CompTIA A+ Updated 12/2007 Essentials Test Review

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CompTIA A+ Updated 12/2007 Essentials Test Review - Quiz

This quiz contains practice questions relating to the new compTIA material for 2007-08. This quiz can help prepare you for A+ certification exams. Questions are written in a study mode format for easy retention.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How much free disc space is required of a particular storage drive to enable the use of the XP utility Defrag, and can this requirement be overcome by a command line entry?

    • A.

      10%, and no, there are no exceptions to the free disk space requirement.

    • B.

      10%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.

    • C.

      15%, and no, there are no exceptions to the free disk space requirement.

    • D.

      15%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.

    • E.

      20%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.

    Correct Answer
    D. 15%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation. This means that in order to use the XP utility Defrag, at least 15% of free disk space is required. However, there are exceptions to this requirement, which can be overcome by using a command line entry with a cmd switch that forces a disk defragmentation.

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  • 2. 

    What is the IRQ of a sound card, floopy disc,and keyboard,in that order, found in Windows XP?

    • A.

      IRQ 1/3/4

    • B.

      IRQ 5/6/1

    • C.

      IRQ 10/6/7

    • D.

      IRQ /2/12

    • E.

      IRQ 6/8/15

    Correct Answer
    B. IRQ 5/6/1
    Explanation
    There has been controversy concerning certian IRQ's these ports have been verified.

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  • 3. 

    Can system restore be accssed through the MSCONFIG utility in Windows XP?

    • A.

      TRUE

    • B.

      FALSE

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE
    Explanation
    Yes, system restore can be accessed through the MSCONFIG utility in Windows XP. MSCONFIG is a system configuration tool that allows users to manage startup programs and services. In Windows XP, there is a "System Restore" tab within the MSCONFIG utility, which allows users to enable or disable system restore points. This feature enables users to restore their computer to a previous working state if any issues arise.

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  • 4. 

    What is the standard default resolution for a Windows XP and Windows 2000 monitor, (LCD, CRT), after logging into Windows Safe Mode and loading only minimal drivers, and how many selections in Safe Mode are setup to affect monitor resolution?

    • A.

      600X400, only one selection

    • B.

      800X400, there are two selections

    • C.

      640X480, there are two selections

    • D.

      1024X720, only one selection

    • E.

      Safe Mode will not affect monitor resolution

    Correct Answer
    C. 640X480, there are two selections
    Explanation
    When logging into Windows Safe Mode and loading only minimal drivers, the standard default resolution for a Windows XP and Windows 2000 monitor is 640X480. There are two selections in Safe Mode that can affect the monitor resolution.

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  • 5. 

    You a repairing a customers computer, the computer specification indicated by the OEM indicates that a 300 watt power supply was used for the original equipment build. Can you use a 1000 watt replacement power supply with the same voltages, which is available from the original OEM?

    • A.

      Yes, as long as the voltages and current draw are the same.

    • B.

      No, seriously over rating the available wattage could cause damage to parts that are rated for lower wattages such as switches and lights and other electrical components.

    • C.

      Situational, The higher wattage will have no affect on the operation of the computer if all other specifications remain constant.

    Correct Answer
    B. No, seriously over rating the available wattage could cause damage to parts that are rated for lower wattages such as switches and lights and other electrical components.
    Explanation
    Actually during normal operation, this answer would be correct. A 1000 watt power supply would not hurt a 350 watt system in theory. However, if the system had an instance that caused a draw of more than 350 watts, 1000 watts of power would be {available}, and the "components" and "busses" are not rated to handle such instant heat and power handling. So in fact the 350 watt system would blow the fuse, and most likely the system would survive, not the case for the 1000 watt scenerio. Using a power supply variance of 50-100 watts should be acceptable in most cases, but most surely would void the manufacture's warranty.

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  • 6. 

    On a bublejet ink printer can ink cartridges be filled to different OEM fluid level specifications?

    • A.

      TRUE, their are some OEM's that use "high yield" cartridges for the same models.

    • B.

      FALSE, all cartridges of the same models are filled the same.

    • C.

      Every OEM fill is random, therefore each cartridge is unique to its own fluid level.

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE, their are some OEM's that use "high yield" cartridges for the same models.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TRUE because some OEMs offer "high yield" cartridges for the same printer models. These high yield cartridges have a larger ink capacity compared to standard cartridges. This allows for more printing before the cartridge needs to be replaced. Therefore, ink cartridges can be filled to different OEM fluid level specifications depending on the type of cartridge being used.

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  • 7. 

    What is the maximum voltage a home computer power supply stores in its internal DC filter capacitors when it is plugged in, or unplugged?

    • A.

      >12VDC

    • B.

      >15VDC

    • C.

    • D.

    • E.

      >3.3VDC

    Correct Answer
    B. >15VDC
  • 8. 

    Can RIMMS, (RAMBUS MEMORY), be found in 800MHZ and 1600MHZ sizes?

    • A.

      TRUE

    • B.

      FALSE

    Correct Answer
    A. TRUE
    Explanation
    RIMMS, also known as Rambus Memory, can be found in both 800MHZ and 1600MHZ sizes.

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  • 9. 

    Which technology is slower in terms of frequency, (latency), DDR memory, or DDR2 memory?

    • A.

      DDR

    • B.

      DDR2

    Correct Answer
    B. DDR2
    Explanation
    Normally DDR2 would be faster, however being that the frequency speed at which they both operate favor the regular DDR. Higher speeds are not yet available for the DDR2 in (ns). Once the (ns) speeds are available for DDR2 and DDR3, they will blaze!!!!!!!!

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  • 10. 

    With RIMMS, (RAMBUS MEMORY), what are the names of the two forms of termination modules used in this technology?

    • A.

      C-RIMM/T-RIMM

    • B.

      A-RIMM/B-RIMM

    • C.

      CT-RIMM/C-RIMM

    • D.

      Terminator A/Terminator B

    • E.

      No termination is needed with RIMM technology.

    Correct Answer
    C. CT-RIMM/C-RIMM
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CT-RIMM/C-RIMM. In RIMM technology, there are two forms of termination modules used: CT-RIMM (Continuity RIMM) and C-RIMM (Companion RIMM). CT-RIMM is used in the first slot of the memory channel, while C-RIMM is used in all the remaining slots. These termination modules help to ensure proper electrical signaling and performance in RIMM technology.

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  • 11. 

    What are the two most modern optic reading technologies used in all home and commercial based scanners.

    • A.

      CIS/LASCR

    • B.

      EEPROM/RET II

    • C.

      CIS/CCD

    • D.

      GDI/PS

    • E.

      LED/Laser

    Correct Answer
    C. CIS/CCD
    Explanation
    CIS (Contact Image Sensor) and CCD (Charge-Coupled Device) are the two most modern optic reading technologies used in all home and commercial based scanners. CIS technology uses a light source and a sensor to capture the image directly, making it more compact and energy-efficient. On the other hand, CCD technology uses a series of light-sensitive diodes to convert light into electrical signals, providing high-quality and accurate scanning results. Both technologies have their advantages and are widely used in different types of scanners depending on the specific requirements and applications.

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  • 12. 

    How often is it professionally recommended that the user use the XP utility Defrag on all hard disc drives?

    • A.

      Daily

    • B.

      Weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Yearly

    • E.

      After each 20 hours of use.

    Correct Answer
    C. Monthly
    Explanation
    It is professionally recommended to use the XP utility Defrag on all hard disc drives on a monthly basis. This is because regular defragmentation helps optimize the performance of the hard drives by rearranging fragmented data and improving access times. Performing this task monthly ensures that the hard drives remain in good condition and continue to operate efficiently.

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  • 13. 

    What are two main differences between USB 1.0 and USB 2.0?

    • A.

      Speed/Distance

    • B.

      Speed/cable appearance

    • C.

      Distance/noise

    • D.

      "hot swappable"/PnP

    • E.

      Speed only.

    Correct Answer
    B. Speed/cable appearance
    Explanation
    USB 1.0 and USB 2.0 differ in terms of speed and cable appearance. USB 2.0 offers faster data transfer speeds compared to USB 1.0, allowing for quicker file transfers and improved performance. Additionally, USB 2.0 cables have a different appearance compared to USB 1.0 cables, with USB 2.0 cables typically having a black plug and USB 1.0 cables having a white plug.

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  • 14. 

    What program in Windows 2000 and XP is considered to be the "Boot loader" program?

    • A.

      Boot.INI

    • B.

      SYS.INI

    • C.

      WIN.INI

    • D.

      COMMAND.COM

    • E.

      NTLDR

    Correct Answer
    E. NTLDR
    Explanation
    NTLDR (NT Loader) is the correct answer as it is the boot loader program in Windows 2000 and XP. The boot loader is responsible for loading the operating system into memory during the boot process. NTLDR is specifically designed for Windows NT-based operating systems and is located in the system partition. It helps in initializing the system hardware, loading the operating system kernel, and transferring control to it.

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  • 15. 

    If a customer requested that you upgrade their computer memory to the PC3200 standard, what frequency of DDR would you order?

    • A.

      100 MHZ

    • B.

      200 MHZ

    • C.

      400 MHZ

    • D.

      533 MHZ

    • E.

      PC3200 is not a vaild standard.

    Correct Answer
    C. 400 MHZ
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 400 MHZ because PC3200 is a type of DDR memory that operates at a frequency of 400 MHz.

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  • 16. 

    What is the area called where a bublejet ink cartrige resides when not in use, and is always reset to that location after each use?

    • A.

      Priming area.

    • B.

      Stall location

    • C.

      Maintenance area

    • D.

      Hold area

    • E.

      There is no special name for this designated area.

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance area
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Maintenance area". This is the area where a bubblejet ink cartridge resides when it is not in use. It is always reset to this location after each use to ensure proper maintenance and prevent drying or clogging of the ink.

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  • 17. 

    What SCSI ID would you use for the Boot disc, CD-ROM, and Host adapter, in that exact order?

    • A.

      1/3/4

    • B.

      2/6/7

    • C.

      0/6/7

    • D.

      1/5/6

    • E.

      0/2/3

    Correct Answer
    C. 0/6/7
    Explanation
    The SCSI ID for the Boot disc is usually set to 0, as it is the default ID for the primary device. The CD-ROM is assigned an ID of 6, which is commonly used for secondary devices. The Host adapter, which is responsible for connecting the SCSI devices to the computer, is typically set to ID 7. Therefore, the correct order of SCSI IDs for the Boot disc, CD-ROM, and Host adapter would be 0/6/7.

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  • 18. 

    What is the IRQ of a standard keyboard?

    • A.

      IRQ 2

    • B.

      IRQ 1

    • C.

      IRQ 13

    • D.

      IRQ 4

    • E.

      Keyboards do not use IRQ's

    Correct Answer
    B. IRQ 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IRQ 1. In computer systems, IRQ (Interrupt Request) is a signal sent by hardware devices to the CPU to request attention. IRQ 1 is typically assigned to the keyboard controller, indicating that it is the interrupt line used by a standard keyboard.

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  • 19. 

    What are the classes for the following IP addresses, in this order: 128-191 192-223 1-127

    • A.

      Class A,C,B

    • B.

      Class B,C,A

    • C.

      Class C,A,B

    • D.

      Class A,B,C

    • E.

      These are not valid IP addresses.

    Correct Answer
    B. Class B,C,A
    Explanation
    The given IP addresses fall into the following classes: Class B, Class C, and Class A. The first range, 128-191, falls under Class B, which is reserved for medium-sized networks. The second range, 192-223, falls under Class C, which is reserved for small networks. The third range, 1-127, falls under Class A, which is reserved for large networks. Therefore, the correct order of the classes for these IP addresses is Class B, Class C, and Class A.

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  • 20. 

    Which network protocol uses the MAC address as part of its network address?

    • A.

      NWLINK

    • B.

      TCP/IP

    • C.

      IPX/SPX

    • D.

      HTTPS

    • E.

      MAC addresses are not used in network addressing.

    Correct Answer
    C. IPX/SPX
    Explanation
    IPX/SPX is the correct answer because this network protocol, developed by Novell, uses the MAC address as part of its network address. IPX/SPX is used in older Novell NetWare networks and relies on the MAC address for identifying and routing network packets.

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  • 21. 

    The common wireless network term "hot spot" refers to what type of connection, and what data transfer speed?

    • A.

      An over-clocked server that is delivering the maximal high speed output rate available/(13.2 Gbps)

    • B.

      A users favorite area in the house/(533 Mbps)

    • C.

      A wireless network line that is being pirated by another user/(2-11 Gbps)

    • D.

      There is no such term as "hot Spot" in wireless technology.

    • E.

      Usually an open non-secured common wireless network found in public areas/(2-11 Mbps)

    Correct Answer
    E. Usually an open non-secured common wireless network found in public areas/(2-11 Mbps)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is usually an open non-secured common wireless network found in public areas with a data transfer speed of 2-11 Mbps. This is because a "hot spot" refers to a location where Wi-Fi is available for public use, typically in cafes, airports, or parks. These hot spots are usually open and unsecured, meaning anyone can connect to them without a password. The data transfer speed of these hot spots can vary, but it is typically in the range of 2-11 Mbps.

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  • 22. 

    What is the maximum length of a IEEE 1394 Firewire cable, its maximum amount of devices, and what type of cable does it support? in that order.

    • A.

      10 meters/24/UTP

    • B.

      30 meters/32/UTP

    • C.

      15 feet/63/STP

    • D.

      25 feet/32/coax

    • E.

      100 meters/63/fiber optics

    Correct Answer
    C. 15 feet/63/STP
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 15 feet/63/STP. According to the answer, the maximum length of an IEEE 1394 Firewire cable is 15 feet. It can support a maximum of 63 devices. The type of cable it supports is Shielded Twisted Pair (STP).

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  • 23. 

    What is the maximum length of a a standard serial cable.

    • A.

      10 feet.

    • B.

      30 feet

    • C.

      50 feet.

    • D.

      Standard serial cables are no longer used.

    • E.

      There is no maximum.

    Correct Answer
    C. 50 feet.
    Explanation
    The maximum length of a standard serial cable is 50 feet. This means that the cable should not exceed this length in order to maintain proper signal transmission and prevent signal loss or degradation. It is important to adhere to this maximum length to ensure reliable communication between devices connected by the serial cable.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following terms are associated with network security transmissions?

    • A.

      Trailers

    • B.

      Headers

    • C.

      Markers

    • D.

      Both (B) and (C)

    • E.

      Both (A) and (B)

    Correct Answer
    E. Both (A) and (B)
    Explanation
    Both trailers and headers are associated with network security transmissions. Trailers are used to verify the integrity of the transmitted data by adding a checksum or hash value at the end of the data. Headers, on the other hand, are used to provide information about the data being transmitted, such as the source and destination addresses, protocol information, and other control information. Both of these components play a crucial role in ensuring the security and reliability of network transmissions.

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  • 25. 

    Check all terms that are associated with A+ monitor jargon.

    • A.

      Active matrix

    • B.

      Dot pitch

    • C.

      Contrast ratio

    • D.

      True white resolution

    • E.

      Passive matrix

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Active matrix
    B. Dot pitch
    C. Contrast ratio
    E. Passive matrix
    Explanation
    The terms "Active matrix," "Dot pitch," "Contrast ratio," and "Passive matrix" are all associated with A+ monitor jargon. Active matrix refers to the technology used in LCD screens to improve image quality and reduce flickering. Dot pitch refers to the distance between pixels on a screen, with a smaller dot pitch resulting in sharper images. Contrast ratio measures the difference in brightness between the darkest and brightest parts of an image. Passive matrix is an older technology used in LCD screens, which is less expensive but has lower image quality compared to active matrix.

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  • 26. 

    How many channels on the 2.4 MHZ band does a bluetooth device operate at?

    • A.

      4

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      Bluetooth devices operate at a completely different frequency.

    • E.

      Bluetooth devices operate at multiple channels during any given transmission.

    Correct Answer
    E. Bluetooth devices operate at multiple channels during any given transmission.
    Explanation
    Bluetooth devices operate at multiple channels during any given transmission. This means that they can use different frequencies within the 2.4 MHz band to avoid interference and improve the quality of the signal. This allows for better communication between Bluetooth devices and helps to ensure a stable connection.

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  • 27. 

    "no operating system found" would indicate a possible failure in what computer system? Select the best answer.

    • A.

      Hard drive

    • B.

      CMOS

    • C.

      BIOS

    • D.

      MBR

    • E.

      Operating system was deleted.

    Correct Answer
    D. MBR
    Explanation
    The error message "no operating system found" typically indicates a possible failure in the Master Boot Record (MBR) of the computer system. The MBR is a small section of the hard drive that contains important information about the partitions and the location of the operating system. If the MBR is corrupted or missing, the computer may not be able to locate and boot the operating system, resulting in the error message.

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  • 28. 

    How many SCSI "DEVICES" can be installed in an 8 bit , 16 bit, and 32 bit system respectively?

    • A.

      4/3/2

    • B.

      0/12/24

    • C.

      8/16/32

    • D.

      7/15/31

    • E.

      7/12/9

    Correct Answer
    D. 7/15/31
    Explanation
    In a SCSI system, the number of devices that can be installed depends on the number of bits in the system's address space. In an 8-bit system, there can be 2^8 or 256 possible addresses, but one address is reserved for the host controller, so the maximum number of devices is 256-1 = 255. In a 16-bit system, there can be 2^16 or 65,536 possible addresses, but again one address is reserved for the host controller, so the maximum number of devices is 65,536-1 = 65,535. In a 32-bit system, there can be 2^32 or 4,294,967,296 possible addresses, but one address is reserved for the host controller, so the maximum number of devices is 4,294,967,296-1 = 4,294,967,295.

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  • 29. 

    What is the name of the device that controls SCSI operation and configuration within a host computer?

    • A.

      Host adapter

    • B.

      ID board

    • C.

      Motherboard

    • D.

      SCSI interface driver

    • E.

      UND control board

    Correct Answer
    A. Host adapter
    Explanation
    The device that controls SCSI operation and configuration within a host computer is called a host adapter. This device allows the host computer to communicate with the SCSI devices connected to it, managing their operation and configuration. It acts as an interface between the host computer's bus and the SCSI bus, enabling data transfer and control signals between the two. The host adapter plays a crucial role in enabling the host computer to effectively utilize SCSI devices for storage and other purposes.

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  • 30. 

    What is the best and newest technology regarding hard drives, with regard to access speed, seek time, data protection, and convienience?

    • A.

      SATA

    • B.

      ATAPI 133

    • C.

      Zone bit recording

    • D.

      Solid state

    • E.

      15,000 RPM SCSI

    Correct Answer
    D. Solid state
    Explanation
    Solid state drives (SSDs) are the best and newest technology regarding hard drives in terms of access speed, seek time, data protection, and convenience. Unlike traditional hard disk drives (HDDs) that use spinning disks, SSDs use flash memory to store and retrieve data. This allows for faster access speeds, shorter seek times, and improved data protection as there are no moving parts that can fail. Additionally, SSDs are more convenient as they are smaller, lighter, and consume less power compared to HDDs.

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  • 31. 

    PDA"S communicate through what wireless technology protocol?

    • A.

      LAN

    • B.

      WPA/WEP

    • C.

      802.15

    • D.

      MAN

    • E.

      802.11g

    Correct Answer
    C. 802.15
    Explanation
    802.15 is the correct answer because it refers to the wireless technology protocol known as Bluetooth. PDAs, or Personal Digital Assistants, use Bluetooth to communicate wirelessly with other devices such as smartphones, laptops, or printers. Bluetooth operates on the 2.4 GHz frequency and allows for short-range communication between devices, making it a suitable choice for PDAs.

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  • 32. 

    Always ground yourself when servicing a laser printer or CRT monitor.

    • A.

      TRUE

    • B.

      FALSE

    • C.

      Only when it is unplugged

    Correct Answer
    B. FALSE
    Explanation
    Grounding yourself when servicing a laser printer or CRT monitor is not necessary. While it is important to take precautions when working with electronic equipment to avoid static electricity discharge, grounding yourself specifically is not required for these devices. Other measures such as using an anti-static wrist strap or mat can be effective in preventing damage from static electricity. Therefore, the statement that grounding is always necessary is false.

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  • 33. 

    How many pins are on a hard drive SATA connector, and are they male or female?

    • A.

      6/Male

    • B.

      4/Male

    • C.

      4/Female

    • D.

      7/Female

    • E.

      7/Male

    Correct Answer
    D. 7/Female
    Explanation
    A hard drive SATA connector typically has 7 pins and they are female. The female connector is designed to receive the male connector of the SATA cable, allowing for the transfer of data and power between the hard drive and the motherboard or other devices. The 7 pins on the female connector are responsible for different functions such as data transmission, power supply, and grounding.

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  • 34. 

    What is the difference between a SCSI wide connection and a regular narrow SCSI connection?

    • A.

      10 Pins.

    • B.

      15 Pins.

    • C.

      18 Pins.

    • D.

      24 Pins.

    • E.

      No differance

    Correct Answer
    C. 18 Pins.
    Explanation
    A SCSI wide connection has 18 pins, whereas a regular narrow SCSI connection has fewer pins. This indicates that the wide connection allows for a higher data transfer rate and a larger number of devices to be connected compared to the narrow connection. The additional pins in the wide connection provide more pathways for data transmission, resulting in improved performance and scalability.

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  • 35. 

    What computer network resource assigns static IP address in most network situations?

    • A.

      DNS

    • B.

      IPX

    • C.

      TCP/IP

    • D.

      Domain server

    • E.

      Operating systems

    Correct Answer
    E. Operating systems
    Explanation
    In most network situations, operating systems are responsible for assigning static IP addresses. Operating systems like Windows, macOS, and Linux have built-in network configuration tools that allow users to manually assign IP addresses to devices on a network. This is useful in situations where specific devices need to have a consistent IP address, such as servers or network printers. DNS (Domain Name System) is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, IPX is a network protocol used primarily in older Novell NetWare networks, and TCP/IP is a suite of protocols that enables internet communication.

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  • 36. 

    How do you navigate to the System Information screen in Windows XP, provide the fastest access.

    • A.

      Run/SI

    • B.

      Run/sysinfo

    • C.

      Run/msinfo32

    • D.

      Run/wininfo

    • E.

      You cannot use command line to access System Information

    Correct Answer
    C. Run/msinfo32
    Explanation
    To navigate to the System Information screen in Windows XP and provide the fastest access, you need to type "Run/msinfo32" in the Run command. This will open the System Information window directly, allowing you to quickly access the information about your system's hardware, software, and other system components.

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  • 37. 

    How can you access the computer management screen in XP? Provide the fastest access.

    • A.

      Start/my computer/right click/ manage/computer management

    • B.

      Start/accessories/system tools/manage/computer management

    • C.

      Run/cm32

    • D.

      Run/computer management

    • E.

      Start/control panel/administrative tools/computer management

    Correct Answer
    A. Start/my computer/right click/ manage/computer management
    Explanation
    E is correct, however it takes one more step.

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  • 38. 

    How many MODES can a typical CPU operate in, and which STATE consumes the most power?

    • A.

      1/3

    • B.

      3/1

    • C.

      CPU's have only 1 MODE and 1 STATE.

    • D.

      4/0

    • E.

      3/0

    Correct Answer
    E. 3/0
    Explanation
    CPU's can operate in 16, 32, merged 16-32 bit modes. State 0 uses the maximun amount of CPU electrical resources.

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  • 39. 

    What is the typical size of the CPU back side bus on a Pentium style processor, and which type of cache connects to the backside bus?

    • A.

      64 bit/L1

    • B.

      64 bit/L2

    • C.

      32 bit/L1

    • D.

      32/no cache connects to the backside bus.

    • E.

      32 bit/L2

    Correct Answer
    E. 32 bit/L2
    Explanation
    The typical size of the CPU back side bus on a Pentium style processor is 32 bit. The type of cache that connects to the backside bus is L2 cache.

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  • 40. 

    How many bits are contained in a TCP/IP internet address?

    • A.

      32

    • B.

      64

    • C.

      128

    • D.

      1024

    • E.

      16

    Correct Answer
    A. 32
    Explanation
    A TCP/IP internet address is made up of 32 bits. This means that it can represent 2^32 (4,294,967,296) unique addresses. The 32-bit address is divided into four octets, with each octet consisting of 8 bits. Each octet can have a value ranging from 0 to 255, resulting in a total of 4 octets or 32 bits. This addressing scheme allows for a large number of unique addresses to be assigned to devices connected to the internet.

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  • 41. 

    Can a Windows Me edition be directly upgraded to Windows XP, windows 2000

    • A.

      YES XP,no windows 2000

    • B.

      NO XP, yes windows 2000

    • C.

      Yes if the convert command is used first.

    Correct Answer
    A. YES XP,no windows 2000
    Explanation
    Yes, a Windows Me edition can be directly upgraded to Windows XP, but not to Windows 2000.

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  • 42. 

    Name 3 important Windows XP networking troubleshooting utility programs.

    • A.

      Nslookup

    • B.

      Ping

    • C.

      Tracenet

    • D.

      IPA/X

    • E.

      Ipconfig

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Nslookup
    B. Ping
    E. Ipconfig
    Explanation
    The three important Windows XP networking troubleshooting utility programs are nslookup, ping, and ipconfig. nslookup is used to query the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain information about domain names or IP addresses. ping is used to test the connectivity between two network devices by sending ICMP echo requests and receiving ICMP echo replies. ipconfig is used to display the IP configuration settings of a network interface, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

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  • 43. 

    The term "definitions" are synonymous with what network security applications?

    • A.

      Firewalls

    • B.

      DNS

    • C.

      MAC filtering

    • D.

      Anti-virus

    • E.

      Packet filtering

    Correct Answer
    D. Anti-virus
    Explanation
    Definitions are usually referred to anti-virus updates or a specific anti-virus action.

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  • 44. 

    What is the definition of WPA, as referred to user access of the OS Windows XP, diplayed at start-up on a new Windows system.

    • A.

      Wireless protection advanced.

    • B.

      Windows packet authorization.

    • C.

      An upgrade from WEP for TCP/IP networks.

    • D.

      There is no such definition other than one that is related to wireless network security

    • E.

      Windows product authorization

    Correct Answer
    E. Windows product authorization
  • 45. 

    What is the term "thrashing" related to?

    • A.

      Excessive hard drive paging.

    • B.

      Low extended memory

    • C.

      A hard drive actuator rubbing against the platter.

    • D.

      Insufficient L1 cache in a CPU.

    • E.

      Improper RAID configuration

    Correct Answer
    A. Excessive hard drive paging.
    Explanation
    Thrashing refers to a situation where a computer's performance is significantly degraded due to excessive swapping of data between the physical memory (RAM) and the hard drive. This occurs when the system is constantly swapping data in and out of the RAM to fulfill the memory demands of running processes, leading to a high disk activity and slowing down the overall performance. Therefore, the term "thrashing" is related to excessive hard drive paging.

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  • 46. 

    How often should a user check the motherboard expansion slots and chip sockets for "chip creep"?

    • A.

      Weekly

    • B.

      Monthly

    • C.

      Yearly

    • D.

      When you have diminished performance

    • E.

      You will get an error code to tell you a device is losse in Windows.

    Correct Answer
    C. Yearly
    Explanation
    A user should check the motherboard expansion slots and chip sockets for "chip creep" on a yearly basis. This is important to ensure that the chips and expansion cards are properly seated and secured in their slots. Over time, due to vibrations and thermal expansion, these components can become loose, which can lead to performance issues or even device failure. Checking them annually helps to prevent any potential problems and maintain optimal performance.

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  • 47. 

    Modern keyboards have how many keys, and are refered to by what named technology?

    • A.

      100/egronomic

    • B.

      102/impact

    • C.

      104/enhanced

    • D.

      112/standard

    • E.

      99/multi-strike

    Correct Answer
    C. 104/enhanced
    Explanation
    Modern keyboards typically have 104 keys, which is the standard layout for most keyboards. The term "enhanced" refers to the improved functionality and additional keys that were introduced in this layout compared to older keyboard designs.

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  • 48. 

    What 3 things must be present for ACPI to work on an XP computer?

    • A.

      A compliant device/BIOS/motherboard

    • B.

      A compliant BIOS/device

    • C.

      A compliant motherboard/device

    • D.

      A compliant CPU/motherboard/BIOS

    • E.

      Only a compliant PnP device is nessesary.

    Correct Answer
    A. A compliant device/BIOS/motherboard
    Explanation
    ACPI (Advanced Configuration and Power Interface) is a standard that allows the operating system to control power management features of a computer's hardware. In order for ACPI to work on an XP computer, all three components - device, BIOS, and motherboard - need to be compliant with the ACPI standard. This means that all three components must support and adhere to the ACPI specifications for power management. Without any one of these components being compliant, ACPI will not function properly on the XP computer.

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  • 49. 

    Which operating systems allow for automatic Windows upates and downloads?

    • A.

      XP and Windows 98

    • B.

      MAC 2.0

    • C.

      Windows NT

    • D.

      Windows 2000

    • E.

      XP

    Correct Answer
    E. XP
    Explanation
    XP is the correct answer because it is an operating system that allows for automatic Windows updates and downloads. This means that users with XP can set their system to automatically download and install updates from Microsoft, ensuring that their computer is always up to date with the latest security patches and bug fixes.

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  • 50. 

    What is the best tool to use for a A+ technician to test external ports on a PC or laptop?

    • A.

      Multimeter

    • B.

      OTDR

    • C.

      Loop back plug

    • D.

      Test cables

    • E.

      Internal POST checking

    Correct Answer
    C. Loop back plug
    Explanation
    A loop back plug is the best tool for an A+ technician to test external ports on a PC or laptop. A loop back plug is a device that connects to a port and loops the signal back to itself, allowing the technician to test the functionality of the port. This tool is commonly used to diagnose and troubleshoot issues with ports such as USB, Ethernet, or serial ports. By using a loop back plug, the technician can verify if the port is working properly or if there are any connectivity problems.

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