition of a second class lever, making the calf raise an example of this type of lever.

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63. Which of the following is an example of a third class lever?

Explanation

A third class lever is a type of lever where the effort force is applied between the fulcrum and the load. In the case of a biceps curl, the fulcrum is the elbow joint, the load is the weight being lifted, and the effort force is applied by the biceps muscle. The biceps muscle is located between the elbow joint and the weight being lifted, making it an example of a third class lever.

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64. What is the main difference between synovial joints and non synovial joints?

Explanation

The main difference between synovial joints and non-synovial joints is that synovial joints are most associated with movement, whereas non-synovial joints are not. Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a synovial cavity and a synovial membrane, which allows for smooth and frictionless movement. These joints are found in the limbs and allow for a wide range of motion. On the other hand, non-synovial joints, such as fibrous and cartilaginous joints, have limited or no movement capabilities. They are mainly responsible for providing stability and support to the body.

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65. What most accurately explains the function of glucagon?

Explanation

Glucagon is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels. Its main function is to increase blood glucose levels by stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream. This process is known as glycogenolysis. Therefore, the most accurate explanation for the function of glucagon is increasing blood glucose levels.

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66. Which of the following is a physiologic adaptation a client experiences from high-volume resistance training?

Explanation

High-volume resistance training involves lifting heavy weights for multiple sets and repetitions, which leads to increased muscle mass and improved muscle strength. This increase in muscle mass requires more energy, resulting in an increased metabolic rate. A higher metabolic rate means that the body is able to burn more calories at rest, which can aid in weight loss or weight maintenance. Therefore, increased metabolic rate is a physiological adaptation that clients can experience from high-volume resistance training.

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67. A client performs two repetitions of a bench press exercise with 130 lb and gradually decreases the resistance with each set until he performs 10 repetitions with 100 lb on the last set. Which of the following resistance training systems is the client using?

Explanation

The client is using the pyramid resistance training system. In this system, the client starts with a higher weight and performs fewer repetitions, gradually decreasing the weight and increasing the repetitions with each set. In this case, the client starts with 130 lb for 2 repetitions and decreases the weight until reaching 100 lb for 10 repetitions on the last set, which follows the pattern of a pyramid system.

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68. Which of the following characteristics distinguishes type II muscle fibers from type I muscle fibers?

Explanation

Type II muscle fibers are characterized by decreased oxygen delivery compared to type I muscle fibers. This means that type II fibers have a lower capacity to utilize oxygen for energy production during exercise. This is due to a lower density of capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin in type II fibers. In contrast, type I fibers have a higher density of these structures, allowing for greater oxygen delivery and endurance during prolonged contractions. Therefore, decreased oxygen delivery is a key distinguishing characteristic of type II muscle fibers.

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69. Which of the following is not one of the benefits of maximal strength training?

Explanation

Maximal strength training primarily focuses on improving the ability to produce force by recruiting more motor units and synchronizing their actions. This type of training also enhances the rate of force production, which means that force can be generated more quickly. However, increased stabilization of the core musculature is not a direct benefit of maximal strength training. While core stability is important for overall strength and performance, it is typically targeted through specific exercises and training methods, rather than being a direct result of maximal strength training.

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70. Which part of the body is the fibula?

Explanation

The fibula is located in the outer portion of the lower leg. It is one of the two bones in the lower leg, the other being the tibia. The fibula runs parallel to the tibia and is responsible for providing support and stability to the leg. It also plays a role in muscle attachment and helps in the movement of the ankle and foot.

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71. Which muscle functions as the stabilizer when performing a squat?

Explanation

The transversus abdominis muscle functions as the stabilizer when performing a squat. This muscle is located deep within the abdomen and wraps around the torso, providing stability and support to the spine and pelvis. During a squat, the transversus abdominis contracts to maintain proper alignment and prevent excessive movement or rotation of the trunk. By stabilizing the core, this muscle helps to protect the lower back and maintain balance during the exercise. The quadriceps, gluteus maximus, and soleus/gastrocnemius muscles are also involved in the squat exercise, but they primarily contribute to the movement rather than stabilization.

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72. Which muscle is the agonist for the chest press?

Explanation

The pectoralis major is the correct answer because it is the primary muscle responsible for the chest press exercise. The chest press primarily targets the pectoralis major, which is the large muscle in the chest area. It is responsible for the horizontal adduction and flexion of the arm, which are the main movements involved in the chest press exercise. The triceps, rotator cuff, and posterior deltoid are not the primary muscles involved in the chest press and therefore are not the agonist for this exercise.

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73. Which of the following medications is generally prescribed for clients who have pulmonary diseases?

Explanation

Bronchodilators are medications that are generally prescribed for clients who have pulmonary diseases. These medications help to relax and widen the airways in the lungs, making it easier for individuals with pulmonary diseases to breathe. Calcium-channel blockers, vasodilators, and beta blockers are not typically prescribed for pulmonary diseases, as they have different mechanisms of action and are used for other medical conditions.

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74. Because of a lack of insulin in Type 1 diabetes, blood sugar is not optimally delivered to the cells, which results in:

Explanation

In Type 1 diabetes, there is a lack of insulin, a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. Without enough insulin, the body is unable to effectively deliver glucose to the cells for energy. This leads to hyperglycemia, which is an abnormally high level of glucose in the blood. Hyperglycemia can cause symptoms such as increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, and blurred vision. If left untreated, it can lead to serious complications such as damage to the blood vessels, nerves, and organs.

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75. The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group.

Explanation

The Estimated Average Requirement (EAR) is the average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group. It is used to assess the adequacy of nutrient intake in populations and to develop dietary guidelines. The EAR is an important reference point for determining the nutrient needs of individuals and for setting recommendations such as the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA). The Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL) is the highest level of daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects in almost all individuals. Adequate Intake (AI) is used when there is insufficient evidence to establish an RDA.

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76. It is designed to improve muscle imbalances and altered joint motion. It uses the principles of autogenic inhibition.

Explanation

Corrective flexibility is the correct answer because it is designed specifically to address muscle imbalances and altered joint motion. This type of flexibility training focuses on correcting any imbalances or dysfunctions in the muscles and joints, which can help improve overall movement and reduce the risk of injury. The principles of autogenic inhibition, which involve using relaxation techniques to increase flexibility, are often incorporated into corrective flexibility exercises.

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77. Resting oxygen consumption is approx.:

Explanation

Resting oxygen consumption refers to the amount of oxygen the body uses while at rest. It is measured in milliliters (mL) per kilogram of body weight per minute. The correct answer is 3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, the body consumes 3.5 mL of oxygen while at rest.

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78. Your client is 50 years old and has a resting heart rate of 80.  What is the target range of their heart in the aerobic zone.

Explanation

The target heart rate range in the aerobic zone is determined by calculating a percentage of the maximum heart rate. The maximum heart rate is estimated by subtracting the client's age from 220. In this case, the maximum heart rate would be 220 - 50 = 170 beats per minute. The target range for the aerobic zone is typically between 70-85% of the maximum heart rate. Calculating 70% and 85% of 170 gives a range of 119-145 beats per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 143-152 beats per minute, which falls within this range.

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79. In which phase(s) of the OPT model is active flexibility appropriate?

Explanation

Active flexibility is appropriate in Phase 2, 3, and 4 of the OPT model. In Phase 2, the focus is on increasing muscular endurance and stability, and active flexibility exercises can help improve range of motion and stability in the joints. In Phase 3, the goal is to increase maximal strength, and active flexibility exercises can aid in improving flexibility and mobility needed for strength training exercises. In Phase 4, the emphasis is on power and speed, and active flexibility exercises can help enhance dynamic movements and prevent injuries during explosive exercises.

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80. Which of the following injuries is most often associated with pronation distortion syndrome?

Explanation

Pronation distortion syndrome is a biomechanical imbalance that involves excessive pronation (inward rolling) of the foot. This can lead to various injuries and conditions, with plantar fasciitis being the most often associated. Plantar fasciitis is inflammation of the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that connects the heel bone to the toes. Excessive pronation can cause the plantar fascia to become overstretched and strained, leading to pain and inflammation in the heel or arch of the foot. Therefore, plantar fasciitis is the most likely injury associated with pronation distortion syndrome.

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81. A client exhibits increased lumbar extension while performing a standing overhead press. Which of the following statements is true?

Explanation

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82. What most closely describes tendons?

Explanation

Tendons are fibrous connective tissues that attach muscles to bones. They play a crucial role in enabling muscles to produce force by transmitting the force generated by the muscle contraction to the bone. Tendons are strong and flexible, allowing them to withstand the tension and stress placed on them during movement. They serve as a bridge between the muscular system and the skeletal system, facilitating the movement and coordination of the body.

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83. A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy phase of the OPT™ Model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?

Explanation

In the Hypertrophy phase of the OPT Model, the main focus is on increasing muscle size and strength. During this phase, the client is likely performing resistance training exercises with higher intensity and lower repetitions. Therefore, the most appropriate phase of the flexibility continuum would be the Active phase. In the Active phase, the client would perform dynamic stretching exercises that involve actively moving the muscles and joints through a full range of motion. This type of stretching is beneficial for improving flexibility and mobility, which is important for performing resistance exercises effectively and reducing the risk of injury.

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84. Which of the following is a plyometric-power exercise?

Explanation

Ice skaters are considered a plyometric-power exercise because they involve explosive lateral movements and require power and strength in the legs. During ice skaters, the individual jumps laterally from side to side, mimicking the movements of a skater. This exercise helps to improve power, agility, and coordination, making it an effective plyometric exercise for developing lower body strength and power. Tuck jumps, butt kicks, and power step-ups, on the other hand, are not specifically classified as plyometric-power exercises.

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85. Which of the following is the best example of a stabilization level plyometric exercise?

Explanation

The best example of a stabilization level plyometric exercise is having the client perform a squat jump and hold the landing for five seconds before performing another rep. This exercise focuses on stability by requiring the client to control their landing and hold the position, which helps to improve balance and proprioception. The 5-second hold adds an additional challenge to the exercise and engages the stabilizing muscles further.

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86. What best describes sensory function?

Explanation

The correct answer is the nervous system's ability to sense changes in the internal or external environment. This best describes sensory function because sensory function refers to the ability of the nervous system to detect and interpret sensory stimuli from the environment. It involves the sensory organs, such as the eyes, ears, nose, and skin, detecting changes in the environment and transmitting this information to the brain for processing and interpretation.

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87. A condition characterized by narrowing of the major arteries that are responsible for supplying blood to the lower extremities.

Explanation

Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the major arteries that supply blood to the lower extremities. This narrowing restricts blood flow, leading to symptoms such as leg cramps and intermittent claudication. Coronary heart disease is a separate condition that affects the arteries supplying blood to the heart, while PAD specifically affects the arteries in the legs. Therefore, the correct answer is peripheral arterial disease.

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88. Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client who has osteoarthritis?

Explanation

Limiting the client to 10 to 12 repetitions per set for Phase 1 of the OPT model is a correct training strategy for a client who has osteoarthritis. This is because individuals with osteoarthritis often have joint pain and stiffness, and high-repetition exercises can exacerbate these symptoms. By limiting the repetitions, it helps to reduce the stress on the joints while still providing a beneficial workout. This strategy allows the client to gradually build strength and endurance without causing excessive strain or discomfort on the affected joints.

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89. What best describes the atriovenricular (AV) node?

Explanation

The AV node is a small mass of specialized cardiac muscle fibers located in the wall of the right atrium. It acts as a gateway, controlling the electrical signals that travel from the atria to the ventricles. When the electrical signal reaches the AV node, it is delayed briefly to allow the atria to contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles contract. This coordination ensures efficient blood flow and proper functioning of the heart.

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90. What does the integrated performance paradigm state?

Explanation

The integrated performance paradigm states that in order to move with precision, forces must be loaded eccentrically, meaning the force is applied while the muscle is lengthening; stabilized isometrically, meaning the force is held without any change in muscle length; and then unloaded concentrically, meaning the force is applied while the muscle is shortening. This sequence allows for optimal control and precision of movement.

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91. The Rockport Walk Test is used to determine which of the following?

Explanation

The Rockport Walk Test is used to estimate oxygen consumption. This test involves walking a mile as quickly as possible, and then measuring heart rate and other factors. By using these measurements, the test can provide an estimation of how much oxygen is being consumed during physical activity. This information is useful for assessing cardiovascular fitness and determining appropriate exercise intensity levels.

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92. During the medical history portion of a PAR-Q, a client tells the personal trainer that she has undergone a recent Cesarean section. Which of the following exercises should initially be avoided?

Explanation

A recent Cesarean section involves a surgical incision in the abdominal area. Cable chops require rotational movements and can put strain on the abdominal muscles, which may not be fully healed after the surgery. Therefore, cable chops should initially be avoided to prevent any potential complications or discomfort for the client.

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93. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. This is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

The force-velocity curve describes the relationship between the force a muscle can produce and the velocity at which it contracts. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, the force it can produce decreases. This is because the muscle has less time to generate force as it contracts more quickly. Therefore, the given statement aligns with the concept of the force-velocity curve.

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94. What type of movement is taking place when the arm or thigh moves from a lateral to an anterior position?

Explanation

When the arm or thigh moves from a lateral to an anterior position, it is referred to as horizontal adduction. This movement involves bringing the limb closer to the midline of the body in a horizontal plane. It is opposite to horizontal abduction, which involves moving the limb away from the midline. Internal and external rotation refer to movements around the axis of a joint, and they are not applicable in this scenario.

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95. A client is performing a standard push-up and the trainer notes a low-back arch. Which of the following muscles are most likely weak or underactive?

Explanation

The transverse abdominis is most likely weak or underactive in this scenario because it is responsible for stabilizing the core and maintaining proper alignment of the spine during exercises like push-ups. A low-back arch indicates a lack of core stability, which can be improved by strengthening the transverse abdominis. The other muscles listed, such as the latissimus dorsi, erector spinae, and psoas, are not directly involved in maintaining core stability during a push-up.

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96. What is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome?

Explanation

Lower crossed syndrome is a postural imbalance characterized by tightness in the hip flexors and lower back muscles, and weakness in the glutes and abdominal muscles. This imbalance leads to a forward tilt of the pelvis and an exaggerated curve in the lower back. Decreased hip extension is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome because the tight hip flexors restrict the range of motion in the hip joint, making it difficult to fully extend the hip. This can lead to compensations in other areas of the body and contribute to various musculoskeletal issues.

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97. Which of the following is an example of a first class lever?

Explanation

Nodding the head is an example of a first-class lever because the head acts as the load, the neck joint acts as the fulcrum, and the effort is applied by the muscles in the back of the neck. In a first-class lever, the fulcrum is located between the load and the effort, and the direction of the effort is opposite to the direction of the load.

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98. Which form of stretching should be used to decrease muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity?

Explanation

Static stretching is the recommended form of stretching to decrease muscle spindle activity of a tight muscle before and after physical activity. This type of stretching involves holding a stretch for an extended period of time, typically around 30 seconds. It helps to relax and lengthen the muscle, reducing muscle tension and increasing flexibility. This can be beneficial in reducing muscle soreness, preventing injury, and improving overall performance.

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99. A rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercise will allow recovery of about which of the following percentages of ATP and PC?

Explanation

A rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercise will allow for the recovery of approximately 75% of ATP and PC. This means that after 40 seconds of rest, the body will have replenished about three-fourths of its ATP and PC stores, which are the primary sources of energy for high-intensity exercise. This allows for continued performance and reduces the risk of fatigue and muscle failure.

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100. What is the process by which neural impulses sensing tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscle contraction?

Explanation

Autogenic inhibition is the correct answer because it refers to the process by which neural impulses sensing tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscle contraction. This mechanism helps prevent excessive muscle force and potential injury by inhibiting or reducing the activation of the muscle fibers. When tension is detected, the Golgi tendon organs send inhibitory signals to the muscle spindles, resulting in relaxation and decreased muscle contraction. This autogenic inhibition helps maintain balance and control in the muscular system.

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101. Which is not an example of or associated with proper body mechanics while running?

Explanation

Plantar flexion of the foot and ankle when the foot hits the ground while running is not an example of or associated with proper body mechanics. Plantar flexion refers to pointing the toes downward, and this movement should not occur when the foot hits the ground while running. Instead, the foot should be in a neutral position or slightly dorsiflexed to absorb shock and maintain stability. Plantar flexion during this phase can lead to decreased force production and increase the risk of injuries.

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102. An excess of which of the following vitamins may cause complications in a client who is taking blood thinners?

Explanation

Taking excessive amounts of Vitamin E can cause complications in a client who is taking blood thinners. Vitamin E has anticoagulant properties, which means it can increase the risk of bleeding and interfere with the effectiveness of blood thinners. Therefore, it is important for clients on blood thinners to avoid excessive intake of Vitamin E to prevent potential complications.

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103. Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level of which of the following secondary respiratory muscles?

Explanation

Dysfunctional breathing refers to abnormal breathing patterns that can lead to respiratory issues. The scalene muscles, located in the neck, are secondary respiratory muscles that assist in breathing when the primary muscles (such as the diaphragm) are not functioning properly. Therefore, an increase in the activity level of the scalenes is a characteristic of dysfunctional breathing. The diaphragm, on the other hand, is a primary respiratory muscle responsible for the majority of inhalation. The internal oblique and rectus abdominis muscles are not directly involved in respiratory function.

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104. The gluteus maximus functions as what type of muscle during the squat?

Explanation

The gluteus maximus functions as the agonist muscle during the squat. The agonist muscle is responsible for producing the main movement or action. In the squat, the gluteus maximus is the primary muscle that contracts and generates force to extend the hip joint and push the body back up to a standing position. It is the prime mover in this exercise, working against the resistance provided by the body's own weight or additional weights.

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105. In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae during the static standing TFL stretch, a client's back leg should be in which of the following positions?

Explanation

To most effectively target the tensor fascia latae during the static standing TFL stretch, a client's back leg should be externally rotated. This position allows for a deeper stretch of the tensor fascia latae, which is a muscle located in the hip and thigh area. By externally rotating the leg, the muscle is put under tension and stretched more effectively. This can help increase flexibility and reduce tightness in the tensor fascia latae.

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106. What best describes what sensory neurons do?

Explanation

Sensory neurons are responsible for transmitting nerve impulses from muscles and organs to the brain and spinal cord via receptors. These neurons play a crucial role in the sensory system by relaying information about touch, temperature, pain, and other sensory stimuli from the body's periphery to the central nervous system. This information is then processed and interpreted by the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to our environment.

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107. What is the process of diffusion?

Explanation

The process of diffusion refers to the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. In the context of the given options, getting oxygen from the environment to the tissues of the body involves the process of diffusion. Oxygen molecules move from an area of higher concentration (in the environment) to an area of lower concentration (in the tissues) through diffusion, allowing the body to obtain the necessary oxygen for cellular respiration.

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108. What best describes gluconeogenesis?

Explanation

Gluconeogenesis is the process in which glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids and glycerol. This process occurs mainly in the liver and kidneys when the body needs glucose but there is a limited supply of carbohydrates available. Gluconeogenesis helps maintain blood glucose levels and provides a source of energy for the body when carbohydrate stores are depleted.

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109. What are the three phases of plyometric exercise, in order?

Explanation

The correct order of the three phases of plyometric exercise is eccentric, amortization, and concentric. In the eccentric phase, the muscle lengthens while under tension. The amortization phase is a brief pause between the eccentric and concentric phases, where the muscle transitions from lengthening to shortening. Finally, in the concentric phase, the muscle contracts and shortens, generating force. This sequence is essential for maximizing the elastic energy stored in the muscle-tendon unit and optimizing power output during plyometric exercises.

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110. What most accurately defines osteopenia?

Explanation

Osteopenia is a condition in which bone mass and density is lower than it should be. This means that the bones are not as strong as they should be, which can increase the risk of fractures and other bone-related problems. It is considered a precursor to osteoporosis, a more severe condition characterized by further bone loss. Therefore, the option stating that osteopenia is a condition in which bone mass and density is lower than it should be accurately defines the condition.

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111. Where is the origin of the pectoralis major?

Explanation

The pectoralis major originates from the anterior surface of the clavicle. This means that it begins or originates from the front side of the clavicle bone.

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112. Which of the following terms describes the connective tissue that wraps each fascicle?

Explanation

Perimysium is the correct answer because it refers to the connective tissue that surrounds each fascicle. Fascicles are bundles of muscle fibers, and the perimysium acts as a protective sheath around them, providing support and structure. The other options, sarcolemma and sarcoplasm, refer to specific parts of a muscle fiber, while epimysium refers to the connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle. Therefore, perimysium is the most appropriate term to describe the connective tissue that wraps each fascicle.

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113. Which are the probable underactive muscles when the low back arches during the OSA?

Explanation

During the OSA (Overhead Squat Assessment), when the low back arches, it indicates that the gluteus maximus, intrinsic core stabilizers, and hamstring complex are underactive. These muscles play a crucial role in stabilizing the pelvis and maintaining proper posture during the squat. When they are underactive, other muscles may compensate, leading to an excessive arch in the low back. Strengthening these underactive muscles can help improve posture and prevent low back pain during the OSA.

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114. Which strengthening exercise should be used if an individual compensates during a squat assessment with an excessive forward lean or by arching their back?

Explanation

The quadruped arm/opposite leg raise exercise should be used if an individual compensates during a squat assessment with an excessive forward lean or by arching their back. This exercise helps to strengthen the core muscles, including the lower back and abdominals, which play a crucial role in maintaining proper posture and stability during movements like squats. By performing this exercise, the individual can improve their ability to stabilize their spine and pelvis, reducing the compensatory movements and promoting a more efficient squat technique.

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115. A personal trainer is working with a client who has hypertension. Which of the following statements from the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Explanation

The client's statement that they should make sure their back is flat against the floor during a floor bridge indicates a need for further teaching. This is because in a floor bridge, the client should actually maintain a neutral spine position, rather than trying to flatten their back against the floor. This is important for individuals with hypertension as it helps to avoid excessive strain on the lower back and maintain proper alignment during the exercise.

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116. Which type of joint is named as such because it has a joint cavity?

Explanation

Synovial joints are named as such because they have a joint cavity. The joint cavity is a space between the articulating bones that is filled with synovial fluid, which helps lubricate and cushion the joint. This type of joint allows for a wide range of movement and is found in various parts of the body, such as the knees, elbows, and shoulders.

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117. What best defines arteriosclerosis?

Explanation

Arteriosclerosis is best defined as the hardening of the arteries. This condition occurs when the arteries become stiff and lose their elasticity due to the accumulation of plaque and other substances on their walls. The hardening of the arteries can restrict blood flow and lead to various cardiovascular problems such as high blood pressure, heart attack, or stroke.

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118. What is the proper sequence when designing a core training program?

Explanation

The proper sequence when designing a core training program is to prioritize intervertebral stability first, followed by lumbo pelvic stability, and then movement efficiency. This sequence ensures that the core muscles are properly stabilized before focusing on movement efficiency, which helps to prevent injuries and improve overall performance.

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119. The neuromuscular response to sensory information is known as what?

Explanation

The neuromuscular response to sensory information refers to the activation of muscles in response to sensory input. This involves the coordination between the nervous system and muscles to produce movement or maintain posture. Therefore, the correct answer is motor function, as it encompasses the processes involved in generating physical responses based on sensory information.

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120. If a client compensates with an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, what are the probable overactive muscles?

Explanation

If a client compensates with an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment, the probable overactive muscles are the soleus, gastrocnemius, and hip flexor complex. These muscles are responsible for plantarflexion of the ankle (soleus, gastrocnemius) and flexion of the hip (hip flexor complex). When these muscles are overactive, they can cause the client to lean forward excessively during the squat, indicating a lack of stability and control in the lower body.

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121. What are the probable overactive muscles when the low back arches during the pulling assessment?

Explanation

During the pulling assessment, when the low back arches, it suggests that the hip flexors and erector spinae muscles are overactive. The hip flexors, located in the front of the hip, are responsible for flexing the hip joint. When they are overactive, they can pull the pelvis forward, causing the low back to arch. The erector spinae muscles, located along the spine, help to extend and stabilize the spine. If they are overactive, they can contribute to excessive arching of the low back during the pulling assessment.

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122. Which of the following exercises is a dynamic stretch?

Explanation

The single leg squat touchdown is a dynamic stretch because it involves movement and stretching of multiple muscle groups simultaneously. This exercise requires balance, coordination, and flexibility as it targets the lower body, including the quadriceps, hamstrings, glutes, and calves. By performing this exercise, the muscles are stretched and lengthened through a full range of motion, promoting increased mobility and flexibility.

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123. During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices her client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?

Explanation

The client's low back arching during the butt kick exercise suggests that the muscles in the front of the thigh, the quadriceps, are most likely tight. When the quadriceps are tight, they can pull on the pelvis, causing the low back to arch. This imbalance between the quadriceps and other muscle groups can lead to postural issues and potential lower back pain. Stretching and strengthening exercises for the quadriceps can help alleviate this tightness and improve overall posture during the exercise.

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124. While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer observes a client demonstrating a low back arch movement dysfunction. Which of the following muscles is probably overactive?

Explanation

The personal trainer observes a low back arch movement dysfunction during the overhead squat assessment. This suggests that the client's latissimus dorsi muscle is probably overactive. The latissimus dorsi muscle is located in the back and is responsible for movements such as shoulder extension and adduction. When this muscle is overactive, it can cause the low back to arch excessively, leading to poor posture and potential movement dysfunction.

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125. What are the names of the main endocrine glands?

Explanation

The correct answer is hypothalamus, pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal. These are the names of the main endocrine glands in the body. The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating body temperature, hunger, and thirst. The pituitary gland controls the release of hormones from other glands and plays a crucial role in growth and development. The thyroid gland produces hormones that regulate metabolism and energy levels. The adrenal glands produce hormones that help regulate stress response, blood pressure, and salt balance in the body.

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126. The proper balance progression to increase a client's proprioception is which of the following?

Explanation

The proper balance progression to increase a client's proprioception is to start with two-leg stable exercises, where both feet are planted firmly on the ground. This helps the client establish a strong base of support. Then, progress to single-leg stable exercises, where the client balances on one leg at a time. This challenges their balance further. Next, move on to two-leg unstable exercises, where the client performs balance exercises on an unstable surface, such as a balance board or foam pad. Finally, progress to single-leg unstable exercises, where the client balances on one leg on an unstable surface. This progression gradually increases the difficulty of the exercises and helps improve proprioception.

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127. When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the following is a correct body position?

Explanation

In the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, the correct body position is a posteriorly rotated pelvis. This means that the pelvis is tilted backward, creating a slight arch in the lower back. This position helps to stretch the latissimus dorsi muscles effectively. The other options, such as 90° horizontally abducted humerus and 90° internally rotated humerus, are not related to the correct body position for this stretch.

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128. During which phase(s) of training would performing back extensions be most appropriate?

Explanation

Back extensions primarily target the muscles of the lower back, including the erector spinae. These muscles play a crucial role in maintaining proper posture and spinal stability. Phase 2, 3, and 4 of training typically involve more advanced exercises that focus on building strength and stability in the core and posterior chain. Therefore, performing back extensions during these phases would be most appropriate as it helps strengthen the lower back and promotes overall spinal health and stability.

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129. Which of the following amino acids is nonessential?

Explanation

Glycine is considered a nonessential amino acid because it can be synthesized by the body. Nonessential amino acids are those that the body can produce on its own, so they do not need to be obtained from the diet. In contrast, essential amino acids cannot be produced by the body and must be obtained from food sources. Valine, leucine, and histidine are all essential amino acids, meaning they cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained from the diet.

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130. DRI

Explanation

DRI stands for dietary reference intakes, which are a set of guidelines developed by the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine. These guidelines provide recommended nutrient intakes for different age groups, genders, and life stages, taking into account various factors like age, sex, and physiological conditions. The DRI values are used to assess and plan diets for individuals and populations to ensure adequate nutrient intake and promote optimal health.

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131. Where are peptide chains broken up into tripeptides, dipeptides and amino acids? 

Explanation

In the small intestine, peptide chains are broken up into tripeptides, dipeptides, and amino acids. This is because the small intestine is the primary site for digestion and absorption of nutrients in the body. It contains enzymes called peptidases that break down peptides into smaller units, such as tripeptides and dipeptides. These smaller units are then further broken down into individual amino acids, which can be absorbed into the bloodstream and used by the body for various functions. Therefore, the small intestine plays a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of proteins.

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132. Which muscle is the stabilizer for the chest press?

Explanation

The rotator cuff is the correct answer because it is a group of muscles and tendons that surround the shoulder joint. These muscles work together to stabilize and support the shoulder during movements like the chest press. They help to keep the shoulder joint in the correct position and prevent excessive movement or injury. The anterior deltoid, triceps, and posterior deltoid are all involved in the chest press exercise, but they do not primarily function as stabilizers for the movement.

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133. A client has worked out a few times during the past few months with a personal trainer. She wants to become regularly active but isn't sure how this is accomplished. In which of the following sections of the Stages of Change model is the client?  

Explanation

The client is in the Preparation stage of the Stages of Change model. This stage is characterized by the individual intending to take action in the near future and making plans to do so. The client has already worked out a few times with a personal trainer, indicating that she has started to take some steps towards becoming regularly active. However, she may still need some guidance and support to fully transition into the Action stage.

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134. Which is not one of the three oxidative or aerobic systems?

Explanation

The question asks for the oxidative or aerobic systems, and the answer "oxidation" is not one of these systems. Oxidation refers to a chemical reaction where a substance loses electrons. While oxidation is involved in some of the aerobic systems, it is not considered one of the three main systems. The three main oxidative or aerobic systems mentioned in the other options are aerobic glycolysis, electron transport chain, and Krebs cycle, which are all involved in the production of ATP through the use of oxygen.

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135. Which of the following divisions of the nervous system is comprised of the nerves that serve the outer areas of the body and skeletal muscle and is largely responsible for the voluntary control of movement?

Explanation

The somatic division of the nervous system is responsible for voluntary control of movement and serves the outer areas of the body and skeletal muscles. This division includes the nerves that allow us to consciously control our movements and perceive sensations from our environment. The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions, on the other hand, are part of the autonomic nervous system and control involuntary functions of the body. The central division refers to the central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord.

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136. What is an example of an exercise that would be used during the stabilization level of balance training?

Explanation

An example of an exercise that would be used during the stabilization level of balance training is the single leg lift and chop. This exercise involves standing on one leg while lifting and chopping a weight across the body, challenging the stability of the core and lower body muscles. By performing this exercise, individuals can improve their balance and stability, as well as strengthen their muscles involved in maintaining balance.

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137. Which muscle is the antagonist during the chest press?

Explanation

The posterior deltoid is the correct answer because it is the muscle that acts as the antagonist during the chest press exercise. The chest press primarily targets the pectoralis major, which is the agonist muscle responsible for the main movement. The antagonist muscle, in this case, is the posterior deltoid, which acts in the opposite direction to the pectoralis major, helping to stabilize and control the movement of the exercise. The latissimus dorsi and psoas muscles are not directly involved in the chest press exercise.

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138. What are the primary responsibilities of the mechanoreceptors?

Explanation

Mechanoreceptors are sensory receptors that respond to mechanical stimuli such as pressure, touch, and vibration. They are responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues, which includes detecting changes in shape or position of the tissues. This allows them to provide information about the physical environment and the body's position in space. Sensing changes in length or tension of the muscle are specific functions of other types of receptors, such as muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs. Sensing change in rate of change in the muscles is not a primary responsibility of mechanoreceptors.

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139. What role is served by the psoas during a squat?

Explanation

The psoas muscle is responsible for flexing the hip joint, which is the opposite movement of extending the hip joint during a squat. Therefore, the psoas acts as an antagonist to the muscles that are primarily responsible for extending the hip joint, such as the glutes and hamstrings. It helps to control the speed and range of motion during the squat exercise by opposing the actions of these muscles.

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140. What exercise intensity and duration is recommended when initially training a client with cancer?

Explanation

When initially training a client with cancer, it is recommended to start with a low to moderate intensity for a moderate duration. This approach ensures that the exercise is not too intense or overwhelming for the client, while still providing enough stimulus to promote health and fitness benefits. Moderate duration allows for an adequate amount of time for the client to adapt to the exercise and gradually build endurance. This approach strikes a balance between intensity and duration, promoting a safe and effective exercise program for individuals with cancer.

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141. The main function of the gluteus medius is...

Explanation

The gluteus medius is primarily responsible for hip abduction, which is the movement of the leg away from the midline of the body. This muscle is located on the outer side of the hip and plays a crucial role in stabilizing the pelvis during activities such as walking, running, and standing on one leg. Hip abduction is important for maintaining balance and proper alignment of the body.

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142. Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise?

Explanation

The multiplanar step-up to balance is considered a balance-strength exercise because it requires stability and strength to perform. This exercise involves stepping up onto an elevated platform while maintaining balance and control. It targets the muscles of the lower body, particularly the legs and core, while also challenging balance and coordination. By incorporating multiple planes of movement, this exercise helps improve overall stability and strength in a functional manner.

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143. Which phase of the OPT model uses functional flexibility?

Explanation

Phase 5 of the OPT model uses functional flexibility.

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144. Which chest exercise is appropriate for a client training in phase 1 of the OPT model?

Explanation

The bench press is the most appropriate chest exercise for a client training in phase 1 of the OPT model because it is a fundamental compound movement that targets the pectoral muscles effectively. In phase 1, the focus is on building a solid foundation of strength and stability, and the bench press allows for controlled and stable movements while engaging multiple muscle groups. The medicine ball chest pass, stability ball DB chest press, and speed bench press may be more advanced exercises that are introduced in later phases of the OPT model.

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145. Which of the following muscle would be lengthened in a client with upper crossed syndrome?

Explanation

The serratus anterior muscle would be lengthened in a client with upper crossed syndrome. Upper crossed syndrome is characterized by tightness in the muscles of the chest and upper back, including the pectoralis major and minor, and the upper trapezius and levator scapulae. These tight muscles pull the shoulders forward and cause a rounded posture. To counteract this, the serratus anterior muscle, which is responsible for stabilizing the scapulae and pulling them back, needs to be lengthened and strengthened.

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146. When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

Explanation

When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on the Psoas muscle. The Psoas muscle is a primary hip flexor and is responsible for bending the hip joint and bringing the thigh towards the abdomen. Internally rotating the rear leg in this stretch increases the tension and stretch on the Psoas muscle, helping to improve flexibility and range of motion in the hip flexors.

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147. Which of the following is a lengthened muscle in the upper crossed syndrome?

Explanation

The teres minor is a lengthened muscle in the upper crossed syndrome. Upper crossed syndrome is a postural imbalance that involves tightness in the muscles of the chest and upper back, and weakness in the muscles of the neck and shoulder blades. In this syndrome, the teres minor muscle, which is located in the shoulder, becomes lengthened and weak due to the imbalance between the tight and weak muscles. This can lead to shoulder pain and dysfunction.

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148. What are osteoclasts?

Explanation

Osteoclasts are a type of cell that remove old bone tissue. They are responsible for breaking down and resorbing bone, allowing for the remodeling and renewal of bone tissue. This process is important for maintaining bone health and strength, as it allows for the removal of damaged or worn-out bone and the replacement with new bone tissue.

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149. Which muscle functions as the antagonist during the overhead press?

Explanation

During the overhead press, the deltoid muscle is the primary muscle responsible for lifting the weight overhead. However, the triceps muscle acts as the antagonist during this movement. The triceps muscle is located at the back of the upper arm and works to extend the elbow joint. As the deltoid contracts to lift the weight, the triceps lengthen and relax to allow the movement to occur smoothly. The latissimus dorsi and posterior deltoid muscles are not directly involved in the overhead press movement, making them incorrect options.

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150. During balance training, what is an example of a progression when it comes to body position?

Explanation

During balance training, a progression in body position refers to advancing from a more stable position to a less stable position. In this case, the correct answer suggests that the progression starts with standing on a single leg in a stable position and then progresses to standing on both legs in an unstable position. This progression challenges the body's balance and stability by gradually increasing the difficulty level, allowing for gradual improvement in balance and coordination.

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151. When there is joint dysfunction, what are the effects of this dysfunction, in order?

Explanation

Joint dysfunction refers to a problem or impairment in the normal functioning of a joint. This dysfunction can lead to muscle inhibition, where the muscles surrounding the joint become weak or unable to function properly. As a result, this can increase the risk of joint injury. Swelling may occur as a consequence of the joint dysfunction and injury. Finally, altered proprioception, which is the body's ability to sense the position and movement of the joints, can be affected due to the dysfunction and injury.

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152. Which of the following muscles is part of the movement system of the core?

Explanation

The lattissimus dorsi muscle is part of the movement system of the core. It is a large muscle located in the back and is responsible for several movements including shoulder extension, adduction, and medial rotation. While it is not directly part of the deep core muscles, it plays a role in stabilizing the core during certain movements and exercises. The internal oblique, transversus abdominis, and lumbar multifidus are all deep core muscles that are directly involved in stabilizing and supporting the spine and pelvis.

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153. If an individual is training in the stabilization level of the OPT model how many reps would be performed on each side for the single leg lift and chop exercise?

Explanation

In the stabilization level of the OPT model, the focus is on improving balance and stability. The single leg lift and chop exercise is designed to challenge these aspects. Performing 6-10 reps on each side ensures that the individual is able to maintain proper form and control throughout the exercise, which is crucial for stability training. This rep range allows for enough repetitions to provide a stimulus for improvement, while also preventing fatigue and loss of form.

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Which of the following terms defines the concept used when the...
Which of the following is classified as a carbohydrate?
The external obliques are responsible for
Which bones comprise the respiratory pump?
A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders...
What best describes flexion?
A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively...
A client wishes to increase muscular endurance and stabilization....
If an individual has an overactive hip flexor complex and abdominal...
During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that...
A personal trainer is working with a client who has weight-loss goals....
During an overhead squat assessment you notice that the client's...
A client has been training three times per week in the hypertrophy...
What is the isolated function of the biceps brachii?
Which exercise occurs predominantly in the saggital plane?
Which of the following is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for...
What part of the vertebral column is best known as the tailbone?
Which of the following supersets is appropriate for a client training...
Arterioles branch out into a multitude of microscopic blood...
During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the...
If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the...
What role does the sarcomere play for the muscular system?
A personal trainer is working with a client who is having trouble...
Which of these is not a muscle trained in the seated cable row...
In which of the following structures is oxygen, nutrients, hormones,...
What is the name of the reflex that helps to maintain the eyes on a...
From top to bottom, what are the five sections of the vertebrae?
Which of the following is an example of a force-couple relationship?
A client is performing side lateral raises with dumbbells while...
What is the recommended intensity and rest interval for resistance...
What do arteries do for the cardiorespiratory system?
During a client's postural assessment, he exhibits pronation...
Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the...
Triple extension of the back leg while sprinting includes
A healthy total cholesterol level is:
A personal trainer observes a client's knees moving inward while...
During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following...
Which of the following energy systems will be stressed the most when a...
What most closely describes a sesamoid bone?
During a single leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices his...
A trainer is working with a senior client. The trainer should be aware...
Which of the following is the correct position of the wrists during...
What type of bone is the vertebrae considered?
If a diabetic client has peripheral neuropathy, which of the...
Thermic effect of food (TEF) accounts for what percentage of total...
What is the appropriate regression of the prone iso-ab exercise?
What best describes the function of agonist muscles?
Which of the following is directly associated with the lifting portion...
When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following...
When making a circumference measurement of the thigh...
What most accurately describes an extension movement?
Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs...
What is an effect that exercise has on insulin and glucagon?
The active extension of a muscle, using force production and momentum,...
What is the isolated function of the TFL?
What is it called when the shoulder blades move away from the midline?
Contracting the quadriceps while performing a hamstring stretch will...
What is the proper formula to calculate a client's BMI?
A personal trainer suggests that his client increase her heart rate up...
A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in...
Which of the following is an example of an extension movement?
Which of the following is an example of a second class lever?
Which of the following is an example of a third class lever?
What is the main difference between synovial joints and non synovial...
What most accurately explains the function of glucagon?
Which of the following is a physiologic adaptation a client...
A client performs two repetitions of a bench press exercise with 130...
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes type II muscle...
Which of the following is not one of the benefits of maximal strength...
Which part of the body is the fibula?
Which muscle functions as the stabilizer when performing a squat?
Which muscle is the agonist for the chest press?
Which of the following medications is generally prescribed for clients...
Because of a lack of insulin in Type 1 diabetes, blood sugar is not...
The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the...
It is designed to improve muscle imbalances and altered joint motion....
Resting oxygen consumption is approx.:
Your client is 50 years old and has a resting heart rate of 80. ...
In which phase(s) of the OPT model is active flexibility appropriate?
Which of the following injuries is most often associated with...
A client exhibits increased lumbar extension while performing a...
What most closely describes tendons?
A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy phase of the...
Which of the following is a plyometric-power exercise?
Which of the following is the best example of a stabilization level...
What best describes sensory function?
A condition characterized by narrowing of the major arteries that are...
Which of the following is a correct training strategy for a client who...
What best describes the atriovenricular (AV) node?
What does the integrated performance paradigm state?
The Rockport Walk Test is used to determine which of the following?
During the medical history portion of a PAR-Q, a client tells the...
As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability...
What type of movement is taking place when the arm or thigh moves from...
A client is performing a standard push-up and the trainer notes a...
What is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome?
Which of the following is an example of a first class lever?
Which form of stretching should be used to decrease muscle spindle...
A rest interval of 40 seconds between sets of resistance exercise will...
What is the process by which neural impulses sensing tension are...
Which is not an example of or associated with proper body mechanics...
An excess of which of the following vitamins may cause complications...
Dysfunctional breathing results in an increase in the activity level...
The gluteus maximus functions as what type of muscle during the squat?
In order to most effectively target the tensor fascia latae during the...
What best describes what sensory neurons do?
What is the process of diffusion?
What best describes gluconeogenesis?
What are the three phases of plyometric exercise, in order?
What most accurately defines osteopenia?
Where is the origin of the pectoralis major?
Which of the following terms describes the connective tissue that...
Which are the probable underactive muscles when the low back arches...
Which strengthening exercise should be used if an individual...
A personal trainer is working with a client who has hypertension....
Which type of joint is named as such because it has a joint cavity?
What best defines arteriosclerosis?
What is the proper sequence when designing a core training program?
The neuromuscular response to sensory information is known as what?
If a client compensates with an excessive forward lean during the...
What are the probable overactive muscles when the low back arches...
Which of the following exercises is a dynamic stretch?
During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices her client...
While performing the overhead squat assessment, the personal trainer...
What are the names of the main endocrine glands?
The proper balance progression to increase a client's proprioception...
When performing the static latissimus dorsi ball stretch, which of the...
During which phase(s) of training would performing back extensions be...
Which of the following amino acids is nonessential?
DRI
Where are peptide chains broken up into tripeptides, dipeptides and...
Which muscle is the stabilizer for the chest press?
A client has worked out a few times during the past few months with a...
Which is not one of the three oxidative or aerobic systems?
Which of the following divisions of the nervous system is comprised of...
What is an example of an exercise that would be used during the...
Which muscle is the antagonist during the chest press?
What are the primary responsibilities of the mechanoreceptors?
What role is served by the psoas during a squat?
What exercise intensity and duration is recommended when initially...
The main function of the gluteus medius is...
Which of the following is a balance-strength exercise?
Which phase of the OPT model uses functional flexibility?
Which chest exercise is appropriate for a client training in phase 1...
Which of the following muscle would be lengthened in a client...
When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally...
Which of the following is a lengthened muscle in the upper crossed...
What are osteoclasts?
Which muscle functions as the antagonist during the overhead press?
During balance training, what is an example of a progression when it...
When there is joint dysfunction, what are the effects of this...
Which of the following muscles is part of the movement system of the...
If an individual is training in the stabilization level of the OPT...
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