EWAN Practice Exam Quiz!

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  • 1/88 Questions

    Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?

    • Extended
    • Reflexive
    • Standard
    • Time-based
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About This Quiz


EWAN is a free telnet product that you can use with Windows 95 or Windows 3.1. It is a Winsock application. If you are using dial-up, you must first establish Windows 95 PPP or Windows 3.1 Trumpet Winsock. If the computer links through Ethernet set up Windows 95 TCP/IP, and then download the software. This quiz is all about EWAN. Don’t neglect to claim your certificate when you have finished.

EWAN Practice Exam Quiz! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    An administrator learns of an e-mail that has been received by a number of users in the company. This e-mail appears to come from the office of the administrator. The e-mail asks the users to confirm their account and password information. Which type of security threat does this e-mail represent?

    • Cracking

    • Phishing

    • Phreaking

    • Spamming

    Correct Answer
    A. Phishing
    Explanation
    This e-mail represents a phishing threat. Phishing is a type of cyber attack where attackers impersonate a legitimate entity, such as an administrator or a trusted company, to trick users into revealing sensitive information like account credentials or financial details. In this case, the e-mail appears to come from the office of the administrator and asks users to confirm their account and password information, which is a common tactic used in phishing attacks.

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  • 3. 

    Which characteristic of VPN technology prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties?

    • QoS

    • Latency

    • Reliability

    • Confidentiality

    Correct Answer
    A. Confidentiality
    Explanation
    Confidentiality is the characteristic of VPN technology that prevents the contents of data communications from being read by unauthorized parties. This means that the information transmitted through the VPN is encrypted and can only be accessed by authorized individuals with the proper decryption keys. This ensures that sensitive data remains secure and private, protecting it from interception and unauthorized access.

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  • 4. 

    Which type of ACL will permit traffic inbound into a private network only if an outbound session has already been established between the source and destination?

    • Extended

    • Reflexive

    • Standard

    • Time-based

    Correct Answer
    A. Reflexive
    Explanation
    A reflexive ACL is the correct answer because it allows inbound traffic into a private network only if there is an established outbound session between the source and destination. This means that the ACL keeps track of the state of connections and only permits traffic that is part of an existing session. Reflexive ACLs provide an additional layer of security by ensuring that incoming traffic is legitimate and associated with an ongoing connection.

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  • 5. 

    At what physical location does the responsibility for a WAN connection change from the service provider to the user?

    • DMZ

    • Local loop

    • CSU/DSU

    • Demarcation point

    Correct Answer
    A. Demarcation point
    Explanation
    The demarcation point is the physical location where the responsibility for a WAN connection changes from the service provider to the user. It is the point where the service provider's network ends and the user's network begins. At this point, the service provider is responsible for the connection up to the demarcation point, while the user is responsible for the connection beyond it. This demarcation point is typically located at the customer premises and is often marked by a demarcation device, such as a network interface device or a demarcation jack.

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  • 6. 

    A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?

    • Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.

    • Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.

    • Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

    • Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
    Explanation
    To determine if the changes in VLAN configurations have improved performance and availability on the company intranet, the network administrator should conduct a performance test and compare it with the previously established baseline. This will provide objective data on any improvements or degradation in performance. Interviewing departmental secretaries may provide subjective opinions but may not accurately reflect the overall performance. Monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites will give insights into the actual performance on the intranet. Comparing hit counts on the company web server can provide information on website popularity but may not directly indicate improvements in performance and availability.

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  • 7. 

    Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

    • The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.

    • STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.

    • Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.

    • S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

    Correct Answer
    A. Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
    Explanation
    The cause of the problem is that Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN. This means that PC1 is not in the correct VLAN and therefore cannot communicate with the default gateway.

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  • 8. 

    What will be the result of adding the command IP DHCP excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

    • Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.

    • Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

    • The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.

    • The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

    Correct Answer
    A. The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
    Explanation
    Adding the command "IP DHCP excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5" to the configuration of a local router that is acting as a DHCP server will prevent the DHCP server from assigning the addresses within the specified range (192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5) to any clients. In other words, these addresses will be excluded from the pool of available addresses that the DHCP server can assign to clients.

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  • 9. 

    Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the Web Server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from Web Server when received at R1?

    • 10.1.1.2:80

    • 10.1.1.2:1234

    • 172.30.20.1:1234

    • 172.30.20.1:3333

    Correct Answer
    A. 172.30.20.1:3333
    Explanation
    When R1 performs NAT overload, it replaces the source IP address of outgoing packets with its own IP address and assigns a unique port number. In this scenario, when Host A sends a packet to the Web Server, R1 will replace the source IP address with its own IP address (172.30.20.1) and assign a unique port number (3333). Therefore, the destination IP address of the return packet from the Web Server, when received at R1, will be 172.30.20.1:3333.

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  • 10. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is PVC failing?

    • The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.

    • LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.

    • The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.

    • The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

    Correct Answer
    A. The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
    Explanation
    The PVC is failing because the IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command. This parameter is necessary for the non-Cisco router at Branch A to understand the encapsulation being used by the Cisco router at Branch B. Without this parameter, the routers are unable to establish the PVC successfully.

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  • 11. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been asked to configure PPP with CHAP authentication over the serial link between routers R1 and R2. What additional configuration should be included on both routers to complete the task?

    Correct Answer
    A.
    Explanation
    To configure PPP with CHAP authentication over the serial link between routers R1 and R2, both routers should have the same CHAP password configured. This password should be configured using the "ppp chap password" command under the serial interface configuration mode on both routers. Additionally, the "ppp authentication chap" command should be configured under the serial interface configuration mode to enable CHAP authentication.

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  • 12. 

    A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation?

    • Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

    • Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.

    • It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

    • Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

    Correct Answer
    A. It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that it will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently. This means that if both the network and application teams are making changes to their respective areas without coordinating with each other, it will be challenging to determine the root cause of the response time problems. By working independently, the teams may inadvertently introduce conflicting changes or overlook potential interactions between the network and application that could be causing the issues. Therefore, collaboration and coordination between the two teams are necessary to effectively troubleshoot and resolve the problem.

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  • 13. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 each support separate areas of a data center, and are connected via a crossover cable. Resources attached to Router1 are unable to connect to resources attached to Router2. What is the likely cause?

    • The crossover cable is faulty.

    • The IP addressing is incorrect.

    • There is a Layer 2 problem with the router connection.

    • The upper layers are experiencing an unspecified problem.

    • One or both of the Ethernet interfaces are not working correctly.

    Correct Answer
    A. The IP addressing is incorrect.
    Explanation
    The likely cause of the issue is that the IP addressing is incorrect. This means that the devices connected to Router1 and Router2 are not assigned proper IP addresses or are assigned conflicting IP addresses. As a result, the devices are unable to communicate with each other.

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  • 14. 

    Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?

    • Wi-Fi

    • WiMAX

    • Satellite

    • Metro Ethernet

    Correct Answer
    A. WiMAX
    Explanation
    WiMAX is the correct answer because it is a wireless solution that can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable. WiMAX stands for Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access and is a technology that allows for long-range wireless communication. It can provide high-speed internet access over a wide area, making it suitable for mobile users who require broadband connectivity without the need for direct line-of-sight.

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  • 15. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is creating a prototype to verify the new WAN design. However, the communication between the two routers cannot be established. Based on the output of the commands, what can be done to solve the problem?

    • Replace the serial cable .

    • Replace the WIC on RA.

    • Configure RA with a clock rate command.

    • Issue a no shutdown interface command on RB.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure RA with a clock rate command.
    Explanation
    Based on the output of the "show controllers serial" command, it can be observed that the DCE cable is connected to Router RA. This means that Router RA should have the clock rate command configured in order to establish communication with Router RB. Therefore, the correct solution to solve the problem is to configure Router RA with a clock rate command.

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  • 16. 

    A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?

    • Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.

    • Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.

    • ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.

    • Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

    Correct Answer
    A. Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
  • 17. 

    What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?

    • Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.

    • Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

    • The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.

    • The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

    Correct Answer
    A. The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
    Explanation
    By adding the command "ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5" to the configuration of a local router that is a DHCP server, the router will exclude the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5 from being assigned by the DHCP server. This means that the DHCP server will not allocate these addresses to clients, ensuring that they are not used by any devices on the network.

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  • 18. 

    A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?

    • Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.

    • Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.

    • Interview departmental administrative assistants and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.

    • Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
    Explanation
    The best way for the network administrator to determine how the change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet is to conduct a performance test and compare it with the baseline that was established previously. This will provide a direct comparison of the performance before and after the change, allowing the administrator to identify any improvements or issues. Monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites or interviewing departmental administrative assistants may provide some insight, but they are not as reliable or objective as conducting a performance test. Comparing hit counts on the company web server does not directly measure performance or availability.

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  • 19. 

    A network administrator is tasked with maintaining two remote locations in the same city. Both locations use the same service provider and have the same service plan for DSL service. When comparing download rates, it is noticed that the location on the East side of town has a faster download rate than the location on the West side of town. How can this be explained?

    • The West side has a high volume of POTS traffic.

    • The West side of town is downloading larger packets.

    • The service provider is closer to the location on the East side.

    • More clients share a connection to the DSLAM on the West side.

    Correct Answer
    A. The service provider is closer to the location on the East side.
    Explanation
    The East side of town has a faster download rate because the service provider is located closer to that location. The proximity to the service provider allows for a stronger and more stable connection, resulting in faster download speeds.

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  • 20. 

    Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?

    • Local loop

    • DTE cable on router

    • Demarcation point

    • Demilitarized zone

    Correct Answer
    A. Demarcation point
    Explanation
    The demarcation point is where a service provider assumes responsibility for a WAN connection from a customer. This is the point where the customer's network equipment connects to the service provider's network. It marks the boundary between the two networks and is typically located at the customer premises. At the demarcation point, any issues or responsibilities for the WAN connection are transferred from the customer to the service provider.

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  • 21. 

    What translation method will allow a server to always keep the same public address?

    • Static NAT

    • Dynamic NAT

    • Static NAT with overload

    • Dynamic NAT with overload

    Correct Answer
    A. Static NAT
    Explanation
    Static NAT is the translation method that allows a server to always keep the same public address. With static NAT, a specific private IP address is permanently mapped to a corresponding public IP address. This ensures that any inbound or outbound traffic to the server will always use the same public address, providing consistency and ease of access.

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  • 22. 

    A recently patched application server is experiencing response time problems. The network on which the application server is located has been experiencing occasional outages that the network team believes may be related to recent routing changes. Network and application teams have been notified to work on their respective issues. Which statement applies to this situation?

    • Only results from the software package should be tested as the network is designed to accommodate the proposed software platform.

    • Scheduling will be easy if the network and software teams work independently.

    • It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.

    • Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.

    Correct Answer
    A. It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that it will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently. This means that if both the network and application teams are making changes without coordinating with each other, it will be challenging to determine which team's changes are causing the response time problems. By working independently, the teams may inadvertently create conflicting changes that make it harder to identify the root cause of the issue. Therefore, it is important for both teams to collaborate and coordinate their efforts to effectively isolate and resolve the problem.

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  • 23. 

    In addition to standard security procedures, what additional feature of VPN technology supports privacy between end users?

    • The implementation of a tunneling protocol

    • The use of only baseband connections

    • A requirement of active authentication via a RADIUS server

    • The use of a call-back procedure to verify user credentials

    Correct Answer
    A. The implementation of a tunneling protocol
    Explanation
    A tunneling protocol is a key feature of VPN technology that supports privacy between end users. It allows the creation of a secure and encrypted tunnel through which data is transmitted over the internet. This tunneling protocol encapsulates the data packets within another protocol, making it difficult for anyone to intercept or access the data being transmitted. By implementing a tunneling protocol, VPN technology ensures that the privacy and confidentiality of the data exchanged between end users are maintained.

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  • 24. 

    Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?

    • PPP with PAP

    • PPP with CHAP

    • HDLC with PAP

    • HDLC with CHAP

    Correct Answer
    A. PPP with CHAP
    Explanation
    PPP with CHAP should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router. PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) is a Layer 2 protocol that provides a secure and reliable connection between two devices. CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) is an authentication protocol that uses a three-way handshake process to authenticate the devices. It does not send authentication information in plain text, making it a secure option for establishing a link between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.

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  • 25. 

    Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC1 is unable to ping the default gateway. What is the cause of the problem?

    • The default gateway is in the wrong subnet.

    • STP has blocked the port that PC1 is connected to.

    • Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.

    • S2 has the wrong IP address assigned to the VLAN30 interface.

    Correct Answer
    A. Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN.
    Explanation
    The cause of the problem is that Port Fa0/2 on S2 is assigned to the wrong VLAN. This means that PC1 and the default gateway are in different VLANs, preventing communication between them.

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  • 26. 

    Which data link layer encapsulation protocol is used by default for serial connections between two Cisco routers?

    • ATM

    • Frame Relay

    • HDLC

    • PPP

    • SDLC

    Correct Answer
    A. HDLC
    Explanation
    HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is the default data link layer encapsulation protocol used for serial connections between two Cisco routers. HDLC is a bit-oriented protocol that provides both connection-oriented and connectionless services. It is simple, efficient, and widely supported by Cisco devices. HDLC is used for synchronous serial communication and offers features like error detection and flow control. It is the default protocol for Cisco routers but can be replaced with other protocols like PPP or Frame Relay if needed.

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  • 27. 

    Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?

    • Protocol type

    • Source IP address

    • Source MAC address

    • Destination IP address

    • Destination MAC address

    Correct Answer
    A. Source IP address
    Explanation
    A standard access control list permits or denies access based on the source IP address. This means that the access control list allows or blocks traffic based on the IP address of the device or network trying to access a particular resource. The source IP address is an important factor in determining whether a device or network is allowed or denied access to a network resource.

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  • 28. 

    A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?

    • Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.

    • Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.

    • Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.

    • Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.

    Correct Answer
    A. Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
    Explanation
    The explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 is that company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1. The distance between a company's location and the service provider can affect the quality and speed of the DSL connection. The farther the distance, the more likely there will be signal degradation and slower transfer rates. Therefore, company 2, being located farther away, experiences slower download speeds compared to company 1.

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  • 29. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with EIGRP in the same autonomous system. Computers PC1 and PC2 are not able to ping each other. Further investigation has revealed that the route to 192.168.10.0 is missing from the routing table on R2. What is the cause of the problem?

    • The networks are not correctly summarized.

    • The FastEthernet interfaces on R1 are configured as passive.

    • The network statements on R2 are incorrectly configured.

    • EIGRP on R1 does not recognize the 192.168.10.0 network.

    Correct Answer
    A. The FastEthernet interfaces on R1 are configured as passive.
    Explanation
    The FastEthernet interfaces on R1 are configured as passive, which means they will not participate in the routing process. As a result, the route to the 192.168.10.0 network is not advertised to R2, causing the computers PC1 and PC2 to be unable to ping each other.

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  • 30. 

    Which protocol is implicitly denied at the end of an IPv4 access list?

    • IP

    • TCP

    • UDP

    • HTTP

    Correct Answer
    A. IP
    Explanation
    At the end of an IPv4 access list, the protocol that is implicitly denied is IP. This means that any traffic using the IP protocol will be denied by default. The access list is used to control and filter network traffic, and at the end of the list, any protocol that is not explicitly allowed will be denied. TCP, UDP, and HTTP are all specific protocols that can be allowed or denied based on the configuration of the access list, but IP is the catch-all protocol that is denied implicitly.

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  • 31. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router and Branch B has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation . After the commands that are shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

    • The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.

    • LMI types cannot be different on each end of a PVC.

    • A single port can only support one encapsulation type.

    • The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.3 203 command.

    Correct Answer
    A. The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.3 203 command.
    Explanation
    The PVC is failing because the IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.3 203 command. The IETF parameter is necessary for the router to understand that the encapsulation being used is IETF. Since Branch A has a Cisco router, it expects the IETF encapsulation by default. However, Branch B has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation, so the IETF parameter needs to be explicitly specified in the command for the PVC to be established successfully.

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  • 32. 

    Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to Web Server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from Web Server when received at R1?

    • 10.1.1.2:80

    • 10.1.1.2:1234

    • 172.30.20.1:1234

    • 172.30.20.1:3333

    Correct Answer
    A. 172.30.20.1:3333
    Explanation
    The return packet from the Web Server, when received at R1, will have a destination IP address of 172.30.20.1 and a destination port number of 3333. This is because R1 is performing NAT overload, which involves translating the source IP address and port number of outgoing packets from the inside network to a different IP address and port number. When the return packet is received at R1, it reverses the translation and restores the original destination IP address and port number.

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  • 33. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server. The output of the debug IP DHCP server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.3.17″. What is the problem?

    • The address 192.168.3.17 address is already in use by Fa0/0.

    • The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.

    • The ip helper-address command should be used on the Fa0/0 interface.

    • The 192.168.3.17 address has not been excluded from the 192Network pool.

    Correct Answer
    A. The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly.
    Explanation
    The output of the debug IP DHCP server command indicates that there is no address pool for the IP address 192.168.3.17. This suggests that the pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is configured incorrectly, as it does not include the address 192.168.3.17. Therefore, the DHCP server is unable to assign this address to the host connected to Fa0/0.

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  • 34. 

    Which Layer 2 access method separates traffic into time slots and is specified by DOCSIS for use with cable high speed Internet service?

    • TDMA

    • FDMA

    • CDMA

    • S-CDMA

    Correct Answer
    A. TDMA
    Explanation
    TDMA, or Time Division Multiple Access, is the correct answer because it is a Layer 2 access method that separates traffic into time slots. It is specified by DOCSIS, which stands for Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification, for use with cable high-speed Internet service. TDMA allows multiple users to share the same frequency channel by dividing it into different time slots, enabling efficient use of the available bandwidth.

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  • 35. 

    Which statement is true about PAP in the authentication of a PPP session?

    • PAP uses a two-way handshake.

    • The password is unique and random.

    • PAP conducts periodic password challenges.

    • PAP uses MD5 hashing to keep the password secure.

    Correct Answer
    A. PAP uses a two-way handshake.
    Explanation
    PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) is a simple authentication protocol used in PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) sessions. It involves a two-way handshake, where the client sends its username and password to the server, and the server verifies the credentials. This process does not involve any encryption or hashing methods, making it less secure compared to other authentication protocols. Therefore, the statement "PAP uses a two-way handshake" is true.

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  • 36. 

    Which option correctly defines the capacity through the local loop guaranteed to a customer by the service provider?

    • BE

    • DE

    • CIR

    • CBIR

    Correct Answer
    A. CIR
    Explanation
    CIR stands for Committed Information Rate, which is the minimum guaranteed bandwidth or capacity that a service provider ensures to deliver to a customer through the local loop. This means that the service provider commits to providing a certain level of bandwidth consistently, regardless of the network congestion or other factors.

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  • 37. 

    What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?

    • All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.

    • The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.

    • All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.

    • Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.

    Correct Answer
    A. Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.
    Explanation
    The given command "permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www" allows TCP traffic from the network 172.16.4.0/24 to any destination IP address on port 80 (www). This means that any traffic originating from the IP addresses within the specified network will be allowed to access web servers (TCP port 80) on any destination. All other traffic, including non-TCP traffic and TCP traffic on other ports, will be denied.

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  • 38. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has added the exhibited commands to routers A and B, but no routing updates are exchanged between the two routers. Based on the information that is given, what is the likely cause of the problem?

    • Router A is advertising the wrong network.

    • The authentication key strings do not match.

    • The serial interfaces of routers A and B are not on the same network.

    • The authentication key numbers do not match the EIGRP process number for both routers.

    Correct Answer
    A. The authentication key strings do not match.
    Explanation
    The likely cause of the problem is that the authentication key strings do not match. This could prevent the routers from exchanging routing updates because they are not able to authenticate each other. The other options mentioned in the question do not directly relate to the issue of routing updates not being exchanged between the routers.

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  • 39. 

    An administrator issues the command confreg 0x2142 at the rommon 1> prompt. What is the effect when this router is rebooted?

    • Contents in RAM will be erased.

    • Contents in RAM will be ignored.

    • Contents in NVRAM will be erased.

    • Contents in NVRAM will be ignored.

    Correct Answer
    A. Contents in NVRAM will be ignored.
    Explanation
    When the command "confreg 0x2142" is issued at the rommon 1> prompt, it changes the configuration register value to 0x2142. This value tells the router to ignore the contents of the NVRAM (non-volatile random-access memory) during the boot process. As a result, the router will not load the startup configuration stored in the NVRAM, and instead, it will boot with a blank or default configuration. The contents in the NVRAM will be ignored, but the contents in the RAM (random-access memory) will not be affected or erased.

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  • 40. 

    A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site to four remote sites. What are two advantages that dedicated leased lines provide compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?

    • Reduced jitter

    • Reduced costs

    • Reduced latency

    • The ability to burst above guaranteed bandwidth

    • The ability to borrow unused bandwidth from the leased lines of other customers

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Reduced jitter
    A. Reduced latency
    Explanation
    Dedicated leased lines provide two advantages compared to a shared Frame Relay solution: reduced jitter and reduced latency. Jitter refers to the variation in delay of packet transmission, and dedicated leased lines can provide a more consistent and predictable transmission, reducing jitter. Similarly, dedicated leased lines can also offer lower latency, which is the time it takes for data to travel from the source to the destination. These advantages can be beneficial for a company that requires reliable and fast communication between its headquarters and remote sites.

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  • 41. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

    • Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.

    • Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

    • Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.

    • Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL. This is because the ACL is currently denying all traffic from host A to host B, including telnet traffic. By reversing the order of the TCP protocol statements, the ACL will first check for telnet traffic and permit it, allowing host A to telnet to host B while still restricting other traffic between the two networks.

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  • 42. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An ACL numbered 101 already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands that are shown in the exhibit?

    • The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.

    • The network administrator will receive an error message.

    • The existing ACL is modified to include the new commands.

    • A second ACL that is numbered 101 is created and contains only the new commands.

    Correct Answer
    A. The existing ACL is modified to include the new commands.
    Explanation
    The given exhibit shows commands that are used to modify an existing ACL numbered 101. Instead of creating a new ACL or overwriting the existing one, the commands modify the existing ACL to include the new commands. Therefore, the correct answer is that the existing ACL is modified to include the new commands.

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  • 43. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to connect Router1, a Cisco router, to a non-Cisco router using a serial connection. Why is the connection failing?

    • A loopback is not set.

    • The interface has been shut down.

    • The wrong encapsulation is being used.

    • Queuing cannot be used when connecting to non-Cisco devices.

    Correct Answer
    A. The wrong encapsulation is being used.
    Explanation
    The connection is failing because the wrong encapsulation is being used. Encapsulation refers to the method used to wrap data packets for transmission over a network. Different vendors may use different encapsulation methods, and in this case, the Cisco router is using a different encapsulation method than the non-Cisco router. As a result, the two routers are unable to establish a successful connection.

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  • 44. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

    • The clock rate must be 56000.

    • The usernames are misconfigured.

    • The IP addresses are on different subnets.

    • The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.

    • The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.

    • Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.

    Correct Answer
    A. The usernames are misconfigured.
    Explanation
    The routers are unable to establish a PPP session because the usernames are misconfigured. This means that the usernames entered on both routers do not match, which is a requirement for establishing a PPP session.

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  • 45. 

    An administrator is configuring a dual-stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?

    • When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.

    • Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.

    • RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.

    • IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

    Correct Answer
    A. IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.
  • 46. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Headquarters is connected through the Internet to branch office A and branch office B. Which WAN technology would be best suited to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices?

    • ATM

    • VPN

    • ISDN

    • Frame Relay

    • Broadband DSL

    Correct Answer
    A. VPN
    Explanation
    A VPN (Virtual Private Network) would be the best WAN technology to provide secure connectivity between headquarters and both branch offices. VPNs use encryption and tunneling protocols to create a secure and private network connection over the Internet. This would allow headquarters to securely communicate with branch office A and branch office B, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the data transmitted between them.

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  • 47. 

    Which statement is true about NCP?

    • Link termination is the responsibility of NCP.

    • Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.

    • NCP establishes the initial link between PPP devices.

    • NCP tests the link to ensure that the link quality is sufficient.

    Correct Answer
    A. Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP.
    Explanation
    Each network protocol has a corresponding NCP. NCP stands for Network Control Protocol, and it is responsible for establishing and configuring the network protocol for data transmission between devices. In a PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) connection, NCP is used to negotiate and configure the specific network protocol that will be used for communication. Therefore, it is true that each network protocol has its own corresponding NCP.

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  • 48. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

    • It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.

    • It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.

    • It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.

    • It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.

    Correct Answer
    A. It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that Router1 matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router. This means that the packet is allowed to pass through the router and reach its destination, the FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5. The other options are incorrect because they either do not match the packet to the correct access-list or they result in dropping the packet.

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  • 49. 

    What is a major characteristic of a worm?

    • Malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs

    • Tricks users into running the infected software

    • A set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event

    • Exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network

    Correct Answer
    A. Exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network
    Explanation
    A major characteristic of a worm is that it exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network. Unlike viruses, worms do not require user interaction to spread and can autonomously replicate and spread to other computers or networks. They take advantage of security weaknesses in computer systems to infect and propagate, often causing significant damage and disruption. This characteristic sets worms apart from other types of malicious software that may trick users or lie dormant until triggered.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 11, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Bwellerfw
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