Evaluation And Management; Anesthesia; Pathology And Laboratory; Radiology; Medicine Test

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Evaluation And Management; Anesthesia; Pathology And Laboratory; Radiology; Medicine Test - Quiz

ALSO MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY, ANATOMY, ICD-9-CM CODING, HCPCS CODING, CODING GUIDELINES AND BILLING QUESTIONS FOR CPC EXAMQUESTIONS FROM LAST CPC EXAM , SURGERY SECTION (ALL SUBSECTIONS ---- FROM EXAM # 1)


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Excision of the gallbladder is commonly referred to as a :

    • A.

      Colectomy

    • B.

      Choledochectomy

    • C.

      Cholecystectomy

    • D.

      Corpectomy

    Correct Answer
    C. Cholecystectomy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cholecystectomy. Cholecystectomy refers to the surgical removal of the gallbladder. This procedure is commonly performed to treat gallstones, inflammation of the gallbladder, or other gallbladder-related conditions. The term "cholecystectomy" is derived from "chole-" which means bile, and "-cystectomy" which means removal of a cyst or sac. This procedure can be performed using open surgery or minimally invasive techniques such as laparoscopy. Colectomy is the surgical removal of the colon, choledochectomy is the removal of the common bile duct, and corpectomy is the removal of a vertebral body.

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  • 2. 

    What code best describes an ablation of a polyp in the colon?

    • A.

      Bipolar cautery removal

    • B.

      Snare

    • C.

      Cryosurgery

    • D.

      Hot biopsy Forceps

    Correct Answer
    C. Cryosurgery
    Explanation
    Cryosurgery is the best code to describe the ablation of a polyp in the colon. Cryosurgery involves using extreme cold temperatures to freeze and destroy abnormal tissue, including polyps. This technique is often used for small polyps that cannot be easily removed by other methods. Unlike the other options listed, cryosurgery does not involve the use of heat or cauterization. Therefore, cryosurgery is the most appropriate code for describing the ablation of a polyp in the colon.

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  • 3. 

    Peritonitis is a condition that occurs in which system?

    • A.

      Genitourinary

    • B.

      Integumentary

    • C.

      Digestive

    • D.

      Cardiovascular

    Correct Answer
    C. Digestive
    Explanation
    Peritonitis is a condition that occurs in the digestive system. It is an inflammation of the peritoneum, which is the thin tissue lining the inner wall of the abdomen and covering the abdominal organs. This condition can be caused by a bacterial or fungal infection, ruptured appendix, gastrointestinal perforation, or other factors. Peritonitis can be a serious and life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical attention and treatment.

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  • 4. 

    What type of infection is Helicobactor pylorus?

    • A.

      Bacterial

    • B.

      Viral

    • C.

      Staphyloccus

    • D.

      Streptococcus

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial
    Explanation
    Helicobacter pylori is a type of bacteria that infects the stomach lining and causes various gastrointestinal issues such as ulcers and inflammation. It is known to be a bacterial infection rather than a viral, Staphylococcus, or Streptococcus infection.

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  • 5. 

    Which following term describes a congenital absence of a limb?

    • A.

      Amputation

    • B.

      Ectromelia

    • C.

      Hallux varus

    • D.

      Genu vagum

    Correct Answer
    B. Ectromelia
    Explanation
    Ectromelia is the correct answer because it is a term that describes a congenital absence of a limb. It refers to a condition where a limb or limbs are missing or underdeveloped at birth. This can occur due to genetic factors or environmental factors during pregnancy. Amputation, on the other hand, refers to the surgical removal of a limb or body part. Hallux varus and genu vagum are not related to the congenital absence of a limb.

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  • 6. 

    The patient presents with a laceration on the auricle pinna that needs a wound repair. What part of the body will the physician repair?

    • A.

      Nasal

    • B.

      Ear

    • C.

      Eyelid

    • D.

      Vermilion

    Correct Answer
    B. Ear
    Explanation
    The physician will repair the ear. The question states that the patient has a laceration on the auricle pinna, which is a part of the ear. Therefore, the physician will perform a wound repair on the ear.

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  • 7. 

    The kidneys, bladder, and urethra make up what system?

    • A.

      Endocrine

    • B.

      Urinary

    • C.

      Nervous

    • D.

      Digestive

    Correct Answer
    B. Urinary
    Explanation
    The kidneys, bladder, and urethra are all organs involved in the elimination of waste and excess fluids from the body. This system is known as the urinary system. The kidneys filter waste and produce urine, which is stored in the bladder until it is expelled through the urethra. Therefore, the correct answer is urinary.

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  • 8. 

    Complete the series : Frontal, Ethmoid, Maxillary, -------------------------------

    • A.

      Turbinates

    • B.

      Nasopharynx

    • C.

      Sphenoid

    • D.

      Inferior

    Correct Answer
    C. Sphenoid
    Explanation
    The given series follows a pattern of different parts of the human skull. The first three terms, "Frontal, Ethmoid, Maxillary," represent the frontal bone, the ethmoid bone, and the maxillary bone, respectively. Therefore, the next term in the series should represent another bone in the skull. Among the given options, "Sphenoid" is the only bone that fits this pattern. The sphenoid bone is a complex bone located in the base of the skull, and it is commonly referred to as the "keystone" bone due to its central position and articulation with many other bones in the skull.

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  • 9. 

    A physician anesthetizes the brachial plexus nerves with an injection to provide pain control. These nerves are located : 

    • A.

      From the shoulder to the wrist.

    • B.

      From the thigh to the foot.

    • C.

      From the hip joint to the thigh.

    • D.

      From the neck to the subclavicular.

    Correct Answer
    D. From the neck to the subclavicular.
    Explanation
    The brachial plexus nerves are a network of nerves that originate from the spinal cord in the neck and extend down to the subclavicular region. Anesthetizing these nerves with an injection can provide pain control in the upper extremities, from the shoulder to the wrist. Therefore, the correct answer is "From the neck to the subclavicular."

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  • 10. 

    Adrenal glands are part of which anatomical system?

    • A.

      Circulatory

    • B.

      Genitourinary

    • C.

      Endocrine

    • D.

      Digestive

    Correct Answer
    C. Endocrine
    Explanation
    The adrenal glands are part of the endocrine system. The endocrine system is responsible for producing and releasing hormones into the bloodstream to regulate various bodily functions. The adrenal glands, located on top of the kidneys, produce hormones such as cortisol, adrenaline, and aldosterone, which play a crucial role in regulating metabolism, stress response, blood pressure, and electrolyte balance. Therefore, the correct answer is endocrine.

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  • 11. 

    The basilic vein is located in the :

    • A.

      Head

    • B.

      Foot

    • C.

      Leg

    • D.

      Arm

    Correct Answer
    D. Arm
    Explanation
    The basilic vein is located in the arm. It is a large superficial vein that runs along the inner side of the arm. It is one of the main veins used for venipuncture and is commonly used for intravenous access or for drawing blood samples.

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  • 12. 

    The small intestine is divided into what parts :

    • A.

      Esophagus, Stomach, Duodenum

    • B.

      Pylorus, Jejunum, Cecum

    • C.

      Stomach, Descending Colon, Rectum

    • D.

      Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum

    Correct Answer
    D. Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum
    Explanation
    The small intestine is divided into three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine and is responsible for receiving partially digested food from the stomach and mixing it with digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver. The jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine and is responsible for absorbing nutrients from the digested food. The ileum is the final part of the small intestine and is responsible for further absorption of nutrients and transferring waste material to the large intestine.

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  • 13. 

    The right upper quadrant of the abdominal area contains which of the following?

    • A.

      Gallbladder

    • B.

      Appendix

    • C.

      Pancreas

    • D.

      Stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Gallbladder
    Explanation
    The right upper quadrant of the abdominal area contains the gallbladder. The gallbladder is a small organ located beneath the liver, on the right side of the abdomen. Its main function is to store and concentrate bile, a digestive fluid produced by the liver. Bile is released from the gallbladder into the small intestine to help with the digestion and absorption of fats.

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  • 14. 

    How would you characterize oligomenorrhea?

    • A.

      Absence of a menstruation

    • B.

      Irregular menstrual cycle

    • C.

      Infrequent menstruation

    • D.

      Bleeding unrelated to the menstrual cycle.

    Correct Answer
    C. Infrequent menstruation
    Explanation
    Oligomenorrhea is characterized by infrequent menstruation. This means that a person experiences a menstrual cycle that is longer than the average 28 days or has longer gaps between periods. It is different from amenorrhea, which refers to the absence of menstruation altogether. Oligomenorrhea may be caused by hormonal imbalances, stress, excessive exercise, or certain medical conditions. It is important for individuals experiencing oligomenorrhea to consult a healthcare professional to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment if necessary.

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  • 15. 

    A Cochlear implant is placed in the  :

    • A.

      Cornea

    • B.

      Inner Ear

    • C.

      Heart

    • D.

      Spine

    Correct Answer
    B. Inner Ear
    Explanation
    A cochlear implant is a medical device that is surgically placed in the inner ear. It is specifically designed to bypass damaged or non-functioning parts of the ear and directly stimulate the auditory nerve. By doing so, it allows individuals with severe hearing loss or deafness to perceive sound. Placing the implant in the inner ear ensures that the electrical signals generated by the device can reach the auditory nerve and be transmitted to the brain for interpretation. The cornea, heart, and spine do not play a role in hearing, making the inner ear the correct placement for a cochlear implant.

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  • 16. 

    What is Sialadenitis?

    • A.

      An inflammation of a tear duct gland

    • B.

      An inflammation of a pituitary gland

    • C.

      An inflammation of an adrenal gland

    • D.

      An inflammation of a salivary gland

    Correct Answer
    D. An inflammation of a salivary gland
    Explanation
    Sialadenitis is the medical term used to describe inflammation of the salivary gland. This condition occurs when the salivary gland becomes infected or blocked, leading to swelling, pain, and tenderness in the affected area. Common causes of sialadenitis include bacterial infections, salivary stones, and autoimmune disorders. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, pain relief, and warm compresses to reduce inflammation.

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  • 17. 

    What is the meaning of the root word  "myelo-"?

    • A.

      Muscle

    • B.

      Bone

    • C.

      Spinal Cord

    • D.

      Blood

    Correct Answer
    C. Spinal Cord
    Explanation
    The root word "myelo-" refers to the spinal cord. This can be inferred from the fact that the other options - muscle, bone, and blood - do not have any relation to the term "myelo-". Therefore, the correct answer is "Spinal Cord".

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  • 18. 

    Surgical repair on the levator muscle of the eyelid to correct drooping is called :

    • A.

      Blepharoptosis Repair.

    • B.

      Conjunctivoplasty

    • C.

      Blepharoplasty

    • D.

      Canthotomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Blepharoptosis Repair.
    Explanation
    Blepharoptosis is the medical term for drooping of the eyelid, which can affect the vision and appearance of an individual. Surgical repair of the levator muscle, which is responsible for lifting the eyelid, is performed to correct this condition. Therefore, the correct answer is "Blepharoptosis Repair." Conjunctivoplasty refers to surgery on the conjunctiva, Blepharoplasty is a cosmetic surgery procedure for the eyelids, and Canthotomy is a surgical procedure to release tension in the eyelid.

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  • 19. 

    Dislocation of the scaphoid bone is located in the :

    • A.

      Shoulder

    • B.

      Foot

    • C.

      Elbow

    • D.

      Knee

    Correct Answer
    B. Foot
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Foot. The scaphoid bone is a small bone located in the wrist, specifically in the area of the thumb. Dislocation of the scaphoid bone refers to the displacement or misalignment of this bone within the wrist joint. It is a common injury that can occur due to trauma or excessive force applied to the wrist.

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  • 20. 

    A patient who has been severely burned will be undergoing a skin xenograft for temporary wound closure. The xenograft harvests the skin from where?

    • A.

      From the body of the patient.

    • B.

      From a donor of the same species.

    • C.

      From a donor that is non-human.

    • D.

      From synthetic material.

    Correct Answer
    C. From a donor that is non-human.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is from a donor that is non-human. In a skin xenograft, the skin is harvested from a donor that is a different species than the patient. This is done because human skin may not be readily available, and using non-human skin provides a temporary solution for wound closure.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the code book volumes are used in a physician's office?

    • A.

      Volume 1

    • B.

      Volume 2

    • C.

      Volume 3

    • D.

      Only A and B are used.

    Correct Answer
    D. Only A and B are used.
    Explanation
    In a physician's office, code book volumes 1 and 2 are typically used. Volume 1 contains diagnosis codes, while volume 2 contains procedure codes. These two volumes are essential for documenting and billing medical services in a physician's office. Volume 3, on the other hand, is used for hospital coding and is not typically used in a physician's office setting. Therefore, the correct answer is that only volumes A and B are used in a physician's office.

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  • 22. 

    " ------------------------------- " is a reference that instructs coder to look up another term to locate a code for a particular condition.

    • A.

      See category

    • B.

      And

    • C.

      See condition

    • D.

      Eponym

    Correct Answer
    C. See condition
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "See condition". This answer suggests that when encountering a specific condition, the coder should refer to another term or source to find the appropriate code for that condition. It implies that the coder should look up additional information or consult a specific reference to determine the correct coding for the given condition.

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  • 23. 

    --------------------------------------- is (are) used in both the index and Tabular List to enclose supplementary words that may be present or absent in the statement of a disease or procedure, without affecting the code assignment.

    • A.

      "Excludes"

    • B.

      Brackets

    • C.

      Includes

    • D.

      Parentheses

    Correct Answer
    D. Parentheses
    Explanation
    Parentheses are used in both the index and Tabular List to enclose supplementary words that may be present or absent in the statement of a disease or procedure, without affecting the code assignment. The use of parentheses helps to provide additional information or clarify certain aspects of the code. It allows for flexibility in code assignment, as the presence or absence of the enclosed words does not impact the code selection.

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  • 24. 

    Which statement is NOT true of inclusion terms?

    • A.

      An "Inclusion note" under a code indicates that the terms excluded from the code are to be coded elsewhere.

    • B.

      The terms may be included under certain four-and five-digit codes.

    • C.

      These terms are the conditions for which that code number is to be used.

    • D.

      The inclusion terms are not necessarily exhaustive.

    Correct Answer
    A. An "Inclusion note" under a code indicates that the terms excluded from the code are to be coded elsewhere.
  • 25. 

    The word(s) " ----------- " should be interpreted to mean either "and" or "or" when it appears in the title.

    • A.

      With

    • B.

      See

    • C.

      Omit code

    • D.

      And

    Correct Answer
    D. And
    Explanation
    The word "and" should be interpreted to mean both "with" and "see" in the title.

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  • 26. 

    The most commonly used etiology/manifestation combinations are the codes for --------------------------, category 250.

    • A.

      Heart disease.

    • B.

      Tachycardia.

    • C.

      Diabetes mellitus.

    • D.

      Hypertension.

    Correct Answer
    C. Diabetes mellitus.
    Explanation
    The most commonly used etiology/manifestation combinations are the codes for diabetes mellitus, category 250. This suggests that diabetes mellitus is a frequently reported condition that is often associated with other manifestations or complications.

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  • 27. 

    " -------------------------- " is used in the Alphabetic Index to provide guidance when two conditions are related or have a casual relationship.

    • A.

      Due to

    • B.

      See condition

    • C.

      See category

    • D.

      And

    Correct Answer
    A. Due to
    Explanation
    "Due to" is used in the Alphabetic Index to provide guidance when two conditions are related or have a casual relationship. This phrase indicates that one condition is the cause or reason for another condition. It helps users navigate the index and find the appropriate information by highlighting the connection between the two conditions.

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  • 28. 

    When coding neoplasm (cancer) , "metastatic from" means?

    • A.

      Primary site.

    • B.

      Secondary site.

    • C.

      Unspecified site.

    • D.

      Primary or secondary site.

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary site.
    Explanation
    "Metastatic from" refers to the primary site of the neoplasm or cancer. This term indicates that the cancer has spread or metastasized from its original location to another part of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "primary site."

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  • 29. 

    EVALUATION AND MANAGEMENT :A 90-year-old patient asks for a second opinion when he was recently diagnosed with bilateral senile cataracts. His regular ophthalmologist has recommended implantation of lenses after surgical removal of the cataracts. The patient presents to the clinic stating that he is concerned about the necessity of the procedure. During the detailed history, the patient states that he has had decreasing vision over the last year or two but has always had excellent vision. He cannot recall a trauma to the eye in the past. The physician conducted a detailed visual examination and confirmed the diagnosis of the patient's ophthalmologist. The medical decision-making was of low complexity. 

    • A.

      99252

    • B.

      99241

    • C.

      99203

    • D.

      92002

    Correct Answer
    C. 99203
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99203. This code represents an evaluation and management (E/M) service for a new patient with a low complexity medical decision-making. In this scenario, the 90-year-old patient is seeking a second opinion for his recently diagnosed bilateral senile cataracts. The physician conducts a detailed visual examination and confirms the diagnosis made by the patient's ophthalmologist. The patient's history reveals a gradual decrease in vision without any trauma. Based on the information provided, the medical decision-making involved in this case is of low complexity, making 99203 the appropriate E/M code.

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  • 30. 

    The attending physician requests a confirmatory consultation from an interventional radiologist for a second opinion about a 60-year-old male with abnormal areas within the liver. The recommendation for a CT guided biopsy is requested, which the attending has recommened be performed. During the comprehensive history, the patient reported right upper quadrant pain. His liver enzymes were elevated.  Previous CT study revealed multiple low attenuation areas within the liver (infection not tumor). The laboratory studies were creatinine, 0.9; hemoglobin, 9.5; PT and PTT, 13.0/31.5 with an INR of 1.2. The comprehensive physical examination showed that the lungs were clear to auscultation and the heart had regular rate and rhythm. The mental status was oriented times three. Temperature, intermittent low-grade fever, up to 101 deg. fahrenheit, usually occurs at night. The CT-guided biopsy was considered appropriate for this patient. The medical decision making was of high complexity.

    • A.

      99223

    • B.

      99245

    • C.

      99255

    • D.

      99221

    Correct Answer
    A. 99223
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99223 because the patient's case involves a complex medical decision-making process. The attending physician requested a confirmatory consultation from an interventional radiologist for a second opinion on abnormal liver areas. The patient's history includes right upper quadrant pain, elevated liver enzymes, and previous CT findings of low attenuation areas in the liver. The patient also has laboratory abnormalities and intermittent low-grade fever. Considering all these factors, the CT-guided biopsy was deemed appropriate, indicating a high level of complexity in the medical decision-making process.

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  • 31. 

    A cardiology consultation is requested for a 69-year-old inpatient for recent onset of dyspnea on exertion and chest pain. The comprehensive history reveals that the patient cannot walk three blocks without exhibiting retrosternal squeezing sensation with shortness of breath. A comprehensive physical examination reveals pleasant, elderly female in no apparent distress. The medical decision making complexity is high based on the various diagnosis options.

    • A.

      99223

    • B.

      99254

    • C.

      99255

    • D.

      99245

    Correct Answer
    C. 99255
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99255 because the patient's symptoms of dyspnea on exertion and chest pain, along with the finding of retrosternal squeezing sensation and shortness of breath, indicate a high level of complexity in the medical decision making. Additionally, the patient's age and inability to walk three blocks without symptoms suggest a significant impairment in functional capacity, further supporting the higher level of care required for this consultation.

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  • 32. 

    A new patient presents to the emergency department with an ankle sprain received when he fell while roller-blading. The physician completes an expanded problem focused history and examination. The medical decision making complexity is low.

    • A.

      99232

    • B.

      99282

    • C.

      99202

    • D.

      99284

    Correct Answer
    B. 99282
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, the physician completes an expanded problem focused history and examination for a new patient with an ankle sprain. The medical decision making complexity is low. The correct answer, 99282, represents a level of care for a new patient with a low complexity medical decision making.

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  • 33. 

    A physician provides a service to a new patient in a custodial care center. The physician performed an expanded problem-focused history and examination. The medical decision making was of low complexity.

    • A.

      99236

    • B.

      99325

    • C.

      99342

    • D.

      99308

    Correct Answer
    B. 99325
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99325 because it represents an initial nursing facility care code. The physician provided a service to a new patient in a custodial care center, which falls under the category of nursing facility care. The expanded problem-focused history and examination, along with low complexity medical decision making, align with the level of service represented by code 99325.

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  • 34. 

    A new patient is admitted to the observation unit of the local hospital after a 10 foot fall from a ladder. The physician completed a comprehensive history and physical examination. The medical decision making is moderately complex. Also code for Code for a subsequent observation, one day, Expanded problem-focused history, Expanded problem-focused exam and Moderate Medical Decision Making. What is noteworthy about the subsequent day observation codes?

    • A.

      99222; 99223; They are Add-On Codes

    • B.

      99219; 99225; They are Out of Order Codes

    • C.

      99235; 99224; They are Modifier 51 Exempt

    • D.

      99220; 99226; They Do Not Follow E & M Rules of the Three Key Components.

    Correct Answer
    B. 99219; 99225; They are Out of Order Codes
  • 35. 

    An established patient is admitted to the hospital by his attending physician after a car accident in which the patient hit the steering wheel of the automobile with significant enough force to fold the wheel backward. After a detailed history and physical examination, the physician believed the patient may have sustained a right rotator cuff injury. The medical decision was straightforward in complexity.

    • A.

      99255

    • B.

      99283

    • C.

      99253

    • D.

      99221

    Correct Answer
    D. 99221
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99221. This code represents an initial hospital visit for a new or established patient. In this case, the patient is an established patient who has been admitted to the hospital after a car accident. The physician performs a detailed history and physical examination and determines that the patient may have a right rotator cuff injury. The medical decision-making is straightforward in complexity, indicating that the physician's evaluation and management of the patient's condition is not overly complex. Therefore, 99221 is the appropriate code to use for this encounter.

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  • 36. 

    An established patient is seen in a nursing facility by the physician because the patient, who is a diabetic, has developed a stage II decubitus ulcer with cellulitis. The physician performs a detailed history and examination. The medical decision making complexity is moderate.

    • A.

      99310

    • B.

      99309

    • C.

      99315

    • D.

      99228

    Correct Answer
    B. 99309
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99309. In this scenario, the physician is seeing an established patient in a nursing facility who has developed a stage II decubitus ulcer with cellulitis. The physician performs a detailed history and examination, indicating a higher level of complexity. The code 99309 is appropriate for an established patient visit in a nursing facility with a detailed history and examination, and it aligns with the medical decision making complexity described in the scenario.

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  • 37. 

    Observation Codes 99218, 99219 and 99220 have estimated times of :

    • A.

      20, 40 and 60 minutes, respectively

    • B.

      30, 50 and 70 minutes, respectively

    • C.

      30, 45 and 60 minutes respectively

    • D.

      These are observation codes and do not have estimated times.

    Correct Answer
    B. 30, 50 and 70 minutes, respectively
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 30, 50 and 70 minutes, respectively. This is because the question is asking for the estimated times for observation codes 99218, 99219, and 99220. According to the given information, the estimated times for these codes are 30, 50, and 70 minutes, respectively.

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  • 38. 

    A 60-year-old male presents for a complete physical. There are no new complaints since my previous examination on June 9 of last year. On physical examination, the patient is a well-developed, well-nourished male.The physician continues and provides a complete examination of the patient lasting 45 minutes.

    • A.

      99396

    • B.

      99386

    • C.

      99403

    • D.

      99450

    Correct Answer
    A. 99396
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99396 because it represents a complete preventive medicine evaluation and management service for an established patient who is 40 years of age or older. This code is appropriate for the 60-year-old male who presented for a complete physical examination. The fact that the examination lasted 45 minutes is also consistent with this code, as it requires a minimum of 30 minutes of face-to-face time with the patient.

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  • 39. 

    ANESTHESIA :The physical status for a patient who had a mild systemic disease would be? 

    • A.

      P1

    • B.

      P2

    • C.

      P3

    • D.

      P4

    Correct Answer
    B. P2
    Explanation
    The physical status for a patient who had a mild systemic disease would be P2. This indicates that the patient has a mild systemic disease but is otherwise healthy. P1 would represent a healthy patient, P3 would represent a patient with severe systemic disease, and P4 would represent a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

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  • 40. 

    The qualifying circumstances code indicates a 75-year-old male.

    • A.

      99100

    • B.

      99140

    • C.

      99116

    • D.

      99135

    Correct Answer
    A. 99100
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99100. In medical coding, a qualifying circumstances code is used to provide additional information about a patient's condition or circumstances that may affect the medical treatment or services provided. In this case, the qualifying circumstances code 99100 indicates that the patient is a 75-year-old male.

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  • 41. 

    This type of sedation decreases the level of patient's alertness but allows the patient to cooperate during the procedure.

    • A.

      Topical

    • B.

      Local

    • C.

      Regional

    • D.

      Conscious

    Correct Answer
    D. Conscious
    Explanation
    Conscious sedation is the correct answer because it is a type of sedation that reduces a patient's level of alertness but still allows them to remain conscious and cooperative during a medical procedure. This type of sedation is often used for minor procedures that do not require general anesthesia. It helps to alleviate anxiety and discomfort while allowing the patient to follow instructions and respond to stimuli.

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  • 42. 

    What publication is the National Unit Values published?

    • A.

      BVR by AS

    • B.

      RVG by ASA

    • C.

      ASA by RVG

    • D.

      RVP by ASA

    Correct Answer
    B. RVG by ASA
    Explanation
    The National Unit Values publication is published by RVG, which stands for the Real Estate Valuation Group. This group is associated with ASA, which stands for the American Society of Appraisers. Therefore, the correct answer is RVG by ASA.

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  • 43. 

    To calculate the unit value of services for two procedures performed on the same patient during the same operative session you would do the following to report anesthesia services.

    • A.

      Report only the units for the highest unit value procedure.

    • B.

      Report only the units for the lowest unit value procedure.

    • C.

      Subtract the procedure with the lowest unit value from the procedure with the highest unit value.

    • D.

      Add the units of the two procedures together.

    Correct Answer
    A. Report only the units for the highest unit value procedure.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to report only the units for the highest unit value procedure. This means that when calculating the unit value of services for two procedures performed on the same patient during the same operative session, only the units for the procedure with the highest unit value should be reported. This is because the unit value represents the complexity and intensity of the procedure, and reporting only the units for the highest value procedure ensures that the anesthesia services are accurately and appropriately documented.

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  • 44. 

    Code anesthesia service provided for an anterior cervical discectomy with decompression of a single interspace of  the spinal cord and nerve roots and including osteophytectomy.

    • A.

      00620

    • B.

      00640

    • C.

      00630

    • D.

      00600

    Correct Answer
    D. 00600
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00600. This code represents the anesthesia service provided for an anterior cervical discectomy with decompression of a single interspace of the spinal cord and nerve roots, including osteophytectomy.

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  • 45. 

    Per CPT guidelines, anesthesia time ends :

    • A.

      When the patient leaves the operating room

    • B.

      When the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal attendance on the patient.

    • C.

      When the patient has fulfilled post anesthesia care unit criteria for recovery

    • D.

      When the patient leaves the post anesthesia care unit.

    Correct Answer
    B. When the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal attendance on the patient.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "When the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal attendance on the patient." This means that anesthesia time ends when the anesthesiologist is no longer directly monitoring or providing care to the patient. This could occur when the patient is transferred to the post anesthesia care unit or when the anesthesiologist hands over the patient's care to another healthcare professional. The other options given in the question, such as when the patient leaves the operating room or fulfills recovery criteria, are not accurate according to CPT guidelines.

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  • 46. 

    A physical status anesthesia modifier of P4 means that a patient has :

    • A.

      Has a mild systemic disease

    • B.

      Has a severe systemic disease

    • C.

      Has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

    • D.

      Is moribound

    Correct Answer
    C. Has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.
    Explanation
    The physical status anesthesia modifier P4 indicates that the patient has a severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to their life. This means that the patient's overall health is significantly compromised, and they require careful monitoring and management during anesthesia administration to avoid any potential complications or life-threatening situations.

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  • 47. 

    Qualifying circumstances anesthesia codes are used :

    • A.

      In addition to the anesthesia.

    • B.

      To describe circumstances that impact the character of the anesthesia.

    • C.

      To describe provision of anesthesia under particularly difficult circumstances.

    • D.

      All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because qualifying circumstances anesthesia codes are used not only in addition to the anesthesia but also to describe circumstances that impact the character of the anesthesia and to describe the provision of anesthesia under particularly difficult circumstances. Therefore, all of these options are valid reasons for using qualifying circumstances anesthesia codes.

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  • 48. 

    Anesthesia time starts when :

    • A.

      When the radiologist meets the family

    • B.

      When the radiologist begins to administer drugs

    • C.

      When the radiologist prepares the patient for induction ---- preoperative

    Correct Answer
    C. When the radiologist prepares the patient for induction ---- preoperative
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when the radiologist prepares the patient for induction - preoperative. This is because anesthesia time starts when the patient is being prepared for the induction of anesthesia, which includes activities such as positioning the patient, applying monitoring devices, and administering preoperative medications. The anesthesia time does not start when the radiologist meets the family or when the radiologist begins to administer drugs.

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  • 49. 

    RADIOLOGY :A 60-year-old female comes to the clinic with shortness of breath. The doctor orders a chest x-ray, frontal and lateral.

    • A.

      71020 X 2, 786.07

    • B.

      71035 X 2, 786.9

    • C.

      71015, 786.09

    • D.

      71020, 786.05

    Correct Answer
    D. 71020, 786.05
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 71020, 786.05. The code 71020 represents a chest x-ray, frontal and lateral, which is the appropriate test to order for a patient with shortness of breath. The code 786.05 represents the diagnosis of shortness of breath, which is the reason for the patient's visit to the clinic.

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  • 50. 

    A patient presents for an MRI of the pelvis with contrast materials.

    • A.

      72125

    • B.

      72198

    • C.

      72196

    • D.

      72159

    Correct Answer
    C. 72196

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 07, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    MITULPAR
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