Ds Process Qna [qa]

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| By Anoopkr
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Anoopkr
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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 254
Questions: 20 | Attempts: 137

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Ds Process Qna [qa] - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Incident portal belongs to  

    • A.

      Software Change section

    • B.

      Software Planning section

    • C.

      Software Design section

    • D.

      Software Quality section

    Correct Answer
    A. Software Change section
    Explanation
    The incident portal belongs to the Software Change section because it is used to track and manage incidents related to software changes. This section is responsible for handling any issues or problems that arise during the process of making changes to software, ensuring that they are addressed and resolved effectively. The incident portal provides a centralized platform for logging, tracking, and resolving these incidents, making it an essential tool for the Software Change section.

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  • 2. 

    IR use case related to data corruption, should be flagged as  

    • A.

      CD

    • B.

      HMA

    • C.

      MAND

    • D.

      MUSTFIX

    Correct Answer
    C. MAND
    Explanation
    In the context of an IR (incident response) use case related to data corruption, the term "MAND" most likely stands for "mandatory." This means that the issue of data corruption should be flagged as a mandatory action that needs to be addressed or fixed. It implies that it is crucial to prioritize and resolve the data corruption problem promptly.

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  • 3. 

    MAND Flag should be set on the defect if  

    • A.

      Acceptable but costly by pass exists from the customer standpoint

    • B.

      Risk of Critsit generation from the customer

    • C.

      No acceptable by pass exists from the customer standpoint

    • D.

      High Risk of Critsit generation from the customer

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. No acceptable by pass exists from the customer standpoint
    D. High Risk of Critsit generation from the customer
    Explanation
    If no acceptable bypass exists from the customer standpoint, it means that there is no alternative solution or workaround that the customer can use to mitigate the issue caused by the defect. This indicates that the defect is critical and cannot be easily resolved or worked around. Additionally, the high risk of Critsit generation from the customer suggests that the defect has the potential to cause severe consequences or disruptions for the customer, further emphasizing the importance of setting the MAND Flag on the defect.

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  • 4. 

    Core Dump applies to ...

    • A.

      Severity 1 and 2 defects only

    • B.

      Severity 1 defects only

    • C.

      Severity 1 and MAND defects only

    • D.

      Severity 2 defects only

    Correct Answer
    A. Severity 1 and 2 defects only
    Explanation
    A core dump refers to the process of transferring the content of a computer's memory (RAM) to a storage device, typically a hard disk, when the system encounters a critical error or crashes. This allows developers to analyze the state of the system at the time of the crash and identify the cause of the error. Core dumps are typically generated for severe defects that have a high impact on the system's functionality. Therefore, the correct answer is Severity 1 and 2 defects only, as these are the most critical and require immediate attention.

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  • 5. 

    IR is promoted as DUP when

    • A.

      Master IR is closed

    • B.

      Master IR is Opened

    • C.

      Master IR is Under Correction

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Master IR is closed
    Explanation
    When the Master IR is closed, the IR is promoted as DUP. This means that when the Master IR is not accessible or unavailable, the IR (which stands for Incident Report) is duplicated or replicated to serve as a substitute. This ensures that there is still a record of the incident and allows for further analysis and action to be taken even when the original Master IR is not accessible.

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  • 6. 

    DSx R&D authoring tool security is based on:

    • A.

      Macro-processes DEFINE, IMPLEMENT and SUPPORT

    • B.

      People and Organization (P&O) and R&D roles

    • C.

      Release timeframe

    • D.

      All of the 3 options

    Correct Answer
    B. People and Organization (P&O) and R&D roles
    Explanation
    The security of the DSx R&D authoring tool is based on People and Organization (P&O) and R&D roles. This means that the security measures implemented in the tool are designed to ensure that only authorized individuals within the organization, specifically those with the appropriate roles and responsibilities, have access to the tool and its functionalities. This helps to protect the tool and its data from unauthorized access or misuse, ensuring the overall security of the tool and the information it contains.

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  • 7. 

    Change management is designed as a maintenance management tool for

    • A.

      V6 products, developed by DS

    • B.

      V5 & V6 products, developed by DS

    • C.

      All products, developed by DS

    • D.

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. All products, developed by DS
    Explanation
    Change management is a maintenance management tool that is designed for all products developed by DS. This means that regardless of whether the product is a V6 or V5 version, change management can be utilized. It is a comprehensive solution that helps in managing and implementing changes effectively across all products developed by DS.

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  • 8. 

    Defect that breaks customer production process are flagged as

    • A.

      CRITSIT

    • B.

      MUSTFIX

    • C.

      HF

    • D.

      MAND

    Correct Answer
    A. CRITSIT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CRITSIT. This acronym stands for Critical Situation, indicating that the defect is causing a critical issue in the customer's production process. This term is commonly used in software development and IT support to prioritize and address urgent problems that require immediate attention and resolution.

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  • 9. 

    Defect doesn’t prevent the users from using the product, but use is restricted then severity of defect is 

    • A.

      Sevirity 1

    • B.

      Sevirity 2

    • C.

      Sevirity 3

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Sevirity 2
    Explanation
    If a defect in a product does not completely prevent users from using it, but still restricts its use to some extent, then the severity of the defect is considered to be Sevirity 2. This means that although the defect may not completely hinder the functionality of the product, it still has a significant impact on its usability and may cause inconvenience or limitations for the users.

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  • 10. 

    What is the full form of PHD

    • A.

      Product Highlight Design

    • B.

      Product Highlight Document

    • C.

      Product Highlevel Document

    • D.

      Project Highlight Design

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Product Highlight Design
    B. Product Highlight Document
  • 11. 

    What is the full form of DPQR

    • A.

      Development Plan Quality Review

    • B.

       Development Project Quality Reference

    • C.

       Development Product Quality Reference

    • D.

       Development Product Quality Review

    Correct Answer
    A. Development Plan Quality Review
    Explanation
    The full form of DPQR is Development Plan Quality Review. This term refers to a process or evaluation that assesses the quality of a development plan. It involves reviewing the various aspects of the plan, such as its objectives, strategies, and implementation methods, to ensure that it meets the required standards and is of high quality.

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  • 12. 

    Ideally, what are the QA "tasks" that should get assigned to a QA resource (and visible in the Planning link of the function) when a function is planned in RFL

    • A.

      QA Documentation Validation

    • B.

      Quality Assessment

    • C.

      All of these

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. QA Documentation Validation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "QA Documentation Validation." When a function is planned in RFL, one of the tasks that should be assigned to a QA resource is the validation of QA documentation. This involves reviewing and verifying the quality assurance documentation to ensure that it is complete, accurate, and meets the required standards. This task is essential in ensuring that the QA process is properly documented and followed, which ultimately contributes to the overall quality of the function.

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  • 13. 

    Define should be targeted when the PES is :

    • A.

      GO

    • B.

      GO/GOIF

    • C.

      NOGO

    • D.

      All options

    Correct Answer
    A. GO
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "GO" because when the PES (Potential Energy Surface) is defined, it means that the energy surface is being targeted or focused on. This implies that the system is actively trying to reach the desired energy state or configuration, which is represented by the "GO" option.

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  • 14. 

    Activity "Scenario Definition" is connected to a function in "Activity Report"

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The activity "Scenario Definition" is not connected to a function in "Activity Report".

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  • 15. 

    From where can QA Leadership be transferred for a function?

    • A.

      Quality Assessment Home Page

    • B.

      Function Home Page

    • C.

      Al the options are correct

    • D.

      Non of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assessment Home Page
    Explanation
    QA Leadership can be transferred from the Quality Assessment Home Page. This suggests that the Quality Assessment Home Page is the central hub for all quality assessment activities and processes within the organization. It is likely that the Quality Assessment Home Page provides access to relevant resources, tools, and information that QA leaders need to perform their roles effectively. Transferring QA Leadership from this page ensures that the function is aligned with the organization's quality assessment goals and processes.

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  • 16. 

    Who should update DPQR?

    • A.

      QA Leaders

    • B.

      Technical Writers

    • C.

      Testers

    • D.

      Development Manager

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. QA Leaders
    B. Technical Writers
    C. Testers
    Explanation
    The QA Leaders, Technical Writers, and Testers should update DPQR because they are directly involved in the quality assurance process. QA Leaders are responsible for overseeing the quality of the product and ensuring that all necessary updates are made. Technical Writers are responsible for documenting the product and its updates. Testers are responsible for testing the product and identifying any issues or areas that need improvement. Therefore, all three roles have a direct involvement in updating DPQR. The Development Manager may be involved in the decision-making process but may not necessarily be responsible for the actual updates.

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  • 17. 

    A function has 5 Sev1 Open IRs connected. The QA judgement for function is GOIF

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the QA judgement for the function is GOIF, which stands for "Good, Open, In Progress, and Fixed". This means that there are no Sev1 (Severity 1) Open IRs (Incident Reports) connected to the function.

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  • 18. 

    Customer Defect identified as critical in last marketed release are flagged as

    • A.

      HF

    • B.

      CRITSIT

    • C.

      HMA

    • D.

      MAND

    Correct Answer
    A. HF
    Explanation
    In software development, when a customer defect is identified as critical in the last marketed release, it is typically flagged as "HF" which stands for Hotfix. A hotfix is a software patch that is designed to fix a critical issue or bug in a software application. By flagging it as HF, the development team acknowledges the urgency of the issue and prioritizes it for immediate resolution to ensure customer satisfaction and prevent any further negative impact on the product.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is Not a type of IR closure?

    • A.

      Technical Analysis

    • B.

      Enhancement

    • C.

      Programming Error

    • D.

      User Error

    Correct Answer
    A. Technical Analysis
    Explanation
    Technical Analysis is not a type of IR closure because it is a method used in financial markets to analyze and predict future price movements based on historical data, market trends, and patterns. IR closure refers to the process of resolving an incident or issue in information technology, and it typically involves identifying and fixing technical or programming errors, enhancing system performance, or addressing user errors. Therefore, Technical Analysis is not directly related to the concept of IR closure.

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  • 20. 

    What are the possible actions on the IR in open state?

    • A.

      Edit IR

    • B.

      Transfer IR

    • C.

      Subscribe to an event

    • D.

      All of the options are correct

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the options are correct
    Explanation
    In the open state, all of the given options are possible actions on the IR. Users can edit the IR to make any necessary changes, transfer the IR to another user or department, and subscribe to an event to receive updates or notifications related to the IR. Therefore, all of the options are correct in this case.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 20, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Anoopkr
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