CompTIA A+ Updated 12/2007 Essentials Test Review

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1. What is the worlds most popular network related mode of communication on the internet?

Explanation

TCP/IP is the correct answer because it is the most widely used network protocol suite for communication on the internet. It stands for Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol and provides the foundation for data transmission between devices on the internet. TCP/IP ensures reliable and secure communication by breaking data into packets and routing them across networks. It is used for various internet-related activities such as web browsing, email, file transfer, and more.

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About This Quiz
CompTIA A+ Updated 12/2007 Essentials Test Review - Quiz

This quiz contains practice questions relating to the new compTIA material for 2007-08. This quiz can help prepare you for A+ certification exams. Questions are written in a... see morestudy mode format for easy retention. see less

2. The common wireless network term "hot spot" refers to what type of connection, and what data transfer speed?

Explanation

The correct answer is usually an open non-secured common wireless network found in public areas with a data transfer speed of 2-11 Mbps. This is because a "hot spot" refers to a location where Wi-Fi is available for public use, typically in cafes, airports, or parks. These hot spots are usually open and unsecured, meaning anyone can connect to them without a password. The data transfer speed of these hot spots can vary, but it is typically in the range of 2-11 Mbps.

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3. What is the worlds most popular form of internet connection for both wired and wireless nodes?

Explanation

Ethernet is the world's most popular form of internet connection for both wired and wireless nodes. It is a widely-used networking technology that allows devices to connect and communicate with each other over a local area network (LAN). Ethernet provides high-speed and reliable data transmission, making it the preferred choice for connecting computers, routers, switches, and other devices to the internet. It is used in both home and business settings and supports various types of connections, including wired Ethernet (such as Ethernet cables) and wireless Ethernet (such as Wi-Fi).

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4. Which operating systems allow for automatic Windows upates and downloads?

Explanation

XP is the correct answer because it is an operating system that allows for automatic Windows updates and downloads. This means that users with XP can set their system to automatically download and install updates from Microsoft, ensuring that their computer is always up to date with the latest security patches and bug fixes.

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5. What are the classes for the following IP addresses, in this order: 128-191 192-223 1-127

Explanation

The given IP addresses fall into the following classes: Class B, Class C, and Class A. The first range, 128-191, falls under Class B, which is reserved for medium-sized networks. The second range, 192-223, falls under Class C, which is reserved for small networks. The third range, 1-127, falls under Class A, which is reserved for large networks. Therefore, the correct order of the classes for these IP addresses is Class B, Class C, and Class A.

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6. Hyperthreading was designed by ______, Hypertransport was designed by______?

Explanation

Hyperthreading was designed by Intel, while Hypertransport was designed by AMD.

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7. The term "definitions" are synonymous with what network security applications?

Explanation

Definitions are usually referred to anti-virus updates or a specific anti-virus action.

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8. What program in Windows 2000 and XP is considered to be the "Boot loader" program?

Explanation

NTLDR (NT Loader) is the correct answer as it is the boot loader program in Windows 2000 and XP. The boot loader is responsible for loading the operating system into memory during the boot process. NTLDR is specifically designed for Windows NT-based operating systems and is located in the system partition. It helps in initializing the system hardware, loading the operating system kernel, and transferring control to it.

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9. What is the name of the device that controls SCSI operation and configuration within a host computer?

Explanation

The device that controls SCSI operation and configuration within a host computer is called a host adapter. This device allows the host computer to communicate with the SCSI devices connected to it, managing their operation and configuration. It acts as an interface between the host computer's bus and the SCSI bus, enabling data transfer and control signals between the two. The host adapter plays a crucial role in enabling the host computer to effectively utilize SCSI devices for storage and other purposes.

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10. What is the best tool to use for a A+ technician to test external ports on a PC or laptop?

Explanation

A loop back plug is the best tool for an A+ technician to test external ports on a PC or laptop. A loop back plug is a device that connects to a port and loops the signal back to itself, allowing the technician to test the functionality of the port. This tool is commonly used to diagnose and troubleshoot issues with ports such as USB, Ethernet, or serial ports. By using a loop back plug, the technician can verify if the port is working properly or if there are any connectivity problems.

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11. How long should a newer CRT monitor be left to naturally discharge befroe handling?

Explanation

E is also correct only if you are going to recycle the CRT. Shorting the electrodes also may present a hazard to the technician, and could damage a good working CRT. Not the best answer.

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12. How often is it professionally recommended that the user use the XP utility Defrag on all hard disc drives?

Explanation

It is professionally recommended to use the XP utility Defrag on all hard disc drives on a monthly basis. This is because regular defragmentation helps optimize the performance of the hard drives by rearranging fragmented data and improving access times. Performing this task monthly ensures that the hard drives remain in good condition and continue to operate efficiently.

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13. What is the area called where a bublejet ink cartrige resides when not in use, and is always reset to that location after each use?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Maintenance area". This is the area where a bubblejet ink cartridge resides when it is not in use. It is always reset to this location after each use to ensure proper maintenance and prevent drying or clogging of the ink.

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14. What is the IRQ of a sound card, floopy disc,and keyboard,in that order, found in Windows XP?

Explanation

There has been controversy concerning certian IRQ's these ports have been verified.

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15. Can RIMMS, (RAMBUS MEMORY), be found in 800MHZ and 1600MHZ sizes?

Explanation

RIMMS, also known as Rambus Memory, can be found in both 800MHZ and 1600MHZ sizes.

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16. What is the IRQ of a standard keyboard?

Explanation

The correct answer is IRQ 1. In computer systems, IRQ (Interrupt Request) is a signal sent by hardware devices to the CPU to request attention. IRQ 1 is typically assigned to the keyboard controller, indicating that it is the interrupt line used by a standard keyboard.

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17. What is the term "thrashing" related to?

Explanation

Thrashing refers to a situation where a computer's performance is significantly degraded due to excessive swapping of data between the physical memory (RAM) and the hard drive. This occurs when the system is constantly swapping data in and out of the RAM to fulfill the memory demands of running processes, leading to a high disk activity and slowing down the overall performance. Therefore, the term "thrashing" is related to excessive hard drive paging.

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18. BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. What is the file that is sometime added during boot-up that is used with the SCSI interface?

Explanation

NTBOOTDD.sys is the correct answer because it is a file that is sometimes added during boot-up and is used specifically with the SCSI interface. This file is responsible for providing the necessary drivers and support for SCSI devices to be recognized and accessed by the operating system during the boot process.

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19. What is the standard default resolution for a Windows XP and Windows 2000 monitor, (LCD, CRT), after logging into Windows Safe Mode and loading only minimal drivers, and how many selections in Safe Mode are setup to affect monitor resolution?

Explanation

When logging into Windows Safe Mode and loading only minimal drivers, the standard default resolution for a Windows XP and Windows 2000 monitor is 640X480. There are two selections in Safe Mode that can affect the monitor resolution.

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20. Where is the "Last known good recovery" regisrty file found, in what path designation?

Explanation

The "Last known good recovery" registry file is found in the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE/SYSTEM path designation.

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21. Always ground yourself when servicing a laser printer or CRT monitor.

Explanation

Grounding yourself when servicing a laser printer or CRT monitor is not necessary. While it is important to take precautions when working with electronic equipment to avoid static electricity discharge, grounding yourself specifically is not required for these devices. Other measures such as using an anti-static wrist strap or mat can be effective in preventing damage from static electricity. Therefore, the statement that grounding is always necessary is false.

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22. How many devices can be attached to a Bluetooth system, (piconet), what protocal is involved, and how many feet is usually the maximum user distance, in this order.

Explanation

The correct answer is 8/802.15/10. This means that 8 devices can be attached to a Bluetooth system (piconet), the protocol involved is 802.15, and the maximum user distance is usually 10 feet.

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23. BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. What does the start-up BIOS do with the boot loader program NTLDR and Boot ini, and other start-up programs during the boot process?

Explanation

The start-up BIOS loads the boot loader program NTLDR, Boot ini, and other start-up programs into the RAM during the boot process. This allows the computer to access and execute these programs from the RAM, which is a temporary storage location, rather than directly from the hard drive. Loading them into the RAM helps to speed up the boot process and allows the computer to access the necessary files and programs more efficiently.

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24. If a customer requested that you upgrade their computer memory to the PC3200 standard, what frequency of DDR would you order?

Explanation

The correct answer is 400 MHZ because PC3200 is a type of DDR memory that operates at a frequency of 400 MHz.

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25. "no operating system found" would indicate a possible failure in what computer system? Select the best answer.

Explanation

The error message "no operating system found" typically indicates a possible failure in the Master Boot Record (MBR) of the computer system. The MBR is a small section of the hard drive that contains important information about the partitions and the location of the operating system. If the MBR is corrupted or missing, the computer may not be able to locate and boot the operating system, resulting in the error message.

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26. BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. The start-up POST verifys actual system configuration with that of stored configuration information located in?

Explanation

The correct answer is CMOS. CMOS stands for Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor and it is a type of memory chip that stores the system configuration information, including hardware settings such as the date and time, boot order, and other BIOS settings. During the POST (Power-On Self-Test) process, the system verifies the actual system configuration with the stored configuration information in the CMOS to ensure that everything is functioning correctly.

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27. A user plugs a USB 2.0 device into a USB 1.0 slot on a Windows XP computer, what will happen? Select two answers.

Explanation

When a USB 2.0 device is plugged into a USB 1.0 slot on a Windows XP computer, the device will still work but at a slower data transfer rate. This is because the USB 1.0 slot is not capable of supporting the faster transfer speeds of USB 2.0. Additionally, a message will appear on the computer indicating that a USB 2.0 device is inserted into a USB 1.0 slot, and it will also inform the user that USB 2.0 ports are available for use. The computer will not freeze and the device will still perform its normal functions, albeit at a reduced speed.

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28. What is the best physical way to protect a users system from attack by destructive software, using the Windows XP registry?

Explanation

The best physical way to protect a user's system from attack by destructive software using the Windows XP registry is to delete or restrict all permissions for non-administrators. By doing so, non-administrators will not have the ability to make changes to the registry, reducing the risk of malicious software making unauthorized modifications. This helps to ensure that only authorized users with administrative privileges can make changes to the registry, enhancing the system's security.

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29. Can system restore be accssed through the MSCONFIG utility in Windows XP?

Explanation

Yes, system restore can be accessed through the MSCONFIG utility in Windows XP. MSCONFIG is a system configuration tool that allows users to manage startup programs and services. In Windows XP, there is a "System Restore" tab within the MSCONFIG utility, which allows users to enable or disable system restore points. This feature enables users to restore their computer to a previous working state if any issues arise.

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30. On a bublejet ink printer can ink cartridges be filled to different OEM fluid level specifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is TRUE because some OEMs offer "high yield" cartridges for the same printer models. These high yield cartridges have a larger ink capacity compared to standard cartridges. This allows for more printing before the cartridge needs to be replaced. Therefore, ink cartridges can be filled to different OEM fluid level specifications depending on the type of cartridge being used.

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31. What is the maximum length of a IEEE 1394 Firewire cable, its maximum amount of devices, and what type of cable does it support? in that order.

Explanation

The correct answer is 15 feet/63/STP. According to the answer, the maximum length of an IEEE 1394 Firewire cable is 15 feet. It can support a maximum of 63 devices. The type of cable it supports is Shielded Twisted Pair (STP).

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32. Can a Windows Me edition be directly upgraded to Windows XP, windows 2000

Explanation

Yes, a Windows Me edition can be directly upgraded to Windows XP, but not to Windows 2000.

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33. BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. Real mode is a ____ bit system, and protected mode is a ____ bit system?

Explanation

Real mode is a 16-bit system, and protected mode is a 32-bit system. In real mode, the processor can access a maximum of 1MB of memory and can only run one program at a time. Protected mode, on the other hand, allows the processor to access up to 4GB of memory and supports multitasking, allowing multiple programs to run simultaneously. Protected mode also provides features like virtual memory, memory protection, and enhanced security.

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34. You a repairing a customers computer, the computer specification indicated by the OEM indicates that a 300 watt power supply was used for the original equipment build. Can you use a 1000 watt replacement power supply with the same voltages, which is available from the original OEM?

Explanation

Actually during normal operation, this answer would be correct. A 1000 watt power supply would not hurt a 350 watt system in theory. However, if the system had an instance that caused a draw of more than 350 watts, 1000 watts of power would be {available}, and the "components" and "busses" are not rated to handle such instant heat and power handling. So in fact the 350 watt system would blow the fuse, and most likely the system would survive, not the case for the 1000 watt scenerio. Using a power supply variance of 50-100 watts should be acceptable in most cases, but most surely would void the manufacture's warranty.

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35. How many bits are contained in a TCP/IP internet address?

Explanation

A TCP/IP internet address is made up of 32 bits. This means that it can represent 2^32 (4,294,967,296) unique addresses. The 32-bit address is divided into four octets, with each octet consisting of 8 bits. Each octet can have a value ranging from 0 to 255, resulting in a total of 4 octets or 32 bits. This addressing scheme allows for a large number of unique addresses to be assigned to devices connected to the internet.

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36. Modern keyboards have how many keys, and are refered to by what named technology?

Explanation

Modern keyboards typically have 104 keys, which is the standard layout for most keyboards. The term "enhanced" refers to the improved functionality and additional keys that were introduced in this layout compared to older keyboard designs.

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37. How do you navigate to the System Information screen in Windows XP, provide the fastest access.

Explanation

To navigate to the System Information screen in Windows XP and provide the fastest access, you need to type "Run/msinfo32" in the Run command. This will open the System Information window directly, allowing you to quickly access the information about your system's hardware, software, and other system components.

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38. How can you access the computer management screen in XP? Provide the fastest access.

Explanation

E is correct, however it takes one more step.

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39. BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. Which part of the hard drive disc platter (1) holds the first 512 bytes of programing and memory address FFFFOh?

Explanation

The beginning of the platter holds the first 512 bytes of programming and memory address FFFFOh.

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40. Which of the following terms are associated with network security transmissions?

Explanation

Both trailers and headers are associated with network security transmissions. Trailers are used to verify the integrity of the transmitted data by adding a checksum or hash value at the end of the data. Headers, on the other hand, are used to provide information about the data being transmitted, such as the source and destination addresses, protocol information, and other control information. Both of these components play a crucial role in ensuring the security and reliability of network transmissions.

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41. What is the newest technology for ATX and BTX form factors regarding CPU sockets?

Explanation

The correct answer is 775/ZIF. This answer refers to the newest technology for ATX and BTX form factors regarding CPU sockets. The 775/ZIF socket is a type of Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) socket that is commonly used for Intel processors. It is the latest technology for these form factors and allows for easy installation and removal of the CPU without applying any force.

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42. What 3 things must be present for ACPI to work on an XP computer?

Explanation

ACPI (Advanced Configuration and Power Interface) is a standard that allows the operating system to control power management features of a computer's hardware. In order for ACPI to work on an XP computer, all three components - device, BIOS, and motherboard - need to be compliant with the ACPI standard. This means that all three components must support and adhere to the ACPI specifications for power management. Without any one of these components being compliant, ACPI will not function properly on the XP computer.

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43. BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. What is disabled during the BIOS POST?

Explanation

During the BIOS POST (Power-On Self Test), IRQs (Interrupt Requests) are disabled. IRQs are signals sent by devices to the CPU to request attention or to notify about an event. During the POST, the system checks and initializes hardware components, and disabling IRQs ensures that no interrupts from devices occur during this critical process. This allows the system to focus on detecting and initializing hardware without any interruptions.

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44. What SCSI ID would you use for the Boot disc, CD-ROM, and Host adapter, in that exact order?

Explanation

The SCSI ID for the Boot disc is usually set to 0, as it is the default ID for the primary device. The CD-ROM is assigned an ID of 6, which is commonly used for secondary devices. The Host adapter, which is responsible for connecting the SCSI devices to the computer, is typically set to ID 7. Therefore, the correct order of SCSI IDs for the Boot disc, CD-ROM, and Host adapter would be 0/6/7.

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45. Check all terms that are associated with A+ monitor jargon.

Explanation

The terms "Active matrix," "Dot pitch," "Contrast ratio," and "Passive matrix" are all associated with A+ monitor jargon. Active matrix refers to the technology used in LCD screens to improve image quality and reduce flickering. Dot pitch refers to the distance between pixels on a screen, with a smaller dot pitch resulting in sharper images. Contrast ratio measures the difference in brightness between the darkest and brightest parts of an image. Passive matrix is an older technology used in LCD screens, which is less expensive but has lower image quality compared to active matrix.

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46. Name 3 important Windows XP networking troubleshooting utility programs.

Explanation

The three important Windows XP networking troubleshooting utility programs are nslookup, ping, and ipconfig. nslookup is used to query the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain information about domain names or IP addresses. ping is used to test the connectivity between two network devices by sending ICMP echo requests and receiving ICMP echo replies. ipconfig is used to display the IP configuration settings of a network interface, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

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47. What are five forms of data configurations that are assembled, transmitted, and revceived in the OSI model.

Explanation

The correct answer is data, packets, bits, segments, frames. In the OSI model, data is divided into packets at the transport layer, which are further divided into smaller units called segments at the network layer. These segments are then divided into smaller units called frames at the data link layer, which are finally transmitted as bits over the physical layer. Therefore, all five forms of data configurations mentioned in the answer are assembled, transmitted, and received in the OSI model.

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48. How much free disc space is required of a particular storage drive to enable the use of the XP utility Defrag, and can this requirement be overcome by a command line entry?

Explanation

The correct answer is 15%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation. This means that in order to use the XP utility Defrag, at least 15% of free disk space is required. However, there are exceptions to this requirement, which can be overcome by using a command line entry with a cmd switch that forces a disk defragmentation.

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49. How many SCSI "DEVICES" can be installed in an 8 bit , 16 bit, and 32 bit system respectively?

Explanation

In a SCSI system, the number of devices that can be installed depends on the number of bits in the system's address space. In an 8-bit system, there can be 2^8 or 256 possible addresses, but one address is reserved for the host controller, so the maximum number of devices is 256-1 = 255. In a 16-bit system, there can be 2^16 or 65,536 possible addresses, but again one address is reserved for the host controller, so the maximum number of devices is 65,536-1 = 65,535. In a 32-bit system, there can be 2^32 or 4,294,967,296 possible addresses, but one address is reserved for the host controller, so the maximum number of devices is 4,294,967,296-1 = 4,294,967,295.

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50. How often should a user check the motherboard expansion slots and chip sockets for "chip creep"?

Explanation

A user should check the motherboard expansion slots and chip sockets for "chip creep" on a yearly basis. This is important to ensure that the chips and expansion cards are properly seated and secured in their slots. Over time, due to vibrations and thermal expansion, these components can become loose, which can lead to performance issues or even device failure. Checking them annually helps to prevent any potential problems and maintain optimal performance.

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51. How many channels on the 2.4 MHZ band does a bluetooth device operate at?

Explanation

Bluetooth devices operate at multiple channels during any given transmission. This means that they can use different frequencies within the 2.4 MHz band to avoid interference and improve the quality of the signal. This allows for better communication between Bluetooth devices and helps to ensure a stable connection.

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52. What layer of the OSI model do routers usualy operate at?

Explanation

Routers usually operate at the third layer of the OSI model, which is the network layer. This layer is responsible for routing and forwarding data packets across different networks. Routers use IP addresses to determine the best path for data transmission, making decisions based on network conditions and congestion. By operating at the network layer, routers can connect multiple networks together and enable communication between them.

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53. How many pins are on a hard drive SATA connector, and are they male or female?

Explanation

A hard drive SATA connector typically has 7 pins and they are female. The female connector is designed to receive the male connector of the SATA cable, allowing for the transfer of data and power between the hard drive and the motherboard or other devices. The 7 pins on the female connector are responsible for different functions such as data transmission, power supply, and grounding.

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54. What is the typical size of the CPU back side bus on a Pentium style processor, and which type of cache connects to the backside bus?

Explanation

The typical size of the CPU back side bus on a Pentium style processor is 32 bit. The type of cache that connects to the backside bus is L2 cache.

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55. With RIMMS, (RAMBUS MEMORY), what are the names of the two forms of termination modules used in this technology?

Explanation

The correct answer is CT-RIMM/C-RIMM. In RIMM technology, there are two forms of termination modules used: CT-RIMM (Continuity RIMM) and C-RIMM (Companion RIMM). CT-RIMM is used in the first slot of the memory channel, while C-RIMM is used in all the remaining slots. These termination modules help to ensure proper electrical signaling and performance in RIMM technology.

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56. Which technology is slower in terms of frequency, (latency), DDR memory, or DDR2 memory?

Explanation

Normally DDR2 would be faster, however being that the frequency speed at which they both operate favor the regular DDR. Higher speeds are not yet available for the DDR2 in (ns). Once the (ns) speeds are available for DDR2 and DDR3, they will blaze!!!!!!!!

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57. What are the two most modern optic reading technologies used in all home and commercial based scanners.

Explanation

CIS (Contact Image Sensor) and CCD (Charge-Coupled Device) are the two most modern optic reading technologies used in all home and commercial based scanners. CIS technology uses a light source and a sensor to capture the image directly, making it more compact and energy-efficient. On the other hand, CCD technology uses a series of light-sensitive diodes to convert light into electrical signals, providing high-quality and accurate scanning results. Both technologies have their advantages and are widely used in different types of scanners depending on the specific requirements and applications.

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58. What is the best and newest technology regarding hard drives, with regard to access speed, seek time, data protection, and convienience?

Explanation

Solid state drives (SSDs) are the best and newest technology regarding hard drives in terms of access speed, seek time, data protection, and convenience. Unlike traditional hard disk drives (HDDs) that use spinning disks, SSDs use flash memory to store and retrieve data. This allows for faster access speeds, shorter seek times, and improved data protection as there are no moving parts that can fail. Additionally, SSDs are more convenient as they are smaller, lighter, and consume less power compared to HDDs.

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59. PDA"S communicate through what wireless technology protocol?

Explanation

802.15 is the correct answer because it refers to the wireless technology protocol known as Bluetooth. PDAs, or Personal Digital Assistants, use Bluetooth to communicate wirelessly with other devices such as smartphones, laptops, or printers. Bluetooth operates on the 2.4 GHz frequency and allows for short-range communication between devices, making it a suitable choice for PDAs.

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60. What is the difference between a SCSI wide connection and a regular narrow SCSI connection?

Explanation

A SCSI wide connection has 18 pins, whereas a regular narrow SCSI connection has fewer pins. This indicates that the wide connection allows for a higher data transfer rate and a larger number of devices to be connected compared to the narrow connection. The additional pins in the wide connection provide more pathways for data transmission, resulting in improved performance and scalability.

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61. What is the definition of WPA, as referred to user access of the OS Windows XP, diplayed at start-up on a new Windows system.

Explanation

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62. What is the desired minimum and maximum operating temperatures for a PC CPU in degrees fahrenheit?

Explanation

The desired minimum and maximum operating temperatures for a PC CPU in degrees Fahrenheit are 90 and 110, respectively. This means that the CPU should not operate below 90 degrees Fahrenheit to ensure optimal performance and prevent potential damage. Similarly, it should not exceed 110 degrees Fahrenheit to avoid overheating, which can also lead to performance issues and potential hardware failure.

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63. What layer of the OSI model do hubs usually operate at?

Explanation

Hubs usually operate at the physical layer of the OSI model. The physical layer is responsible for transmitting raw bits over a communication channel, and hubs simply act as a central connection point for multiple devices in a network. They do not perform any intelligent processing or filtering of data, making them operate at the lowest layer of the OSI model.

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64. Which network protocol uses the MAC address as part of its network address?

Explanation

IPX/SPX is the correct answer because this network protocol, developed by Novell, uses the MAC address as part of its network address. IPX/SPX is used in older Novell NetWare networks and relies on the MAC address for identifying and routing network packets.

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65. What is the maximum length of a a standard serial cable.

Explanation

The maximum length of a standard serial cable is 50 feet. This means that the cable should not exceed this length in order to maintain proper signal transmission and prevent signal loss or degradation. It is important to adhere to this maximum length to ensure reliable communication between devices connected by the serial cable.

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66. Who assigns the latter half of a hexidecimal hardware MAC address, and how many total bits are used for the complete MAC address?

Explanation

The latter half of a hexadecimal hardware MAC address is assigned by the manufacturer. The complete MAC address consists of 48 bits.

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67. What are two main differences between USB 1.0 and USB 2.0?

Explanation

USB 1.0 and USB 2.0 differ in terms of speed and cable appearance. USB 2.0 offers faster data transfer speeds compared to USB 1.0, allowing for quicker file transfers and improved performance. Additionally, USB 2.0 cables have a different appearance compared to USB 1.0 cables, with USB 2.0 cables typically having a black plug and USB 1.0 cables having a white plug.

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68. What is the maximum voltage a home computer power supply stores in its internal DC filter capacitors when it is plugged in, or unplugged?

Explanation

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69. Intel Itainium CPU's use the EPIC instruction code and a 256 bit front side bus? Check two answers.

Explanation

The correct answer is False because Intel Itanium CPUs use the EPIC instruction code, but they have a 128-bit front side bus, not a 256-bit front side bus.

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70. How many MODES can a typical CPU operate in, and which STATE consumes the most power?

Explanation

CPU's can operate in 16, 32, merged 16-32 bit modes. State 0 uses the maximun amount of CPU electrical resources.

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71. What terms are synonomus with executing an XP registry back-up or copy? Select two answers.

Explanation

The terms "Last known good configuration" and "Registry Export" are synonymous with executing an XP registry back-up or copy. "Last known good configuration" refers to a feature in Windows XP that allows the system to revert to a previously saved state of the registry, which can be used as a backup. "Registry Export" is the process of exporting the registry to a file, creating a backup copy that can be restored if necessary.

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72. What computer network resource assigns static IP address in most network situations?

Explanation

In most network situations, operating systems are responsible for assigning static IP addresses. Operating systems like Windows, macOS, and Linux have built-in network configuration tools that allow users to manually assign IP addresses to devices on a network. This is useful in situations where specific devices need to have a consistent IP address, such as servers or network printers. DNS (Domain Name System) is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, IPX is a network protocol used primarily in older Novell NetWare networks, and TCP/IP is a suite of protocols that enables internet communication.

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73. In Windows XP what bit size is used for the command prompt program CMD.EXE,(legacy DOS). Check two answers.

Explanation

The correct answer is 16/32. In Windows XP, the command prompt program CMD.EXE uses a bit size of 16/32. This means that it can run both 16-bit and 32-bit applications. Additionally, it is mentioned that the bit size is the same as the Command.COM program in XP, which further supports the answer.

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74. What is the standard for Intel Pentiums regarding their back side bus? Check two answers.

Explanation

The standard for Intel Pentiums regarding their back side bus is 32 bit. Additionally, the back side bus is designed to be double the speed of the front side bus.

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75. A user just loaded their favorite video game, the system nows continually locks-up, what could be the problem, and what XP utilities would you useto troubleshoot this problem? Select the two best answers.

Explanation

The best answers would be to check device manager for proper video card driver operation, then check system information to see if the users system has the nessesary specifications to run the software. If all else fails run safe mode to isolate the video drivers, and then run system restore to eliminate the previous game download.

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