CompTIA+ N10-007

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CompTIA+ N10-007 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A file server deployed on the company perimeter network is used to store reference materials and templates for forms. All of the files are stored on the same disk. Files are downloaded from the server using FTP. The company needs to able to determine whether a file is changed while stored on the server. What should the company do?

    • A.

      Create a hash for the disk partition.

    • B.

      Require secure authentication for access.

    • C.

      Run a full backup daily.

    • D.

      Create a hash for each file.

    Correct Answer
    D. Create a hash for each file.
    Explanation
    The company should create a hash fro each file. A hash is a value generated from the file content. If another has is generated at a later time, the new hash should have the same value. if not the file has been modified.

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  • 2. 

    The network team is tasked with hardening the L2 infrastructure. Which two actions should the team perform?

    • A.

      Implement SPI

    • B.

      Change RSTP to STP.

    • C.

      Shut down unused ports.

    • D.

      Change the native VLAN.

    • E.

      Disable all trunking.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Shut down unused ports.
    D. Change the native VLAN.
    Explanation
    The team should change the native VLAN and shut down unused ports. VLAN 1 is the native VLAN and can be used to perform a network attack called VLAN hopping. VLAN hopping allows an attacker to gain unauthorized access to a different VLAN by exploiting the native VLAN settings. All ports belong to VLAN 1 by default. The network team should change the native VLAN to a value other that VLAN 1.

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  • 3. 

    The nslookup command fails and shows the error in the exhibit. What should the support team create to fix the problem? 

    • A.

      APIPA address

    • B.

      TXT record

    • C.

      Static route entry

    • D.

      Reverse lookup zone

    • E.

      CNAME record

    Correct Answer
    D. Reverse lookup zone
    Explanation
    The support team should create a reverse lookup zone. The error indicates a missing Pointer (PTR) record PTR records resolve IP addresses to fully-Qualified domain names (FQDN). The team should create a reverse lookup zone on a domain name system (DNS) server and verify the PTR records.

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  • 4. 

    Against which type of attack is end user training most effective?

    • A.

      Man-in-the-middle attack

    • B.

      Phishing

    • C.

      War driving

    • D.

      Evil twin

    Correct Answer
    B. Phishing
    Explanation
    End user training is most effective against phishing attacks. Phishing is a type of cyber attack where attackers impersonate a legitimate entity to deceive users into providing sensitive information or performing harmful actions. By educating end users about the signs of phishing attempts, such as suspicious emails or websites, they can learn to identify and avoid falling victim to such attacks. Training can help users understand the importance of not clicking on suspicious links, not sharing personal information, and being cautious with email attachments, thereby reducing the success rate of phishing attacks.

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  • 5. 

    A company deploys a server on its perimeter network. The server will be used for transferring files. Specific requirements include:
    • Users authentication with a user ID and password.
    • all communication between the server and client is encrypted.
    • Open ports on the perimeter firewall are kept to a minimum.
    • No certificate is required at the server or client.
    What should the company select as a solution?

    • A.

      FTP

    • B.

      TFTP

    • C.

      SFTP

    • D.

      FTPS

    Correct Answer
    C. SFTP
    Explanation
    SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) should be selected as the solution because it meets all the specific requirements mentioned. SFTP allows users to authenticate with a user ID and password, ensures that all communication between the server and client is encrypted, and does not require any certificates at the server or client. Additionally, SFTP helps in keeping the open ports on the perimeter firewall to a minimum, making it the most suitable choice for the given scenario.

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  • 6. 

    A medium-sized company is moving into a new office space. The office is being prewired with Cat 6 cabling. Employees will be moving their own equipment and will need to connect into the network. Technical Services wants to help ensure that the move goes as smoothly as possible. What should Technical Services use to ensure this?

    • A.

      Labling

    • B.

      Physical network diagram

    • C.

      Logical network diagram

    • D.

      Work instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. Labling
    Explanation
    Technical Services should use labeling to ensure that the move goes as smoothly as possible. Labeling the cables and equipment will help employees easily identify and connect their equipment to the network. This will minimize confusion and prevent any delays or errors during the move.

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  • 7. 

    A server on the internal network is determined to be at risk for potential attack. The Technical Services team is directed to harden the server to minimize this risk. The network supports wired and wireless access. The server is connected through a wired connection. The computer is backed up to a network location once a week, over the weekend. The computer is rebooted after the backup. Which two actions should hardening include? (Choose two)

    • A.

      Disabled unused ports

    • B.

      Add wireless access

    • C.

      Stop unnecessary services

    • D.

      Schedule more frequent backups

    • E.

      Bring patches up-to-date

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Disabled unused ports
    E. Bring patches up-to-date
    Explanation
    The server is at risk for potential attack, so hardening measures need to be taken to minimize this risk. Two actions that should be included in the hardening process are disabling unused ports and bringing patches up-to-date. Disabling unused ports helps to prevent unauthorized access through those ports, reducing the attack surface. Bringing patches up-to-date ensures that any known vulnerabilities in the server's software are patched, reducing the risk of exploitation.

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  • 8. 

    A company wants to deploy a new WLAN topology without running new electrical wiring. The solution has to support the 5Ghz band, MU-MIMO, and offer speeds of at least 2100 Mbps. The company wants to use a PoE solution providing at least 25W of power for a connected device. Which two components should be used? (Choose two)

    • A.

      A switch supporting the 802.3at standard

    • B.

      An access point supporting the 802.11ac Wave 2 standard

    • C.

      An access point supporting the 802.11n standard

    • D.

      A switch supporting the 802.3af standard

    • E.

      An access point supporting the 802.11ac Wave 1 standard

    • F.

      A switch supporting the 801.x standard

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A switch supporting the 802.3at standard
    B. An access point supporting the 802.11ac Wave 2 standard
    Explanation
    The 802.3at standard is also known as PoE+ and provides up to 25W of power, which meets the company's requirement of at least 25W of power for a connected device. An access point supporting the 802.11ac Wave 2 standard offers speeds of at least 2100 Mbps, fulfilling the company's speed requirement. Therefore, using a switch supporting the 802.3at standard and an access point supporting the 802.11ac Wave 2 standard would meet all the specified requirements for the new WLAN topology.

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  • 9. 

    Which network device uses ASICs to handle the packet switching for inter-VLAN communication?

    • A.

      L7 firewall

    • B.

      L3 switch

    • C.

      L2 switch

    • D.

      L4 router

    Correct Answer
    B. L3 switch
    Explanation
    An L3 switch uses ASICs (Application-Specific Integrated Circuits) to handle the packet switching for inter-VLAN communication. ASICs are specialized hardware components that are designed to perform specific tasks efficiently. In the case of an L3 switch, the ASICs allow for fast and efficient routing of packets between different VLANs, improving network performance and reducing latency. This makes an L3 switch an ideal choice for networks that require inter-VLAN communication.

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  • 10. 

    A network consultant determines that company can improve its performance by implementing jumbo frames. The network is configured with 10/100/1000 switches, and all hosts are configured with Gigabit Ethernet network adapters. The network si wired with Cat 5e UTP cable. What must the company do to support jumbo frames?

    • A.

      Enable STP on all switches

    • B.

      Replace the cable with Cat 6 UTP cable.

    • C.

      Increase the MTU to 9000

    • D.

      Configure each switch port in dynamic auto mode.

    Correct Answer
    C. Increase the MTU to 9000
    Explanation
    To support jumbo frames, the company needs to increase the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) to 9000. Jumbo frames are larger than the standard Ethernet frame size, allowing for more data to be transmitted in a single frame. By increasing the MTU to 9000, the network can accommodate these larger frames. The other options, such as enabling STP on all switches, replacing the cable with Cat 6 UTP cable, or configuring switch ports in dynamic auto mode, are not directly related to supporting jumbo frames.

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  • 11. 

    A technician determines there is a break in the fiber optic cable routed between two buildings. The technician needs to determine the distance to the break.  What should the technician do?

    • A.

      Spectrum analyzer

    • B.

      Light Meter

    • C.

      OTDR

    • D.

      Multimeter

    Correct Answer
    C. OTDR
    Explanation
    The technician should use an OTDR (Optical Time Domain Reflectometer) to determine the distance to the break in the fiber optic cable. An OTDR is a device that sends out a pulse of light into the fiber optic cable and measures the time it takes for the light to reflect back. By analyzing the time and intensity of the reflected light, the technician can determine the location and distance of the break in the cable.

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  • 12. 

    A company is upgrading its network security.It want to consolidate content filtering and intrusion detection in a single device and add additional security functionality, including data loss prevention (DLP).  What type of device should the company use?

    • A.

      VIOP gateway

    • B.

      Multilayer switch

    • C.

      Proxy server

    • D.

      UTM appliance

    Correct Answer
    D. UTM appliance
    Explanation
    The company should use a UTM (Unified Threat Management) appliance. This device combines multiple security functions, such as content filtering, intrusion detection, and data loss prevention, into a single device. It provides comprehensive security and simplifies network management by consolidating these functionalities. A UTM appliance would be the most suitable choice for the company's goal of upgrading its network security.

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  • 13. 

    A company wants to create a site-to-site VPN. maximum security is required. Which set of protocols should the company use?

    • A.

      AES for encryption and SHA512 for hashing

    • B.

      3DES for encryption and MD5 for hashing

    • C.

      DES for encryption and SHA512 for hashing

    • D.

      SSL for encryption and MD5 for hashing

    Correct Answer
    A. AES for encryption and SHA512 for hashing
    Explanation
    The company should use AES for encryption and SHA512 for hashing because AES is a strong and widely used encryption algorithm that provides maximum security. SHA512 is a secure hashing algorithm that generates a longer hash value, making it more resistant to attacks. Using 3DES for encryption is less secure compared to AES, and MD5 for hashing is also less secure compared to SHA512. DES for encryption is outdated and considered weak in terms of security. SSL is a protocol used for securing communication between a client and a server, but it does not provide site-to-site VPN functionality.

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  • 14. 

    Which media access method is used with 802.11 RTS/CTS network configurations and is NOT able to detect collisions during transmissions?

    • A.

      CSMA/CA

    • B.

      GSM

    • C.

      CDMA

    • D.

      CSMA/CD

    Correct Answer
    A. CSMA/CA
    Explanation
    CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) is the media access method used with 802.11 RTS/CTS network configurations. Unlike CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection), CSMA/CA is not able to detect collisions during transmissions. Instead, it uses a mechanism called "Request to Send/Clear to Send" (RTS/CTS) to avoid collisions by allowing devices to reserve the channel before transmitting data. This helps to reduce the chances of collisions and improve the efficiency of wireless communication.

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  • 15. 

    A company is changing its network design as shown in the exhibit. The company plans to deploy a web server and a honeypot in the DMZ. Which two documents does the company need to update? (Choose two)

    • A.

      Rack diagram

    • B.

      Logical network diagram

    • C.

      Change management document

    • D.

      Standard operating procedure

    • E.

      Physical network diagram

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Logical network diagram
    E. Physical network diagram
    Explanation
    The company needs to update the logical network diagram because it shows the overall network layout and how different components are connected, including the addition of the web server and honeypot in the DMZ. The physical network diagram also needs to be updated as it provides a detailed view of the physical infrastructure, such as switches, routers, and cables, and needs to reflect the changes made for the new network design.

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  • 16. 

    A company deploys six new computers that are configured for automatic address assignment to the 192.168.4/26 subnet. The DHCP server that hosts the scope for the subnet is deployed on the same subnet. Four of the new computers are able to lease valid IP addresses. The remaining two computers have the following addresses: 169.245.12.7 169.254.14.2 What is most likely wrong?

    • A.

      The TCP/IP stack did not load correctly on the two computers

    • B.

      The two computers are initially assigned duplicate addresses.

    • C.

      The DHCP server is failing.

    • D.

      The DHCP scope is exhausted.

    Correct Answer
    D. The DHCP scope is exhausted.
    Explanation
    The most likely explanation for the two computers being assigned invalid IP addresses is that the DHCP scope for the subnet is exhausted. This means that the DHCP server has run out of available IP addresses to assign to new devices. As a result, the two computers were not able to lease valid IP addresses and were assigned addresses from a different range (169.245.12.7 and 169.254.14.2) which are not within the expected subnet (192.168.4/26).

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  • 17. 

    A company deploys a new computer. When the cable to the computer is plugged in at the with, the network link LED does not light. When the cable is plugged in to a different open port, the LED lights up. When plugged back in to the original port, the LED does not light. What is the most likely problem? 

    • A.

      VLAN mismatch

    • B.

      Duplicate IP address

    • C.

      Bad port

    • D.

      Incorrect cable type

    • E.

      Bad computer network adapter

    Correct Answer
    C. Bad port
    Explanation
    The most likely problem is a bad port. This is indicated by the fact that when the cable is plugged into a different open port, the network link LED lights up, suggesting that the cable and computer network adapter are functioning properly. However, when the cable is plugged back into the original port, the LED does not light, indicating that there is an issue with that specific port.

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  • 18. 

    A company needs to tighten its network security. This includes restricting access based on operating system and version, current patch versions, and antimalware updates. Devices failing to meet access requirements should be quarantined, user access restricted, and automated remediation initiated. What should the company implement?

    • A.

      NAC

    • B.

      Switchport security

    • C.

      LDAP

    • D.

      Kerberos

    Correct Answer
    A. NAC
    Explanation
    The company should implement NAC (Network Access Control). NAC allows the company to enforce security policies and restrict access to the network based on various factors such as operating system and version, patch versions, and antimalware updates. It provides the ability to quarantine devices that do not meet the access requirements, restrict user access, and initiate automated remediation to address any security issues.

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  • 19. 

    A company wants to support multiple client computers running and application installed on a computer that runs Windows Server 2016. The clients should be able to take advantage of the memory and processor resources on the server. Each client will have a unique data set. Which technology should the company use?

    • A.

      SSH

    • B.

      VPN

    • C.

      RDP

    • D.

      VNC

    Correct Answer
    C. RDP
    Explanation
    The company should use RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) to support multiple client computers. RDP allows clients to connect to and access a computer remotely, in this case, the computer running Windows Server 2016. RDP enables the clients to utilize the memory and processor resources on the server, making it an ideal choice for this scenario.

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  • 20. 

    A company's network is shown in the exhibit. the DHCP server is configured with a scope for each network. Clients in the 192.168.4.0 and 192.168.4.128 subnets are unable to lease addresses for he DHCP server. Clients in the 192.168.20 subnet are able to lease addresses. What should the company do?

    • A.

      Deploy a DHCP relay agent in the 192.168.2.0 subnet.

    • B.

      Open UDP port 53 on each of the routers.

    • C.

      Deploy DHCP relay agents in the 192.168.4.0 and 192.168.4.128 subnets.

    • D.

      Configure IP exclusions for the 192.168.4.0 and 192.168.4.128 subnets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deploy a DHCP relay agent in the 192.168.2.0 subnet.
    Explanation
    The company should deploy a DHCP relay agent in the 192.168.2.0 subnet. This is because the DHCP server is unable to reach the clients in the 192.168.4.0 and 192.168.4.128 subnets. By deploying a DHCP relay agent in the 192.168.2.0 subnet, it will forward the DHCP requests from the clients in the 192.168.4.0 and 192.168.4.128 subnets to the DHCP server, allowing them to lease addresses.

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  • 21. 

    A small company subscribes to a popular productivity application suite. All employees access the applications through a web browser interface. Employees store their data locally on their own computers. Which cloud delivery model does this describe?

    • A.

      Private

    • B.

      Community

    • C.

      Public

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    C. Public
    Explanation
    This scenario describes the public cloud delivery model. In a public cloud, the productivity application suite is hosted and managed by a third-party provider, and employees access it through a web browser interface. The data is stored locally on their own computers, indicating that it is not stored on the provider's infrastructure.

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  • 22. 

    A network administrator implements a change on a switch to fix a network issue. According to the troubleshooting methodology, what should the network administrator do next?

    • A.

      Identify potential effects of the change.

    • B.

      Document all findings in a final report.

    • C.

      Implement preventative measures.

    • D.

      Duplicate the problem, if possible in a lab environment.

    Correct Answer
    C. Implement preventative measures.
    Explanation
    After implementing a change on a switch to fix a network issue, the network administrator should next implement preventative measures. This is because preventative measures help to avoid similar network issues from occurring in the future. By identifying potential effects of the change, documenting all findings in a final report, and duplicating the problem in a lab environment, the network administrator can gather valuable information for troubleshooting and analysis, but implementing preventative measures is the most immediate and proactive step to prevent future network issues.

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  • 23. 

    A network team has deployed a new SIP trunk. What will MOST likely be used by users in this network?

    • A.

      Softphone

    • B.

      SIEM plug-in

    • C.

      HIPS agent

    • D.

      Dianl-up modems

    Correct Answer
    A. Softphone
    Explanation
    A SIP trunk is a virtual connection that enables voice and video calls over the internet using the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP). Therefore, it is logical to assume that users in this network will most likely use a softphone. A softphone is a software application that allows users to make and receive calls over the internet using their computer or mobile device, eliminating the need for physical telephones. This is a common choice for users in a network with a SIP trunk deployment as it provides flexibility and convenience.

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  • 24. 

    A company wants to open a new office. A wireless survey reveals that there are 12 access points in the area immediately around the office and that they use channels 1, 6, 11. What should the company do to address the interference problem?

    • A.

      Install on omnidirectional antenna.

    • B.

      Implement 802.1x.

    • C.

      Use the 5GHz band.

    • D.

      Configure channel bonding at 2.4 GHz.

    Correct Answer
    C. Use the 5GHz band.
    Explanation
    The company should use the 5GHz band to address the interference problem. This is because channels 1, 6, and 11 are commonly used in the 2.4GHz band, and having 12 access points using these channels can cause interference. By using the 5GHz band, the company can avoid the congestion and interference in the 2.4GHz band, as it offers more available channels and less interference from other devices.

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  • 25. 

    A company collects network traffic data from multiple subnets. Detailed analysis indicates that packets are being dropped by on of the routers. Technicians suspect this is due to misconfigured firewall ACLs. Where should technicians look for more detailed information?

    • A.

      Event logs

    • B.

      Port scans

    • C.

      Firewall logs

    • D.

      Vulnerability scans

    Correct Answer
    C. Firewall logs
    Explanation
    Technicians should look for more detailed information in the firewall logs. Firewall logs record all the traffic that passes through the firewall, including any dropped packets. By analyzing the firewall logs, technicians can identify any misconfigured firewall ACLs that may be causing the packets to be dropped. The firewall logs provide a detailed record of the network traffic and can help pinpoint the exact cause of the issue.

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  • 26. 

    A consultant is helping a company design a wireless LAN implementation. Network requirements include internal access points for network host connections and external wireless connections between buildings. The consultant needs to help the company choose appropriate antennas. What does the dBi rating of an antenna represent?

    • A.

      A higher dBi antenna has the same gain and a narrower field pattern that a lower dBi antenna.

    • B.

      A higher dBi antenna has more gain and a wider field pattern than a lower dBi antenna.

    • C.

      A higher dBi antenna has the same gain and a wider field pattern that a lower dBi antenna.

    • D.

      A higher dBi antenna has the more gain and a narrower field pattern that a lower dBi antenna

    Correct Answer
    D. A higher dBi antenna has the more gain and a narrower field pattern that a lower dBi antenna
    Explanation
    The dBi rating of an antenna represents its gain and field pattern. A higher dBi antenna has more gain, meaning it can transmit and receive signals over a greater distance. Additionally, a higher dBi antenna has a narrower field pattern, which means it focuses the signal in a more concentrated area. This can be beneficial for long-range connections or for minimizing interference from nearby wireless networks.

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  • 27. 

    A company contracts with a cloud provider. The cloud provider is responsible for virtualized hardware, storage, and network support. The company is responsible for installing, licensing, and maintaining the operating system and server applications.

    • A.

      PaaS

    • B.

      IaaS

    • C.

      SECaaS

    • D.

      SaaS

    Correct Answer
    B. IaaS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is IaaS because in this scenario, the company is responsible for installing, licensing, and maintaining the operating system and server applications, while the cloud provider is responsible for providing the virtualized hardware, storage, and network support. This aligns with the Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model, where the cloud provider offers virtualized infrastructure resources to the company.

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  • 28. 

    What should a company use to create a point-to-point bridge between two APs?

    • A.

      MIMO

    • B.

      TDMA

    • C.

      SFP Transceivers

    • D.

      GSM

    • E.

      Unidirectional antennas

    Correct Answer
    E. Unidirectional antennas
    Explanation
    A company should use unidirectional antennas to create a point-to-point bridge between two APs. Unidirectional antennas are designed to transmit and receive signals in a specific direction, allowing for a focused and concentrated signal transmission between the two access points. This helps to establish a strong and stable connection, minimizing interference and maximizing the distance and throughput of the bridge.

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  • 29. 

    Which two items would be specified as part of an SLA? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Minimum server software configurations

    • B.

      Availability and uptime

    • C.

      Password change requirements

    • D.

      Minimum server hardware configurations

    • E.

      Help desk response time

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Availability and uptime
    E. Help desk response time
    Explanation
    An SLA, or Service Level Agreement, is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of service that will be provided. Two items that are typically specified in an SLA are availability and uptime, which refer to the amount of time that a service or system is operational and accessible to users, and help desk response time, which outlines the expected time for the help desk to respond to customer inquiries or issues. These two items are important in ensuring that the service provider meets the agreed-upon service levels and customer expectations.

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  • 30. 

    A consultant is setting up a SOHO for a customer. The customer has requested a DOCSIS Internet connection. What type of service connection should the consultant configure?

    • A.

      BRI

    • B.

      Cable

    • C.

      DSL

    • D.

      PRI

    Correct Answer
    B. Cable
    Explanation
    The consultant should configure a cable service connection for the customer's SOHO. Cable internet uses the same coaxial cables that deliver cable television, providing high-speed internet access. This type of connection is suitable for a small office or home office (SOHO) setup, as it offers fast and reliable internet speeds. BRI, PRI, and DSL are not appropriate options for a DOCSIS internet connection.

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  • 31. 

    A company wants to deploy a web server in a new DMZ. Which device should the company configure a new network zone and Layer 7 filtering policies?

    • A.

      Web proxy

    • B.

      Firewall

    • C.

      Hub

    • D.

      Switch

    Correct Answer
    B. Firewall
    Explanation
    A firewall should be configured in a new network zone and Layer 7 filtering policies for deploying a web server in a new DMZ. A firewall is a security device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. By configuring a firewall with Layer 7 filtering policies, the company can ensure that only the desired web traffic is allowed through the firewall, providing an additional layer of security for the web server in the DMZ.

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  • 32. 

    A company is designing a wireless LAN deployment. To help secure the network., the company wants to use an authentication protocol option that requires a client certificate on each wireless client. Which authentication protocol option should the company use?

    • A.

      PEAP

    • B.

      EAP-TLS

    • C.

      EAP-PSK

    • D.

      EAP-FAST

    Correct Answer
    B. EAP-TLS
    Explanation
    The company should use the EAP-TLS authentication protocol option. EAP-TLS stands for Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security. It requires a client certificate on each wireless client, providing a higher level of security for the network. This protocol option ensures that only authorized clients with valid certificates can connect to the wireless LAN, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches.

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  • 33. 

    The project team purchases an 8-port Layer 2 switch, a router, and an 8-port network hub. The router has two WAN Interfaces: F0/0 and F0/1. A network engineer connects the switch to port F0/0 and the hub to port F0/1 on the router. How many collision and broadcast domains are available in this network? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      1 broadcast domain

    • B.

      2 broadcast domains

    • C.

      16 collision domains

    • D.

      3 collision domains

    • E.

      3 broadcast domains

    • F.

      9 collision domains

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. 2 broadcast domains
    F. 9 collision domains
    Explanation
    In this network setup, the switch and the hub are connected to different ports on the router. The switch is connected to port F0/0, while the hub is connected to port F0/1.

    A collision domain is a network segment where network devices share the same bandwidth and can potentially collide with each other while transmitting data. Since the switch is connected to the router, it creates one collision domain. The hub, on the other hand, is a multiport repeater, meaning that all devices connected to it share the same collision domain. As there are 8 ports on the hub, it creates 8 collision domains. Therefore, there are a total of 9 collision domains in this network.

    A broadcast domain is a network segment where network devices can directly communicate with each other using broadcast messages. In this setup, both the switch and the hub are connected to the router, which acts as a boundary for broadcast messages. Therefore, there are two separate broadcast domains in this network.

    Hence, the correct answers are 2 broadcast domains and 9 collision domains.

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  • 34. 

    Which policy sets guidelines for allowing employees to use their own personal devices for work-related tasks?

    • A.

      NDA

    • B.

      SLA

    • C.

      BYOD

    • D.

      AUP

    Correct Answer
    C. BYOD
    Explanation
    BYOD stands for Bring Your Own Device, which is a policy that allows employees to use their own personal devices, such as smartphones, tablets, or laptops, for work-related tasks. This policy sets guidelines for how employees can securely access company resources and data on their personal devices, ensuring that sensitive information is protected. It allows employees to be more productive and flexible while also reducing the costs of providing company-owned devices.

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  • 35. 

    Which protocol provides time synchronization service over the global Internet?

    • A.

      SNMP

    • B.

      ICMP

    • C.

      IPAM

    • D.

      NTP

    Correct Answer
    D. NTP
    Explanation
    NTP (Network Time Protocol) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide time synchronization service over the global Internet. NTP allows devices to synchronize their clocks with highly accurate time references, called NTP servers, which are distributed worldwide. This protocol is widely used in computer networks, ensuring accurate timekeeping for various applications and systems that rely on synchronized time. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for diagnostic and control purposes, SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for network management, and IPAM (IP Address Management) is used for managing IP addresses.

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  • 36. 

    What type of attack is designed to flood a server with traffic, either crashing the server or making it unavailable?

    • A.

      Ransomware

    • B.

      DoS

    • C.

      Brute force

    • D.

      Logic Bomb

    Correct Answer
    B. DoS
    Explanation
    A DoS (Denial of Service) attack is designed to flood a server with excessive traffic, overwhelming its resources and causing it to crash or become unavailable to legitimate users. This type of attack is often carried out by sending a large number of requests to the server, consuming its bandwidth and processing power. Unlike ransomware, which encrypts files and demands a ransom, a DoS attack aims to disrupt the server's functionality rather than gain financial benefit. Brute force and logic bomb attacks are different types of cyber threats that target vulnerabilities in systems or networks through different methods.

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  • 37. 

    A technician configures an access point as shown in the exhibit. He creates a list of MAC addresses to allow on the network using MAC filtering. The technician realizes that despite this configuration, any device can still connect. What should the technician do?

    • A.

      Enable MAC filtering globally

    • B.

      Reboot the access point

    • C.

      Change the method to Blacklisting

    • D.

      Change the order of IDs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Enable MAC filtering globally
    Explanation
    The technician should enable MAC filtering globally. Currently, the access point has MAC filtering enabled, but it is not being applied to the network as a whole. By enabling MAC filtering globally, the access point will only allow devices with MAC addresses that are on the allowed list to connect to the network. This will prevent any unauthorized devices from connecting, ensuring a more secure network.

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  • 38. 

    A user complains about the transfer rates from a server in VLAN 4. A network administrator connects to a switch and receives the output shown in the exhibit. Which parameter is MOST likely misconfigured on the switch?

    • A.

      Speed

    • B.

      Flow control

    • C.

      Duplex

    • D.

      MDI mode

    Correct Answer
    C. Duplex
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the user is complaining about transfer rates from a server in VLAN 4. The exhibit shows the output from the switch, indicating that the network administrator has connected to it. Since the issue is related to transfer rates, the most likely misconfigured parameter on the switch is the duplex setting. Duplex refers to the communication mode between devices, and if it is misconfigured, it can result in slower transfer rates.

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  • 39. 

    A technician needs to configure rules for a host-based firewall on a computer running Linux. What command should the technician use?

    • A.

      Route

    • B.

      Tcpdump

    • C.

      Ifconfig

    • D.

      Iptables

    Correct Answer
    D. Iptables
    Explanation
    The technician should use the "iptables" command to configure rules for a host-based firewall on a computer running Linux. Iptables is a command-line utility that allows the configuration of firewall rules in the Linux kernel. It provides a powerful and flexible firewall solution, enabling the technician to filter network traffic based on various criteria such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, and more. By using iptables, the technician can effectively secure the computer and control the network traffic flowing in and out of it.

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  • 40. 

    At what point in a troubleshooting methodology is it appropriate to escalate a problem?

    • A.

      If the technician is unable to confirm and theory and unable to establish a new theory

    • B.

      If it is determined that preventive measures are appropriate

    • C.

      If the information gathered indicates multiple possible theories

    • D.

      If no appropriate solution is available

    • E.

      If the problem results in downtime

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. If the technician is unable to confirm and theory and unable to establish a new theory
    D. If no appropriate solution is available
    Explanation
    Escalating a problem is appropriate when the technician is unable to confirm a theory or establish a new theory. This means that they have exhausted all possible solutions and need to escalate the issue to a higher level of support or expertise. Additionally, if no appropriate solution is available, it is also appropriate to escalate the problem to seek further assistance or resources.

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  • 41. 

    A company needs to tighten its network security. This includes restricting access based on operating system and version, current patch versions, and antimalware updates. Devices falling to meet access requirements should be quarantined, user access restricted, and automated remediation initiated. What should the company implement?

    • A.

      Switch security

    • B.

      Kerberos

    • C.

      NAC

    • D.

      LDAP

    Correct Answer
    C. NAC
    Explanation
    The company should implement NAC (Network Access Control). NAC allows the company to restrict access to the network based on various factors such as operating system and version, patch versions, and antimalware updates. It also allows for quarantining devices that do not meet the access requirements, restricting user access, and initiating automated remediation processes. NAC is an effective solution for tightening network security by ensuring that only compliant devices can access the network.

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  • 42. 

    Which layer of the OSI model are web browsers and email clients implemented at?

    • A.

      Layer 7

    • B.

      Layer 6

    • C.

      Layer 4

    • D.

      Layer 5

    Correct Answer
    A. Layer 7
    Explanation
    Web browsers and email clients are implemented at Layer 7 of the OSI model because this layer, also known as the application layer, is responsible for providing network services to user applications. Web browsers and email clients are user applications that rely on network services to access and interact with web pages and email servers respectively. Layer 7 is the highest layer in the OSI model and is closest to the end user.

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  • 43. 

    What are smart cards used for in computer networking?

    • A.

      Secure removable data storage

    • B.

      Software installation authorization

    • C.

      Logon and authentication

    • D.

      Asset tracking

    Correct Answer
    C. Logon and authentication
    Explanation
    Smart cards are used for logon and authentication in computer networking. These cards contain a microprocessor and memory, allowing them to securely store and process data. When a user inserts a smart card into a reader, it can be used to verify the user's identity and grant access to the network. This helps to enhance security by requiring a physical card in addition to a username and password for authentication.

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  • 44. 

    A branch office has been allocated the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26. Which three IP addresses can be used fir user devices at this location? (Choose three).

    • A.

      192.168.1.254

    • B.

      192.168.1.127

    • C.

      192.168.1.221

    • D.

      192.168.1.98

    • E.

      192.168.1.111

    • F.

      192.168.1.65

    • G.

      192.168.1.128

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. 192.168.1.98
    E. 192.168.1.111
    F. 192.168.1.65
    Explanation
    The given subnet is 192.168.1.64/26, which means it has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. This subnet allows for a total of 64 IP addresses, with the usable range being from 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. Therefore, the three IP addresses that can be used for user devices at this location are 192.168.1.98, 192.168.1.111, and 192.168.1.65.

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  • 45. 

    Technicians want to test a series of patches before applying them on multiple servers.The test server is moved to a private LAN. Technicians need a way to quickly return the test server to its state immediately before the patches are installed in case there are any problems. What should technicians do first to prepare for the test?

    • A.

      Enable port mirroring for the test server is connected to.

    • B.

      Run a full backup of the test server

    • C.

      Update the baseline configuration documentation based on the current configuration.

    • D.

      Physically disconnect the server from the network.

    Correct Answer
    B. Run a full backup of the test server
    Explanation
    To prepare for the test, technicians should run a full backup of the test server. This will create a copy of the server's current state, allowing technicians to easily restore it if any problems occur during the patching process. Running a backup ensures that all data and configurations are saved, providing a safety net for the technicians to revert back to the previous state if needed.

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  • 46. 

    A company is installing a large rack-mounted Infrastructure to support a web server farm. High-availability is a critical concern for the company. You need to recommend a solution that will ensure continued availability without interruption if AC line power is lost. What type of technology does the company need to ensure this?

    • A.

      UPS

    • B.

      Power conditioner

    • C.

      Standby generator

    • D.

      Redundant power supply

    Correct Answer
    A. UPS
    Explanation
    A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is a device that provides backup power to critical equipment in the event of a power outage or loss of AC line power. It contains a battery that can supply power for a limited time, allowing the web server farm to continue operating without interruption until the power is restored or a standby generator kicks in. A UPS ensures high-availability by preventing downtime and data loss due to power failures, making it the recommended solution in this scenario.

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  • 47. 

    Spare parts and other pieces of equipment are kept in a locked cage.There are internal security devices that set off alarms when triggered. People authorized to enter the area need to be able to remotely disable and enable the alarms from outside the cage as needed. What should the company use?

    • A.

      Smart card

    • B.

      Key fob

    • C.

      Asset tags

    • D.

      ID badges

    Correct Answer
    B. Key fob
    Explanation
    The company should use a key fob. A key fob is a small device that can be easily carried and used to remotely control access to a locked cage. It allows authorized personnel to disable and enable the alarms from outside the cage as needed. This provides convenience and flexibility in managing the security of the spare parts and equipment. Smart cards, asset tags, and ID badges are not specifically designed for remote access control and may not be suitable for this purpose.

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  • 48. 

    A company needs to have a reliable record of everyone who enters a locked secure area of the building. What should the company use?

    • A.

      Motion detector

    • B.

      Video surveillance

    • C.

      Sign-in log

    • D.

      Biometric lock

    Correct Answer
    A. Motion detector
    Explanation
    A motion detector would be an effective solution for the company to have a reliable record of everyone who enters a locked secure area of the building. It can detect any movement within the area and trigger an alarm or notification, providing a record of when someone enters the area. This can help ensure the security of the area and keep track of who has accessed it.

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  • 49. 

    A company must implement additional monitoring and analysis to meet compliance requirements relating to work done for new customers. The company needs a solution that can collect log, event, and other security information from a variety of sources and correlate and analyze the data to identify threats. It should provide for long-term storage of the data collected and be able to identify trending threats. What type of device solution should the company use? 

    • A.

      IDS

    • B.

      SNMP

    • C.

      Server log

    • D.

      SIEM

    Correct Answer
    D. SIEM
    Explanation
    The company should use a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) solution. SIEM solutions are designed to collect and analyze log, event, and security information from various sources. They can correlate and analyze the data to identify threats and provide long-term storage of the collected data. Additionally, SIEM solutions can identify trending threats, which is important for meeting compliance requirements and ensuring the security of work done for new customers.

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  • 50. 

    Users complain about intermittent connection issues with file server. A junior technician has gathered all information and determined that no changes have been made in the network. What should the technician do next?

    • A.

      Test the most common solutions

    • B.

      Use the OSI model to establish a theory of probable cause

    • C.

      Escalate the problem to a senior engineer

    • D.

      Establish a plan of action to fix the issue

    Correct Answer
    B. Use the OSI model to establish a theory of probable cause
    Explanation
    The technician should use the OSI model to establish a theory of probable cause. This means that the technician should analyze the different layers of the OSI model (physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, and application) to identify any potential issues or failures that could be causing the intermittent connection issues with the file server. By systematically analyzing each layer, the technician can narrow down the possible causes and develop a theory of what might be causing the problem. This will help in troubleshooting and finding a solution to fix the issue.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 25, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Myron0576
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