Exam Prep CPT 4

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  • 1/153 Questions

    Which of the following terms defines the concept used when the hamstrings, quadriceps, and gluteus maximus are recruited as a functional unit to perform a squat?

    • Muscle fiber arrangement
    • Muscle hypertrophy
    • Muscle synergy
    • Muscle action spectrum
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About This Quiz

Exam Prep CPT 4 focuses on key aspects of exercise science, particularly muscle physiology and biomechanics. It assesses understanding of muscle fiber types, force-couple relationships, and the impact of biomechanical principles like the force-velocity curve on training effectiveness.

Exam Prep CPT 4 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is classified as a carbohydrate?

    • Insulin

    • Monosaccharide

    • Cholecystokinin

    • Phenylalanine

    Correct Answer
    A. Monosaccharide
    Explanation
    Monosaccharide is classified as a carbohydrate because it is the simplest form of sugar and is composed of a single sugar molecule. Carbohydrates are organic compounds that provide energy to the body and are essential for various biological processes. Insulin, Cholecystokinin, and Phenylalanine are not carbohydrates. Insulin is a hormone, Cholecystokinin is a peptide hormone, and Phenylalanine is an amino acid.

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  • 3. 

    The external obliques are responsible for

    • Spinal flexion

    • Spinal extension

    • Spinal rotation

    • Scapular depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Spinal rotation
    Explanation
    The external obliques are responsible for spinal rotation. These muscles are located on the sides of the abdomen and play a crucial role in rotating the spine. When the external obliques contract, they help to twist the torso and rotate the spine to the side. This movement is important for activities such as swinging a golf club or throwing a ball, where rotational force is required.

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  • 4. 

    Which bones comprise the respiratory pump?

    • Femur, tibia, fibula

    • Sternum, ribs, vertebrae

    • Scapulae, clavicle, humerus

    • Talus, calcaneus, ulna

    Correct Answer
    A. Sternum, ribs, vertebrae
    Explanation
    The bones that comprise the respiratory pump are the sternum, ribs, and vertebrae. These bones work together to facilitate the movement of air in and out of the lungs during breathing. The sternum provides support and protection for the organs in the chest, while the ribs attach to the sternum and help expand the chest cavity. The vertebrae support the ribcage and allow for movement and flexibility in the spine, which is important for proper breathing mechanics.

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  • 5. 

    A client is performing a standing cable row with her shoulders elevated. The trainer should encourage the client to

    • Depress her shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.

    • Perform scapular winging to increase activation of the rhomboids

    • Internally rotate the humerus to activate the lower trapezius.

    • Slightly arch the lower back to stabilize the trunk and rotator cuff.

    Correct Answer
    A. Depress her shoulder blades to activate the scapular retractors.
    Explanation
    When performing a standing cable row with elevated shoulders, the client should be encouraged to depress her shoulder blades. This helps to activate the scapular retractors, which are muscles responsible for pulling the shoulder blades down and back. This movement helps to stabilize the shoulder girdle and promote proper posture during the exercise. Scapular winging, internally rotating the humerus, and arching the lower back are not appropriate cues for this exercise and may lead to incorrect form and potential injury.

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  • 6. 

    What best describes flexion?

    • A straightening movement during which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases

    • A bending movement during which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases

    • Movement away from the body

    • Movement toward the midline of the body

    Correct Answer
    A. A bending movement during which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases
    Explanation
    Flexion is a bending movement that decreases the relative angle between two adjacent segments. It is the opposite of extension, which is a straightening movement that increases the relative angle between two adjacent segments. Flexion usually occurs in the sagittal plane and is commonly seen in joints such as the elbow, knee, and spine. It allows for movement and brings body parts closer together.

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  • 7. 

    A client wishes to increase muscular endurance and stabilization. Which of the following acute variables is most appropriate?

    • Three repetitions at 90% of 1RM intensity

    • Six repetitions at 80% of 1RM intensity

    • 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity

    • 10 repetitions at 40% of 1RM intensity

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity
    Explanation
    Muscular endurance is best developed by performing a higher number of repetitions at a lower intensity. The option of 12 repetitions at 70% of 1RM intensity aligns with this goal as it combines a moderate intensity with a higher number of repetitions, which promotes muscular endurance and stabilization.

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  • 8. 

    During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles would he expect to be shortened?

    • Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major

    • Lower trapezius and rhomboids

    • Teres minor and posterior deltoid

    • Serratus anterior and infraspinatus

    Correct Answer
    A. Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major
    Explanation
    During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. This posture is commonly associated with a rounded upper back and a tight chest. The sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major muscles are responsible for the protraction of the shoulders and the forward head position. When these muscles are tight and shortened, they can pull the shoulders forward and contribute to poor posture. Therefore, it is expected that in this case, the sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major muscles would be shortened.

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  • 9. 

    A personal trainer is working with a client who has weight-loss goals. Which of the following training strategies should the client follow to maximize caloric expenditure?

    • Seated isolated muscle exercises performed in stable environments

    • Standing compound muscle exercises performed with short rest periods

    • Seated isolated muscle exercises performed in unstable environments

    • Standing compound muscle exercises performed with long rest periods

    Correct Answer
    A. Standing compound muscle exercises performed with short rest periods
    Explanation
    To maximize caloric expenditure, the client should follow standing compound muscle exercises performed with short rest periods. Compound exercises engage multiple muscle groups simultaneously, leading to a higher energy expenditure compared to isolated muscle exercises. Standing exercises also require more stability and engagement of core muscles, resulting in increased calorie burn. Short rest periods keep the heart rate elevated and maintain a higher level of intensity throughout the workout, further enhancing caloric expenditure.

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  • 10. 

    A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Based on this observation, the appropriate action is to

    • Self-myofascial release the medial hamstrings, hip extensor complex, and erector spinae.

    • Static stretch the soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex.

    • Self-myofascial release the anterior tibialis, gracilis, and sartorius.

    • Static stretch the anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, and erector spinae.

    Correct Answer
    A. Static stretch the soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex.
    Explanation
    The client leaning forward excessively during an overhead squat indicates tightness in the posterior chain muscles, including the calf muscles (soleus and gastrocnemius), hip flexor complex, and abdominal complex. Static stretching these muscles will help improve their flexibility and reduce the forward lean during the squat, allowing for better form and alignment. Self-myofascial release and static stretching of other muscles mentioned in the options are not appropriate based on the observation of the client's forward lean.

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  • 11. 

    If an individual has an overactive hip flexor complex and abdominal complex, which compensation(s) will most likely take place during a squat assessment?

    • Excessive forward lean or low back arch

    • Feet turn out or knees move inward

    • Arms fall forward

    • Shoulders elevate or head protrudes

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive forward lean or low back arch
    Explanation
    When an individual has an overactive hip flexor complex and abdominal complex, these muscles tend to pull the pelvis into anterior tilt, causing excessive lumbar extension (low back arch) and decreasing the ability to stabilize the core. This can result in compensations during a squat assessment, such as excessive forward lean, as the individual tries to maintain balance and compensate for the lack of core stability. Therefore, the correct answer is excessive forward lean or low back arch.

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  • 12. 

    A client has been training three times per week in the hypertrophy phase for the last two weeks. He has worked with a repetition range of 8 to 12 repetitions, at an intensity of 80% to 85%, and rested for 20 to 30 seconds in between each exercise. He is no longer improving his strength and has expressed feeling fatigued. Which of the following modifications should be made to minimize the effects of overtraining?

    • 15 repetitions, 100% intensity, and rest for 3 minutes in between each exercise

    • 5 repetitions, 90% intensity, and rest for 20 seconds in between each exercise

    • 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise

    • 3 repetitions, 95% intensity, and rest for 30 seconds in between each exercise

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise
    Explanation
    The client is experiencing fatigue and a plateau in strength gains, indicating that they may be overtraining. To minimize the effects of overtraining, it is important to decrease the intensity and increase the rest time. The option of 8 repetitions, 75% intensity, and rest for 60 seconds in between each exercise provides a slightly lower intensity and a longer rest period, allowing the client's body to recover better and reduce fatigue. This modification will help prevent further overtraining and potentially improve strength gains.

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  • 13. 

    During an overhead squat assessment you notice that the client's lower back arches.  This could be due to an overactive...

    • Soleus

    • Sartorius

    • Rhomboid

    • Hip flexor complex

    Correct Answer
    A. Hip flexor complex
    Explanation
    During an overhead squat assessment, if the client's lower back arches, it suggests that the hip flexor complex is overactive. The hip flexor complex consists of several muscles, including the psoas major, iliacus, and rectus femoris. When these muscles are tight or overactive, they can pull the pelvis into an anterior tilt, causing excessive arching of the lower back. This can lead to poor movement patterns and potential lower back pain. Stretching and releasing the hip flexor complex can help alleviate this issue.

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  • 14. 

    What is the isolated function of the biceps brachii?

    • Concentrically accelerating elbow extension, supination of the radioulnar joint, and shoulder flexion

    • Concentrically accelerates shoulder external rotation

    • Eccentrically decelerating scapular retraction

    • Isometrically stabilizes the clavicle

    Correct Answer
    A. Concentrically accelerating elbow extension, supination of the radioulnar joint, and shoulder flexion
    Explanation
    The biceps brachii muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating elbow extension, supination of the radioulnar joint, and shoulder flexion. This means that when the muscle contracts, it helps to extend the elbow joint, rotate the forearm to face upwards (supination), and flex the shoulder joint. It does not have any isolated function related to shoulder external rotation, scapular retraction, or stabilizing the clavicle.

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  • 15. 

    Which exercise occurs predominantly in the saggital plane?

    • Biceps curl

    • Hip abduction

    • Side lateral raise

    • Ice skater

    Correct Answer
    A. Biceps curl
    Explanation
    The biceps curl exercise occurs predominantly in the sagittal plane. This is because the movement of the exercise involves flexion and extension of the elbow joint, which is primarily in the sagittal plane. The other exercises mentioned, hip abduction, side lateral raise, and ice skater, involve movements in different planes such as frontal and transverse planes.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for daily protein intake?

    • 1.4 g/kg

    • 2.0 g/kg

    • 0.8 g/kg

    • 1.0 g/kg

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.8 g/kg
    Explanation
    The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for daily protein intake is 0.8 g/kg. This means that for every kilogram of body weight, it is recommended to consume 0.8 grams of protein per day. Protein is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in building and repairing tissues, producing enzymes and hormones, and supporting a healthy immune system. Meeting the RDA for protein intake ensures that the body has an adequate supply of this nutrient to support its various functions.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following supersets is appropriate for a client training in Phase 5 of the OPT™ model?

    • Barbell squat superset with a squat jump

    • Bench press superset with a dumbbell chest press

    • Barbell squat superset with a single leg squat

    • Bench press superset with a stability ball push up

    Correct Answer
    A. Barbell squat superset with a squat jump
    Explanation
    In Phase 5 of the OPT model, the focus is on power and strength. The combination of a barbell squat and a squat jump is appropriate because it targets the lower body muscles, specifically the quadriceps, hamstrings, and glutes, which are important for power and strength development. The barbell squat is a compound exercise that works multiple muscle groups, while the squat jump is a plyometric exercise that improves explosive power. By combining these two exercises in a superset, the client can maximize their power and strength gains.

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  • 18. 

    What part of the vertebral column is best known as the tailbone?

    • Coccyx

    • Thoracic spine

    • Sacrum

    • Lumbar spine

    Correct Answer
    A. Coccyx
    Explanation
    The part of the vertebral column that is best known as the tailbone is the coccyx. The coccyx is a small triangular bone located at the bottom of the vertebral column, consisting of three to five fused vertebrae. It is commonly referred to as the tailbone because it is the remnant of a tail that our ancestors once had. The coccyx serves as an attachment point for various muscles and ligaments and provides support for sitting.

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  • 19. 

    During a 40-yard dash, the hamstring complex begins to do most of the work for a weakened gluteus maximus. This is an example of which of the following concepts?

    • Force-couple relationships

    • Length-tension relationships

    • Synergistic dominance

    • Arthrokinematic dysfunction

    Correct Answer
    A. Synergistic dominance
    Explanation
    Synergistic dominance refers to the phenomenon where a muscle group takes over the function of another muscle group that is weak or inhibited. In this case, the weakened gluteus maximus is unable to perform its role effectively during the 40-yard dash, so the hamstring complex compensates by doing most of the work. This demonstrates synergistic dominance, where one muscle group compensates for the weakness or dysfunction of another muscle group.

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  • 20. 

    If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead-squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be stretched during the client's warm-up?

    • Hip flexor complex

    • Posterior tibialis

    • Anterior tibialis

    • Hamstring complex

    Correct Answer
    A. Hip flexor complex
    Explanation
    If a client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during the overhead-squat assessment, it indicates tightness or weakness in the hip flexor complex. The hip flexor complex includes muscles such as the psoas major, iliacus, and rectus femoris, which are responsible for flexing the hip joint. Stretching these muscles during the client's warm-up can help improve their flexibility and range of motion, allowing them to maintain a more upright posture during the squat. This can also help prevent compensations and potential injuries.

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  • 21. 

    Arterioles branch out into a multitude of microscopic blood vessels known as:

    • Capillaries

    • Venules

    • Veins

    • Veins

    Correct Answer
    A. Capillaries
    Explanation
    Arterioles are small branches of arteries that lead to capillaries. Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels in the body, where the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products occurs between the blood and surrounding tissues. Therefore, the correct answer is capillaries.

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  • 22. 

    A personal trainer is working with a client who is having trouble performing a single-leg balance on a foam pad. Which of the following balance training modalities is appropriate for this client?

    • A half foam roll

    • Balance disk

    • BOSU ball

    • A wobble board

    Correct Answer
    A. A half foam roll
    Explanation
    A half foam roll is the appropriate balance training modality for a client who is having trouble performing a single-leg balance on a foam pad. A half foam roll provides a less unstable surface compared to a foam pad, allowing the client to work on their balance and stability while still providing some support. This can help the client progress gradually and build their confidence before transitioning to a more unstable surface like a balance disk, BOSU ball, or wobble board.

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  • 23. 

    What role does the sarcomere play for the muscular system?

    • Produces muscular contraction

    • Attach muscles to bone

    • Transmits electrical impulses from the nerve to the muscle

    • Absorbs nutrients that are digested

    Correct Answer
    A. Produces muscular contraction
    Explanation
    The sarcomere plays a crucial role in the muscular system as it is responsible for producing muscular contraction. It is the basic functional unit of a muscle and consists of overlapping actin and myosin filaments. When the muscle contracts, these filaments slide past each other, causing the sarcomere to shorten and resulting in the overall contraction of the muscle. This contraction allows for movement and the generation of force in the body.

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  • 24. 

    Which of these is not a muscle trained in the seated cable row exercise?

    • Pectorals

    • Mid trap

    • Lower trap

    • Lattissimus dorsi

    Correct Answer
    A. Pectorals
    Explanation
    The pectorals are not trained in the seated cable row exercise. This exercise primarily targets the muscles of the back, including the mid trap, lower trap, and lattissimus dorsi. The pectorals are primarily worked in exercises such as chest presses and flyes.

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  • 25. 

    In which of the following structures is oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste exchanged between tissues?

    • Capillaries

    • Venules

    • Sinoatrial Node

    • Atrioventricular node

    Correct Answer
    A. Capillaries
    Explanation
    Capillaries are small blood vessels that connect arteries and veins. They have thin walls which allow for the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products between the blood and surrounding tissues. Oxygen and nutrients are delivered to the tissues, while waste products such as carbon dioxide are removed. Capillaries are highly branched and their large surface area facilitates efficient exchange. Venules, on the other hand, are small veins that collect blood from the capillaries and transport it back to the heart. The sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node are specialized cells in the heart that regulate its electrical activity and do not play a direct role in the exchange of substances between tissues.

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  • 26. 

    From top to bottom, what are the five sections of the vertebrae?

    • Cervical spine, lumbar spine, thoracic spine, sacrum, coccyx

    • Cervical spine, sacrum, lumbar spine, thoracic spine, coccyx

    • Cervical spine, lumbar spine, sacrum, thoracic spine, coccyx

    • Cervical spine, thoracic spine, lumbar spine, sacrum, coccyx

    Correct Answer
    A. Cervical spine, thoracic spine, lumbar spine, sacrum, coccyx
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "cervical spine, thoracic spine, lumbar spine, sacrum, coccyx". This is the correct order of the five sections of the vertebrae from top to bottom. The cervical spine is located at the top of the spine and consists of seven vertebrae. The thoracic spine is in the middle and consists of twelve vertebrae. The lumbar spine is below the thoracic spine and consists of five vertebrae. The sacrum is a triangular bone below the lumbar spine and is made up of five fused vertebrae. The coccyx, also known as the tailbone, is located at the very bottom of the spine and consists of four fused vertebrae.

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  • 27. 

    What is the name of the reflex that helps to maintain the eyes on a level plane?

    • Stretch reflex

    • Patellar reflex

    • Lumbo pelvix reflex

    • Pelvo-ocular reflex

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvo-ocular reflex
    Explanation
    The pelvo-ocular reflex is the correct answer because it refers to the reflex that helps maintain the eyes on a level plane. This reflex is responsible for adjusting the position of the eyes in response to changes in the orientation of the head or body. It ensures that the eyes remain level and aligned with the horizon, allowing for clear vision and balance.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is an example of a force-couple relationship?

    • The resting length of a muscle and the tension the muscle can produce at this resting length

    • The interaction between two entities that results in either acceleration or deceleration of an object

    • The ability of muscles to produce tension at different shortening velocities

    • The effect of muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint

    Correct Answer
    A. The effect of muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint
    Explanation
    The given answer, "The effect of muscle groups moving together to produce movement around a joint," is an example of a force-couple relationship. In this relationship, multiple muscles work together to create a movement around a joint. These muscles produce forces in different directions, but their combined effect results in a coordinated movement. This type of relationship is commonly seen in activities that require complex movements, such as throwing a ball or performing a gymnastic routine.

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  • 29. 

    A client is performing side lateral raises with dumbbells while bending his elbows 45°. The client can increase the amount of torque placed on the deltoids by doing which of the following?

    • Bend the elbows 90 degrees

    • Increase shoulder elevation

    • Reduce shoulder abduction

    • Keep the arms straight

    Correct Answer
    A. Keep the arms straight
    Explanation
    Keeping the arms straight during side lateral raises with dumbbells increases the amount of torque placed on the deltoids. When the arms are straight, the lever arm is longer, resulting in a greater torque on the deltoids. This increases the challenge and workload on the deltoids, making the exercise more effective in targeting and strengthening those muscles.

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  • 30. 

    What is the recommended intensity and rest interval for resistance training in Phase 4 of the OPT model?

    • 50-70%, 90s rest

    • 85-100%, 1-2 minutes rest

    • 75-85%, 3-5 minutes rest

    • 85-100%, 3-5 minutes rest

    Correct Answer
    A. 85-100%, 3-5 minutes rest
    Explanation
    In Phase 4 of the OPT model, the recommended intensity for resistance training is 85-100%. This means that individuals should be lifting weights that are challenging and close to their maximum capacity. The recommended rest interval is 3-5 minutes, which allows for sufficient recovery between sets to maintain the high intensity of the workout. This combination of high intensity and longer rest periods helps to promote muscle strength and hypertrophy.

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  • 31. 

    What do arteries do for the cardiorespiratory system?

    • Exchange chemicals and water between the blood and the tissues

    • Transport blood from the capillaries to the heart

    • Transport blood away from the heart

    • Connect capillaries to the larger veins

    Correct Answer
    A. Transport blood away from the heart
    Explanation
    Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to various parts of the body. They play a crucial role in the cardiorespiratory system by delivering oxygen and nutrients to the tissues and organs. This helps maintain the overall functioning of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "transport blood away from the heart."

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  • 32. 

    During a client's postural assessment, he exhibits pronation distortion syndrome. Which of the following static stretching techniques is most appropriate to lengthen his short muscles?

    • Erector spinae

    • Pectoral

    • Gastrocnemius

    • Scalene

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastrocnemius
    Explanation
    The client exhibits pronation distortion syndrome, which is characterized by an excessive inward rolling of the foot. The gastrocnemius muscle, located in the calf, is commonly tight and shortened in individuals with this syndrome. Stretching the gastrocnemius can help lengthen the muscle and improve the client's posture. Therefore, the most appropriate static stretching technique to address the client's short muscles would be to stretch the gastrocnemius.

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  • 33. 

    Triple extension of the back leg while sprinting includes

    • Hip flexion

    • Ankle dorsiflexion

    • Ankle plantarflexion

    • Knee flexion

    Correct Answer
    A. Ankle plantarflexion
    Explanation
    During sprinting, the triple extension of the back leg refers to the simultaneous extension of the hip, knee, and ankle joints. Ankle plantarflexion specifically involves the movement of pointing the toes downwards, which helps to generate more power and propel the body forward during the push-off phase of the sprinting stride. This movement allows for a greater transfer of force from the leg muscles to the ground, resulting in increased speed and efficiency in sprinting.

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  • 34. 

    A personal trainer observes a client's knees moving inward while performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following muscles are probably underactive?

    • Lateral gastrocnemius and soleus

    • Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus

    • Biceps femoris (short head) and tensor fascia latae (TFL)

    • Adductor complex and vastus lateralis

    Correct Answer
    A. Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus
    Explanation
    When the knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment, it indicates a lack of stability in the hip area. The gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are responsible for maintaining proper alignment and stability of the hips. If these muscles are underactive, it can lead to the knees collapsing inward. Therefore, the underactivity of the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus is the likely cause of the observed knee movement.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following best describes a function of lipids in the body?

    • A precursor to hormone production

    • A catalyst for high-intensity, short-duration exercise

    • A source of bulk to the diet

    • A source of nitrogen for building nonessential amino acids

    Correct Answer
    A. A precursor to hormone production
    Explanation
    Lipids in the body serve as a precursor to hormone production. Hormones are chemical messengers that regulate various physiological processes in the body, including growth, metabolism, and reproduction. Lipids, such as cholesterol, are used to synthesize hormones like estrogen, testosterone, and cortisol. These hormones play crucial roles in maintaining homeostasis and carrying out essential functions in the body. Therefore, lipids act as a precursor for hormone production, rather than serving as a catalyst for exercise, a source of bulk in the diet, or a source of nitrogen for building nonessential amino acids.

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  • 36. 

    During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?

    • Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion

    • Ankle inversion, knee abduction, and hip external rotation

    • Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension

    • Ankle eversion, knee adduction, and hip internal rotation

    Correct Answer
    A. Ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, and hip extension
    Explanation
    During sprinting, the backside mechanics involve the extension of the ankle, knee, and hip joints. This means that the ankle is in a plantarflexed position (pointed downwards), the knee is fully extended (straightened), and the hip is also extended (moving the leg backwards). These motions help propel the body forward and generate power during sprinting.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following energy systems will be stressed the most when a client is jogging for 20 minutes at 65% of maximal heart rate?

    • Phosphagen

    • Oxidative

    • ATP-PC

    • Anaerobic Glycolysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxidative
    Explanation
    When a client is jogging for 20 minutes at 65% of maximal heart rate, the oxidative energy system will be stressed the most. The oxidative energy system primarily uses oxygen to produce ATP, which is the main source of energy for longer duration, lower intensity activities like jogging. This system relies on the aerobic metabolism of carbohydrates and fats to produce ATP, providing a sustained energy source for endurance activities. The other energy systems mentioned, such as the phosphagen system and anaerobic glycolysis, are more involved in shorter, high-intensity activities and would not be as stressed during a 20-minute jog at a moderate intensity.

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  • 38. 

    A healthy total cholesterol level is:

    • Between 210-220 mg dL

    • Less than 200 mg dL

    • Between 240-260 mg dL

    • Greater than 300 mg dL

    Correct Answer
    A. Less than 200 mg dL
    Explanation
    A healthy total cholesterol level is typically considered to be less than 200 mg dL. This is because high levels of cholesterol in the blood can increase the risk of heart disease and other health problems. Therefore, it is generally recommended to maintain a total cholesterol level below 200 mg dL to promote good cardiovascular health.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is the correct position of the wrists during the end phase of a barbell clean?

    • Ulnar deviation

    • Hyperflexion

    • Radial deviation

    • Hyperextension

    Correct Answer
    A. Hyperextension
    Explanation
    During the end phase of a barbell clean, the correct position of the wrists is hyperextension. This means that the wrists are extended beyond their normal range of motion, with the back of the hand moving closer to the forearm. Hyperextension of the wrists helps to maintain a secure grip on the barbell and allows for a smooth transition of the weight from the clean to the front rack position.

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  • 40. 

    During a single leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices his client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?

    • Vastus lateralis

    • Adductor brevis

    • Gluteus medius

    • Biceps femoris

    Correct Answer
    A. Gluteus medius
    Explanation
    The gluteus medius is probably underactive if the client's knee is drifting inward during a single leg squat assessment. The gluteus medius is responsible for stabilizing the pelvis and preventing excessive inward movement of the knee. If it is underactive, the client may experience poor hip stability and compensatory movements, such as knee valgus (inward drift of the knee). Strengthening the gluteus medius through specific exercises can help address this issue and improve overall lower body stability.

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  • 41. 

    A trainer is working with a senior client. The trainer should be aware of which of the following physiological characteristics?

    • Decreased risk of arteriosclerosis

    • Increase connective tissue elasticity

    • Decreased lean body mass

    • Decreased blood pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased lean body mass
    Explanation
    As individuals age, they tend to experience a decrease in lean body mass. Lean body mass refers to the weight of the body's muscles, organs, bones, and tissues, excluding fat. This decrease in lean body mass is a common physiological characteristic in older adults and is often associated with a loss of muscle mass and strength. It is important for a trainer to be aware of this because it can affect the client's ability to perform certain exercises and may require modifications to their workout routine in order to maintain or build muscle mass.

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  • 42. 

    What most closely describes a sesamoid bone?

    • Small often round bones embedded in a joint capsule

    • Unique shape and function

    • Thin, protective

    • Cubical in shape

    Correct Answer
    A. Small often round bones embedded in a joint capsule
    Explanation
    A sesamoid bone is a small, often round bone that is embedded within a joint capsule. These bones are unique in that they are located within tendons or ligaments, and their purpose is to reduce friction and provide mechanical advantage to the joint. They are typically found in areas of high stress, such as the hands and feet.

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  • 43. 

    What type of bone is the vertebrae considered?

    • Long

    • Flat

    • Sesamoid

    • Irregular

    Correct Answer
    A. Irregular
    Explanation
    The vertebrae are considered irregular bones. Unlike long bones, which have a shaft and two ends, or flat bones, which are thin and flat, the vertebrae have a complex shape with multiple projections and irregular surfaces. They are part of the axial skeleton and provide protection and support for the spinal cord.

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  • 44. 

    If a diabetic client has peripheral neuropathy, which of the following exercises should be avoided?

    • Machine chest press

    • Seated ball adductor stretch

    • Incline prone iso abs

    • Foam roll calves

    Correct Answer
    A. Foam roll calves
    Explanation
    The exercise that should be avoided for a diabetic client with peripheral neuropathy is foam roll calves. Peripheral neuropathy can cause numbness, tingling, and loss of sensation in the feet and legs. Foam rolling the calves involves applying pressure to the muscles using a foam roller, which can potentially cause further damage or injury to the already compromised nerves in the feet and legs. Therefore, it is best for the client to avoid this exercise to prevent any potential harm.

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  • 45. 

    When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?

    • External rotation of the feet

    • Low back arches

    • Arms fall forward

    • Knees move inward

    Correct Answer
    A. External rotation of the feet
    Explanation
    External rotation of the feet during an overhead squat is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius. The lateral gastrocnemius is one of the muscles in the calf, and when it is overactive, it can cause the feet to turn outward during the squat movement. This can lead to imbalances and compensations in the lower body, affecting the alignment and stability of the squat. Therefore, external rotation of the feet is a sign that the lateral gastrocnemius is working too hard during the exercise.

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  • 46. 

    Thermic effect of food (TEF) accounts for what percentage of total energy expenditure?

    • 6% to 10%

    • 11% to 15%

    • 21% to 25%

    • 16% to 20%

    Correct Answer
    A. 6% to 10%
    Explanation
    The thermic effect of food (TEF) refers to the energy expenditure required for the digestion, absorption, and processing of food. It accounts for approximately 6% to 10% of total energy expenditure. This means that when we consume food, our body uses a small percentage of the calories from that food to break it down and utilize it, while the rest is stored or used for other bodily functions. This energy expenditure is a natural process that occurs in the body after eating and contributes to overall energy balance.

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  • 47. 

    When making a circumference measurement of the thigh...

    • Measure at the thickest part of the thigh

    • Measure just above the knee

    • Measure 10 inches above the top of the patella for standardization

    • Measure 2 inches below the hip

    Correct Answer
    A. Measure 10 inches above the top of the patella for standardization
    Explanation
    To ensure standardization in circumference measurements of the thigh, it is recommended to measure 10 inches above the top of the patella. This specific location is chosen as it allows for consistent and comparable measurements across different individuals. By measuring at this specific point, variations in thigh size and shape can be accounted for, providing more accurate and reliable data for analysis or comparison purposes.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is directly associated with the lifting portion of a resistance exercise?

    • Isometric muscle action

    • Eccentric muscle action

    • Isokinetic muscle action

    • Concentric muscle action

    Correct Answer
    A. Concentric muscle action
    Explanation
    Concentric muscle action refers to the phase of a resistance exercise where the muscle shortens as it generates force to lift a weight. This is the portion of the exercise where the muscle contracts and overcomes the resistance. Isometric muscle action refers to a static contraction where the muscle generates force without changing length. Eccentric muscle action refers to the phase where the muscle lengthens while generating force, often during the lowering phase of an exercise. Isokinetic muscle action refers to a type of muscle contraction where the muscle shortens at a constant speed throughout the range of motion.

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  • 49. 

    What best describes the function of agonist muscles?

    • Opposing prime movers

    • Assisting prime movers

    • Act as prime movers

    • Stabilized prime movers

    Correct Answer
    A. Act as prime movers
    Explanation
    Agonist muscles are the primary muscles responsible for creating a specific movement or action. They contract and generate force to produce the desired movement. Therefore, the statement "act as prime movers" best describes the function of agonist muscles.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 04, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Ambrose.laney

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