3d052 Cyber Systems Operations Journeyman Volume 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    What is the primary unclassified PKI token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the air force?

    • Hardware Token
    • Software Token
    • Common Access Card
    • Identification (ID) key
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3d052 Cyber Systems Operations Journeyman Volume 1 - Quiz
About This Quiz

The '3D052 Cyber Systems Operations Journeyman Volume 1' quiz assesses knowledge on network setups, including types and configurations. It covers essentials from basic network requirements to distinctions between heterogeneous and homogeneous networks, vital for professionals in IT and network engineering.

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  • 2. 

    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • Internetwork

    • Intranetwork

    • Homogeneous network

    • Heterogeneous network

    Correct Answer
    A. Homogeneous network
    Explanation
    A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and software in the network are designed to work together seamlessly, making management and troubleshooting easier. It also allows for better integration and compatibility between different network components, leading to improved performance and reliability.

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  • 3. 

    What are 3 primary ways to authenticate ones self?

    • Finger and voiceprints, or retinal scans

    • Passwords, fingerprints, or identification cards

    • Passwords, fortezza cards, or identification cards

    • Something you know, something you have, or something you are

    Correct Answer
    A. Something you know, something you have, or something you are
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Something you know, something you have, or something you are." This answer refers to the three primary ways to authenticate oneself: through knowledge (such as passwords or PINs), possession (such as identification cards or security tokens), or physical characteristics (such as fingerprints or facial recognition). These three factors provide different layers of security to ensure the authenticity and identity of the individual.

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  • 4. 

    Knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you?

    • Know

    • Have

    • Need

    • Read

    Correct Answer
    A. Know
    Explanation
    Knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they "know". This means that the user needs to provide information that only they should know, such as a password, PIN, or answers to security questions. This is a common method used in online accounts and systems to verify the identity of the user. By asking for something the user knows, it helps to ensure that only authorized individuals are granted access to the system or account.

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  • 5. 

    What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?

    • Degaussing

    • Overwriting

    • Formatting

    • Deleting

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media because it uses a strong magnetic field to erase all data on the media, making it impossible to recover. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting methods may leave traces of data that can potentially be recovered, but degaussing ensures complete destruction of the data.

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  • 6. 

    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 5

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    A minimum of two computers is needed for a computer network because a network requires at least two devices to establish a connection and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, resulting in no network. Therefore, two computers are necessary for a basic computer network.

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  • 7. 

    How many users are nomally in a peer to peer network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10
    Explanation
    In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This means that there are usually only a small number of users connected to the network at any given time. This range is common for peer-to-peer networks because they are often used for small-scale file sharing or collaboration among a small group of individuals. Having a limited number of users helps to ensure efficient and effective communication and sharing of resources within the network.

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  • 8. 

    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • Configuration

    • Performance

    • Accounting

    • Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Security
    Explanation
    The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are put in place to protect the network from unauthorized access and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. This includes implementing authentication mechanisms, encryption, firewalls, and other security measures to control access to sensitive data and prevent unauthorized users from gaining access to the network.

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  • 9. 

    A base web server that inferfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?

    • At the core

    • None are allowed

    • Outside the base network

    • De-militarized zone

    Correct Answer
    A. De-militarized zone
    Explanation
    A base web server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a de-militarized zone (DMZ). A DMZ is a separate network segment that sits between the internal network and the external network, providing an extra layer of security. Placing the web server in the DMZ allows it to be accessible to the public while isolating it from the internal network, reducing the risk of potential attacks or breaches. This ensures that any potential compromises or vulnerabilities on the web server do not directly impact the internal network and its resources.

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  • 10. 

    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • Internetwork

    • Intranetwork

    • Homogeneous Network

    • Heterogeneous Network

    Correct Answer
    A. Heterogeneous Network
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software from various manufacturers, making it diverse and complex. The systems may have different configurations and require special compatibility measures to ensure seamless communication and interoperability.

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  • 11. 

    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • Media access control address

    • Network server name

    • Subnet mask address

    • Node seriel number

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address
    Explanation
    The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. It is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to control access to the network media. The MAC address is essential for communication between devices on the same network and is used by routers to forward data packets to the correct destination.

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  • 12. 

    What series of AF instruction series covers communications and information?

    • 10

    • 29

    • 30

    • 33

    Correct Answer
    A. 33
  • 13. 

    What is the process of physically damaging the media to render is unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

    • Destroying

    • Degaussing

    • Sanitizing

    • Overwriting

    Correct Answer
    A. Destroying
    Explanation
    Destroying is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and make the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods. This can involve methods such as shredding, crushing, or incinerating the media to ensure that the data cannot be recovered.

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  • 14. 

    What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global info grid system?

    • Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)

    • Interim authorization to operate (IATO)

    • Authorization to operate (ATO)

    • Interim authorization to test (IATT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Authorization to operate (ATO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Authorization to operate (ATO)". This documentation is required to permanently connect to the global info grid system. It signifies that the system has met all the necessary security requirements and is authorized to operate on the network. The ATO ensures that the system has undergone proper testing, evaluation, and risk assessment before being granted permission to connect to the global info grid system.

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  • 15. 

    What doc signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global info grid?

    • Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)

    • Interim authorization to operate (IATO)

    • Authorization to operate (ATO)

    • Interim authorization to test (IATT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)." This document signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global info grid. It implies that the system has been denied authorization to operate, indicating that it does not meet the necessary requirements or has been deemed a security risk. The other options, such as Interim authorization to operate (IATO), Authorization to operate (ATO), and Interim authorization to test (IATT), all suggest some level of authorization or permission granted to the system, which is not the case with DATO.

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  • 16. 

    What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

    • Public key cryptography

    • Public key infrastructure (PKI)

    • Key distribution center

    • Asymmetric key infrastructure

    Correct Answer
    A. Public key infrastructure (PKI)
    Explanation
    Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between unknown parties. It provides a framework for managing digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the identity of users and ensure the confidentiality and integrity of data. PKI uses asymmetric encryption algorithms, such as public key cryptography, to securely distribute and verify digital certificates. This allows for secure communication and data exchange even between individuals or organizations who have no prior relationship or trust.

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  • 17. 

    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized peronnel called?

    • Homogeneous Network

    • Internetwork

    • Intranetwork

    • Local Area Network (LAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Intranetwork
    Explanation
    An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that restricts access to authorized personnel only. It is a network that is specifically designed for internal use within an organization, allowing employees to securely share information and resources. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is confined to a single organization. It is also different from a local area network (LAN), as a LAN refers to a network that covers a small geographical area, whereas an intranetwork can span multiple locations. Therefore, the correct answer is intranetwork.

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  • 18. 

    What network entitiy provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

    • Network control center (NCC)

    • Network control center-deployable (NCC-D)

    • Network operations center (NOSC)

    • Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The network control center (NCC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. The NCC is typically located at a fixed site and is responsible for monitoring, controlling, and maintaining the network infrastructure. It ensures that the network is functioning properly, troubleshoots any issues that arise, and implements security measures to protect the network and its users. The NCC plays a critical role in ensuring that base level customers have access to a reliable and secure network environment.

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  • 19. 

    What color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events?

    • Blue

    • Orange

    • Purple

    • Yellow

    Correct Answer
    A. Purple
    Explanation
    Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events.

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  • 20. 

    What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

    • Tunneling

    • Identification Spoofing

    • Application-based attacks

    • Second message encryption

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunneling
    Explanation
    Tunneling is the practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the unauthorized message to bypass the firewall undetected by hiding it within a legitimate message. By using tunneling, attackers can gain unauthorized access to a network or system by disguising their activities and bypassing security measures.

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  • 21. 

    What network dvice performs regorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

    • Network management software

    • Intrusion detection devices

    • Vulnerability scanners

    • Firewalls

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability scanners
    Explanation
    Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations. These scanners scan the network for potential vulnerabilities in software, configurations, and systems. By identifying these weaknesses, they help in preventing security breaches and protecting the network from potential threats.

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  • 22. 

    What do you call a current and percieved capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?

    • Vulnerability

    • Threat

    • Compromise

    • Tunneling

    Correct Answer
    A. Threat
    Explanation
    A threat refers to a current or perceived capability, intention, or attack that is directed towards causing a denial of service. It signifies a potential danger or risk to the system's security and can be either intentional or unintentional. It is important to identify and address threats in order to protect the system from potential harm or disruption.

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  • 23. 

    An information system on your network that is not to require the use of a common access card or password would be considered a?

    • Threat

    • Vulnerability

    • Compromise

    • Tunneling

    Correct Answer
    A. Vulnerability
    Explanation
    A system on a network that does not require the use of a common access card or password is considered a vulnerability. This means that the system lacks proper authentication measures, making it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to sensitive information or resources. Without the use of strong authentication methods, the system becomes more susceptible to potential security breaches and compromises.

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  • 24. 

    Which component of the PKI responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?

    • Certificate Policy Manager

    • Registration Authority

    • Certificate Authority

    • Certificate Repository

    Correct Answer
    A. Certificate Authority
    Explanation
    The Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). The CA is a trusted third-party entity that verifies the identity of individuals or organizations requesting certificates, issues the certificates, and signs them with its digital signature. The CA also maintains a repository of issued certificates and is responsible for revoking certificates if necessary. The CA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of the PKI system.

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  • 25. 

    How many users are in a multi server high speed backbone network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 250-1000
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 250-1000. This range indicates that there can be anywhere between 250 to 1000 users in a multi server high speed backbone network. The network is designed to handle a large number of users, making it suitable for organizations or institutions with a significant user base.

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  • 26. 

    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 6

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information consisting of 8 bits, and in the case of the internet protocol, each octet represents a part of the IP address. The IP address is divided into four sections, with each section represented by an octet, allowing for a total of 32 bits in the IP address. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

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  • 27. 

    What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?

    • Degausser

    • Degaussing

    • Destroying

    • Sanitizing

    Correct Answer
    A. Degaussing
    Explanation
    Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process effectively removes all data from the magnetic media by neutralizing the magnetic fields that store the information. It is commonly used to erase data from hard drives, tapes, and other magnetic storage devices before disposal or reuse to ensure that the data cannot be recovered.

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  • 28. 

    Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds how many days?

    • 15 days

    • 30 days

    • 45 days

    • 90 days

    Correct Answer
    A. 30 days
    Explanation
    Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 30 days. This means that if the deployment lasts for more than 30 days, there will be ongoing and continuous support for communication needs. This could include providing necessary equipment, setting up communication systems, and ensuring that communication channels remain open and functional throughout the duration of the deployment.

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  • 29. 

    What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a varitety of attacks without an info systems owners knowledge?

    • Virus

    • Trojan Horse

    • Worm

    • Bot

    Correct Answer
    A. Bot
    Explanation
    A bot is a type of malicious logic that can form large networks, known as botnets, without the knowledge of an information system owner. These botnets can be used to launch various attacks, such as DDoS attacks, spamming, or distributing malware, without the owner's awareness. Bots are often designed to perform automated tasks and can infect multiple computers, allowing the attacker to control and manipulate them remotely. This makes bots a powerful tool for cybercriminals to carry out their malicious activities while remaining undetected.

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  • 30. 

    Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contigency?

    • Open systems standards teams

    • Combat integrated system teams

    • Initial communications support teams

    • Sustained communications support teams

    Correct Answer
    A. Sustained communications support teams
    Explanation
    Sustained communications support teams are responsible for providing uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units during a contingency. These teams ensure that communication systems are operational and functioning effectively throughout the duration of the contingency, allowing for seamless and reliable communication between different units and locations.

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  • 31. 

    What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

    • Global area network (GAN)

    • Local area network (LAN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network (GAN)
    Explanation
    A global area network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike a local area network (LAN) which is limited to a small area, a GAN allows for communication between networks that are spread across different regions or even continents. This type of network is commonly used by multinational corporations or organizations that have branches or offices in various locations around the world.

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  • 32. 

    What air force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

    • AFPD 33-1

    • AFI 33-112

    • AFI 33-115v1

    • AFI 29-2603v2

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 33-115v1
    Explanation
    AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it is the air force instruction that provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and securing information systems within the air force, ensuring the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of information. It establishes the roles and responsibilities of personnel involved in the AF-GIG and provides guidance on the implementation of information technology systems and networks.

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  • 33. 

    According to the air force network structure, what tier is the air force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The air force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1 in the air force network structure. This means that it is the highest level of the network hierarchy and is responsible for the overall management and control of the air force network. Tier 1 is typically made up of centralized command centers that handle strategic planning, policy development, and coordination of network operations.

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  • 34. 

    What network architecture has a network mangement platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network mangement duties?

    • Centralized

    • Distributed

    • Hierarchical

    • Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized
    Explanation
    Centralized network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties. In this architecture, all the network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from a single central location. This allows for easier management and control of the network, as all the management functions are consolidated in one place.

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  • 35. 

    What operational SNMP message asks for a specific instance of management information?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • Getnext

    Correct Answer
    A. Get
    Explanation
    The operational SNMP message that asks for a specific instance of management information is the "Get" message. This message is used to retrieve the value of a specific variable or object from a managed device. It allows the SNMP manager to request specific information from the SNMP agent by specifying the Object Identifier (OID) of the desired variable. The SNMP agent then responds with the current value of that variable.

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  • 36. 

    What operational SNMP message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. Trap
    Explanation
    A trap is an unsolicited message from an SNMP agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred on the network device being monitored. Traps are sent by the agent without any request from the manager, making them unsolicited. They provide real-time information about events such as link status changes, system reboots, or high CPU usage, allowing the manager to take appropriate actions.

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  • 37. 

    A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a?

    • Virus

    • Trojan Horse

    • Worm

    • Bot

    Correct Answer
    A. Virus
    Explanation
    A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is called a virus. Viruses are malicious software that can spread and infect other programs or files by inserting their own code into them. Once infected, the virus can replicate itself and spread to other systems or devices. Viruses often cause harm to the infected system by corrupting files, stealing data, or causing system crashes. Unlike trojan horses, worms, or bots, viruses specifically replicate by attaching themselves to existing programs.

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  • 38. 

    Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?

    • Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)

    • Diffie and Hellman

    • Elliptic curve digital signature algorithm (ECDSA)

    • Elliptic curve Diffie-Hellman (ECDH)

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffie and Hellman
    Explanation
    Diffie and Hellman is exclusively a key establishment protocol. It is used to securely establish a shared secret key between two parties over an insecure communication channel. It does not involve any encryption or decryption of messages, making it solely focused on the establishment of a shared key. RSA, ECDSA, and ECDH, on the other hand, are cryptographic algorithms that involve encryption, decryption, and digital signatures.

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  • 39. 

    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

    • Global area network (GAN)

    • Local are network (LAN)

    • Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Local are network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A Local Area Network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It typically covers a small area such as a home, office, or campus. LANs are commonly used to connect computers, printers, and other devices to share resources and information locally.

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  • 40. 

    How many users are in a multi-server network?

    • 2-10

    • 10-50

    • 50-250

    • 250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 50-250
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50-250. In a multi-server network, there can be a varying number of users depending on the size and capacity of the network. The range of 50-250 suggests that the network can accommodate a moderate number of users, making it suitable for medium-sized organizations or businesses. This range allows for scalability and flexibility in terms of accommodating user growth and network expansion.

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  • 41. 

    The AF requires a network password to be atleast how many characters long?

    • 6

    • 7

    • 8

    • 9

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    The AF requires a network password to be at least 9 characters long.

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  • 42. 

    What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?

    • Enclave

    • Bastion

    • Circuits

    • Base

    Correct Answer
    A. Enclave
    Explanation
    An enclave refers to a collection of computing environments that are interconnected by internal networks and are controlled by a single approval authority and security policy. This term is commonly used in the context of computer security and refers to a secure and isolated area where sensitive information or critical systems are stored and processed. Enclaves are designed to provide a high level of security and control over the computing environments within them, ensuring that only authorized individuals have access and that strict security policies are enforced.

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  • 43. 

    Which function of performance mangement tracks historical data by tracking activites on the network?

    • Tuning

    • Analyzing

    • Gathering

    • Monitoring

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitoring
    Explanation
    Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and collecting historical data. This function of performance management helps in identifying any issues or anomalies in the network, monitoring network performance, and making informed decisions based on the collected data. It allows for proactive management and optimization of network resources.

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  • 44. 

    What operational SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of info with minimal overhead?

    • Get

    • Set

    • Trap

    • GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. GetNext
    Explanation
    The correct answer is GetNext. GetNext is an operational SNMP message that is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. It allows the SNMP manager to retrieve the next variable in the MIB (Management Information Base) table, which makes it efficient for retrieving sequential data. By using GetNext, the manager can retrieve multiple variables in a single request without having to send separate Get requests for each variable. This reduces the overhead and improves the efficiency of the SNMP communication.

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  • 45. 

    What is the type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity info using proprietary topology management info bases (MIB)?

    • Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe.

    • Neighbor probe

    • Containment probe

    • System information probe

    Correct Answer
    A. Neighbor probe
    Explanation
    A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is used to discover and monitor neighboring devices in a network, allowing for the identification of connected devices and their connectivity status. This information is crucial for network management and troubleshooting purposes.

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  • 46. 

    What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain info?

    • Authentication

    • Recertification

    • Accreditation

    • Identification

    Correct Answer
    A. Authentication
    Explanation
    Authentication is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and their ability to access certain information. It involves the process of confirming the identity of an individual or system, typically through the use of usernames and passwords, biometric data, or security tokens. By authenticating the subject, the system ensures that only authorized individuals can access the desired information, thereby protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access.

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  • 47. 

    What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?

    • Identification spoofing and tunneling

    • Tunneling and application-based attacks

    • Second message encryption and identification spoofing

    • Application-based attacks and second message encryption

    Correct Answer
    A. Tunneling and application-based attacks
    Explanation
    Tunneling and application-based attacks are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall. Tunneling refers to the process of encapsulating one protocol within another, allowing unauthorized access to the network. Application-based attacks exploit vulnerabilities in specific applications to gain unauthorized access or disrupt the network. Both of these attacks can bypass the firewall's security measures and pose a significant threat to the network's security.

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  • 48. 

    What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?

    • Virus

    • Trojan Horse

    • Worm

    • Bot

    Correct Answer
    A. Worm
    Explanation
    A worm is a type of malicious logic that can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file. Unlike viruses that typically attach themselves to files, worms are standalone programs that can spread and replicate themselves across a network or the internet. They exploit vulnerabilities in computer systems to gain unauthorized access and can cause significant damage by consuming network bandwidth, deleting files, or even shutting down entire systems. Therefore, worms are a potent threat to information systems as they can spread rapidly and autonomously without relying on infected files.

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  • 49. 

    What program is known as a state of the are ground to ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?

    • Commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS)

    • Combat integrated systems

    • Theater deployable communications (TDC)

    • Integrated communications access package (ICAP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Theater deployable communications (TDC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Theater deployable communications (TDC). TDC is a program that provides base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base. It is designed to be a state-of-the-art ground to ground communications infrastructure.

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