CompTIA A+ Updated 12/2007 Essentials Test Review

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  • 1/75 Questions

    What is the worlds most popular network related mode of communication on the internet?

    • IPX
    • NWLINK
    • TCP/IP
    • PPPoe
    • FTP
Please wait...
About This Quiz

This quiz contains practice questions relating to the new compTIA material for 2007-08. This quiz can help prepare you for A+ certification exams. Questions are written in a study mode format for easy retention.

CompTIA A+ Updated 12/2007 Essentials Test Review - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The common wireless network term "hot spot" refers to what type of connection, and what data transfer speed?

    • An over-clocked server that is delivering the maximal high speed output rate available/(13.2 Gbps)

    • A users favorite area in the house/(533 Mbps)

    • A wireless network line that is being pirated by another user/(2-11 Gbps)

    • There is no such term as "hot Spot" in wireless technology.

    • Usually an open non-secured common wireless network found in public areas/(2-11 Mbps)

    Correct Answer
    A. Usually an open non-secured common wireless network found in public areas/(2-11 Mbps)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is usually an open non-secured common wireless network found in public areas with a data transfer speed of 2-11 Mbps. This is because a "hot spot" refers to a location where Wi-Fi is available for public use, typically in cafes, airports, or parks. These hot spots are usually open and unsecured, meaning anyone can connect to them without a password. The data transfer speed of these hot spots can vary, but it is typically in the range of 2-11 Mbps.

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  • 3. 

    What is the worlds most popular form of internet connection for both wired and wireless nodes?

    • WPAN

    • MAN

    • Piconet

    • Ethernet

    • Token ring

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethernet
    Explanation
    Ethernet is the world's most popular form of internet connection for both wired and wireless nodes. It is a widely-used networking technology that allows devices to connect and communicate with each other over a local area network (LAN). Ethernet provides high-speed and reliable data transmission, making it the preferred choice for connecting computers, routers, switches, and other devices to the internet. It is used in both home and business settings and supports various types of connections, including wired Ethernet (such as Ethernet cables) and wireless Ethernet (such as Wi-Fi).

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  • 4. 

    Which operating systems allow for automatic Windows upates and downloads?

    • XP and Windows 98

    • MAC 2.0

    • Windows NT

    • Windows 2000

    • XP

    Correct Answer
    A. XP
    Explanation
    XP is the correct answer because it is an operating system that allows for automatic Windows updates and downloads. This means that users with XP can set their system to automatically download and install updates from Microsoft, ensuring that their computer is always up to date with the latest security patches and bug fixes.

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  • 5. 

    What are the classes for the following IP addresses, in this order: 128-191 192-223 1-127

    • Class A,C,B

    • Class B,C,A

    • Class C,A,B

    • Class A,B,C

    • These are not valid IP addresses.

    Correct Answer
    A. Class B,C,A
    Explanation
    The given IP addresses fall into the following classes: Class B, Class C, and Class A. The first range, 128-191, falls under Class B, which is reserved for medium-sized networks. The second range, 192-223, falls under Class C, which is reserved for small networks. The third range, 1-127, falls under Class A, which is reserved for large networks. Therefore, the correct order of the classes for these IP addresses is Class B, Class C, and Class A.

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  • 6. 

    Hyperthreading was designed by ______, Hypertransport was designed by______?

    • AMD/INTEL

    • VIA/CIRA

    • IBM/HP

    • SONY/INTEL

    • INTEL/AMD

    Correct Answer
    A. INTEL/AMD
    Explanation
    Hyperthreading was designed by Intel, while Hypertransport was designed by AMD.

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  • 7. 

    The term "definitions" are synonymous with what network security applications?

    • Firewalls

    • DNS

    • MAC filtering

    • Anti-virus

    • Packet filtering

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-virus
    Explanation
    Definitions are usually referred to anti-virus updates or a specific anti-virus action.

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  • 8. 

    What program in Windows 2000 and XP is considered to be the "Boot loader" program?

    • Boot.INI

    • SYS.INI

    • WIN.INI

    • COMMAND.COM

    • NTLDR

    Correct Answer
    A. NTLDR
    Explanation
    NTLDR (NT Loader) is the correct answer as it is the boot loader program in Windows 2000 and XP. The boot loader is responsible for loading the operating system into memory during the boot process. NTLDR is specifically designed for Windows NT-based operating systems and is located in the system partition. It helps in initializing the system hardware, loading the operating system kernel, and transferring control to it.

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  • 9. 

    What is the name of the device that controls SCSI operation and configuration within a host computer?

    • Host adapter

    • ID board

    • Motherboard

    • SCSI interface driver

    • UND control board

    Correct Answer
    A. Host adapter
    Explanation
    The device that controls SCSI operation and configuration within a host computer is called a host adapter. This device allows the host computer to communicate with the SCSI devices connected to it, managing their operation and configuration. It acts as an interface between the host computer's bus and the SCSI bus, enabling data transfer and control signals between the two. The host adapter plays a crucial role in enabling the host computer to effectively utilize SCSI devices for storage and other purposes.

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  • 10. 

    What is the best tool to use for a A+ technician to test external ports on a PC or laptop?

    • Multimeter

    • OTDR

    • Loop back plug

    • Test cables

    • Internal POST checking

    Correct Answer
    A. Loop back plug
    Explanation
    A loop back plug is the best tool for an A+ technician to test external ports on a PC or laptop. A loop back plug is a device that connects to a port and loops the signal back to itself, allowing the technician to test the functionality of the port. This tool is commonly used to diagnose and troubleshoot issues with ports such as USB, Ethernet, or serial ports. By using a loop back plug, the technician can verify if the port is working properly or if there are any connectivity problems.

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  • 11. 

    How long should a newer CRT monitor be left to naturally discharge befroe handling?

    • 1 hour or less

    • 30 minutes

    • 15 minutes

    • 1 hour or more

    • Short the electrodes if you are careful

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 hour or more
    Explanation
    E is also correct only if you are going to recycle the CRT. Shorting the electrodes also may present a hazard to the technician, and could damage a good working CRT. Not the best answer.

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  • 12. 

    How often is it professionally recommended that the user use the XP utility Defrag on all hard disc drives?

    • Daily

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Yearly

    • After each 20 hours of use.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    It is professionally recommended to use the XP utility Defrag on all hard disc drives on a monthly basis. This is because regular defragmentation helps optimize the performance of the hard drives by rearranging fragmented data and improving access times. Performing this task monthly ensures that the hard drives remain in good condition and continue to operate efficiently.

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  • 13. 

    What is the area called where a bublejet ink cartrige resides when not in use, and is always reset to that location after each use?

    • Priming area.

    • Stall location

    • Maintenance area

    • Hold area

    • There is no special name for this designated area.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance area
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Maintenance area". This is the area where a bubblejet ink cartridge resides when it is not in use. It is always reset to this location after each use to ensure proper maintenance and prevent drying or clogging of the ink.

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  • 14. 

    What is the IRQ of a sound card, floopy disc,and keyboard,in that order, found in Windows XP?

    • IRQ 1/3/4

    • IRQ 5/6/1

    • IRQ 10/6/7

    • IRQ /2/12

    • IRQ 6/8/15

    Correct Answer
    A. IRQ 5/6/1
    Explanation
    There has been controversy concerning certian IRQ's these ports have been verified.

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  • 15. 

    Can RIMMS, (RAMBUS MEMORY), be found in 800MHZ and 1600MHZ sizes?

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE
    Explanation
    RIMMS, also known as Rambus Memory, can be found in both 800MHZ and 1600MHZ sizes.

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  • 16. 

    What is the IRQ of a standard keyboard?

    • IRQ 2

    • IRQ 1

    • IRQ 13

    • IRQ 4

    • Keyboards do not use IRQ's

    Correct Answer
    A. IRQ 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IRQ 1. In computer systems, IRQ (Interrupt Request) is a signal sent by hardware devices to the CPU to request attention. IRQ 1 is typically assigned to the keyboard controller, indicating that it is the interrupt line used by a standard keyboard.

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  • 17. 

    What is the term "thrashing" related to?

    • Excessive hard drive paging.

    • Low extended memory

    • A hard drive actuator rubbing against the platter.

    • Insufficient L1 cache in a CPU.

    • Improper RAID configuration

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive hard drive paging.
    Explanation
    Thrashing refers to a situation where a computer's performance is significantly degraded due to excessive swapping of data between the physical memory (RAM) and the hard drive. This occurs when the system is constantly swapping data in and out of the RAM to fulfill the memory demands of running processes, leading to a high disk activity and slowing down the overall performance. Therefore, the term "thrashing" is related to excessive hard drive paging.

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  • 18. 

    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. What is the file that is sometime added during boot-up that is used with the SCSI interface?

    • NTBOOTDD.sys

    • IO.sys

    • MSdos.sys

    • SCSI.ini

    • Command.com

    Correct Answer
    A. NTBOOTDD.sys
    Explanation
    NTBOOTDD.sys is the correct answer because it is a file that is sometimes added during boot-up and is used specifically with the SCSI interface. This file is responsible for providing the necessary drivers and support for SCSI devices to be recognized and accessed by the operating system during the boot process.

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  • 19. 

    What is the standard default resolution for a Windows XP and Windows 2000 monitor, (LCD, CRT), after logging into Windows Safe Mode and loading only minimal drivers, and how many selections in Safe Mode are setup to affect monitor resolution?

    • 600X400, only one selection

    • 800X400, there are two selections

    • 640X480, there are two selections

    • 1024X720, only one selection

    • Safe Mode will not affect monitor resolution

    Correct Answer
    A. 640X480, there are two selections
    Explanation
    When logging into Windows Safe Mode and loading only minimal drivers, the standard default resolution for a Windows XP and Windows 2000 monitor is 640X480. There are two selections in Safe Mode that can affect the monitor resolution.

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  • 20. 

    Where is the "Last known good recovery" regisrty file found, in what path designation?

    • HKEY CURRENT_CONFIG/SAM

    • HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT/SECURITY

    • HKEY_CURRENT_USER/SOFTWARE

    • HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE/SYSTEM

    • HKEY_USERS/SAM

    Correct Answer
    A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE/SYSTEM
    Explanation
    The "Last known good recovery" registry file is found in the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE/SYSTEM path designation.

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  • 21. 

    Always ground yourself when servicing a laser printer or CRT monitor.

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    • Only when it is unplugged

    Correct Answer
    A. FALSE
    Explanation
    Grounding yourself when servicing a laser printer or CRT monitor is not necessary. While it is important to take precautions when working with electronic equipment to avoid static electricity discharge, grounding yourself specifically is not required for these devices. Other measures such as using an anti-static wrist strap or mat can be effective in preventing damage from static electricity. Therefore, the statement that grounding is always necessary is false.

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  • 22. 

    How many devices can be attached to a Bluetooth system, (piconet), what protocal is involved, and how many feet is usually the maximum user distance, in this order.

    • 2/802.11/10

    • 8/802.15/10

    • 16/802.3/50

    • 63/802.11g/25

    • 12/802.4/25

    Correct Answer
    A. 8/802.15/10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 8/802.15/10. This means that 8 devices can be attached to a Bluetooth system (piconet), the protocol involved is 802.15, and the maximum user distance is usually 10 feet.

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  • 23. 

    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. What does the start-up BIOS do with the boot loader program NTLDR and Boot ini, and other start-up programs during the boot process?

    • It executes them.

    • It decompresses them

    • It loads them into the RAM

    • It stores them into the Bootcfg file.

    • It copies them onto the hard drivs active partition.

    Correct Answer
    A. It loads them into the RAM
    Explanation
    The start-up BIOS loads the boot loader program NTLDR, Boot ini, and other start-up programs into the RAM during the boot process. This allows the computer to access and execute these programs from the RAM, which is a temporary storage location, rather than directly from the hard drive. Loading them into the RAM helps to speed up the boot process and allows the computer to access the necessary files and programs more efficiently.

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  • 24. 

    If a customer requested that you upgrade their computer memory to the PC3200 standard, what frequency of DDR would you order?

    • 100 MHZ

    • 200 MHZ

    • 400 MHZ

    • 533 MHZ

    • PC3200 is not a vaild standard.

    Correct Answer
    A. 400 MHZ
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 400 MHZ because PC3200 is a type of DDR memory that operates at a frequency of 400 MHz.

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  • 25. 

    "no operating system found" would indicate a possible failure in what computer system? Select the best answer.

    • Hard drive

    • CMOS

    • BIOS

    • MBR

    • Operating system was deleted.

    Correct Answer
    A. MBR
    Explanation
    The error message "no operating system found" typically indicates a possible failure in the Master Boot Record (MBR) of the computer system. The MBR is a small section of the hard drive that contains important information about the partitions and the location of the operating system. If the MBR is corrupted or missing, the computer may not be able to locate and boot the operating system, resulting in the error message.

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  • 26. 

    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. The start-up POST verifys actual system configuration with that of stored configuration information located in?

    • CMOS

    • RAM

    • The hard drive.

    • BIOS

    • The Swap file

    Correct Answer
    A. CMOS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CMOS. CMOS stands for Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor and it is a type of memory chip that stores the system configuration information, including hardware settings such as the date and time, boot order, and other BIOS settings. During the POST (Power-On Self-Test) process, the system verifies the actual system configuration with the stored configuration information in the CMOS to ensure that everything is functioning correctly.

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  • 27. 

    A user plugs a USB 2.0 device into a USB 1.0 slot on a Windows XP computer, what will happen? Select two answers.

    • Device will not work

    • Devices will have a slower data transfer rate

    • A message will appear indicating that a USB 2.0 device is inserted into a USB 1.0 slot, and that USB 2.0 ports are avaiable for use.

    • Device will perform normally

    • The computer will freeze.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Devices will have a slower data transfer rate
    A. A message will appear indicating that a USB 2.0 device is inserted into a USB 1.0 slot, and that USB 2.0 ports are avaiable for use.
    Explanation
    When a USB 2.0 device is plugged into a USB 1.0 slot on a Windows XP computer, the device will still work but at a slower data transfer rate. This is because the USB 1.0 slot is not capable of supporting the faster transfer speeds of USB 2.0. Additionally, a message will appear on the computer indicating that a USB 2.0 device is inserted into a USB 1.0 slot, and it will also inform the user that USB 2.0 ports are available for use. The computer will not freeze and the device will still perform its normal functions, albeit at a reduced speed.

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  • 28. 

    What is the best physical way to protect a users system from attack by destructive software, using the Windows XP registry?

    • Purge all unused registry files regularly.

    • Delete or restrict all permissions for non-administrators.

    • Delete or restrict power users only from the registry.

    • Use registery cleaner software programs monthly.

    • Set all users and administrators to read-only permissions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Delete or restrict all permissions for non-administrators.
    Explanation
    The best physical way to protect a user's system from attack by destructive software using the Windows XP registry is to delete or restrict all permissions for non-administrators. By doing so, non-administrators will not have the ability to make changes to the registry, reducing the risk of malicious software making unauthorized modifications. This helps to ensure that only authorized users with administrative privileges can make changes to the registry, enhancing the system's security.

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  • 29. 

    Can system restore be accssed through the MSCONFIG utility in Windows XP?

    • TRUE

    • FALSE

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE
    Explanation
    Yes, system restore can be accessed through the MSCONFIG utility in Windows XP. MSCONFIG is a system configuration tool that allows users to manage startup programs and services. In Windows XP, there is a "System Restore" tab within the MSCONFIG utility, which allows users to enable or disable system restore points. This feature enables users to restore their computer to a previous working state if any issues arise.

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  • 30. 

    On a bublejet ink printer can ink cartridges be filled to different OEM fluid level specifications?

    • TRUE, their are some OEM's that use "high yield" cartridges for the same models.

    • FALSE, all cartridges of the same models are filled the same.

    • Every OEM fill is random, therefore each cartridge is unique to its own fluid level.

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE, their are some OEM's that use "high yield" cartridges for the same models.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TRUE because some OEMs offer "high yield" cartridges for the same printer models. These high yield cartridges have a larger ink capacity compared to standard cartridges. This allows for more printing before the cartridge needs to be replaced. Therefore, ink cartridges can be filled to different OEM fluid level specifications depending on the type of cartridge being used.

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  • 31. 

    What is the maximum length of a IEEE 1394 Firewire cable, its maximum amount of devices, and what type of cable does it support? in that order.

    • 10 meters/24/UTP

    • 30 meters/32/UTP

    • 15 feet/63/STP

    • 25 feet/32/coax

    • 100 meters/63/fiber optics

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 feet/63/STP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 feet/63/STP. According to the answer, the maximum length of an IEEE 1394 Firewire cable is 15 feet. It can support a maximum of 63 devices. The type of cable it supports is Shielded Twisted Pair (STP).

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  • 32. 

    Can a Windows Me edition be directly upgraded to Windows XP, windows 2000

    • YES XP,no windows 2000

    • NO XP, yes windows 2000

    • Yes if the convert command is used first.

    Correct Answer
    A. YES XP,no windows 2000
    Explanation
    Yes, a Windows Me edition can be directly upgraded to Windows XP, but not to Windows 2000.

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  • 33. 

    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. Real mode is a ____ bit system, and protected mode is a ____ bit system?

    • 8/16

    • 64/128

    • 32/64

    • 12/24

    • 16/32

    Correct Answer
    A. 16/32
    Explanation
    Real mode is a 16-bit system, and protected mode is a 32-bit system. In real mode, the processor can access a maximum of 1MB of memory and can only run one program at a time. Protected mode, on the other hand, allows the processor to access up to 4GB of memory and supports multitasking, allowing multiple programs to run simultaneously. Protected mode also provides features like virtual memory, memory protection, and enhanced security.

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  • 34. 

    You a repairing a customers computer, the computer specification indicated by the OEM indicates that a 300 watt power supply was used for the original equipment build. Can you use a 1000 watt replacement power supply with the same voltages, which is available from the original OEM?

    • Yes, as long as the voltages and current draw are the same.

    • No, seriously over rating the available wattage could cause damage to parts that are rated for lower wattages such as switches and lights and other electrical components.

    • Situational, The higher wattage will have no affect on the operation of the computer if all other specifications remain constant.

    Correct Answer
    A. No, seriously over rating the available wattage could cause damage to parts that are rated for lower wattages such as switches and lights and other electrical components.
    Explanation
    Actually during normal operation, this answer would be correct. A 1000 watt power supply would not hurt a 350 watt system in theory. However, if the system had an instance that caused a draw of more than 350 watts, 1000 watts of power would be {available}, and the "components" and "busses" are not rated to handle such instant heat and power handling. So in fact the 350 watt system would blow the fuse, and most likely the system would survive, not the case for the 1000 watt scenerio. Using a power supply variance of 50-100 watts should be acceptable in most cases, but most surely would void the manufacture's warranty.

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  • 35. 

    How many bits are contained in a TCP/IP internet address?

    • 32

    • 64

    • 128

    • 1024

    • 16

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
    Explanation
    A TCP/IP internet address is made up of 32 bits. This means that it can represent 2^32 (4,294,967,296) unique addresses. The 32-bit address is divided into four octets, with each octet consisting of 8 bits. Each octet can have a value ranging from 0 to 255, resulting in a total of 4 octets or 32 bits. This addressing scheme allows for a large number of unique addresses to be assigned to devices connected to the internet.

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  • 36. 

    Modern keyboards have how many keys, and are refered to by what named technology?

    • 100/egronomic

    • 102/impact

    • 104/enhanced

    • 112/standard

    • 99/multi-strike

    Correct Answer
    A. 104/enhanced
    Explanation
    Modern keyboards typically have 104 keys, which is the standard layout for most keyboards. The term "enhanced" refers to the improved functionality and additional keys that were introduced in this layout compared to older keyboard designs.

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  • 37. 

    How do you navigate to the System Information screen in Windows XP, provide the fastest access.

    • Run/SI

    • Run/sysinfo

    • Run/msinfo32

    • Run/wininfo

    • You cannot use command line to access System Information

    Correct Answer
    A. Run/msinfo32
    Explanation
    To navigate to the System Information screen in Windows XP and provide the fastest access, you need to type "Run/msinfo32" in the Run command. This will open the System Information window directly, allowing you to quickly access the information about your system's hardware, software, and other system components.

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  • 38. 

    How can you access the computer management screen in XP? Provide the fastest access.

    • Start/my computer/right click/ manage/computer management

    • Start/accessories/system tools/manage/computer management

    • Run/cm32

    • Run/computer management

    • Start/control panel/administrative tools/computer management

    Correct Answer
    A. Start/my computer/right click/ manage/computer management
    Explanation
    E is correct, however it takes one more step.

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  • 39. 

    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. Which part of the hard drive disc platter (1) holds the first 512 bytes of programing and memory address FFFFOh?

    • The inside of the platter.

    • The middle of the platter

    • The begining of the platter

    • The hard drive does not hold this information

    • RAM holds this information

    Correct Answer
    A. The begining of the platter
    Explanation
    The beginning of the platter holds the first 512 bytes of programming and memory address FFFFOh.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following terms are associated with network security transmissions?

    • Trailers

    • Headers

    • Markers

    • Both (B) and (C)

    • Both (A) and (B)

    Correct Answer
    A. Both (A) and (B)
    Explanation
    Both trailers and headers are associated with network security transmissions. Trailers are used to verify the integrity of the transmitted data by adding a checksum or hash value at the end of the data. Headers, on the other hand, are used to provide information about the data being transmitted, such as the source and destination addresses, protocol information, and other control information. Both of these components play a crucial role in ensuring the security and reliability of network transmissions.

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  • 41. 

    What is the newest technology for ATX and BTX form factors regarding CPU sockets?

    • 428/423/LIF

    • 330/473/VLIF

    • 775/ZIF

    • 423/478/ZIF

    • None of the above.

    Correct Answer
    A. 775/ZIF
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 775/ZIF. This answer refers to the newest technology for ATX and BTX form factors regarding CPU sockets. The 775/ZIF socket is a type of Zero Insertion Force (ZIF) socket that is commonly used for Intel processors. It is the latest technology for these form factors and allows for easy installation and removal of the CPU without applying any force.

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  • 42. 

    What 3 things must be present for ACPI to work on an XP computer?

    • A compliant device/BIOS/motherboard

    • A compliant BIOS/device

    • A compliant motherboard/device

    • A compliant CPU/motherboard/BIOS

    • Only a compliant PnP device is nessesary.

    Correct Answer
    A. A compliant device/BIOS/motherboard
    Explanation
    ACPI (Advanced Configuration and Power Interface) is a standard that allows the operating system to control power management features of a computer's hardware. In order for ACPI to work on an XP computer, all three components - device, BIOS, and motherboard - need to be compliant with the ACPI standard. This means that all three components must support and adhere to the ACPI specifications for power management. Without any one of these components being compliant, ACPI will not function properly on the XP computer.

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  • 43. 

    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. What is disabled during the BIOS POST?

    • ROM

    • The CPU.

    • Memory (RAM)

    • IRQ'S

    • I/O's

    Correct Answer
    A. IRQ'S
    Explanation
    During the BIOS POST (Power-On Self Test), IRQs (Interrupt Requests) are disabled. IRQs are signals sent by devices to the CPU to request attention or to notify about an event. During the POST, the system checks and initializes hardware components, and disabling IRQs ensures that no interrupts from devices occur during this critical process. This allows the system to focus on detecting and initializing hardware without any interruptions.

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  • 44. 

    What SCSI ID would you use for the Boot disc, CD-ROM, and Host adapter, in that exact order?

    • 1/3/4

    • 2/6/7

    • 0/6/7

    • 1/5/6

    • 0/2/3

    Correct Answer
    A. 0/6/7
    Explanation
    The SCSI ID for the Boot disc is usually set to 0, as it is the default ID for the primary device. The CD-ROM is assigned an ID of 6, which is commonly used for secondary devices. The Host adapter, which is responsible for connecting the SCSI devices to the computer, is typically set to ID 7. Therefore, the correct order of SCSI IDs for the Boot disc, CD-ROM, and Host adapter would be 0/6/7.

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  • 45. 

    Check all terms that are associated with A+ monitor jargon.

    • Active matrix

    • Dot pitch

    • Contrast ratio

    • True white resolution

    • Passive matrix

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Active matrix
    A. Dot pitch
    A. Contrast ratio
    A. Passive matrix
    Explanation
    The terms "Active matrix," "Dot pitch," "Contrast ratio," and "Passive matrix" are all associated with A+ monitor jargon. Active matrix refers to the technology used in LCD screens to improve image quality and reduce flickering. Dot pitch refers to the distance between pixels on a screen, with a smaller dot pitch resulting in sharper images. Contrast ratio measures the difference in brightness between the darkest and brightest parts of an image. Passive matrix is an older technology used in LCD screens, which is less expensive but has lower image quality compared to active matrix.

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  • 46. 

    Name 3 important Windows XP networking troubleshooting utility programs.

    • Nslookup

    • Ping

    • Tracenet

    • IPA/X

    • Ipconfig

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Nslookup
    A. Ping
    A. Ipconfig
    Explanation
    The three important Windows XP networking troubleshooting utility programs are nslookup, ping, and ipconfig. nslookup is used to query the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain information about domain names or IP addresses. ping is used to test the connectivity between two network devices by sending ICMP echo requests and receiving ICMP echo replies. ipconfig is used to display the IP configuration settings of a network interface, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

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  • 47. 

    What are five forms of data configurations that are assembled, transmitted, and revceived in the OSI model.

    • Headers,trailers,data,packets,informatiom.

    • Cdc's,headers,trailers,bits,bytes.

    • Segments,data,cdc's, packets,bytes.

    • Only packets are used.

    • Data,packets,bits,segments,frames

    Correct Answer
    A. Data,packets,bits,segments,frames
    Explanation
    The correct answer is data, packets, bits, segments, frames. In the OSI model, data is divided into packets at the transport layer, which are further divided into smaller units called segments at the network layer. These segments are then divided into smaller units called frames at the data link layer, which are finally transmitted as bits over the physical layer. Therefore, all five forms of data configurations mentioned in the answer are assembled, transmitted, and received in the OSI model.

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  • 48. 

    How much free disc space is required of a particular storage drive to enable the use of the XP utility Defrag, and can this requirement be overcome by a command line entry?

    • 10%, and no, there are no exceptions to the free disk space requirement.

    • 10%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.

    • 15%, and no, there are no exceptions to the free disk space requirement.

    • 15%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.

    • 20%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. 15%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation. This means that in order to use the XP utility Defrag, at least 15% of free disk space is required. However, there are exceptions to this requirement, which can be overcome by using a command line entry with a cmd switch that forces a disk defragmentation.

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  • 49. 

    How many SCSI "DEVICES" can be installed in an 8 bit , 16 bit, and 32 bit system respectively?

    • 4/3/2

    • 0/12/24

    • 8/16/32

    • 7/15/31

    • 7/12/9

    Correct Answer
    A. 7/15/31
    Explanation
    In a SCSI system, the number of devices that can be installed depends on the number of bits in the system's address space. In an 8-bit system, there can be 2^8 or 256 possible addresses, but one address is reserved for the host controller, so the maximum number of devices is 256-1 = 255. In a 16-bit system, there can be 2^16 or 65,536 possible addresses, but again one address is reserved for the host controller, so the maximum number of devices is 65,536-1 = 65,535. In a 32-bit system, there can be 2^32 or 4,294,967,296 possible addresses, but one address is reserved for the host controller, so the maximum number of devices is 4,294,967,296-1 = 4,294,967,295.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 19, 2022 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

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  • Mar 19, 2022
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Dec 26, 2007
    Quiz Created by
    Myera66
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