Evaluation And Management; Anesthesia; Pathology And Laboratory; Radiology; Medicine Test

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  • 1/269 Questions

    The patient presents with a laceration on the auricle pinna that needs a wound repair. What part of the body will the physician repair?

    • Nasal
    • Ear
    • Eyelid
    • Vermilion
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About This Quiz

ALSO MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY, ANATOMY, ICD-9-CM CODING, HCPCS CODING, CODING GUIDELINES AND BILLING QUESTIONS FOR CPC EXAMQUESTIONS FROM LAST CPC EXAM , SURGERY SECTION (ALL SUBSECTIONS ---- FROM EXAM # 1)

Evaluation And Management; Anesthesia; Pathology And Laboratory; Radiology; Medicine Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The kidneys, bladder, and urethra make up what system?

    • Endocrine

    • Urinary

    • Nervous

    • Digestive

    Correct Answer
    A. Urinary
    Explanation
    The kidneys, bladder, and urethra are all organs involved in the elimination of waste and excess fluids from the body. This system is known as the urinary system. The kidneys filter waste and produce urine, which is stored in the bladder until it is expelled through the urethra. Therefore, the correct answer is urinary.

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  • 3. 

    Complete the series : Frontal, Ethmoid, Maxillary, -------------------------------

    • Turbinates

    • Nasopharynx

    • Sphenoid

    • Inferior

    Correct Answer
    A. Sphenoid
    Explanation
    The given series follows a pattern of different parts of the human skull. The first three terms, "Frontal, Ethmoid, Maxillary," represent the frontal bone, the ethmoid bone, and the maxillary bone, respectively. Therefore, the next term in the series should represent another bone in the skull. Among the given options, "Sphenoid" is the only bone that fits this pattern. The sphenoid bone is a complex bone located in the base of the skull, and it is commonly referred to as the "keystone" bone due to its central position and articulation with many other bones in the skull.

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  • 4. 

    Adrenal glands are part of which anatomical system?

    • Circulatory

    • Genitourinary

    • Endocrine

    • Digestive

    Correct Answer
    A. Endocrine
    Explanation
    The adrenal glands are part of the endocrine system. The endocrine system is responsible for producing and releasing hormones into the bloodstream to regulate various bodily functions. The adrenal glands, located on top of the kidneys, produce hormones such as cortisol, adrenaline, and aldosterone, which play a crucial role in regulating metabolism, stress response, blood pressure, and electrolyte balance. Therefore, the correct answer is endocrine.

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  • 5. 

    How would you characterize oligomenorrhea?

    • Absence of a menstruation

    • Irregular menstrual cycle

    • Infrequent menstruation

    • Bleeding unrelated to the menstrual cycle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Infrequent menstruation
    Explanation
    Oligomenorrhea is characterized by infrequent menstruation. This means that a person experiences a menstrual cycle that is longer than the average 28 days or has longer gaps between periods. It is different from amenorrhea, which refers to the absence of menstruation altogether. Oligomenorrhea may be caused by hormonal imbalances, stress, excessive exercise, or certain medical conditions. It is important for individuals experiencing oligomenorrhea to consult a healthcare professional to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment if necessary.

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  • 6. 

    A Cochlear implant is placed in the  :

    • Cornea

    • Inner Ear

    • Heart

    • Spine

    Correct Answer
    A. Inner Ear
    Explanation
    A cochlear implant is a medical device that is surgically placed in the inner ear. It is specifically designed to bypass damaged or non-functioning parts of the ear and directly stimulate the auditory nerve. By doing so, it allows individuals with severe hearing loss or deafness to perceive sound. Placing the implant in the inner ear ensures that the electrical signals generated by the device can reach the auditory nerve and be transmitted to the brain for interpretation. The cornea, heart, and spine do not play a role in hearing, making the inner ear the correct placement for a cochlear implant.

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  • 7. 

    The attending physician requests a confirmatory consultation from an interventional radiologist for a second opinion about a 60-year-old male with abnormal areas within the liver. The recommendation for a CT guided biopsy is requested, which the attending has recommened be performed. During the comprehensive history, the patient reported right upper quadrant pain. His liver enzymes were elevated.  Previous CT study revealed multiple low attenuation areas within the liver (infection not tumor). The laboratory studies were creatinine, 0.9; hemoglobin, 9.5; PT and PTT, 13.0/31.5 with an INR of 1.2. The comprehensive physical examination showed that the lungs were clear to auscultation and the heart had regular rate and rhythm. The mental status was oriented times three. Temperature, intermittent low-grade fever, up to 101 deg. fahrenheit, usually occurs at night. The CT-guided biopsy was considered appropriate for this patient. The medical decision making was of high complexity.

    • 99223

    • 99245

    • 99255

    • 99221

    Correct Answer
    A. 99223
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99223 because the patient's case involves a complex medical decision-making process. The attending physician requested a confirmatory consultation from an interventional radiologist for a second opinion on abnormal liver areas. The patient's history includes right upper quadrant pain, elevated liver enzymes, and previous CT findings of low attenuation areas in the liver. The patient also has laboratory abnormalities and intermittent low-grade fever. Considering all these factors, the CT-guided biopsy was deemed appropriate, indicating a high level of complexity in the medical decision-making process.

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  • 8. 

    A physical status anesthesia modifier of P4 means that a patient has :

    • Has a mild systemic disease

    • Has a severe systemic disease

    • Has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

    • Is moribound

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.
    Explanation
    The physical status anesthesia modifier P4 indicates that the patient has a severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to their life. This means that the patient's overall health is significantly compromised, and they require careful monitoring and management during anesthesia administration to avoid any potential complications or life-threatening situations.

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  • 9. 

    Andrea, a 52-year-old patient, had a hysterectomy on Monday morning. That afternoon, after returning to her hospital room, she suffered a cardiac arrest.  A cardiologist responded to the call and delivered one hour and 35 minutes of critical care. During this time the cardiologist ordered a single view chest x-ray and provided ventilation management. How should you report the cardiologist's services?

    • 99291, 99292

    • 99291, 99292, 71010, 94002

    • 71010, 94002, 99231

    • 99291, 99292, 99292-52

    Correct Answer
    A. 99291, 99292
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99291, 99292. The cardiologist provided critical care for one hour and 35 minutes, which meets the criteria for reporting code 99291. Additionally, the cardiologist continued to provide care after the initial critical care period, which can be reported with code 99292. No other services, such as the chest x-ray or ventilation management, were mentioned in the question, so they should not be reported.

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  • 10. 

    Why are the following codes not reported with continuing intensive care services : 99298-99300, 36510, 36000, 43752, 51100, 94660, or 94375?

    • These codes are deleted from the 2008 edition.

    • These codes are included with continuing intensive care services.

    • These codes are only add-on codes and should be reported with a modifier -51

    • These codes are Category III Codes and should never be reported with Category I codes.

    Correct Answer
    A. These codes are included with continuing intensive care services.
  • 11. 

    Sally had a DXA bone density study for her hips, pelvis, and spine. The procedure was performed in a hospital. How would you report for the professional services of this study?

    • 77078-26, 77080-26

    • 77080-26

    • 77082-26

    • 77081-26, 77080-26

    Correct Answer
    A. 77080-26
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 77080-26. This code represents the professional services for a DXA bone density study. The "-26" modifier indicates that only the professional component of the service is being reported. The other options either include additional codes that are not necessary for this specific study or do not include the "-26" modifier.

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  • 12. 

    A malignant bone tumor :

    • Rhabdomyosarcoma

    • Osteosarcoma

    • Multiple myeloma

    • Chondrosarcoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteosarcoma
    Explanation
    Osteosarcoma is the correct answer because it is a malignant bone tumor that arises from osteoblasts, which are cells responsible for bone formation. It is the most common primary bone cancer and typically occurs in children and young adults. Osteosarcoma often presents with bone pain, swelling, and a palpable mass. It can metastasize to other parts of the body, particularly the lungs. Treatment usually involves a combination of surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is not an ear bone?

    • Styloid

    • Incus

    • Stapes

    • Malleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Styloid
    Explanation
    The styloid is not an ear bone. The incus, stapes, and malleus are the three smallest bones in the human body and are collectively known as the ossicles. They are located in the middle ear and play a crucial role in transmitting sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. The styloid, on the other hand, is a long, pointed bone located in the neck region and is not part of the ear anatomy.

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  • 14. 

    What does the term cystopexy mean?

    • Inflammation of the spinal cord and brain

    • Surgical fixation of the urinary bladder

    • Surgical suture of the knee joints

    • Crushing procedure to remove cysts

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical fixation of the urinary bladder
    Explanation
    The term cystopexy refers to a surgical procedure that involves the fixation of the urinary bladder. This procedure is performed to correct bladder prolapse or to prevent the bladder from moving out of its normal position. It is a surgical technique that aims to provide support and stability to the bladder, ensuring that it remains in its proper anatomical position within the pelvis.

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  • 15. 

    What does the olecranon process refer to?

    • The elbow

    • Excision of a tumor in the large intestine

    • Plasma membranes

    • Use of a surgical endoscope in the knee

    Correct Answer
    A. The elbow
    Explanation
    The olecranon process refers to the bony prominence at the back of the elbow. It is part of the ulna bone and can be felt and seen as the "point" of the elbow.

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  • 16. 

    The symbol TRIANGLE before a code in the CPT manuals means?

    • The code is exempt from bundling requirements

    • The code has been revised in some way this year

    • The code is exempt from unbundling requirements

    • The code can be used as an add-on code , never reported alone or first.

    Correct Answer
    A. The code has been revised in some way this year
    Explanation
    The symbol TRIANGLE before a code in the CPT manuals indicates that the code has been revised in some way this year. This means that there have been changes or updates made to the code, and it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these revisions when using the code for billing or documentation purposes.

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  • 17. 

    A 12-year-old female sustained multiple tibial tuberosity fractures of the left knee while playing soccer at her local track meet. The physician extended the left leg and manipulated several fragments back into place. The knee was then aspirated. A long-leg knee brace was then placed on the knee.

    • 27330-LT

    • 27550-LT

    • 27334-LT

    • 27538-LT

    Correct Answer
    A. 27538-LT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 27538-LT. This code represents the application of a long-leg knee brace on the left knee. In this case, the physician placed a long-leg knee brace on the patient's left knee after manipulating the fractures and aspirating the knee. The code 27538 specifically describes the application of a long-leg knee brace, and the -LT modifier indicates that it was applied on the left side.

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  • 18. 

    A child is seen in the office for a superficial laceration of the right knee. The physician repairs the  3.0 cm. laceration with simple suturing. 

    • 12002-RT

    • 13120-RT

    • 12031-RT

    • 12007-50

    Correct Answer
    A. 12002-RT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12002-RT. This code is used for the repair of a superficial laceration, which matches the scenario described in the question. The "RT" modifier indicates that the procedure was performed on the right knee. The other options are not appropriate for this scenario.

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  • 19. 

    An arterial catheterization is coded how?

    • 36600

    • 36620

    • 36640

    • 36620, 36625

    Correct Answer
    A. 36620
    Explanation
    Arterial catheterization is coded using CPT code 36620. This code specifically represents the insertion of an arterial catheter for the purpose of monitoring blood pressure or obtaining blood samples. It does not include any additional procedures or services. Therefore, the correct answer is 36620.

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  • 20. 

    Sam is a 40-year-old male in for a bilateral vasectomy that will include three postoperative semen examinations.

    • 55250 X 3

    • 52648

    • 55250

    • 52402 X 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 55250
    Explanation
    The answer 55250 is likely the correct answer because it is mentioned in the question that Sam is going for a bilateral vasectomy that will include three postoperative semen examinations. It is possible that 55250 is the code or reference number for the procedure or test related to the semen examinations.

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  • 21. 

    In which part of the body would you find the choroid?

    • Brain

    • Eyeball

    • Muscles of the hand

    • Spinal column

    Correct Answer
    A. Eyeball
    Explanation
    The choroid is a part of the eyeball. It is a layer of blood vessels located between the retina and the sclera (the white outer layer of the eyeball). The choroid helps to supply oxygen and nutrients to the retina, which is responsible for capturing and processing visual information. It also contains pigments that help to absorb excess light and prevent reflection within the eye.

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  • 22. 

    Anesthesia time starts when :

    • When the radiologist meets the family

    • When the radiologist begins to administer drugs

    • When the radiologist prepares the patient for induction ---- preoperative

    Correct Answer
    A. When the radiologist prepares the patient for induction ---- preoperative
    Explanation
    The correct answer is when the radiologist prepares the patient for induction - preoperative. This is because anesthesia time starts when the patient is being prepared for the induction of anesthesia, which includes activities such as positioning the patient, applying monitoring devices, and administering preoperative medications. The anesthesia time does not start when the radiologist meets the family or when the radiologist begins to administer drugs.

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  • 23. 

    Because of frequent headaches, this 50-year-old female's doctor ordered a CT scan of the head, without contrast materials.

    • 70450

    • 70460

    • 70470

    • 70496

    Correct Answer
    A. 70450
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 70450 because a CT scan of the head without contrast materials is known as a CT head without contrast. Code 70450 specifically describes this procedure.

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  • 24. 

    Kathy has had intermittent abdominal pain, occasional diarrhea, stool frequency, and bloating. Her symptoms have worsened over the past two months. Her physician orders a fecal Calprotectin test to check for Crohn's disease. How should you report the lab test ?

    • 82270

    • 82272, 83993

    • 83993

    • 82271, 82272

    Correct Answer
    A. 83993
    Explanation
    The correct lab test code to report in this case is 83993. This code is used for the fecal Calprotectin test, which is ordered to check for Crohn's disease. The patient's symptoms, including abdominal pain, diarrhea, stool frequency, and bloating, along with their worsening over the past two months, indicate the need for this specific test. The other codes listed are not appropriate for this situation.

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  • 25. 

    What is the condition called where pus is in the pleural space and is sometimes a complication of pneumonia?

    • Pneumothorax

    • Empyema

    • Cor pullmonale

    • Atelectasis

    Correct Answer
    A. Empyema
    Explanation
    Empyema is the condition where pus accumulates in the pleural space, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This condition can sometimes occur as a complication of pneumonia, where the infection spreads to the pleural space. It is characterized by symptoms such as chest pain, fever, and difficulty breathing. Treatment usually involves draining the pus and administering antibiotics to clear the infection.

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  • 26. 

    A patient suffered a burn that involved the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layers with some muscle involvement. What degree of burn would describe this injury?

    • First-degree, superficial with blisters

    • Second-degree, partial thickness with muscle

    • Third-degree, full thickness

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Third-degree, full thickness
    Explanation
    This injury is described as a third-degree burn because it involves all layers of the skin (epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous) and also has muscle involvement. A third-degree burn is the most severe type of burn, characterized by the destruction of all layers of the skin and underlying tissues. It often appears white, black, or leathery and may require skin grafting or other surgical interventions for proper healing.

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  • 27. 

    An ERG is what type of a procedure?

    • Electroretinography

    • Electrorenalography

    • Electroretinograph

    • Electrorhidogram

    Correct Answer
    A. Electroretinography
    Explanation
    An ERG, or Electroretinography, is a procedure used to measure the electrical response of the retina to light stimulation. It involves placing electrodes on the cornea and skin near the eye to record the electrical signals produced by the retina. This procedure is commonly used in ophthalmology to diagnose and monitor various retinal diseases and disorders.

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  • 28. 

    Which term refers to the anus, rectum, and the cecum?

    • Rectal

    • Anorectal

    • Esophageal

    • Ilium

    Correct Answer
    A. Anorectal
    Explanation
    The term "anorectal" refers to the anus, rectum, and the cecum. This term is used to describe conditions or procedures related to these anatomical structures.

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  • 29. 

    The qualifying circumstances code indicates a 75-year-old male.

    • 99100

    • 99140

    • 99116

    • 99135

    Correct Answer
    A. 99100
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 99100. In medical coding, a qualifying circumstances code is used to provide additional information about a patient's condition or circumstances that may affect the medical treatment or services provided. In this case, the qualifying circumstances code 99100 indicates that the patient is a 75-year-old male.

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  • 30. 

    How does the CPT Professional Edition define a new patient?

    • A new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past two years.

    • A new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past three years.

    • A new patient is one who has received professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty within the last two years for the same problem.

    • A new patient is one who has received hospital services but has never been seen in the clinic by the reporting physician.

    Correct Answer
    A. A new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past three years.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the second option, which states that a new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past three years. This means that if a patient has received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty within the past three years, they are not considered a new patient.

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  • 31. 

    An anesthesiologist provides general anesthesia for a 72-year-old patient with mild systemic disease who is undergoing a ventral hernia repair. How would you report the anesthesia service?

    • 00834-P2, 99100

    • 00832-P2, 99100

    • 43560, 00834, 91000-P2

    • 00832

    Correct Answer
    A. 00832-P2, 99100
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 00832-P2, 99100. This answer indicates that the anesthesiologist provided anesthesia services for the ventral hernia repair procedure, which is represented by code 00832-P2. Additionally, the anesthesiologist also performed monitoring services during the procedure, which is represented by code 99100.

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  • 32. 

    What term could describe an inflammation of the plantar, causing foot or heel pain when walking or running?

    • Plantar fasciitis

    • Tenodesis

    • Tenolysis

    • Tendon fasciitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Plantar fasciitis
    Explanation
    Plantar fasciitis is the correct answer because it accurately describes the inflammation of the plantar fascia, which is a thick band of tissue that connects the heel bone to the toes. This condition commonly causes foot or heel pain, especially when walking or running. Tenodesis refers to the surgical fixation of a tendon, tenolysis is the release of scar tissue around a tendon, and tendon fasciitis is not a recognized medical term.

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  • 33. 

    Which combining form refers to the small intestine?

    • Enter/o

    • Gastr/o

    • Celi/o

    • Col/o

    Correct Answer
    A. Enter/o
    Explanation
    The combining form "enter/o" refers to the small intestine. The term "enter/o" is derived from the Greek word "enteron," which means intestine. It is commonly used in medical terminology to describe conditions or procedures related to the small intestine, such as enteritis (inflammation of the small intestine) or enteroscopy (a procedure to examine the small intestine).

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  • 34. 

    HCPCS CODING:Level II HCPCS codes for drugs are administered :

    • Intravenously

    • Intramuscularly

    • Subcutaneously

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above" because Level II HCPCS codes for drugs can be used to represent drugs administered intravenously, intramuscularly, or subcutaneously. This means that the codes can be used to bill for drugs that are given through any of these routes of administration.

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  • 35. 

    Qualifying circumstances anesthesia codes are used :

    • In addition to the anesthesia.

    • To describe circumstances that impact the character of the anesthesia.

    • To describe provision of anesthesia under particularly difficult circumstances.

    • All of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above" because qualifying circumstances anesthesia codes are used not only in addition to the anesthesia but also to describe circumstances that impact the character of the anesthesia and to describe the provision of anesthesia under particularly difficult circumstances. Therefore, all of these options are valid reasons for using qualifying circumstances anesthesia codes.

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  • 36. 

    This 34-year-old female had been suffering from chronic fatigue. Her physician has ordered a TSH test.

    • 80418, 780.71

    • 80438, 780.71

    • 80440, 780.79

    • 84443, 780.79

    Correct Answer
    A. 84443, 780.79
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 84443, 780.79. The patient's physician ordered a TSH test because the patient has been experiencing chronic fatigue. The TSH test (84443) is used to evaluate thyroid function, as thyroid disorders can cause fatigue. The code 780.79 is used to indicate the symptom of fatigue.

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  • 37. 

    The established patient is seen for a comprehensive eye exam (not E & M), fundus photography and the application of corneal bandage lenses for keratoconus. Code for this encounter.

    • 99215, 92250, 92070

    • 92004, 92250, 92072

    • 92014, 92250, 92071

    • 92014, 92250, 92072

    Correct Answer
    A. 92014, 92250, 92072
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 92014, 92250, 92072. This is because the patient is an established patient who is being seen for a comprehensive eye exam (92014), fundus photography (92250), and the application of corneal bandage lenses (92072) for keratoconus.

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  • 38. 

    A patient is taken to the OR for insertion of a Swan-Ganz catheter. The physician inserts the catheter for monitoring cardiac output measurements and blood gases.

    • 36013, 93503

    • 36013

    • 93508

    • 93503

    Correct Answer
    A. 93503
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 93503. This code represents the insertion of a Swan-Ganz catheter for monitoring cardiac output measurements and blood gases. This procedure involves the placement of a catheter into the pulmonary artery to measure cardiac output and obtain blood samples for analysis. The other codes listed do not specifically pertain to the insertion of a Swan-Ganz catheter or monitoring cardiac output and blood gases.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following codes are unlisted procedures?

    • 76498, 78199, 76496, 77799

    • 75600, 75801, 76506, 76830

    • 74181, 74280, 75565, 75600

    • 75810, 75801, 75860, 75984

    Correct Answer
    A. 76498, 78199, 76496, 77799
  • 40. 

    Dr. Lee performed an intra-operative consultation on a bile duct tumor requiring frozen section and cytological evaluation to a bladder tumor. How would you report his professional services?

    • 88329

    • 88331-26, 88334-26

    • 88331, 88332 X 2

    • 88331-26, 88333-26

    Correct Answer
    A. 88331-26, 88334-26
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 88331-26, 88334-26. This is because Dr. Lee performed an intra-operative consultation on a bile duct tumor, which requires frozen section evaluation (88331) and cytological evaluation (88334). The modifier -26 indicates that Dr. Lee only provided the professional component of the service, while the modifier -26 indicates that Dr. Lee provided the technical component.

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  • 41. 

    What services can you report in addition to the general ophthalmological services or evaluation and management services?

    • Intermediate ophthalmological services

    • Special ophthalmological services

    • Only new patient general ophthalmological services

    • Only established patient general ophthalmological services

    Correct Answer
    A. Special ophthalmological services
  • 42. 

    The term for a growth plate is?

    • Periosteum

    • Metaphysic

    • Epiphyseal

    • Endosteum

    Correct Answer
    A. Epiphyseal
    Explanation
    The growth plate is a region of cartilage at the ends of long bones in children and adolescents. It is also known as the epiphyseal plate or epiphyseal line. This is where bone growth occurs, allowing the bones to lengthen. Therefore, the correct answer is "epiphyseal."

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  • 43. 

    What condition has predominant symptoms of rapid, involuntary eye movement?

    • Astigmatism

    • Nystagmus

    • Diplopia

    • Hyperopia

    Correct Answer
    A. Nystagmus
    Explanation
    Nystagmus is a condition characterized by rapid, involuntary eye movements. These movements can be side-to-side, up and down, or circular in nature. This condition can cause blurred vision and difficulty focusing on objects. Astigmatism, diplopia, and hyperopia are not associated with rapid, involuntary eye movement, making nystagmus the correct answer.

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  • 44. 

    Which autoimmune disorder will eventually destroy the thyroid gland?

    • Hayem-Farber disease

    • Alzheimer's thyroiditis

    • Lou Gehrig's disease

    • Hashimoto's thyroiditis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
    Explanation
    Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune disorder that eventually destroys the thyroid gland. In this condition, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and gradual destruction of the gland over time. This results in decreased production of thyroid hormones, leading to symptoms such as fatigue, weight gain, and depression. If left untreated, Hashimoto's thyroiditis can lead to hypothyroidism and the need for lifelong thyroid hormone replacement therapy.

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  • 45. 

    What is an episiotomy and why would a patient need to have this procedure?

    • Surgical suturing of the rectum caused by extensive tissue damage following a bowel repair

    • Surgical incision of the vulva to facilitate delivery of a baby

    • Surgical puncture of the cervix to remove fluid

    • Surgical creation of an opening into the small intestine to provide relief of excessive gastritis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical incision of the vulva to facilitate delivery of a baby
    Explanation
    An episiotomy is a surgical incision of the vulva that is performed during childbirth to facilitate the delivery of the baby. This procedure is sometimes necessary when the baby's head is too large to pass through the vaginal opening or if there is a risk of tearing the tissues. It is done to prevent severe tearing of the perineum and to ensure a safe delivery for both the mother and the baby.

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  • 46. 

    During an emergency room visit, Sally was diagnosed with pneumonia. She was admitted to the hospital observation unit and treated with 500 mg of Zithromax through an IV route. How would you report the supply of this drug?

    • J 0456

    • Q0144

    • J1190 X 2

    • J2020 X 2

    Correct Answer
    A. J 0456
    Explanation
    The correct answer is J 0456. This is the correct code to report the supply of Zithromax, which was administered through an IV route to treat Sally's pneumonia during her hospital stay.

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  • 47. 

    When using the CPT index to locate procedures, which of the following are considered primary classes for main entries?

    • Procedure or service; organ or other anatomic site; condition.

    • Synonyms, eponyms, and abbreviations

    • Abbreviations; signs and symptoms, anatomic site; and code assignment

    • Conventions; code ranges; modifying terms

    • Procedure or service; modifiers; clinical examples; and definitions

    Correct Answer
    A. Procedure or service; organ or other anatomic site; condition.
    Explanation
    The primary classes for main entries when using the CPT index to locate procedures are procedure or service, organ or other anatomic site, and condition. These classes help categorize and organize the procedures in a systematic manner, making it easier for users to locate the desired procedure based on the specific procedure, organ or anatomic site, and condition they are looking for.

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  • 48. 

    MEDICINE SECTION :An elderly man comes in for his flu (split virus, IM) and pneumonia (23-valent, IM) vaccines. Code only the immunization administration and diagnoses for the vaccines. 

    • 90658, 90632, V05.8, V04.81

    • 90471, 90658, 90472, 90732, V04.81, V03.82

    • 90471 X 2, 90658, 90632, V04.81

    • 90471, 90472, V04.81, V03.82

    Correct Answer
    A. 90471, 90472, V04.81, V03.82
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 90471, 90472, V04.81, V03.82. This answer includes the correct immunization administration codes (90471 and 90472) for the flu and pneumonia vaccines. It also includes the correct diagnosis codes (V04.81 and V03.82) for the vaccines. The V04.81 code represents the need for prophylactic vaccination and the V03.82 code represents the need for a booster vaccination.

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  • 49. 

    How does cardiac magnetic imaging differ from a traditional MRI?

    • In its ability to provide a physiologic evaluation of cardiac function.

    • In its ability to provide a measurement of the cardiac output.

    • In its ability to provide only a one dimensional view of the heart.

    • In its ability to provide only mapping points for cardiac regurgitation.

    Correct Answer
    A. In its ability to provide a physiologic evaluation of cardiac function.
    Explanation
    Cardiac magnetic imaging differs from a traditional MRI in its ability to provide a physiologic evaluation of cardiac function. While a traditional MRI can provide detailed images of the heart structure, cardiac magnetic imaging goes a step further by assessing the function of the heart. It can evaluate parameters such as blood flow, myocardial viability, and myocardial perfusion, providing valuable information about the overall performance of the heart. This makes cardiac magnetic imaging a more comprehensive tool for assessing cardiac health compared to a traditional MRI, which mainly focuses on anatomical imaging.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 07, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    MITULPAR
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