EWAN Practice Exam Quiz!
EWAN is a free telnet product that you can use with Windows 95 or Windows 3.1. It is a Winsock application. If you are using dial-up, you must first establish Windows 95 PPP or Windows 3.1 Trumpet Winsock. If the computer links through Ethernet set up Windows 95 TCP/IP, and then download the software. This quiz is all about EWAN. Don’t neglect to claim your certificate when you have finished.
- 1.
Which two statements are true about IPv6 link-local addresses?
- A.
They begin with the 2000::/3 prefix.
- B.
They begin with the FE80::/10 prefix.
- C.
They must be manually configured by the administrator.
- D.
They are assigned to a host by a stateless autoconfiguration process.
Correct Answer(s)
B. They begin with the FE80::/10 prefix.
D. They are assigned to a host by a stateless autoconfiguration process.Explanation
IPv6 link-local addresses are used for communication within a single network segment and begin with the FE80::/10 prefix. These addresses are automatically assigned to a host by a stateless autoconfiguration process, eliminating the need for manual configuration by the administrator.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
- A.
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
- B.
The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
- C.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
- D.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.
Correct Answer
B. The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.Explanation
The most likely problem with the RIPng configuration is that the RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces. This means that the routers are not actively participating in the RIPng routing protocol and therefore not learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. Enabling the RIPng process on the interfaces would allow the routers to exchange routing information and learn about the LAN network.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with EIGRP in the same autonomous system. Computers PC1 and PC2 are not able to ping each other. Further investigation has revealed that the route to 192.168.10.0 is missing from the routing table on R2. What is the cause of the problem?
- A.
The networks are not correctly summarized.
- B.
The FastEthernet interfaces on R1 are configured as passive.
- C.
The network statements on R2 are incorrectly configured.
- D.
EIGRP on R1 does not recognize the 192.168.10.0 network.
Correct Answer
B. The FastEthernet interfaces on R1 are configured as passive.Explanation
The FastEthernet interfaces on R1 are configured as passive, which means they will not participate in the routing process. As a result, the route to the 192.168.10.0 network is not advertised to R2, causing the computers PC1 and PC2 to be unable to ping each other.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 each support separate areas of a data center, and are connected via a crossover cable. Resources attached to Router1 are unable to connect to resources attached to Router2. What is the likely cause?
- A.
The crossover cable is faulty.
- B.
The IP addressing is incorrect.
- C.
There is a Layer 2 problem with the router connection.
- D.
The upper layers are experiencing an unspecified problem.
- E.
One or both of the Ethernet interfaces are not working correctly.
Correct Answer
B. The IP addressing is incorrect.Explanation
The likely cause of the issue is that the IP addressing is incorrect. This means that the devices connected to Router1 and Router2 are not assigned proper IP addresses or are assigned conflicting IP addresses. As a result, the devices are unable to communicate with each other.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?
- A.
QoS
- B.
Latency
- C.
Reliability
- D.
Confidentiality
Correct Answer
D. ConfidentialityExplanation
Confidentiality is the characteristic of VPN technology that prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties. This means that the information transmitted through the VPN is encrypted and can only be accessed by authorized individuals with the proper decryption keys. This ensures that sensitive data remains secure and private, protecting it from interception and unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 6.
What translation method will allow a server to always keep the same public address?
- A.
Static NAT
- B.
Dynamic NAT
- C.
Static NAT with overload
- D.
Dynamic NAT with overload
Correct Answer
A. Static NATExplanation
Static NAT is the translation method that allows a server to always keep the same public address. With static NAT, a specific private IP address is permanently mapped to a corresponding public IP address. This ensures that any inbound or outbound traffic to the server will always use the same public address, providing consistency and ease of access.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been asked to configure PPP with PAP authentication over the serial link between routers R1 and R2. What additional configuration should be included on both routers to complete the task?
- A.
![EWAN Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz]()
- B.
![EWAN Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz]()
- C.
![EWAN Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz]()
- D.
![EWAN Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz]()
Correct Answer
C.Explanation
To configure PPP with PAP authentication over the serial link between routers R1 and R2, the network administrator should include the "ppp authentication pap" command on both routers. This command enables PAP authentication for PPP on the routers.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which statement is true about NCP?
- A.
Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.
- B.
Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.
- C.
NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.
- D.
NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.
Correct Answer
B. Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.Explanation
Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP. NCP stands for Network Control Protocol, and it is responsible for establishing and configuring the network protocol for data transmission between devices. In a PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) connection, NCP is used to negotiate and configure the specific network protocol that will be used for communication. Therefore, it is true that each network protocol has its own corresponding NCP.Rate this question:
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- 9.
While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
- A.
The remote router is a non-Cisco router
- B.
The local router is configured with subinterfaces
- C.
Broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
- D.
Globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
Correct Answer
C. Broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlledExplanation
A static Frame Relay map should be used when there is a need to control broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC. This means that the network administrator wants to have control over which devices can send and receive broadcast and multicast traffic over the Frame Relay connection. By using a static Frame Relay map, the administrator can specify which devices are allowed to send and receive such traffic, ensuring that it is controlled and managed according to the network's requirements.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are both configured for single area OSPF. Users who are connected to switch S1 are unable to access database applications that run on servers that are connected to S2. The network engineer is working remotely and only has the information that is shown in the exhibit to direct initial troubleshooting efforts. Based on the exhibit, which OSI layer is the most appropriate to start with for a divide-and-conquer approach?
- A.
Network layer
- B.
Application layer
- C.
Data-link layer
- D.
Physical layer
Correct Answer
C. Data-link layerExplanation
Based on the exhibit, the most appropriate OSI layer to start with for a divide-and-conquer approach is the data-link layer. The data-link layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data between directly connected network devices. Since the issue is with users being unable to access servers connected to S2, which are in the same network segment, it is likely that there is an issue with the communication between the switch S1 and the routers R1 and R2. By starting troubleshooting at the data-link layer, the network engineer can check for any misconfigurations or faults in the physical connections, Ethernet frames, or VLAN configurations that may be causing the issue.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
- A.
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.
- B.
It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.
- C.
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
- D.
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.
Correct Answer
C. It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.Explanation
The correct answer is that Router1 matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router. This means that the packet is allowed to pass through the router and reach its destination, the FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5. The other options are incorrect because they either do not match the packet to the correct access-list or they result in dropping the packet.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.)
- A.
It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
- B.
It should not be altered once it is implemented.
- C.
It defines a process for managing security violations.
- D.
It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization.
- E.
It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
- F.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
Correct Answer(s)
A. It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
C. It defines a process for managing security violations.
E. It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.Explanation
A security policy creates a basis for legal action if necessary by clearly outlining the rules and guidelines for protecting the organization's assets. It defines a process for managing security violations by specifying the steps to be taken in case of a security breach or incident. It also defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources, setting clear expectations for employees regarding the use of company resources and preventing misuse or unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation?
- A.
Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.
- B.
Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.
- C.
It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
- D.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
Correct Answer
C. It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.Explanation
The correct answer states that it will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently. This means that if both the network and application teams are making changes without coordinating with each other, it will be challenging to determine which team's changes are causing the response time problems. By working independently, the teams may inadvertently create conflicting changes that make it harder to identify the root cause of the issue. Therefore, it is important for both teams to collaborate and coordinate their efforts to effectively isolate and resolve the problem.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?
- A.
All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.
- B.
The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.
- C.
All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.
- D.
Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.
Correct Answer
D. Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.Explanation
The given command "permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www" allows TCP traffic from the network 172.16.4.0/24 to any destination IP address on port 80 (www). This means that any traffic originating from the IP addresses within the specified network will be allowed to access web servers (TCP port 80) on any destination. All other traffic, including non-TCP traffic and TCP traffic on other ports, will be denied.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
- A.
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
- B.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
- C.
The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
- D.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
Correct Answer
C. The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.Explanation
By adding the command "ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5" to the configuration of a local router that is a DHCP server, the router will exclude the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5 from being assigned by the DHCP server. This means that the DHCP server will not allocate these addresses to clients, ensuring that they are not used by any devices on the network.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)
- A.
Enable SNMP traps.
- B.
Disable the HTTP server service.
- C.
Use quotes, phrases, or poems to create passphrases.
- D.
Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.
- E.
Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Disable the HTTP server service.
C. Use quotes, phrases, or poems to create passphrases. -
- 17.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been asked to configure PPP with CHAP authentication over the serial link between routers R1 and R2. What additional configuration should be included on both routers to complete the task?
- A.
![EWAN Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz]()
- B.
![EWAN Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz]()
- C.
![EWAN Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz]()
- D.
![EWAN Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz]()
Correct Answer
B.Explanation
To configure PPP with CHAP authentication over the serial link between routers R1 and R2, both routers should have the same CHAP password configured. This password should be configured using the "ppp chap password" command under the serial interface configuration mode on both routers. Additionally, the "ppp authentication chap" command should be configured under the serial interface configuration mode to enable CHAP authentication.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is a major characteristic of a worm?
- A.
Malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
- B.
Tricks users into running the infected software
- C.
A set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
- D.
Exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network
Correct Answer
D. Exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a networkExplanation
A major characteristic of a worm is that it exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network. Unlike viruses, worms do not require user interaction to spread and can autonomously replicate and spread to other computers or networks. They take advantage of security weaknesses in computer systems to infect and propagate, often causing significant damage and disruption. This characteristic sets worms apart from other types of malicious software that may trick users or lie dormant until triggered.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which protocol is implicitly denied at the end of an IPv4 access list?
- A.
IP
- B.
TCP
- C.
UDP
- D.
HTTP
Correct Answer
A. IPExplanation
At the end of an IPv4 access list, the protocol that is implicitly denied is IP. This means that any traffic using the IP protocol will be denied by default. The access list is used to control and filter network traffic, and at the end of the list, any protocol that is not explicitly allowed will be denied. TCP, UDP, and HTTP are all specific protocols that can be allowed or denied based on the configuration of the access list, but IP is the catch-all protocol that is denied implicitly.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
- A.
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
- B.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
- C.
Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
- D.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet.
Correct Answer
C. Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.Explanation
The correct answer is to reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL. This is because the ACL is currently denying all traffic from host A to host B, including telnet traffic. By reversing the order of the TCP protocol statements, the ACL will first check for telnet traffic and permit it, allowing host A to telnet to host B while still restricting other traffic between the two networks.Rate this question:
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- 21.
In addition to standard security procedures, what additional feature of VPN technology supports privacy between end users?
- A.
The implementation of a tunneling protocol
- B.
The use of only baseband connections
- C.
A requirement of active authentication via a RADIUS server
- D.
The use of a call-back procedure to verify user credentials
Correct Answer
A. The implementation of a tunneling protocolExplanation
A tunneling protocol is a key feature of VPN technology that supports privacy between end users. It allows the creation of a secure and encrypted tunnel through which data is transmitted over the internet. This tunneling protocol encapsulates the data packets within another protocol, making it difficult for anyone to intercept or access the data being transmitted. By implementing a tunneling protocol, VPN technology ensures that the privacy and confidentiality of the data exchanged between end users are maintained.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?
- A.
Extended
- B.
Reflexive
- C.
Standard
- D.
Time-based
Correct Answer
B. ReflexiveExplanation
A reflexive ACL is the correct answer because it allows inbound traffic into a private network only if there is an established outbound session between the source and destination. This means that the ACL keeps track of the state of connections and only permits traffic that is part of an existing session. Reflexive ACLs provide an additional layer of security by ensuring that incoming traffic is legitimate and associated with an ongoing connection.Rate this question:
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- 23.
When would the multipoint keyword be used in Frame Relay PVCs configuration?
- A.
When global DLCIs are in use
- B.
When using physical interfaces
- C.
When multicasts must be supported
- D.
When participating routers are in the same subnet
Correct Answer
D. When participating routers are in the same subnetExplanation
The multipoint keyword is used in Frame Relay PVCs configuration when participating routers are in the same subnet. This means that multiple routers can communicate with each other using a single PVC, which reduces the number of PVCs required and simplifies the configuration. Using the multipoint configuration allows for efficient communication between routers on the same subnet without the need for individual point-to-point connections.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?
- A.
Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
- B.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
- C.
Interview departmental administrative assistants and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
- D.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
Correct Answer
A. Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.Explanation
The best way for the network administrator to determine how the change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet is to conduct a performance test and compare it with the baseline that was established previously. This will provide a direct comparison of the performance before and after the change, allowing the administrator to identify any improvements or issues. Monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites or interviewing departmental administrative assistants may provide some insight, but they are not as reliable or objective as conducting a performance test. Comparing hit counts on the company web server does not directly measure performance or availability.Rate this question:
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- 25.
A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
- A.
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
- B.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
- C.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
- D.
Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
Correct Answer
D. Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL. -
- 26.
Refer to the exhibit. What would be the result of entering the exhibited configuration on a Frame Relay router?
- A.
The local interface DLCI will be set to 102.
- B.
All traffic that is destined to 172.16.16.8 will be sent as broadcast.
- C.
Only broadcast traffic will be recieved on the Frame Relay interface.
- D.
Routing protocol multicast updates can be forwarded across the Frame Relay PVC.
Correct Answer
A. The local interface DLCI will be set to 102.Explanation
Entering the exhibited configuration on a Frame Relay router will result in the local interface DLCI being set to 102.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
- A.
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1 HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
- B.
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1 HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
- C.
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1 HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
- D.
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1 HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
Correct Answer
B. HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1 HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2Explanation
The correct answer is to configure DLCI 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1 and DLCI 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2. This is because DLCI 301 and DLCI 302 are used to map the IP addresses 172.16.1.1 and 172.16.2.2 respectively, which are the IP addresses of the remote sites. By configuring these DLCIs on the correct subinterfaces, the Frame Relay topology will be completed and the two remote sites will be interconnected.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Refer to the exhibit. An ACL numbered 101 already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands that are shown in the exhibit?
- A.
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
- B.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
- C.
The existing ACL is modified to include the new commands.
- D.
A second ACL that is numbered 101 is created and contains only the new commands.
Correct Answer
C. The existing ACL is modified to include the new commands.Explanation
The given exhibit shows commands that are used to modify an existing ACL numbered 101. Instead of creating a new ACL or overwriting the existing one, the commands modify the existing ACL to include the new commands. Therefore, the correct answer is that the existing ACL is modified to include the new commands.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?
- A.
PPP with PAP
- B.
PPP with CHAP
- C.
HDLC with PAP
- D.
HDLC with CHAP
Correct Answer
B. PPP with CHAPExplanation
PPP with CHAP should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router. PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) is a Layer 2 protocol that provides a secure and reliable connection between two devices. CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) is an authentication protocol that uses a three-way handshake process to authenticate the devices. It does not send authentication information in plain text, making it a secure option for establishing a link between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router and Branch B has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation . After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
- A.
The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.
- B.
LMI types cannot be different on each end of a PVC.
- C.
A single port can only support one encapsulation type.
- D.
The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.3 203 command.
Correct Answer
D. The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.3 203 command.Explanation
The PVC is failing because the IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.3 203 command. The IETF parameter is necessary for the router to understand that the encapsulation being used is IETF. Since Branch A has a Cisco router, it expects the IETF encapsulation by default. However, Branch B has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation, so the IETF parameter needs to be explicitly specified in the command for the PVC to be established successfully.Rate this question:
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- 31.
A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
- A.
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
- B.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
- C.
The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
- D.
A table of static mappings can be searched.
- E.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.
Correct Answer(s)
C. The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
D. A table of static mappings can be searched.Explanation
The router uses two methods to identify the correct VC to forward the message. First, it searches the Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs (Data Link Connection Identifiers) to IP addresses. This allows the router to determine the appropriate VC based on the IP address of the destination host. Second, the router can search a table of static mappings, which provides a direct mapping between DLCIs and IP addresses. These methods enable the router to correctly route the message to the intended destination in the Frame Relay network.Rate this question:
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- 32.
At what physical location does the responsibility for a WAN connection change from the service provider to the user?
- A.
DMZ
- B.
Local loop
- C.
CSU/DSU
- D.
Demarcation point
Correct Answer
D. Demarcation pointExplanation
The demarcation point is the physical location where the responsibility for a WAN connection changes from the service provider to the user. It is the point where the service provider's network ends and the user's network begins. At this point, the service provider is responsible for the connection up to the demarcation point, while the user is responsible for the connection beyond it. This demarcation point is typically located at the customer premises and is often marked by a demarcation device, such as a network interface device or a demarcation jack.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
- A.
SSH is unable to pass through NAT.
- B.
There are incorrect access control list entries.
- C.
The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.
- D.
The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.
Correct Answer
B. There are incorrect access control list entries.Explanation
The most likely cause of the problem is that there are incorrect access control list entries. Access control lists (ACLs) are used to control traffic flow in a network, and if the ACL entries are not configured correctly, they can block the SSH traffic from passing through. This would result in the SSH connections between the remote user and the server failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified, so it is unlikely to be the cause of the problem. The incorrect port number for SSH and the absence of the ip helper command on S0/0/0 would not directly affect the SSH connections.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to Web Server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from Web Server when received at R1?
- A.
10.1.1.2:80
- B.
10.1.1.2:1234
- C.
172.30.20.1:1234
- D.
172.30.20.1:3333
Correct Answer
D. 172.30.20.1:3333Explanation
The return packet from the Web Server, when received at R1, will have a destination IP address of 172.30.20.1 and a destination port number of 3333. This is because R1 is performing NAT overload, which involves translating the source IP address and port number of outgoing packets from the inside network to a different IP address and port number. When the return packet is received at R1, it reverses the translation and restores the original destination IP address and port number.Rate this question:
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- 35.
A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?
- A.
The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.
- B.
The West side of town is downloading larger packets.
- C.
The service provider is closer to the location on the East side.
- D.
More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.
Correct Answer
C. The service provider is closer to the location on the East side.Explanation
The East side of town has a faster download rate because the service provider is located closer to that location. The proximity to the service provider allows for a stronger and more stable connection, resulting in faster download speeds.Rate this question:
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- 36.
An administrator issues the command confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1> prompt. What is the effect when this router is rebooted?
- A.
Contents in RAM will be erased.
- B.
Contents in RAM will be ignored.
- C.
Contents in NVRAM will be erased.
- D.
Contents in NVRAM will be ignored.
Correct Answer
D. Contents in NVRAM will be ignored.Explanation
When the command "confreg 0x2142" is issued at the rommon 1> prompt, it changes the configuration register value to 0x2142. This value tells the router to ignore the contents of the NVRAM (non-volatile random-access memory) during the boot process. As a result, the router will not load the startup configuration stored in the NVRAM, and instead, it will boot with a blank or default configuration. The contents in the NVRAM will be ignored, but the contents in the RAM (random-access memory) will not be affected or erased.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which method is most effective in protecting the routing information that is propagated between routers on the network?
- A.
Disable IP source routing.
- B.
Configure passive interfaces.
- C.
Configure routing protocol authentication.
- D.
Secure administrative lines with Secure Shell.
Correct Answer
C. Configure routing protocol authentication.Explanation
Configuring routing protocol authentication is the most effective method in protecting the routing information that is propagated between routers on the network. By enabling authentication, routers can verify the authenticity of routing updates and ensure that only trusted routers are allowed to participate in the routing process. This prevents unauthorized routers from injecting false or malicious routing information into the network, thus enhancing the overall security and integrity of the routing infrastructure. Disabling IP source routing, configuring passive interfaces, and securing administrative lines with Secure Shell are also important security measures, but they do not specifically address the protection of routing information.Rate this question:
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- 38.
An administrator learns of an e-mail that has been received by a number of users in the company. This e-mail appears to come from the office of the administrator. The e-mail asks the users to confirm their account and password information. Which type of security threat does this e-mail represent?
- A.
Cracking
- B.
Phishing
- C.
Phreaking
- D.
Spamming
Correct Answer
B. PhishingExplanation
This e-mail represents a phishing threat. Phishing is a type of cyber attack where attackers impersonate a legitimate entity, such as an administrator or a trusted company, to trick users into revealing sensitive information like account credentials or financial details. In this case, the e-mail appears to come from the office of the administrator and asks users to confirm their account and password information, which is a common tactic used in phishing attacks.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What are two characteristics of DSL technology? (Choose two.)
- A.
Uploads typically offer larger transfer rates than downloads.
- B.
Service providers deploy DSL in the local loop of the telephone network.
- C.
DSL download rates are reduced by large volumes of POTS voice traffic.
- D.
Filters and splitters allow POTS and DSL traffic to share the same medium.
- E.
DSL is a shared medium that allows many users to share bandwidth available from the DSLAM.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Service providers deploy DSL in the local loop of the telephone network.
D. Filters and splitters allow POTS and DSL traffic to share the same medium.Explanation
DSL technology is deployed in the local loop of the telephone network by service providers. This means that DSL is connected to the existing telephone infrastructure, allowing users to access the internet through their telephone lines. Additionally, filters and splitters are used to allow both POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) and DSL traffic to share the same medium, ensuring that voice and data can be transmitted simultaneously without interference.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has added the exhibited commands to routers A and B, but no routing updates are exchanged between the two routers. Based on the information that is given, what is the likely cause of the problem?
- A.
Router A is advertising the wrong network.
- B.
The authentication key strings do not match.
- C.
The serial interfaces of routers A and B are not on the same network.
- D.
The authentication key numbers do not match the EIGRP process number for both routers.
Correct Answer
B. The authentication key strings do not match.Explanation
The likely cause of the problem is that the authentication key strings do not match. This could prevent the routers from exchanging routing updates because they are not able to authenticate each other. The other options mentioned in the question do not directly relate to the issue of routing updates not being exchanged between the routers.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which Layer 2 access method separates traffic into time slots and is specified by DOCSIS for use with cable high speed Internet service?
- A.
TDMA
- B.
FDMA
- C.
CDMA
- D.
S-CDMA
Correct Answer
A. TDMAExplanation
TDMA, or Time Division Multiple Access, is the correct answer because it is a Layer 2 access method that separates traffic into time slots. It is specified by DOCSIS, which stands for Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification, for use with cable high-speed Internet service. TDMA allows multiple users to share the same frequency channel by dividing it into different time slots, enabling efficient use of the available bandwidth.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?
- A.
Wi-Fi
- B.
WiMAX
- C.
Satellite
- D.
Metro Ethernet
Correct Answer
B. WiMAXExplanation
WiMAX is the correct answer because it is a wireless solution that can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable. WiMAX stands for Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access and is a technology that allows for long-range wireless communication. It can provide high-speed internet access over a wide area, making it suitable for mobile users who require broadband connectivity without the need for direct line-of-sight.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?
- A.
The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.
- B.
STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.
- C.
Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
- D.
S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.
Correct Answer
C. Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.Explanation
The cause of the problem is that Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN. This means that PC1 and the default gateway are in different VLANs, preventing communication between them.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?
- A.
Interface reset
- B.
Unplugged cable
- C.
Improper LMI type
- D.
PPP negotiation failure
Correct Answer
B. Unplugged cableExplanation
The most likely cause for Router1 not being able to communicate with its peer is an unplugged cable. This can be inferred from the given exhibit, which does not show any error messages or issues related to interface reset, improper LMI type, or PPP negotiation failure. Therefore, the absence of a physical connection, indicated by an unplugged cable, is the most probable cause for the communication problem.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Refer to the exhibit. A host that is connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address dynamically from the DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 172.16.1.1". What is the problem?
- A.
The default router for the 172Network pool is incorrect.
- B.
The 172.16.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.
- C.
The pool of addresses for the 172Network pool is incorrect.
- D.
The ip helper-address command should be implemented on the Fa0/0 interface.
Correct Answer
C. The pool of addresses for the 172Network pool is incorrect.Explanation
The problem is that the pool of addresses for the 172Network pool is incorrect. This means that the DHCP server does not have a valid range of IP addresses to assign to the host connected to Fa0/0. As a result, the host is unable to acquire an IP address dynamically from the DHCP server.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which important piece of troubleshooting information can be discovered about a serial interface using the show controllers command?
- A.
Queuing strategy
- B.
Serial cable type
- C.
Interface IP address
- D.
Encapsulation method
Correct Answer
B. Serial cable typeExplanation
The show controllers command can be used to discover the serial cable type of a serial interface. This command provides detailed information about the hardware components and characteristics of the interface, including the type of cable that is being used for the serial connection. This information is important for troubleshooting purposes, as it helps to ensure that the correct cable is being used and that it is properly connected.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Refer to the exhibit. In the partial router configuration that is shown, what is the purpose of access list BLOCK_XYZ?
- A.
To prevent source IP address spoofing by hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN
- B.
To block access by Fa0/0 LAN hosts to all network services beyond the router
- C.
To prevent users on the Fa0/0 LAN from opening Telnet sessions on the router
- D.
To secure Fa0/0 hosts by allowing only locally sourced traffic into the Fa0/0 LAN
Correct Answer
C. To prevent users on the Fa0/0 LAN from opening Telnet sessions on the routerExplanation
The purpose of access list BLOCK_XYZ is to prevent users on the Fa0/0 LAN from opening Telnet sessions on the router.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to connect Router1, a Cisco router, to a non-Cisco router using a serial connection. Why is the connection failing?
- A.
A loopback is not set.
- B.
The interface has been shut down.
- C.
The wrong encapsulation is being used.
- D.
Queuing cannot be used when connecting to non-Cisco devices.
Correct Answer
C. The wrong encapsulation is being used.Explanation
The connection is failing because the wrong encapsulation is being used. Encapsulation refers to the method used to wrap data packets for transmission over a network. Different vendors may use different encapsulation methods, and in this case, the Cisco router is using a different encapsulation method than the non-Cisco router. As a result, the two routers are unable to establish a successful connection.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?
- A.
Replace the serial cable .
- B.
Replace the WIC on RA.
- C.
Configure RA with a clock rate command.
- D.
Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.
Correct Answer
C. Configure RA with a clock rate command.Explanation
Based on the output of the "show controllers serial" command, it can be observed that the DCE cable is connected to Router RA. This means that Router RA should have the clock rate command configured in order to establish communication with Router RB. Therefore, the correct solution to solve the problem is to configure Router RA with a clock rate command.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A network administrator is analyzing the data from a network performance baseline. Which condition will not be indicated in the baseline data?
- A.
The IP addressing scheme of the network
- B.
The most heavily used parts of the network
- C.
Congested areas of the network
- D.
Error rates in different parts of the network
Correct Answer
A. The IP addressing scheme of the networkExplanation
The IP addressing scheme of the network will not be indicated in the baseline data. Baseline data is used to establish a benchmark for network performance, and it typically focuses on factors such as network utilization, congestion, and error rates. The IP addressing scheme is a separate aspect of network configuration and is not directly related to network performance. Therefore, it would not be included in the baseline data analysis.Rate this question:
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