CompTIA A+ Updated 12/2007 Essentials Test Review

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CompTIA A+ Updated 12/2007 Essentials Test Review

This quiz contains practice questions relating to the new compTIA material for 2007-08. This quiz can help prepare you for A+ certification exams. Questions are written in a study mode format for easy retention.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    How much free disc space is required of a particular storage drive to enable the use of the XP utility Defrag, and can this requirement be overcome by a command line entry?
    • A. 

      10%, and no, there are no exceptions to the free disk space requirement.

    • B. 

      10%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.

    • C. 

      15%, and no, there are no exceptions to the free disk space requirement.

    • D. 

      15%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.

    • E. 

      20%, and yes there are exceptions to the free disk space requirement found in a cmd switch forcing a disk defragmentation.

  • 2. 
    What is the IRQ of a sound card, floopy disc,and keyboard,in that order, found in Windows XP?
    • A. 

      IRQ 1/3/4

    • B. 

      IRQ 5/6/1

    • C. 

      IRQ 10/6/7

    • D. 

      IRQ /2/12

    • E. 

      IRQ 6/8/15

  • 3. 
    Can system restore be accssed through the MSCONFIG utility in Windows XP?
    • A. 

      TRUE

    • B. 

      FALSE

  • 4. 
    What is the standard default resolution for a Windows XP and Windows 2000 monitor, (LCD, CRT), after logging into Windows Safe Mode and loading only minimal drivers, and how many selections in Safe Mode are setup to affect monitor resolution?
    • A. 

      600X400, only one selection

    • B. 

      800X400, there are two selections

    • C. 

      640X480, there are two selections

    • D. 

      1024X720, only one selection

    • E. 

      Safe Mode will not affect monitor resolution

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Yes, as long as the voltages and current draw are the same.

    • B. 

      No, seriously over rating the available wattage could cause damage to parts that are rated for lower wattages such as switches and lights and other electrical components.

    • C. 

      Situational, The higher wattage will have no affect on the operation of the computer if all other specifications remain constant.

  • 6. 
    On a bublejet ink printer can ink cartridges be filled to different OEM fluid level specifications?
    • A. 

      TRUE, their are some OEM's that use "high yield" cartridges for the same models.

    • B. 

      FALSE, all cartridges of the same models are filled the same.

    • C. 

      Every OEM fill is random, therefore each cartridge is unique to its own fluid level.

  • 7. 
    What is the maximum voltage a home computer power supply stores in its internal DC filter capacitors when it is plugged in, or unplugged?
    • A. 

      >12VDC

    • B. 

      >15VDC

    • C. 

    • D. 

    • E. 

      >3.3VDC

  • 8. 
    Can RIMMS, (RAMBUS MEMORY), be found in 800MHZ and 1600MHZ sizes?
    • A. 

      TRUE

    • B. 

      FALSE

  • 9. 
    Which technology is slower in terms of frequency, (latency), DDR memory, or DDR2 memory?
    • A. 

      DDR

    • B. 

      DDR2

  • 10. 
    With RIMMS, (RAMBUS MEMORY), what are the names of the two forms of termination modules used in this technology?
    • A. 

      C-RIMM/T-RIMM

    • B. 

      A-RIMM/B-RIMM

    • C. 

      CT-RIMM/C-RIMM

    • D. 

      Terminator A/Terminator B

    • E. 

      No termination is needed with RIMM technology.

  • 11. 
    What are the two most modern optic reading technologies used in all home and commercial based scanners.
    • A. 

      CIS/LASCR

    • B. 

      EEPROM/RET II

    • C. 

      CIS/CCD

    • D. 

      GDI/PS

    • E. 

      LED/Laser

  • 12. 
    How often is it professionally recommended that the user use the XP utility Defrag on all hard disc drives?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Yearly

    • E. 

      After each 20 hours of use.

  • 13. 
    What are two main differences between USB 1.0 and USB 2.0?
    • A. 

      Speed/Distance

    • B. 

      Speed/cable appearance

    • C. 

      Distance/noise

    • D. 

      "hot swappable"/PnP

    • E. 

      Speed only.

  • 14. 
    What program in Windows 2000 and XP is considered to be the "Boot loader" program?
    • A. 

      Boot.INI

    • B. 

      SYS.INI

    • C. 

      WIN.INI

    • D. 

      COMMAND.COM

    • E. 

      NTLDR

  • 15. 
    If a customer requested that you upgrade their computer memory to the PC3200 standard, what frequency of DDR would you order?
    • A. 

      100 MHZ

    • B. 

      200 MHZ

    • C. 

      400 MHZ

    • D. 

      533 MHZ

    • E. 

      PC3200 is not a vaild standard.

  • 16. 
    What is the area called where a bublejet ink cartrige resides when not in use, and is always reset to that location after each use?
    • A. 

      Priming area.

    • B. 

      Stall location

    • C. 

      Maintenance area

    • D. 

      Hold area

    • E. 

      There is no special name for this designated area.

  • 17. 
    What SCSI ID would you use for the Boot disc, CD-ROM, and Host adapter, in that exact order?
    • A. 

      1/3/4

    • B. 

      2/6/7

    • C. 

      0/6/7

    • D. 

      1/5/6

    • E. 

      0/2/3

  • 18. 
    What is the IRQ of a standard keyboard?
    • A. 

      IRQ 2

    • B. 

      IRQ 1

    • C. 

      IRQ 13

    • D. 

      IRQ 4

    • E. 

      Keyboards do not use IRQ's

  • 19. 
    What are the classes for the following IP addresses, in this order: 128-191 192-223 1-127
    • A. 

      Class A,C,B

    • B. 

      Class B,C,A

    • C. 

      Class C,A,B

    • D. 

      Class A,B,C

    • E. 

      These are not valid IP addresses.

  • 20. 
    Which network protocol uses the MAC address as part of its network address?
    • A. 

      NWLINK

    • B. 

      TCP/IP

    • C. 

      IPX/SPX

    • D. 

      HTTPS

    • E. 

      MAC addresses are not used in network addressing.

  • 21. 
    The common wireless network term "hot spot" refers to what type of connection, and what data transfer speed?
    • A. 

      An over-clocked server that is delivering the maximal high speed output rate available/(13.2 Gbps)

    • B. 

      A users favorite area in the house/(533 Mbps)

    • C. 

      A wireless network line that is being pirated by another user/(2-11 Gbps)

    • D. 

      There is no such term as "hot Spot" in wireless technology.

    • E. 

      Usually an open non-secured common wireless network found in public areas/(2-11 Mbps)

  • 22. 
    What is the maximum length of a IEEE 1394 Firewire cable, its maximum amount of devices, and what type of cable does it support? in that order.
    • A. 

      10 meters/24/UTP

    • B. 

      30 meters/32/UTP

    • C. 

      15 feet/63/STP

    • D. 

      25 feet/32/coax

    • E. 

      100 meters/63/fiber optics

  • 23. 
    What is the maximum length of a a standard serial cable.
    • A. 

      10 feet.

    • B. 

      30 feet

    • C. 

      50 feet.

    • D. 

      Standard serial cables are no longer used.

    • E. 

      There is no maximum.

  • 24. 
    Which of the following terms are associated with network security transmissions?
    • A. 

      Trailers

    • B. 

      Headers

    • C. 

      Markers

    • D. 

      Both (B) and (C)

    • E. 

      Both (A) and (B)

  • 25. 
    Check all terms that are associated with A+ monitor jargon.
    • A. 

      Active matrix

    • B. 

      Dot pitch

    • C. 

      Contrast ratio

    • D. 

      True white resolution

    • E. 

      Passive matrix

  • 26. 
    How many channels on the 2.4 MHZ band does a bluetooth device operate at?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      Bluetooth devices operate at a completely different frequency.

    • E. 

      Bluetooth devices operate at multiple channels during any given transmission.

  • 27. 
    "no operating system found" would indicate a possible failure in what computer system? Select the best answer.
    • A. 

      Hard drive

    • B. 

      CMOS

    • C. 

      BIOS

    • D. 

      MBR

    • E. 

      Operating system was deleted.

  • 28. 
    How many SCSI "DEVICES" can be installed in an 8 bit , 16 bit, and 32 bit system respectively?
    • A. 

      4/3/2

    • B. 

      0/12/24

    • C. 

      8/16/32

    • D. 

      7/15/31

    • E. 

      7/12/9

  • 29. 
    What is the name of the device that controls SCSI operation and configuration within a host computer?
    • A. 

      Host adapter

    • B. 

      ID board

    • C. 

      Motherboard

    • D. 

      SCSI interface driver

    • E. 

      UND control board

  • 30. 
    What is the best and newest technology regarding hard drives, with regard to access speed, seek time, data protection, and convienience?
    • A. 

      SATA

    • B. 

      ATAPI 133

    • C. 

      Zone bit recording

    • D. 

      Solid state

    • E. 

      15,000 RPM SCSI

  • 31. 
    PDA"S communicate through what wireless technology protocol?
    • A. 

      LAN

    • B. 

      WPA/WEP

    • C. 

      802.15

    • D. 

      MAN

    • E. 

      802.11g

  • 32. 
    Always ground yourself when servicing a laser printer or CRT monitor.
    • A. 

      TRUE

    • B. 

      FALSE

    • C. 

      Only when it is unplugged

  • 33. 
    How many pins are on a hard drive SATA connector, and are they male or female?
    • A. 

      6/Male

    • B. 

      4/Male

    • C. 

      4/Female

    • D. 

      7/Female

    • E. 

      7/Male

  • 34. 
    What is the difference between a SCSI wide connection and a regular narrow SCSI connection?
    • A. 

      10 Pins.

    • B. 

      15 Pins.

    • C. 

      18 Pins.

    • D. 

      24 Pins.

    • E. 

      No differance

  • 35. 
    What computer network resource assigns static IP address in most network situations?
    • A. 

      DNS

    • B. 

      IPX

    • C. 

      TCP/IP

    • D. 

      Domain server

    • E. 

      Operating systems

  • 36. 
    How do you navigate to the System Information screen in Windows XP, provide the fastest access.
    • A. 

      Run/SI

    • B. 

      Run/sysinfo

    • C. 

      Run/msinfo32

    • D. 

      Run/wininfo

    • E. 

      You cannot use command line to access System Information

  • 37. 
    How can you access the computer management screen in XP? Provide the fastest access.
    • A. 

      Start/my computer/right click/ manage/computer management

    • B. 

      Start/accessories/system tools/manage/computer management

    • C. 

      Run/cm32

    • D. 

      Run/computer management

    • E. 

      Start/control panel/administrative tools/computer management

  • 38. 
    How many MODES can a typical CPU operate in, and which STATE consumes the most power?
    • A. 

      1/3

    • B. 

      3/1

    • C. 

      CPU's have only 1 MODE and 1 STATE.

    • D. 

      4/0

    • E. 

      3/0

  • 39. 
    What is the typical size of the CPU back side bus on a Pentium style processor, and which type of cache connects to the backside bus?
    • A. 

      64 bit/L1

    • B. 

      64 bit/L2

    • C. 

      32 bit/L1

    • D. 

      32/no cache connects to the backside bus.

    • E. 

      32 bit/L2

  • 40. 
    How many bits are contained in a TCP/IP internet address?
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      64

    • C. 

      128

    • D. 

      1024

    • E. 

      16

  • 41. 
    Can a Windows Me edition be directly upgraded to Windows XP, windows 2000
    • A. 

      YES XP,no windows 2000

    • B. 

      NO XP, yes windows 2000

    • C. 

      Yes if the convert command is used first.

  • 42. 
    Name 3 important Windows XP networking troubleshooting utility programs.
    • A. 

      Nslookup

    • B. 

      Ping

    • C. 

      Tracenet

    • D. 

      IPA/X

    • E. 

      Ipconfig

  • 43. 
    The term "definitions" are synonymous with what network security applications?
    • A. 

      Firewalls

    • B. 

      DNS

    • C. 

      MAC filtering

    • D. 

      Anti-virus

    • E. 

      Packet filtering

  • 44. 
    What is the definition of WPA, as referred to user access of the OS Windows XP, diplayed at start-up on a new Windows system.
    • A. 

      Wireless protection advanced.

    • B. 

      Windows packet authorization.

    • C. 

      An upgrade from WEP for TCP/IP networks.

    • D. 

      There is no such definition other than one that is related to wireless network security

    • E. 

      Windows product authorization

  • 45. 
    What is the term "thrashing" related to?
    • A. 

      Excessive hard drive paging.

    • B. 

      Low extended memory

    • C. 

      A hard drive actuator rubbing against the platter.

    • D. 

      Insufficient L1 cache in a CPU.

    • E. 

      Improper RAID configuration

  • 46. 
    How often should a user check the motherboard expansion slots and chip sockets for "chip creep"?
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Yearly

    • D. 

      When you have diminished performance

    • E. 

      You will get an error code to tell you a device is losse in Windows.

  • 47. 
    Modern keyboards have how many keys, and are refered to by what named technology?
    • A. 

      100/egronomic

    • B. 

      102/impact

    • C. 

      104/enhanced

    • D. 

      112/standard

    • E. 

      99/multi-strike

  • 48. 
    What 3 things must be present for ACPI to work on an XP computer?
    • A. 

      A compliant device/BIOS/motherboard

    • B. 

      A compliant BIOS/device

    • C. 

      A compliant motherboard/device

    • D. 

      A compliant CPU/motherboard/BIOS

    • E. 

      Only a compliant PnP device is nessesary.

  • 49. 
    Which operating systems allow for automatic Windows upates and downloads?
    • A. 

      XP and Windows 98

    • B. 

      MAC 2.0

    • C. 

      Windows NT

    • D. 

      Windows 2000

    • E. 

      XP

  • 50. 
    What is the best tool to use for a A+ technician to test external ports on a PC or laptop?
    • A. 

      Multimeter

    • B. 

      OTDR

    • C. 

      Loop back plug

    • D. 

      Test cables

    • E. 

      Internal POST checking

  • 51. 
    In Windows XP what bit size is used for the command prompt program CMD.EXE,(legacy DOS). Check two answers.
    • A. 

      32/64

    • B. 

      64

    • C. 

      16/32

    • D. 

      64/128

    • E. 

      Same as the Command.COM program in XP

  • 52. 
    How long should a newer CRT monitor be left to naturally discharge befroe handling?
    • A. 

      1 hour or less

    • B. 

      30 minutes

    • C. 

      15 minutes

    • D. 

      1 hour or more

    • E. 

      Short the electrodes if you are careful

  • 53. 
    What is the desired minimum and maximum operating temperatures for a PC CPU in degrees fahrenheit?
    • A. 

      90/120

    • B. 

      80110

    • C. 

      100/140

    • D. 

      95/105

    • E. 

      90/110

  • 54. 
    What is the worlds most popular form of internet connection for both wired and wireless nodes?
    • A. 

      WPAN

    • B. 

      MAN

    • C. 

      Piconet

    • D. 

      Ethernet

    • E. 

      Token ring

  • 55. 
    How many devices can be attached to a Bluetooth system, (piconet), what protocal is involved, and how many feet is usually the maximum user distance, in this order.
    • A. 

      2/802.11/10

    • B. 

      8/802.15/10

    • C. 

      16/802.3/50

    • D. 

      63/802.11g/25

    • E. 

      12/802.4/25

  • 56. 
    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. What does the start-up BIOS do with the boot loader program NTLDR and Boot ini, and other start-up programs during the boot process?
    • A. 

      It executes them.

    • B. 

      It decompresses them

    • C. 

      It loads them into the RAM

    • D. 

      It stores them into the Bootcfg file.

    • E. 

      It copies them onto the hard drivs active partition.

  • 57. 
    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. The start-up POST verifys actual system configuration with that of stored configuration information located in?
    • A. 

      CMOS

    • B. 

      RAM

    • C. 

      The hard drive.

    • D. 

      BIOS

    • E. 

      The Swap file

  • 58. 
    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. Real mode is a ____ bit system, and protected mode is a ____ bit system?
    • A. 

      8/16

    • B. 

      64/128

    • C. 

      32/64

    • D. 

      12/24

    • E. 

      16/32

  • 59. 
    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. What is the file that is sometime added during boot-up that is used with the SCSI interface?
    • A. 

      NTBOOTDD.sys

    • B. 

      IO.sys

    • C. 

      MSdos.sys

    • D. 

      SCSI.ini

    • E. 

      Command.com

  • 60. 
    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. What is disabled during the BIOS POST?
    • A. 

      ROM

    • B. 

      The CPU.

    • C. 

      Memory (RAM)

    • D. 

      IRQ'S

    • E. 

      I/O's

  • 61. 
    BONUS QUESTION!!! Answering this question correctly would demonstrate a clear understanding of the A+ Essentials platform. Add 2 extra points to your final score if answered correctly. Which part of the hard drive disc platter (1) holds the first 512 bytes of programing and memory address FFFFOh?
    • A. 

      The inside of the platter.

    • B. 

      The middle of the platter

    • C. 

      The begining of the platter

    • D. 

      The hard drive does not hold this information

    • E. 

      RAM holds this information

  • 62. 
    Intel Itainium CPU's use the EPIC instruction code and a 256 bit front side bus? Check two answers.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

    • C. 

      Itainiums Use CISC and a 128 but front side bus

    • D. 

      Itainiums Use APM and a 64 bit front side bus

    • E. 

      Itainiums Use EPIC and a 128 front side bus.

  • 63. 
    What is the newest technology for ATX and BTX form factors regarding CPU sockets?
    • A. 

      428/423/LIF

    • B. 

      330/473/VLIF

    • C. 

      775/ZIF

    • D. 

      423/478/ZIF

    • E. 

      None of the above.

  • 64. 
    What is the standard for Intel Pentiums regarding their back side bus? Check two answers.
    • A. 

      64 bit

    • B. 

      16 bit

    • C. 

      32 bit

    • D. 

      8 bit

    • E. 

      Double the fornt side buss.

  • 65. 
    Hyperthreading was designed by ______, Hypertransport was designed by______?
    • A. 

      AMD/INTEL

    • B. 

      VIA/CIRA

    • C. 

      IBM/HP

    • D. 

      SONY/INTEL

    • E. 

      INTEL/AMD

  • 66. 
    What terms are synonomus with executing an XP registry back-up or copy? Select two answers.
    • A. 

      XCOPY

    • B. 

      Registry COPY

    • C. 

      Last known good configuration

    • D. 

      Attrib+c

    • E. 

      Registry Export

  • 67. 
    A user just loaded their favorite video game, the system nows continually locks-up, what could be the problem, and what XP utilities would you useto troubleshoot this problem? Select the two best answers.
    • A. 

      Video card/MSCONIG.EXE/device manager

    • B. 

      RAM/system restore/system information

    • C. 

      Video card/device manager/safe mode

    • D. 

      Last known good configuration

    • E. 

      Joy sticks and cables/MSINFO.EXE

  • 68. 
    A user plugs a USB 2.0 device into a USB 1.0 slot on a Windows XP computer, what will happen? Select two answers.
    • A. 

      Device will not work

    • B. 

      Devices will have a slower data transfer rate

    • C. 

      A message will appear indicating that a USB 2.0 device is inserted into a USB 1.0 slot, and that USB 2.0 ports are avaiable for use.

    • D. 

      Device will perform normally

    • E. 

      The computer will freeze.

  • 69. 
    Where is the "Last known good recovery" regisrty file found, in what path designation?
    • A. 

      HKEY CURRENT_CONFIG/SAM

    • B. 

      HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT/SECURITY

    • C. 

      HKEY_CURRENT_USER/SOFTWARE

    • D. 

      HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE/SYSTEM

    • E. 

      HKEY_USERS/SAM

  • 70. 
    What is the best physical way to protect a users system from attack by destructive software, using the Windows XP registry?
    • A. 

      Purge all unused registry files regularly.

    • B. 

      Delete or restrict all permissions for non-administrators.

    • C. 

      Delete or restrict power users only from the registry.

    • D. 

      Use registery cleaner software programs monthly.

    • E. 

      Set all users and administrators to read-only permissions.

  • 71. 
    Who assigns the latter half of a hexidecimal hardware MAC address, and how many total bits are used for the complete MAC address?
    • A. 

      Manufacture/32 bits

    • B. 

      Retaler/48 bits

    • C. 

      User/16 bits

    • D. 

      Software/32 bits

    • E. 

      Manufacture/48 bits

  • 72. 
    What layer of the OSI model do routers usualy operate at?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2,3,4

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      6

    • E. 

      5,6,7

  • 73. 
    What layer of the OSI model do hubs usually operate at?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2,3

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      4,5

    • E. 

      6

  • 74. 
    What are five forms of data configurations that are assembled, transmitted, and revceived in the OSI model.
    • A. 

      Headers,trailers,data,packets,informatiom.

    • B. 

      Cdc's,headers,trailers,bits,bytes.

    • C. 

      Segments,data,cdc's, packets,bytes.

    • D. 

      Only packets are used.

    • E. 

      Data,packets,bits,segments,frames

  • 75. 
    What is the worlds most popular network related mode of communication on the internet?
    • A. 

      IPX

    • B. 

      NWLINK

    • C. 

      TCP/IP

    • D. 

      PPPoe

    • E. 

      FTP