Hardest Trivia Quiz On Computer Maintenance

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  • 1/80 Questions

    Given the below color codes identify the color dedicated for a ground wire usually?

    • Black
    • Yellow
    • Red
    • Blue
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About This Quiz

The A+ certification exam for high scholars’ is something that they fear a lot, and this is mainly because it’s their one shot at showing just how attentive they have been in class. The pretest below is designed to ease your tension by helping you remember what you know about computer maintenance. Give it a shot and see how well See moreyou will do. All the best!

Hardest Trivia Quiz On Computer Maintenance - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    How many pins do SCSI interfaces Have?

    • 40

    • 32

    • 50

    • 16

    Correct Answer
    A. 50
    Explanation
    SCSI interfaces typically have 50 pins. This is a common configuration for SCSI connectors, allowing for high-speed data transfer and support for multiple devices. The 50-pin SCSI connector is often used in older computer systems and peripherals, such as hard drives, tape drives, and scanners.

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  • 3. 

    UART stands for ?

    • Unwarrented asynchronous receptions/transmission

    • Unused asynchronous receiver/transmitter

    • Universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter

    • Uninterreupted asynchronous reception/transmission

    Correct Answer
    A. Universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter
    Explanation
    UART stands for Universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter. This is a type of serial communication protocol commonly used for transmitting and receiving data between electronic devices. The term "universal" indicates that it is a widely adopted standard that can be used with various types of devices. "Asynchronous" means that data is transmitted without a clock signal, allowing for flexible timing between the sender and receiver. The receiver/transmitter aspect refers to its ability to both receive and transmit data.

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  • 4. 

    The basic unit of measurement of capacitor is ?

    • Farads

    • Volts

    • Ohms

    • Amperes

    Correct Answer
    A. Farads
    Explanation
    The basic unit of measurement of a capacitor is farads. Farads measure the capacitance of a capacitor, which is its ability to store an electric charge. It represents the amount of charge that can be stored in a capacitor per volt of potential difference across its terminals. This unit is named after Michael Faraday, a British scientist who made significant contributions to the field of electromagnetism. Capacitors are widely used in electronic circuits for energy storage, filtering, and timing purposes.

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  • 5. 

    Cat 3 cabling is used with which of the following technologies?

    • 10base2

    • 10base5

    • 100baseT

    • 100base3

    Correct Answer
    A. 10base5
    Explanation
    Cat 3 cabling is used with 10base5 technology. 10base5, also known as thicknet, is an Ethernet standard that uses coaxial cable as the transmission medium. Cat 3 cabling, also known as category 3 cabling, is a type of twisted pair cable that was commonly used for telephone and Ethernet networks in the past. It supports data transmission speeds up to 10 Mbps, which is suitable for 10base5 technology.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following statements correctly define flash memory?

    • The replacing of the cpu to make the computer faster

    • Increases the hard drives storage capacity

    • A technique used increases computer cycles per second

    • An ability to upgrade of the PC’s Bios without replacing hardware

    Correct Answer
    A. An ability to upgrade of the PC’s Bios without replacing hardware
    Explanation
    Flash memory refers to a type of non-volatile computer storage that can be electrically erased and reprogrammed. It is commonly used in devices such as USB drives, solid-state drives, and memory cards. One of the key features of flash memory is its ability to upgrade the PC's BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) without the need to replace any hardware. This means that the BIOS firmware can be updated or modified without physically changing any components, providing a convenient and efficient way to enhance the functionality and compatibility of the computer system.

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  • 7. 

    If on a computer that has an existing HDD, you wish to connect another HDD, which of the following must you attend to before completing the physical connections

    • Change the CD rom jumper settings

    • Change the jumper setting on the second drive to slave

    • Change all the storage device jumper settings to cable select

    • Change jumper setting on the first HDD to slave

    Correct Answer
    A. Change all the storage device jumper settings to cable select
    Explanation
    Before completing the physical connections, you must change all the storage device jumper settings to cable select. This is necessary to ensure that both HDDs can be properly recognized and configured by the computer. By setting the jumper settings to cable select, the computer will automatically determine the master and slave drives based on their physical placement on the IDE cable. This allows for proper communication between the computer and the HDDs, enabling them to function correctly.

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  • 8. 

    A user gets an output of totally blank pages from a printer after firing a print out to it.  Identify the cause.

    • There is no power to the primary corona

    • Malfunctioning transfer corona

    • There is too much ink in the printer

    • There is too much ink in the printer

    Correct Answer
    A. Malfunctioning transfer corona
    Explanation
    The malfunctioning transfer corona is the likely cause of the user getting totally blank pages from the printer. The transfer corona is responsible for transferring the toner from the drum to the paper during the printing process. If it is malfunctioning, it may not be applying the toner properly, resulting in blank pages.

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  • 9. 

    A 2xx POST error code indicates a problem with:

    • RAM or ROM

    • Second adapter card

    • System board

    • CMOS battery

    Correct Answer
    A. RAM or ROM
    Explanation
    A 2xx POST error code typically indicates a successful POST (Power-On Self-Test) process, meaning that the hardware components, including RAM and ROM, are functioning properly. Therefore, the correct answer in this case would be RAM or ROM. The other options, such as the second adapter card, system board, or CMOS battery, may be potential causes for other error codes but not specifically for a 2xx POST error code.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following types of storage devices can be used to configure hardware level RAIDs?

    • IDE

    • EIDE

    • ST-506

    • SCSI

    Correct Answer
    A. SCSI
    Explanation
    SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a type of storage device that can be used to configure hardware level RAIDs (Redundant Array of Independent Disks). SCSI is a high-performance interface that allows multiple devices to be connected to a computer system, making it suitable for setting up RAID configurations. It provides faster data transfer rates and supports a larger number of devices compared to other storage interfaces like IDE, EIDE, and ST-506. Therefore, SCSI is the correct choice for configuring hardware level RAIDs.

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  • 11. 

    A user complains that though she can hear system sounds from speaker, she cannot play any songs on her CD ROM.  She has all the necessary software and drivers installed. Identify the problem.

    • The volume is turned down

    • There is no MPC2 cable connecting her CD-ROM Drive to her sound card

    • The speakers are turned off

    • There is no CD insterted into the drive

    Correct Answer
    A. There is no MPC2 cable connecting her CD-ROM Drive to her sound card
    Explanation
    The problem is that there is no MPC2 cable connecting her CD-ROM Drive to her sound card. This means that the audio signal from the CD-ROM Drive is not being transmitted to the sound card, resulting in the inability to play any songs.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following memory location in the BIOS has an instruction to begin the POST during the system start up?

    • FFFF0h

    • DCD0000

    • FEEE0h

    • FDD005

    Correct Answer
    A. FFFF0h
    Explanation
    FFFF0h is the correct memory location in the BIOS that has an instruction to begin the POST during system startup. This memory location is typically the start of the system's ROM BIOS, where the initial instructions for the Power-On Self Test (POST) are stored. The POST is a series of diagnostic tests that the computer performs to check if the hardware components are functioning properly before the operating system is loaded. Therefore, FFFF0h is the memory location that contains the necessary instructions to initiate this important system startup process.

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  • 13. 

    Choose the best statement that describes that stage in printing when an image is made permanent to paper?

    • When a negative charge is applied to the paper to attract the toner to it.

    • When pressure and heat are used to fix the toner to the page

    • When toner is applied to the drum

    • When the toner is transferred to the paper

    Correct Answer
    A. When pressure and heat are used to fix the toner to the page
  • 14. 

    Which of the following present day CPU’s use slot 1? Choose 3

    • Pentium I, II, V

    • Pentium II, Celeron, Pentium V

    • Pentium III, II, I

    • Celeron, Pentium II , Pentium III

    Correct Answer
    A. Celeron, Pentium II , Pentium III
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Celeron, Pentium II, Pentium III. These three CPUs use slot 1.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following card types can slide into a cardbus slot of a laptop? Choose 2

    • USB Cards, PCI Cards

    • PCMCIA Cards, Cardbus

    • PCI Cards, PCMCIA Cards

    • Cardbus, USB cards

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardbus, USB cards
    Explanation
    Cardbus and USB cards can both slide into a cardbus slot of a laptop. Cardbus is a type of expansion card that is used to add functionality to a laptop, while USB cards allow for additional USB ports to be added. Both of these card types are compatible with a laptop's cardbus slot, making them the correct answers.

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  • 16. 

    What is the throughput of an AGP 8X video card?

    • 533 MBps

    • 1 GBps

    • 264 MBps

    • 2.1 GBps

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.1 GBps
    Explanation
    The throughput of an AGP 8X video card is 2.1 GBps. AGP 8X is a type of accelerated graphics port that allows for faster data transfer between the video card and the computer's memory. The "8X" refers to the multiplier of the base AGP speed, which is 66 MHz. Therefore, the throughput of an AGP 8X video card is calculated by multiplying the base speed (66 MHz) by the multiplier (8X), resulting in a throughput of 528 MHz. Since 1 byte is equal to 8 bits, we divide 528 MHz by 8 to get the throughput in bytes per second, which is 66 MBps. Finally, converting MBps to GBps, we divide 66 by 1024, resulting in a throughput of 2.1 GBps.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following will facilitate usage of SCSI devices on a mother board that has default IDE interfaces?

    • Accurate CMOS configuration

    • A SCSI host adapter

    • RAM Upgrade

    • BIOS Upgrade

    Correct Answer
    A. A SCSI host adapter
    Explanation
    A SCSI host adapter is required to facilitate the usage of SCSI devices on a motherboard that has default IDE interfaces. SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a high-speed interface that allows for the connection of multiple devices, such as hard drives, scanners, and printers. Since the motherboard only has IDE interfaces by default, which are not compatible with SCSI devices, a SCSI host adapter is needed to bridge the gap and enable communication between the SCSI devices and the motherboard. This adapter acts as an interface between the SCSI devices and the IDE interfaces on the motherboard, allowing for the seamless integration and usage of SCSI devices.

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  • 18. 

    You have purchased a computer running WIN 2000 with a power supply less than 200W.  Every time the system is powered on it keeps rebooting automatically.  What is the problem?  ATX main board two Pentium 4 – 1 GHz

    • CPU

    • Main Board

    • PSU

    • HDD

    Correct Answer
    A. PSU
    Explanation
    The problem is with the power supply unit (PSU) of the computer. The power supply is less than 200W, which is not sufficient to support the computer components, including the CPU, main board, and HDD. As a result, when the system is powered on, it is not receiving enough power, causing it to reboot automatically. Upgrading the power supply unit to a higher wattage should solve the issue.

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  • 19. 

    ID the correct cable type for a 100BaseT network.

    • Cat2

    • Cat5

    • Cat3

    • Cat6

    Correct Answer
    A. Cat5
    Explanation
    Cat5 is the correct cable type for a 100BaseT network. Cat5 cables are capable of supporting data transfer rates of up to 100 Mbps, which is the requirement for a 100BaseT network. Cat2, Cat3, and Cat6 cables have different specifications and are not suitable for a 100BaseT network.

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  • 20. 

    A sound card typically uses which IRQ?

    • 10

    • 2

    • 6

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    A sound card typically uses IRQ 10.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a power connector that is commonly found on an ATX system?

    • P1

    • P0

    • P8

    • P9

    Correct Answer
    A. P1
    Explanation
    P1 is a power connector commonly found on an ATX system. It is used to provide power to the motherboard and is typically a 24-pin connector. This connector is essential for supplying power to the various components of the system and ensuring their proper functioning.

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  • 22. 

    Pick the odd one out.

    • PCI

    • EISA

    • MCA

    • PCMCIA

    Correct Answer
    A. PCMCIA
    Explanation
    The odd one out in this list is PCMCIA because it stands for Personal Computer Memory Card International Association, while the other options (PCI, EISA, and MCA) are all acronyms for different types of computer bus architectures. PCMCIA is a standard for credit card-sized peripheral devices that can be used in laptops and other portable devices, whereas PCI, EISA, and MCA are all bus standards for connecting peripheral devices to a computer's motherboard.

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  • 23. 

    What is the Distance limitation for 10BaseT Cable?

    • 180 Meters

    • 100 Meters

    • 500 Meters

    • 200 Meters

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 Meters
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 100 Meters. This is the maximum distance that can be covered by a 10BaseT cable. This limitation is due to the signal degradation that occurs over longer distances. Beyond 100 meters, the signal becomes too weak and unreliable for proper data transmission.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following contact pin packages do SIMMs appear in? Choose 2

    • 48, 30

    • 64, 48

    • 30, 48

    • 72, 30

    Correct Answer
    A. 72, 30
    Explanation
    SIMMs (Single In-Line Memory Modules) appear in contact pin packages of 72 and 30. These contact pin packages refer to the number of pins on the SIMM module. A SIMM with 72 pins is commonly used in older computers, while a SIMM with 30 pins is typically used in laptops or other compact devices. Therefore, the correct answer is 72, 30.

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  • 25. 

    How many devices can a USB support?

    • No Limit

    • 72

    • 200

    • 127

    Correct Answer
    A. 127
    Explanation
    USB (Universal Serial Bus) can support up to 127 devices. This is because USB uses a 7-bit addressing system, allowing for a maximum of 127 unique addresses. Each device connected to the USB bus is assigned a unique address, and the USB controller can communicate with all these devices simultaneously. Therefore, the correct answer is 127.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following are benefits of SATA over the PATA specifications? Choose 2

    • Supports longer cables, Uses all the 40 pins

    • Remotely connectable, Uses all the 40 pins

    • Hot swappable, Supports longer cables

    • Remotely connectable, Hot Swappable

    Correct Answer
    A. Hot swappable, Supports longer cables
    Explanation
    SATA (Serial ATA) has several benefits over PATA (Parallel ATA) specifications. One benefit is that SATA supports longer cables, allowing for more flexibility in the placement of devices. Another benefit is that SATA is hot swappable, meaning that drives can be connected or disconnected without having to power down the system. This allows for easier installation and removal of drives. Therefore, the correct answer is hot swappable and supports longer cables.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is the most effective CPU cooling method?

    • Install heat Sink on CPU

    • Use the CPU as less frequently as possible

    • Ventilate the computer cabinet by leaving as many brackets open as possible

    • Ensure CPU fan is working

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure CPU fan is working
    Explanation
    Ensuring that the CPU fan is working is the most effective CPU cooling method because the fan helps to dissipate the heat generated by the CPU. If the fan is not working properly, the CPU may overheat, leading to performance issues or even damage to the CPU. The other options mentioned, such as installing a heat sink, using the CPU less frequently, or ventilating the computer cabinet, can also help with cooling to some extent, but they are not as effective as a functioning CPU fan.

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  • 28. 

    If you turn on your computer and receive a parity error what is most likely the problem?

    • Your CMOS battery is running low

    • Your motherboard needs to be replaced

    • Your RAM is bad

    • Your hard drive needs to be formatted

    Correct Answer
    A. Your RAM is bad
    Explanation
    If you turn on your computer and receive a parity error, it is most likely that your RAM is bad. A parity error occurs when there is a mismatch between the data stored in RAM and the expected data. This can happen due to faulty RAM modules or issues with the RAM slots. To resolve this problem, you may need to replace the faulty RAM module or reseat it properly in the RAM slot.

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  • 29. 

    Which processor uses slot 2?

    • Intel XEON

    • Intel Pentium II

    • Intel Pentium III

    • Amd Athlon

    Correct Answer
    A. Intel XEON
    Explanation
    Intel XEON processors are known to use slot 2. This slot is a specific type of expansion slot on the motherboard that is designed to accommodate Intel XEON processors. Therefore, the correct answer is Intel XEON.

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  • 30. 

    When designing a campus network if you had to connect segments running in two adjacent buildings, which of the following connectivity devices would you consider?

    • Repeater

    • Switch

    • Router

    • Gateway

    Correct Answer
    A. Repeater
    Explanation
    A repeater would be the most suitable connectivity device for connecting segments running in two adjacent buildings in a campus network. A repeater is used to regenerate and amplify signals to extend the distance of a network. In this scenario, the repeater would strengthen and regenerate the signals between the segments in the two buildings, ensuring reliable connectivity. Switches, routers, and gateways are not specifically designed for signal amplification and would not be as effective in extending the network between the adjacent buildings.

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  • 31. 

    Running a processor at a speed higher than its rated clock speed is called ?

    • Overclocking

    • Hyperdrive

    • Overkill

    • Speeding

    Correct Answer
    A. Overclocking
    Explanation
    Overclocking refers to the practice of running a processor at a speed higher than its rated clock speed. This is often done to increase the performance of the processor and achieve faster processing speeds. By increasing the clock speed, the processor can perform more calculations per second, resulting in improved performance. However, overclocking also increases the heat generated by the processor, which can potentially damage the hardware if not properly managed. Therefore, overclocking is typically done with caution and requires adequate cooling solutions to prevent overheating.

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  • 32. 

    Which IEEE specification defines WPAN technology

    • 802.15.1

    • 802.3.1

    • 802.5.1

    • 802.13.5

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.15.1
    Explanation
    IEEE 802.15.1 is the correct answer because it specifically defines WPAN (Wireless Personal Area Network) technology. The IEEE 802.15 working group focuses on developing standards for short-range wireless communication technologies, including WPANs. Therefore, 802.15.1 is the appropriate specification for WPAN technology.

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  • 33. 

    Which IEEE specification defines Wi-Fi technology

    • 802.3

    • 802.11

    • 802.13

    • 802.15

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 802.11. This specification is defined by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) and it specifically defines the technology used for Wi-Fi. The other options, 802.3, 802.13, and 802.15, are not related to Wi-Fi technology.

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  • 34. 

    Which Acronym refers to the name given to laptop parts that can be easily replaced by end users?

    • CRU

    • FRU

    • NRU

    • SRU

    Correct Answer
    A. CRU
    Explanation
    CRU stands for Customer Replaceable Unit. It refers to laptop parts that can be easily replaced by end users without the need for professional assistance. This acronym is commonly used in the tech industry to distinguish between components that can be easily swapped out by customers themselves and those that require specialized knowledge or tools to replace.

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  • 35. 

    Which IEEE specification defines Firewire technology

    • 1284

    • 1384

    • 1394

    • 1294

    Correct Answer
    A. 1394
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1394. IEEE 1394, also known as Firewire, is a specification for a high-speed serial bus that allows for fast data transfer between devices such as computers, digital cameras, and external hard drives. It was developed by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) and provides a reliable and efficient method of connecting multiple devices together.

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  • 36. 

    Which technique does Bluetooth use to reduce the chance of multiple devices interfering with each other?

    • DNS

    • AFH

    • ISM

    • PAN

    Correct Answer
    A. AFH
    Explanation
    Bluetooth uses Adaptive Frequency Hopping (AFH) technique to reduce the chance of multiple devices interfering with each other. AFH works by dynamically changing the frequency at which Bluetooth devices transmit data. This helps to avoid congested frequencies and minimize interference from other devices operating in the same frequency range. By constantly adapting and hopping between frequencies, Bluetooth devices can maintain a stable and reliable connection, even in environments with high levels of wireless interference.

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  • 37. 

    Which  type of external connection on a laptop will automatically detect a connected hard drive? 

    • PATA

    • SSID

    • FireWire

    • IEEE 1294

    Correct Answer
    A. FireWire
    Explanation
    FireWire is a type of external connection on a laptop that will automatically detect a connected hard drive. FireWire, also known as IEEE 1394, is a high-speed interface commonly used for connecting devices such as external hard drives, digital cameras, and audio interfaces to a computer. It is designed to provide a fast and reliable connection, and it supports hot swapping, which means that devices can be connected or disconnected without having to restart the computer. Therefore, when a FireWire cable is connected to a laptop and a hard drive, the laptop will automatically detect the hard drive without any additional configuration or setup.

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  • 38. 

    A customer laptop has a short operating time when using the battery.  What can a technician do to solve the problem?

    • Upgrade the RAM

    • Replace the Battery

    • Remove and replace CMOS battery

    • Replace the laptop power supply

    Correct Answer
    A. Replace the Battery
    Explanation
    The most likely reason for a customer laptop to have a short operating time when using the battery is a faulty or degraded battery. Therefore, the best solution to solve this problem would be to replace the battery with a new one. This will ensure that the laptop has a longer operating time when running on battery power.

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  • 39. 

    Which Windows Vista Tool is accurately described?

    • Disk cleanup cleans the hard drive by placing files in adjacent clusters

    • Disk Defragmenter is meant to be used when a computer has files that are modified, added, or deleted often

    • Disk Cleanup performs tasks such as emptying recycling bin, checking for missing applications, and verifying hard

    • Checkboxes to enable or disable defragmentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Disk Defragmenter is meant to be used when a computer has files that are modified, added, or deleted often
  • 40. 

    A customer is unable to use a laptop on battery power for more than 30 minutes.  What would a technician suggest to this customer?

    • Flash the Bios

    • Replace the power supply

    • Replace the laptop battery

    • Replace the motherboard battery

    Correct Answer
    A. Replace the power supply
    Explanation
    A technician would suggest replacing the power supply to the customer because if the laptop is unable to use battery power for more than 30 minutes, it indicates that the power supply is not providing enough power to the laptop. By replacing the power supply, the customer should be able to use the laptop on battery power for a longer duration.

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  • 41. 

    What could be the probable cause of a laptop making a long beeping noise after new  RAM is installed?

    • The RAM is being formatted

    • Hot-Swappable RAM was installed

    • A damaged SODIMM module was installed

    • There is a communication conflict between the BIOS and RAM

    Correct Answer
    A. A damaged SODIMM module was installed
    Explanation
    A damaged SODIMM module was installed. When a laptop makes a long beeping noise after new RAM is installed, it indicates that there is an issue with the RAM module. In this case, the SODIMM module that was installed is likely damaged, causing the laptop to produce the beeping sound.

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  • 42. 

    Which technology is used by laser printers?

    • Digital drop

    • Electrophotographic

    • Impact

    • Ink melting

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrophotographic
    Explanation
    Laser printers use the technology of electrophotography, also known as xerography. This technology involves a process where an image is formed on a photosensitive drum using a laser beam. The drum is then coated with toner, which is attracted to the charged areas of the drum. The toner is then transferred onto the paper and fused using heat and pressure, resulting in a high-quality printed output.

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  • 43. 

    Which laser printer component is a metal cylinder that is coated with a light-sensitive insulating material?

    • Drum

    • Fuser

    • Fusing Unit

    • Platen

    Correct Answer
    A. Drum
    Explanation
    The metal cylinder that is coated with a light-sensitive insulating material in a laser printer is called the drum. The drum is a key component of the printing process as it is responsible for receiving the electrical charge from the laser and transferring it onto the paper to create the image. The light-sensitive insulating material on the drum allows it to hold an electrostatic charge, which is then selectively discharged to form the desired image on the paper.

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  • 44. 

    Which step ofthe laster printing process involves scanning the photosensitive drum with a laser?

    • Cleaning

    • Conditioning

    • Writing

    • Transferring

    Correct Answer
    A. Writing
    Explanation
    The step of the laser printing process that involves scanning the photosensitive drum with a laser is writing. During this step, the laser beam selectively charges areas on the drum's surface to create an electrostatic image of the desired content. This image will later be transferred onto the paper during the transferring step.

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  • 45. 

    Which Printer technology is used in low cost, photo quality printers?

    • Impact

    • Inkjet

    • Laser

    • Thermal

    Correct Answer
    A. Inkjet
    Explanation
    Inkjet printers are commonly used in low-cost photo quality printers because they are able to produce high-resolution images with vibrant colors. This technology works by spraying tiny droplets of ink onto the paper, resulting in smooth and detailed prints. It is a cost-effective option for home users or small businesses who require good quality prints without investing in expensive equipment.

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  • 46. 

    Which Printing technology uses the vibration of a crystal to control the flow of ink to the paper to produce an image?

    • Electrophotographic

    • Electrostatic

    • Impact

    • Piezoelectric

    Correct Answer
    A. Piezoelectric
    Explanation
    Piezoelectric printing technology uses the vibration of a crystal to control the flow of ink to the paper, resulting in the production of an image. This technology utilizes the piezoelectric effect, where an electric charge is applied to a crystal, causing it to vibrate and generate pressure. This pressure then controls the flow of ink, allowing for precise and controlled printing.

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  • 47. 

    Which unit is commonly used to measure the quality of an inkjet printer?

    • DPI

    • PPM

    • Dot pitch

    • NLQ

    Correct Answer
    A. DPI
    Explanation
    DPI stands for dots per inch and is a commonly used unit to measure the quality of an inkjet printer. It refers to the number of dots that can be printed within a one-inch area. A higher DPI value indicates a higher resolution and better print quality, as more dots can be printed per inch. Therefore, DPI is the appropriate unit to measure the quality of an inkjet printer.

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  • 48. 

    What is a common disadvantage of inkjet printers?

    • Toner for inkjet printers is expensive

    • It offers poor quality

    • The nozzles can get obstructed

    • It takes a lot of time to warm up

    Correct Answer
    A. The nozzles can get obstructed
    Explanation
    The common disadvantage of inkjet printers is that the nozzles can get obstructed. This means that over time, the nozzles that spray the ink onto the paper can become clogged or blocked, resulting in streaky or uneven printing. This can lead to poor print quality and the need for frequent maintenance or cleaning of the printer.

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  • 49. 

    What is an advantage of using a solid ink printer instead of an inkjet printer?

    • It produces vivid color prints

    • It warms up quickly

    • The ink used is considerably cheaper

    • The used ink cartridges can be refilled

    Correct Answer
    A. It produces vivid color prints
    Explanation
    An advantage of using a solid ink printer instead of an inkjet printer is that it produces vivid color prints. Solid ink printers use solid blocks of ink that melt and are transferred onto the paper, resulting in vibrant and accurate colors. This technology allows for better color saturation and sharpness in the prints, making them visually appealing and high-quality.

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