3d052 Cyber Systems Operations Journeyman Volume 1

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By YourAlibi
Y
YourAlibi
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 2,265
| Attempts: 930 | Questions: 100
Please wait...
Question 1 / 100
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. What is the primary unclassified PKI token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the air force?

Explanation

The Common Access Card is the primary unclassified PKI token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the air force. This card serves as an identification card and allows individuals to securely access various systems and resources. It contains a microchip that stores cryptographic keys and certificates, providing authentication and encryption capabilities. The Common Access Card is a physical token that individuals carry with them, making it a reliable and convenient option for securing PKI keys and certificates in the air force.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
3d052 Cyber Systems Operations Journeyman Volume 1 - Quiz

The '3D052 Cyber Systems Operations Journeyman Volume 1' quiz assesses knowledge on network setups, including types and configurations. It covers essentials from basic network requirements to distinctions between heterogeneous and homogeneous networks, vital for professionals in IT and network engineering.

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. What are 3 primary ways to authenticate ones self?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Something you know, something you have, or something you are." This answer refers to the three primary ways to authenticate oneself: through knowledge (such as passwords or PINs), possession (such as identification cards or security tokens), or physical characteristics (such as fingerprints or facial recognition). These three factors provide different layers of security to ensure the authenticity and identity of the individual.

Submit
3. Knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you?

Explanation

Knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they "know". This means that the user needs to provide information that only they should know, such as a password, PIN, or answers to security questions. This is a common method used in online accounts and systems to verify the identity of the user. By asking for something the user knows, it helps to ensure that only authorized individuals are granted access to the system or account.

Submit
4. What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

Explanation

A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and software in the network are designed to work together seamlessly, making management and troubleshooting easier. It also allows for better integration and compatibility between different network components, leading to improved performance and reliability.

Submit
5. What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?

Explanation

Degaussing is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media because it uses a strong magnetic field to erase all data on the media, making it impossible to recover. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting methods may leave traces of data that can potentially be recovered, but degaussing ensures complete destruction of the data.

Submit
6. A base web server that inferfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?

Explanation

A base web server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a de-militarized zone (DMZ). A DMZ is a separate network segment that sits between the internal network and the external network, providing an extra layer of security. Placing the web server in the DMZ allows it to be accessible to the public while isolating it from the internal network, reducing the risk of potential attacks or breaches. This ensures that any potential compromises or vulnerabilities on the web server do not directly impact the internal network and its resources.

Submit
7. What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

Explanation

A minimum of two computers is needed for a computer network because a network requires at least two devices to establish a connection and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there would be no other device to connect to, resulting in no network. Therefore, two computers are necessary for a basic computer network.

Submit
8. How many users are nomally in a peer to peer network?

Explanation

In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This means that there are usually only a small number of users connected to the network at any given time. This range is common for peer-to-peer networks because they are often used for small-scale file sharing or collaboration among a small group of individuals. Having a limited number of users helps to ensure efficient and effective communication and sharing of resources within the network.

Submit
9. What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

Explanation

The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security measures are put in place to protect the network from unauthorized access and ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information. This includes implementing authentication mechanisms, encryption, firewalls, and other security measures to control access to sensitive data and prevent unauthorized users from gaining access to the network.

Submit
10. What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

Explanation

A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In this type of network environment, there is a mix of hardware and software from various manufacturers, making it diverse and complex. The systems may have different configurations and require special compatibility measures to ensure seamless communication and interoperability.

Submit
11. What is the process of physically damaging the media to render is unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

Explanation

Destroying is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and make the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods. This can involve methods such as shredding, crushing, or incinerating the media to ensure that the data cannot be recovered.

Submit
12. What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

Explanation

The media access control address is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. It is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) and is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to control access to the network media. The MAC address is essential for communication between devices on the same network and is used by routers to forward data packets to the correct destination.

Submit
13. What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global info grid system?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Authorization to operate (ATO)". This documentation is required to permanently connect to the global info grid system. It signifies that the system has met all the necessary security requirements and is authorized to operate on the network. The ATO ensures that the system has undergone proper testing, evaluation, and risk assessment before being granted permission to connect to the global info grid system.

Submit
14. What doc signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global info grid?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)." This document signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global info grid. It implies that the system has been denied authorization to operate, indicating that it does not meet the necessary requirements or has been deemed a security risk. The other options, such as Interim authorization to operate (IATO), Authorization to operate (ATO), and Interim authorization to test (IATT), all suggest some level of authorization or permission granted to the system, which is not the case with DATO.

Submit
15. What series of AF instruction series covers communications and information?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
16. What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

Explanation

Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between unknown parties. It provides a framework for managing digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the identity of users and ensure the confidentiality and integrity of data. PKI uses asymmetric encryption algorithms, such as public key cryptography, to securely distribute and verify digital certificates. This allows for secure communication and data exchange even between individuals or organizations who have no prior relationship or trust.

Submit
17. What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling is the practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the unauthorized message to bypass the firewall undetected by hiding it within a legitimate message. By using tunneling, attackers can gain unauthorized access to a network or system by disguising their activities and bypassing security measures.

Submit
18. What network dvice performs regorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

Explanation

Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations. These scanners scan the network for potential vulnerabilities in software, configurations, and systems. By identifying these weaknesses, they help in preventing security breaches and protecting the network from potential threats.

Submit
19. What network entitiy provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

Explanation

The network control center (NCC) is the correct answer because it is responsible for providing reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. The NCC is typically located at a fixed site and is responsible for monitoring, controlling, and maintaining the network infrastructure. It ensures that the network is functioning properly, troubleshoots any issues that arise, and implements security measures to protect the network and its users. The NCC plays a critical role in ensuring that base level customers have access to a reliable and secure network environment.

Submit
20. What color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events?

Explanation

Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events.

Submit
21. What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized peronnel called?

Explanation

An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that restricts access to authorized personnel only. It is a network that is specifically designed for internal use within an organization, allowing employees to securely share information and resources. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is confined to a single organization. It is also different from a local area network (LAN), as a LAN refers to a network that covers a small geographical area, whereas an intranetwork can span multiple locations. Therefore, the correct answer is intranetwork.

Submit
22. What do you call a current and percieved capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?

Explanation

A threat refers to a current or perceived capability, intention, or attack that is directed towards causing a denial of service. It signifies a potential danger or risk to the system's security and can be either intentional or unintentional. It is important to identify and address threats in order to protect the system from potential harm or disruption.

Submit
23. An information system on your network that is not to require the use of a common access card or password would be considered a?

Explanation

A system on a network that does not require the use of a common access card or password is considered a vulnerability. This means that the system lacks proper authentication measures, making it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to sensitive information or resources. Without the use of strong authentication methods, the system becomes more susceptible to potential security breaches and compromises.

Submit
24. Which component of the PKI responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?

Explanation

The Certificate Authority (CA) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). The CA is a trusted third-party entity that verifies the identity of individuals or organizations requesting certificates, issues the certificates, and signs them with its digital signature. The CA also maintains a repository of issued certificates and is responsible for revoking certificates if necessary. The CA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and integrity of the PKI system.

Submit
25. How many users are in a multi server high speed backbone network?

Explanation

The correct answer is 250-1000. This range indicates that there can be anywhere between 250 to 1000 users in a multi server high speed backbone network. The network is designed to handle a large number of users, making it suitable for organizations or institutions with a significant user base.

Submit
26. What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?

Explanation

Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process effectively removes all data from the magnetic media by neutralizing the magnetic fields that store the information. It is commonly used to erase data from hard drives, tapes, and other magnetic storage devices before disposal or reuse to ensure that the data cannot be recovered.

Submit
27. How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

Explanation

The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information consisting of 8 bits, and in the case of the internet protocol, each octet represents a part of the IP address. The IP address is divided into four sections, with each section represented by an octet, allowing for a total of 32 bits in the IP address. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

Submit
28. Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds how many days?

Explanation

Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds 30 days. This means that if the deployment lasts for more than 30 days, there will be ongoing and continuous support for communication needs. This could include providing necessary equipment, setting up communication systems, and ensuring that communication channels remain open and functional throughout the duration of the deployment.

Submit
29. What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a varitety of attacks without an info systems owners knowledge?

Explanation

A bot is a type of malicious logic that can form large networks, known as botnets, without the knowledge of an information system owner. These botnets can be used to launch various attacks, such as DDoS attacks, spamming, or distributing malware, without the owner's awareness. Bots are often designed to perform automated tasks and can infect multiple computers, allowing the attacker to control and manipulate them remotely. This makes bots a powerful tool for cybercriminals to carry out their malicious activities while remaining undetected.

Submit
30. Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contigency?

Explanation

Sustained communications support teams are responsible for providing uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units during a contingency. These teams ensure that communication systems are operational and functioning effectively throughout the duration of the contingency, allowing for seamless and reliable communication between different units and locations.

Submit
31. What operational SNMP message asks for a specific instance of management information?

Explanation

The operational SNMP message that asks for a specific instance of management information is the "Get" message. This message is used to retrieve the value of a specific variable or object from a managed device. It allows the SNMP manager to request specific information from the SNMP agent by specifying the Object Identifier (OID) of the desired variable. The SNMP agent then responds with the current value of that variable.

Submit
32. What operational SNMP message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

Explanation

A trap is an unsolicited message from an SNMP agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about a specific event or condition that has occurred on the network device being monitored. Traps are sent by the agent without any request from the manager, making them unsolicited. They provide real-time information about events such as link status changes, system reboots, or high CPU usage, allowing the manager to take appropriate actions.

Submit
33. What network architecture has a network mangement platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network mangement duties?

Explanation

Centralized network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties. In this architecture, all the network management tasks, such as monitoring, configuration, and troubleshooting, are performed from a single central location. This allows for easier management and control of the network, as all the management functions are consolidated in one place.

Submit
34. What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?

Explanation

A global area network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike a local area network (LAN) which is limited to a small area, a GAN allows for communication between networks that are spread across different regions or even continents. This type of network is commonly used by multinational corporations or organizations that have branches or offices in various locations around the world.

Submit
35. What air force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

Explanation

AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it is the air force instruction that provides policy, direction, and structure for the air force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and securing information systems within the air force, ensuring the availability, integrity, and confidentiality of information. It establishes the roles and responsibilities of personnel involved in the AF-GIG and provides guidance on the implementation of information technology systems and networks.

Submit
36. According to the air force network structure, what tier is the air force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

Explanation

The air force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as Tier 1 in the air force network structure. This means that it is the highest level of the network hierarchy and is responsible for the overall management and control of the air force network. Tier 1 is typically made up of centralized command centers that handle strategic planning, policy development, and coordination of network operations.

Submit
37. A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a?

Explanation

A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is called a virus. Viruses are malicious software that can spread and infect other programs or files by inserting their own code into them. Once infected, the virus can replicate itself and spread to other systems or devices. Viruses often cause harm to the infected system by corrupting files, stealing data, or causing system crashes. Unlike trojan horses, worms, or bots, viruses specifically replicate by attaching themselves to existing programs.

Submit
38. Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?

Explanation

Diffie and Hellman is exclusively a key establishment protocol. It is used to securely establish a shared secret key between two parties over an insecure communication channel. It does not involve any encryption or decryption of messages, making it solely focused on the establishment of a shared key. RSA, ECDSA, and ECDH, on the other hand, are cryptographic algorithms that involve encryption, decryption, and digital signatures.

Submit
39. The AF requires a network password to be atleast how many characters long?

Explanation

The AF requires a network password to be at least 9 characters long.

Submit
40. What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

Explanation

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It typically covers a small area such as a home, office, or campus. LANs are commonly used to connect computers, printers, and other devices to share resources and information locally.

Submit
41. How many users are in a multi-server network?

Explanation

The correct answer is 50-250. In a multi-server network, there can be a varying number of users depending on the size and capacity of the network. The range of 50-250 suggests that the network can accommodate a moderate number of users, making it suitable for medium-sized organizations or businesses. This range allows for scalability and flexibility in terms of accommodating user growth and network expansion.

Submit
42. What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?

Explanation

An enclave refers to a collection of computing environments that are interconnected by internal networks and are controlled by a single approval authority and security policy. This term is commonly used in the context of computer security and refers to a secure and isolated area where sensitive information or critical systems are stored and processed. Enclaves are designed to provide a high level of security and control over the computing environments within them, ensuring that only authorized individuals have access and that strict security policies are enforced.

Submit
43. What program is known as a state of the are ground to ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?

Explanation

The correct answer is Theater deployable communications (TDC). TDC is a program that provides base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base. It is designed to be a state-of-the-art ground to ground communications infrastructure.

Submit
44. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain info?

Explanation

Authentication is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and their ability to access certain information. It involves the process of confirming the identity of an individual or system, typically through the use of usernames and passwords, biometric data, or security tokens. By authenticating the subject, the system ensures that only authorized individuals can access the desired information, thereby protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access.

Submit
45. What operational SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of info with minimal overhead?

Explanation

The correct answer is GetNext. GetNext is an operational SNMP message that is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. It allows the SNMP manager to retrieve the next variable in the MIB (Management Information Base) table, which makes it efficient for retrieving sequential data. By using GetNext, the manager can retrieve multiple variables in a single request without having to send separate Get requests for each variable. This reduces the overhead and improves the efficiency of the SNMP communication.

Submit
46. What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling and application-based attacks are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall. Tunneling refers to the process of encapsulating one protocol within another, allowing unauthorized access to the network. Application-based attacks exploit vulnerabilities in specific applications to gain unauthorized access or disrupt the network. Both of these attacks can bypass the firewall's security measures and pose a significant threat to the network's security.

Submit
47. What is the type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity info using proprietary topology management info bases (MIB)?

Explanation

A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity information using proprietary topology management information bases (MIB). It is used to discover and monitor neighboring devices in a network, allowing for the identification of connected devices and their connectivity status. This information is crucial for network management and troubleshooting purposes.

Submit
48. Which function of performance mangement tracks historical data by tracking activites on the network?

Explanation

Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and collecting historical data. This function of performance management helps in identifying any issues or anomalies in the network, monitoring network performance, and making informed decisions based on the collected data. It allows for proactive management and optimization of network resources.

Submit
49. What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?

Explanation

A worm is a type of malicious logic that can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file. Unlike viruses that typically attach themselves to files, worms are standalone programs that can spread and replicate themselves across a network or the internet. They exploit vulnerabilities in computer systems to gain unauthorized access and can cause significant damage by consuming network bandwidth, deleting files, or even shutting down entire systems. Therefore, worms are a potent threat to information systems as they can spread rapidly and autonomously without relying on infected files.

Submit
50. Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
51. Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?

Explanation

The information owner is the individual or entity responsible for the information stored on the storage media. They have the authority to declassify the sanitized storage media as they are the ones who determine the classification level of the information.

Submit
52. Which agency must approve all info protection tools prior to their use?

Explanation

Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) must approve all information protection tools prior to their use. This agency is responsible for overseeing and managing the information security of the United States Air Force. They have the authority to evaluate and approve the use of any tools or technologies that are used to protect sensitive information within the Air Force. The other options listed, such as Defense Information System Agency (DISA), Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA), and Air Force computer emergency response team (AFCERT), do not have the same level of authority or responsibility in approving information protection tools.

Submit
53. Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

Explanation

The three most common network management architectures are centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. In a centralized architecture, all network management functions are performed by a single entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, network management functions are divided into different layers or levels, with each level responsible for specific tasks. In a distributed architecture, network management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for more flexibility and scalability.

Submit
54. How many users are in a single server network?

Explanation

A single server network typically refers to a network setup where there is only one server responsible for managing and providing resources to a group of users. The range of 10-50 users suggests that this type of network is designed to support a relatively small number of users. This range allows for a sufficient number of users to connect to the server and utilize its resources without overwhelming it. It strikes a balance between having enough users to make the network efficient and cost-effective, while also ensuring that the server can handle the workload effectively.

Submit
55. What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

Explanation

An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support the communication needs of a large organization, such as a multinational corporation. This network allows employees in different locations to share resources, collaborate on projects, and access centralized data and applications. It typically includes a combination of local area networks (LANs), wide area networks (WANs), and other networking technologies to provide reliable and secure connectivity across multiple sites.

Submit
56. What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

Explanation

The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000.

Submit
57. What is the network id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?

Explanation

The network ID of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to zero. In this case, the given IP address is 131.10.230.120/24, where the subnet mask is /24. This means that the first 24 bits of the IP address are the network bits, and the remaining 8 bits are the host bits. Therefore, to find the network ID, we set the host bits to zero, resulting in the network ID of 131.10.230.0.

Submit
58. How many bits are typically covered in an IPv6 subnet mask?

Explanation

An IPv6 subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long, and the subnet mask is used to divide the address into network and host portions. In a typical configuration, the first 64 bits represent the network portion, while the remaining 64 bits represent the host portion. This allows for a large number of unique network addresses and a large number of unique host addresses within each network.

Submit
59. Network mangement protocols are designed(in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI model?

Explanation

Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between devices. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and control network devices and services. These protocols require a reliable and established connection, which is provided by the Session layer. Therefore, they operate above this layer in the OSI model.

Submit
60. What area of the simple network mangement protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

Explanation

The area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure that is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment is called "Private". This area allows vendors to define their own management objects and labels within the SNMP tree structure, allowing for customization and specific monitoring and management of their equipment.

Submit
61. What SNMP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system?

Explanation

The SNMP agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. SNMP agents are software modules that run on network devices, such as routers, switches, and servers. They collect and store management information, respond to SNMP queries from the management system, and send SNMP traps to report critical events or conditions. The agent acts as an intermediary between the management system and the managed device, providing the necessary data for monitoring and managing network devices.

Submit
62. What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks?

Explanation

An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device that is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks. It is designed to detect and alert the system administrator of any suspicious or malicious activity on the network. Unlike a firewall, which focuses on blocking unauthorized access, an IDS is focused on detecting and analyzing potential threats. It does this by monitoring network traffic, analyzing patterns and signatures of known attacks, and raising alarms when suspicious activity is detected. Therefore, an IDS is the correct answer for this question.

Submit
63. What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information int he messages header (a packet): the source address, the destination, and the port?

Explanation

Packet filtering is a type of firewall that uses a screening router and a set of rules to accept or reject messages based on information in the message's header. This information includes the source address, destination address, and port. Packet filtering examines each packet individually and determines whether to allow or block it based on the predefined rules. It is a common and effective method of network security as it can quickly and efficiently filter out unwanted traffic based on specific criteria.

Submit
64. What provides info concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?

Explanation

Connection statistics provide information about the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes. This data helps in monitoring and analyzing the network performance, identifying any bottlenecks or issues, and optimizing the network resources. By tracking the number of connections and their utilization, network administrators can make informed decisions regarding network capacity planning and troubleshooting.

Submit
65. What operational SNMP message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management info?

Explanation

The operational SNMP message used to modify the value of one or more instances of management info is the "Set" message. This message is sent from the SNMP manager to the SNMP agent to request the agent to change the value of specific variables or objects in the managed device. It allows for the remote configuration and control of network devices by modifying their settings and parameters.

Submit
66. What are the 3 types of SMARTS notifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is compound events, problems, and symptomatic events. This is because SMARTS notifications can be categorized into these three types. Compound events refer to events that are made up of multiple underlying events. Problems are notifications that indicate a potential issue or error in the system. Symptomatic events are notifications that indicate symptoms of a larger problem or issue. Therefore, these three types cover a range of notifications that can be generated by SMARTS.

Submit
67. How many different categories of infomation does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

Explanation

The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network.

Submit
68. What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?

Explanation

A private key is a file that is kept with you and allows you to decrypt files that have been encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code. It is called a private key because it is meant to be kept confidential and not shared with anyone else. With the private key, you can unlock and access encrypted information that is meant for your eyes only.

Submit
69. What is an electronic document that officially links together a users identity with his public key?

Explanation

A Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) certificate is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key. It is used in encryption and authentication processes to ensure secure communication and verify the identity of the user. The PKI certificate contains information such as the user's name, public key, and other relevant details, and is issued by a trusted Certificate Authority (CA). This certificate plays a crucial role in establishing trust and enabling secure communication in various digital systems and applications.

Submit
70. The two ways key establishment can occur are key?

Explanation

Key establishment can occur through transfer and agreement. Transfer refers to the process of securely transmitting the key from one party to another. Agreement, on the other hand, involves both parties agreeing on a common key through a secure communication channel. This ensures that both parties have the same key and can use it for secure communication.

Submit
71. Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?

Explanation

Initial communications support teams provide a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities. These teams are responsible for establishing and maintaining communication systems in the initial stages of a mission or operation. They ensure that the necessary communication infrastructure is in place to facilitate effective coordination and information sharing between the different elements involved in securing the area and setting up support facilities.

Submit
72. Performance mangement can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

Explanation

Performance management involves monitoring and assessing the performance of various aspects within an organization. Monitoring refers to the continuous observation and measurement of performance indicators to identify any issues or areas of improvement. Tuning, on the other hand, involves making adjustments and optimizations to enhance performance based on the insights gained from monitoring. Therefore, monitoring and tuning are the two separate functional categories that make up performance management.

Submit
73. How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNET) gateways does the af possess?

Explanation

The correct answer is 16. This means that the Air Force possesses 16 NIPRNET gateways. NIPRNET is a non-secure internet protocol router network used by the military for unclassified communications. These gateways serve as entry points to connect the Air Force's network to NIPRNET.

Submit
74. What component of the SMARTS application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Broker." In the SMARTS application, the Broker component is responsible for managing and coordinating communication between different components, including the Domain Managers. It contains the knowledge of available Domain Managers and facilitates their interaction with other parts of the application.

Submit
75. What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?

Explanation

Network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public switched network represent one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks. This is because these systems can provide a potential entry point for attackers to gain unauthorized access to the internal network. By making or accepting calls from the public switched network, these systems can be exploited by attackers to bypass network security measures and gain control over the internal network. Therefore, it is crucial to secure and monitor these systems to prevent unauthorized access and protect the internal network from potential threats.

Submit
76. What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop an inappropriate netowork address?

Explanation

Packet filtering is the simplest and least expensive way to stop an inappropriate network address. It involves examining the headers of data packets and filtering them based on predetermined rules. By blocking packets from specific IP addresses or ports, packet filtering can effectively prevent unauthorized access and protect against network attacks. Unlike other options such as proxy servers or intrusion detection systems, packet filtering does not require additional hardware or complex configurations, making it a cost-effective solution for network security.

Submit
77. What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

Explanation

The centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application is the Domain Manager. The Domain Manager is responsible for managing and organizing the various components of the system, including brokers, clients, and the map console. It acts as the central hub for monitoring and controlling the entire SMARTS application, ensuring efficient and effective management of the system's resources and operations.

Submit
78. What network architecture use multiple systems for network mangement, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients?

Explanation

Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the other working as clients. This architecture is structured in a hierarchical manner, where the central server controls and manages the client systems. The central server holds the authority and decision-making power, while the client systems follow the instructions and policies set by the central server. This architecture allows for efficient management and control of the network, as well as the ability to easily scale and expand the network as needed.

Submit
79. What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient?

Explanation

Public Key encryption is a method where the sender uses the recipient's public key to encrypt the message. This encrypted message can only be decrypted by the recipient using their corresponding private key. The public key can be freely shared with others, while the private key remains confidential. This ensures that only the intended recipient can decrypt and read the message, providing secure communication between parties.

Submit
80. What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

Explanation

Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors due to a fault. These parameters define the acceptable range of errors or deviations that can be tolerated without triggering an alarm or indicating a fault. By setting specific tolerance limits, it becomes possible to differentiate between normal variations and abnormal behavior, helping to identify and address faults when they occur.

Submit
81. What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network mangement information available from network devices?

Explanation

A Management Information Base (MIB) is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices. It is a database containing information about the devices on a network, such as their configuration, performance, and status. The MIB provides a standardized way for network management systems to communicate with network devices and retrieve information for monitoring and controlling the network.

Submit
82. What provides info concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocl?

Explanation

Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This data helps in analyzing the performance and efficiency of the protocol, identifying any issues or errors, and making necessary improvements or adjustments to optimize network performance. By monitoring protocol statistics, network administrators can gain insights into how the protocol is functioning and take appropriate actions to ensure smooth and reliable network communication.

Submit
83. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

Explanation

A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It is responsible for monitoring and controlling network components, ensuring smooth network operations, and optimizing network performance. This server helps in identifying and resolving network faults, managing network security, and enhancing overall network productivity.

Submit
84. What regulation covers remanence security?

Explanation

AFSSI 8580 is the correct answer because it is a regulation that specifically covers remanence security. Remanence security refers to the process of ensuring that classified information is properly erased or destroyed from storage media to prevent unauthorized access. AFSSI 8580 provides guidelines and procedures for the proper handling and disposal of classified information to maintain the confidentiality and security of sensitive data. This regulation is applicable within the United States Air Force and is an important aspect of information security protocols.

Submit
85. What is the host id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
86. What automatically runs in the background when the protocol anaylyzer application is activated?

Explanation

When the protocol analyzer application is activated, node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery is a process that identifies and maps the network nodes or devices present in a network. It helps in discovering and identifying all the devices connected to the network, allowing the protocol analyzer to collect data and analyze the network traffic accurately.

Submit
87. What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas. It acts as a fortified gateway between the secure and less secure areas, providing an additional layer of protection. It is designed to withstand attacks and unauthorized access attempts, making it an ideal choice for securing sensitive information and resources.

Submit
88. What level of network mangement activity are you working at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

Explanation

When the network manager is monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, they are working at an interactive level of network management activity. This means that they are actively engaged in monitoring and resolving issues in real-time, interacting with the network components and making necessary adjustments to ensure smooth operation.

Submit
89. What level of network mangement activity are you working at when the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at hand?

Explanation

When the automated monitoring of components provides problem analysis and gives a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that the network management activity is at a proactive level. This means that the system is actively monitoring and analyzing potential issues before they occur, allowing for preemptive actions to be taken to prevent or mitigate any problems.

Submit
90. What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

Explanation

Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer, such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. The MAC layer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium and ensuring that data is transmitted correctly. By monitoring MAC node statistics, errors occurring at the physical layer can be identified and addressed, ensuring the integrity of data transmission.

Submit
91. What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes. It acts as a fortified gateway between an internal network and an external network, providing an extra layer of security. By logging and monitoring all network activity, a bastion host can detect and alert administrators about any potential intrusion attempts or suspicious behavior, allowing them to take necessary actions to protect the network.

Submit
92. What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an info system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?

Explanation

Accreditation is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk. It involves a comprehensive evaluation of the system's security controls, policies, and procedures to ensure that they meet the required standards. Accreditation is an important step in the certification and accreditation process, which aims to ensure the security and effectiveness of information systems.

Submit
93. What is the DOD process for certifying and accrediting info systems to operate on the global info grid (GIG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP). DIACAP is the process used by the Department of Defense to certify and accredit information systems to operate on the global information grid (GIG). It ensures that these systems meet the necessary security requirements and are able to protect sensitive information.

Submit
94. What process, along with AFI 33-210, air force certification and accredidation (C&A) program (AFCAP), provides the basic framework of the certification and accredidation?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
95. Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Volatile." Volatile storage media refers to devices that do not retain data after power is removed. This means that the data stored on these devices is lost when the power is turned off. In contrast, non-volatile storage media, such as hard drives or solid-state drives, retain data even when the power is removed. Therefore, the statement suggests that the storage media being referred to does not retain data after power is removed, making it volatile.

Submit
96. What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a device that allows for digital network diagnostics and the development of communications software. It is used to capture and analyze network traffic, helping to troubleshoot and debug network issues. By examining the packets of data being transmitted over a network, a protocol analyzer can provide insights into the performance and functionality of the network, as well as identify any errors or anomalies. This makes it an essential tool for network administrators and developers working with digital networks.

Submit
97. What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an air force info system to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned info assurance controls based on standardized procedures?

Explanation

Certification refers to the comprehensive evaluation and validation of an air force information system to determine the extent to which it complies with assigned information assurance controls based on standardized procedures. This process ensures that the system meets the necessary security requirements and is deemed secure for use within the air force.

Submit
98. What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

Explanation

A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a type of communications network that links a broad geographical region. It covers a larger area than a local area network (LAN) but is smaller than a wide area network (WAN). MANs are typically used to connect multiple LANs within a city or metropolitan area, providing high-speed data transmission and communication between different locations.

Submit
99. What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system?

Explanation

The correct answer is Department of Defense Information Technology System Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP). This process refers to the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system. It ensures that the system meets the necessary security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability standards set by the Department of Defense.

Submit
100. What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?

Explanation

The Certification and Accreditation Process (DITSCAP) serves as the database of record for registering all systems and applications. It ensures that these systems and applications meet the necessary security, interoperability, supportability, sustainability, and usability requirements. DITSCAP is responsible for the certification and accreditation of these systems, ensuring that they are compliant with the necessary standards and regulations.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 02, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    YourAlibi
Cancel
  • All
    All (100)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
What is the primary unclassified PKI token for individual PKI keys and...
What are 3 primary ways to authenticate ones self?
Knowledge based identification and authentication methods require the...
What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or...
What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?
A base web server that inferfaces with the public must be placed in...
What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
How many users are nomally in a peer to peer network?
What network management area is concerned with controlling access...
What type of network environments consist of computer systems from...
What is the process of physically damaging the media to render is...
What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected...
What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global...
What doc signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the...
What series of AF instruction series covers communications and...
What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes...
What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would...
What network dvice performs regorous examinations of systems to...
What network entitiy provides reliable, secure networks and network...
What color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events?
What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to...
What do you call a current and percieved capability, intention, or...
An information system on your network that is not to require the use...
Which component of the PKI responsible for establishing,...
How many users are in a multi server high speed backbone network?
What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic...
How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if...
What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used...
Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to...
What operational SNMP message asks for a specific instance of...
What operational SNMP message is an unsolicited message from an agent...
What network architecture has a network mangement platform on one...
What type of communications network links different interconnected...
What air force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure...
According to the air force network structure, what tier is the air...
A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a?
Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment...
The AF requires a network password to be atleast how many characters...
What is a communications network that serves users within a confined...
How many users are in a multi-server network?
What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or...
What program is known as a state of the are ground to ground...
What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the...
What operational SNMP message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of...
What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?
What is the type of probe that collects interdevice connectivity info...
Which function of performance mangement tracks historical data by...
What type of malicious logic can become active on an information...
Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been...
Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?
Which agency must approve all info protection tools prior to their...
Which of the following are the three most common network management...
How many users are in a single server network?
What type of communications network links geographically dispersed...
What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
What is the network id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?
How many bits are typically covered in an IPv6 subnet mask?
Network mangement protocols are designed(in most cases) to reside...
What area of the simple network mangement protocol (SNMP) tree...
What SNMP node is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and...
What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to...
What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of...
What provides info concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number...
What operational SNMP message is used to modify the value of one or...
What are the 3 types of SMARTS notifications?
How many different categories of infomation does the performance...
What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt...
What is an electronic document that officially links together a users...
The two ways key establishment can occur are key?
Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the...
Performance mangement can be broke into what two separate functional...
How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNET)...
What component of the SMARTS application contains knowledge of...
What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal...
What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop an inappropriate...
What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report...
What network architecture use multiple systems for network mangement,...
What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted...
What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within...
What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network...
What provides info concerning the network utilization and frame errors...
What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to...
What regulation covers remanence security?
What is the host id of IP address 131.10.230.120/24?
What automatically runs in the background when the protocol anaylyzer...
What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or...
What level of network mangement activity are you working at when you...
What level of network mangement activity are you working at when the...
What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame...
What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network related...
What is a formal declaration by a designated approving official (DAA)...
What is the DOD process for certifying and accrediting info systems to...
What process, along with AFI 33-210, air force certification and...
Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered?
What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and...
What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an air force info...
What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program...
What is the database of record for registering all systems and...
Alert!

Advertisement