CompTIA+ N10-007

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  • 1/216 Questions

    The network team is tasked with hardening the L2 infrastructure. Which two actions should the team perform?

    • Implement SPI
    • Change RSTP to STP.
    • Shut down unused ports.
    • Change the native VLAN.
    • Disable all trunking.
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About This Quiz

This CompTIA+ N10-007 quiz assesses knowledge in network security and management, focusing on tasks like file integrity verification, Layer 2 hardening, DNS troubleshooting, and secure file transfers. It prepares learners for practical network security challenges.

CompTIA+ N10-007 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which network device uses ASICs to handle the packet switching for inter-VLAN communication?

    • L7 firewall

    • L3 switch

    • L2 switch

    • L4 router

    Correct Answer
    A. L3 switch
    Explanation
    An L3 switch uses ASICs (Application-Specific Integrated Circuits) to handle the packet switching for inter-VLAN communication. ASICs are specialized hardware components that are designed to perform specific tasks efficiently. In the case of an L3 switch, the ASICs allow for fast and efficient routing of packets between different VLANs, improving network performance and reducing latency. This makes an L3 switch an ideal choice for networks that require inter-VLAN communication.

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  • 3. 

    A company deploys a new computer. When the cable to the computer is plugged in at the with, the network link LED does not light. When the cable is plugged in to a different open port, the LED lights up. When plugged back in to the original port, the LED does not light. What is the most likely problem? 

    • VLAN mismatch

    • Duplicate IP address

    • Bad port

    • Incorrect cable type

    • Bad computer network adapter

    Correct Answer
    A. Bad port
    Explanation
    The most likely problem is a bad port. This is indicated by the fact that when the cable is plugged into a different open port, the network link LED lights up, suggesting that the cable and computer network adapter are functioning properly. However, when the cable is plugged back into the original port, the LED does not light, indicating that there is an issue with that specific port.

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  • 4. 

    What should a company use to create a point-to-point bridge between two APs?

    • MIMO

    • TDMA

    • SFP Transceivers

    • GSM

    • Unidirectional antennas

    Correct Answer
    A. Unidirectional antennas
    Explanation
    A company should use unidirectional antennas to create a point-to-point bridge between two APs. Unidirectional antennas are designed to transmit and receive signals in a specific direction, allowing for a focused and concentrated signal transmission between the two access points. This helps to establish a strong and stable connection, minimizing interference and maximizing the distance and throughput of the bridge.

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  • 5. 

    Which two items would be specified as part of an SLA? (Choose two.)

    • Minimum server software configurations

    • Availability and uptime

    • Password change requirements

    • Minimum server hardware configurations

    • Help desk response time

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Availability and uptime
    A. Help desk response time
    Explanation
    An SLA, or Service Level Agreement, is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of service that will be provided. Two items that are typically specified in an SLA are availability and uptime, which refer to the amount of time that a service or system is operational and accessible to users, and help desk response time, which outlines the expected time for the help desk to respond to customer inquiries or issues. These two items are important in ensuring that the service provider meets the agreed-upon service levels and customer expectations.

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  • 6. 

    A consultant is setting up a SOHO for a customer. The customer has requested a DOCSIS Internet connection. What type of service connection should the consultant configure?

    • BRI

    • Cable

    • DSL

    • PRI

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable
    Explanation
    The consultant should configure a cable service connection for the customer's SOHO. Cable internet uses the same coaxial cables that deliver cable television, providing high-speed internet access. This type of connection is suitable for a small office or home office (SOHO) setup, as it offers fast and reliable internet speeds. BRI, PRI, and DSL are not appropriate options for a DOCSIS internet connection.

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  • 7. 

    Which policy sets guidelines for allowing employees to use their own personal devices for work-related tasks?

    • NDA

    • SLA

    • BYOD

    • AUP

    Correct Answer
    A. BYOD
    Explanation
    BYOD stands for Bring Your Own Device, which is a policy that allows employees to use their own personal devices, such as smartphones, tablets, or laptops, for work-related tasks. This policy sets guidelines for how employees can securely access company resources and data on their personal devices, ensuring that sensitive information is protected. It allows employees to be more productive and flexible while also reducing the costs of providing company-owned devices.

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  • 8. 

    A user complains about the transfer rates from a server in VLAN 4. A network administrator connects to a switch and receives the output shown in the exhibit. Which parameter is MOST likely misconfigured on the switch?

    • Speed

    • Flow control

    • Duplex

    • MDI mode

    Correct Answer
    A. Duplex
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the user is complaining about transfer rates from a server in VLAN 4. The exhibit shows the output from the switch, indicating that the network administrator has connected to it. Since the issue is related to transfer rates, the most likely misconfigured parameter on the switch is the duplex setting. Duplex refers to the communication mode between devices, and if it is misconfigured, it can result in slower transfer rates.

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  • 9. 

    What are smart cards used for in computer networking?

    • Secure removable data storage

    • Software installation authorization

    • Logon and authentication

    • Asset tracking

    Correct Answer
    A. Logon and authentication
    Explanation
    Smart cards are used for logon and authentication in computer networking. These cards contain a microprocessor and memory, allowing them to securely store and process data. When a user inserts a smart card into a reader, it can be used to verify the user's identity and grant access to the network. This helps to enhance security by requiring a physical card in addition to a username and password for authentication.

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  • 10. 

    What is a secure multipoint IP hub-and-spoke WAN configuration that supports direct communication between spokes?

    • DMVPN

    • PPPoE

    • ATM

    • MPLS

    Correct Answer
    A. DMVPN
    Explanation
    DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network) is a secure multipoint IP hub-and-spoke WAN configuration that supports direct communication between spokes. It is a flexible and scalable solution that allows dynamic creation of VPN tunnels between spokes without the need for manual configuration. With DMVPN, spokes can communicate directly with each other, improving network efficiency and reducing traffic through the hub. It provides secure communication over public networks, making it an ideal choice for organizations with distributed branch offices.

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  • 11. 

    A company is deploying a new company as shown in the exhibit. The company will have a static IPv4 address. What should technicians use as the company's default gateway?

    • 192.168.1.65

    • 192.168.1.193

    • 192.168.1.1

    • 192.168.1.129

    Correct Answer
    A. 192.168.1.1
    Explanation
    Technicians should use 192.168.1.1 as the company's default gateway. The default gateway is the IP address of the router that connects the local network to the internet. In this case, 192.168.1.1 is the most likely candidate for the default gateway as it falls within the same IP subnet as the company's static IPv4 address.

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  • 12. 

    A recent network audit has highlighted the security issues on the access point shown in the exhibit. What should the company do?

    • Change the channel bandwidth to 40MHz only.

    • Change the authentication method to WPA-TKIP.

    • Change the authentication method to WPA2-AES.

    • Change the channel bandwidth to 20MHz

    • Enable the Hide SSID option.

    Correct Answer
    A. Change the authentication method to WPA2-AES.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to change the authentication method to WPA2-AES. This is because WPA2-AES is currently the most secure authentication method available for wireless networks. It provides stronger encryption and better security compared to WPA-TKIP. Changing the authentication method to WPA2-AES will help address the security issues highlighted in the network audit.

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  • 13. 

    A company has configured some services and applications using a PAAS platform. The network team wants to create a secure connection from an onsite router to the new platform. Which of the following would be the BEST protocol to implement?

    • SSL/TLS

    • PPTP

    • IPsec

    • L2TP

    Correct Answer
    A. IPsec
    Explanation
    IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) would be the best protocol to implement in this scenario. IPsec provides secure communication between the onsite router and the PAAS platform by encrypting the data that is transmitted over the network. It ensures data confidentiality, integrity, and authentication, making it an ideal choice for creating a secure connection in this situation. SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security) is commonly used for securing web communications, but it may not be the best choice for establishing a secure connection between the router and the platform. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) and L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) are VPN protocols that are typically used for remote access, but they may not be the most suitable options for this particular scenario.

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  • 14. 

    A policy includes the following statement: "Employees are not allowed to use company equipmen t to copy or distribute copyrighted material without the written permission of the holder of the copyright." Which policy would this statement be part of?

    • NDA

    • BYOD

    • SLA

    • AUP

    Correct Answer
    A. AUP
    Explanation
    The given statement is related to the acceptable use policy (AUP). An acceptable use policy outlines the acceptable behavior and actions of employees when using company equipment or resources. This specific statement prohibits employees from using company equipment to copy or distribute copyrighted material without written permission. AUPs are commonly implemented by organizations to ensure that employees are aware of and adhere to certain guidelines and restrictions while using company resources.

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  • 15. 

    Which type of vulnerability would NOT be reported by a vulnerability scan?

    • Configuration errors

    • Zero day

    • Missing patches

    • Missing passwords

    Correct Answer
    A. Zero day
    Explanation
    A vulnerability scan is a process that identifies and reports security weaknesses in a system. Zero day vulnerabilities refer to unknown vulnerabilities that are discovered and exploited by hackers before the developers become aware of them. Since zero day vulnerabilities are unknown, they cannot be detected by a vulnerability scan, as the scan relies on known vulnerabilities and patterns. Therefore, zero day vulnerabilities would not be reported by a vulnerability scan.

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  • 16. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer cannot be provided as the question does not provide any information or context to determine a preference.

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  • 17. 

    Which Internet of Things (IoT) technology is designed to facilitate touchless payments using passive embedded chips and smart devices?

    • Bluethoot 

    • NFC

    • Z-Wave

    • RFID

    Correct Answer
    A. NFC
    Explanation
    NFC stands for Near Field Communication, which is a technology designed to enable touchless payments using passive embedded chips and smart devices. NFC allows for secure and convenient transactions by simply bringing two devices close together, without the need for physical contact. This technology is commonly used in mobile payment systems, allowing users to make payments by tapping their smartphones or smartwatches on compatible payment terminals.

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  • 18. 

    Users report that they have lost access to a network shared drive. They open a new help ticket and expect a quick resolution to the problem. What should a technician do next?

    • Reboot the serversq

    • Escalate the issue to the server team

    • Check and replace the cabling in the communications room.

    • Gather more information from users.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gather more information from users.
    Explanation
    The technician should gather more information from the users because it is important to understand the specific details of the issue before taking any action. By gathering more information, the technician can determine the cause of the problem and identify the appropriate solution. This will help avoid unnecessary actions such as rebooting the servers or replacing the cabling, which may not be the actual cause of the issue. Escalating the issue to the server team may be necessary after gathering more information, but it should not be the first step.

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  • 19. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
  • 20. 

    For redundancy purposes, a network engineer installs a new router and enables a load balancing protocol. What type of address should he assign as a default gateway to end devices?

    • Virtual IP

    • Loopback

    • APIPA

    • IPv6

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtual IP
    Explanation
    The network engineer should assign a Virtual IP as the default gateway to end devices. A Virtual IP is a single IP address that represents a group of devices, such as a cluster of servers or a load balancer. By assigning a Virtual IP as the default gateway, the network engineer can ensure that traffic is distributed evenly across multiple routers, providing redundancy and improving network performance.

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  • 21. 

    Which one do you like?

    • Option 1

    • Option 2

    • Option 3

    • Option 4

    Correct Answer
    A. Option 1
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given answer is not available as the question does not provide any context or criteria for selecting a preference.

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  • 22. 

    A company is preparing to deploy a wireless LAN (WLAN) in a newly constructed office space. The network design specifies the minimum channel bandwidth requirement as 80MHz. Which standard should the access points support?

    • 802.11n

    • 802.11a

    • 802.11b

    • 802.11ac

    • 802.11g

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11ac
    Explanation
    The access points should support the 802.11ac standard because it is the only standard listed that supports a channel bandwidth of 80MHz. The other standards listed, such as 802.11n, 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g, do not meet the minimum channel bandwidth requirement specified in the network design.

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  • 23. 

    Protocol providing shared access to files, printers, and serial ports.

    • SMB

    • 445

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SMB
    A. 445
    Explanation
    SMB (Server Message Block) is a protocol that allows shared access to files, printers, and serial ports. It is commonly used in Windows operating systems to enable file and printer sharing over a network. The port number 445 is associated with SMB and is used for communication between devices. Therefore, the correct answer is SMB,445.

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  • 24. 

    Provides for secure login and remote executions of commands.

    • SSH

    • 22

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SSH
    A. 22
    Explanation
    SSH (Secure Shell) is a network protocol that provides a secure way to login to a remote computer and execute commands. It encrypts the data transmitted between the client and the server, ensuring that it cannot be intercepted or tampered with by malicious actors. Port 22 is the default port used by SSH for communication. Therefore, the given correct answer, SSH and port 22, aligns with the description provided, indicating that it provides secure login and remote executions of commands.

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  • 25. 

    Which service does an ASP provide to subscribers?

    • IPAM

    • SDN

    • SIP

    • SAAS

    Correct Answer
    A. SAAS
    Explanation
    An ASP (Application Service Provider) provides Software as a Service (SAAS) to subscribers. SAAS is a cloud computing model where software applications are delivered over the internet on a subscription basis. Subscribers can access and use these applications without the need for local installation or management. This allows users to conveniently access and use software applications from anywhere, anytime, using any device with an internet connection.

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  • 26. 

    While discussing a configuration issue with a switch manufacturer's technical support team, the in-house support team learns of a switch vulnerability. The vulnerability was fixed with a recent update. the support team needs to mitigate the vulnerability and avoid a potential attack with minimum risk to the network, downtime, and the cost.  What should in-house support do?

    • Download and install the most recent firmware update

    • Order new firmware chips and remove and replace the firmware.

    • Purchase a new switch that has the vulnerability fixed to replace the existing switch.

    • Deploy an IDS to closely monitor activity with the switch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Download and install the most recent firmware update
    Explanation
    The in-house support team should download and install the most recent firmware update. This is the most efficient and cost-effective solution to mitigate the vulnerability and avoid potential attacks. Ordering new firmware chips and removing/replacing the firmware would be time-consuming and costly. Purchasing a new switch is unnecessary if the vulnerability can be fixed with a firmware update. Deploying an IDS may help monitor activity, but it does not directly address the vulnerability itself.

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  • 27. 

    A system administrator cannot ping a file server running Windows Server. Users can access files on the server without any problems. What should the administrator check?

    • Local firewall rules 

    • NTFS permissions

    • ARP cache

    • TCP/IP settings

    Correct Answer
    A. Local firewall rules 
    Explanation
    The system administrator should check the local firewall rules. The fact that users can access files on the server without any problems suggests that the issue is not with NTFS permissions or TCP/IP settings. However, if the administrator is unable to ping the file server, it indicates that there may be a firewall blocking the ping requests. Checking the local firewall rules will help identify if there are any rules preventing the ping requests from reaching the server.

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  • 28. 

    A company is configuring an internal network with routed subnets based on the following class B address range: 172.30.8.0/21 The company wants to set up the following subnets:  Network A- 600 hosts  Network B - 100 hosts NetworkC - 56 hosts Network D - 40 hosts The company wants to keep the used addresses in each subnet to a minimum. Which network address ranges should the company use?

    • Network A: 172.30.8.0/22 Network B: 172.30.12.0/25 Network C: 172.30.12.128/26 Network A: 172.30.12.192/26  

    • Network A: 172.30.8.0/23 Network B: 172.30.10.0/25 Network C: 172.30.10.128/26 Network D: 172.30.10.192/26  

    • Network A: 172.30.8.0/22 Network B: 172.30.10.0/25 Network C: 172.30.10.128/26 Network D: 172.30.10.192/26  

    • Network A: 172.30.8.0/22 Network B: 172.30.12.0/25 Network C: 172.30.12.128/26 Network D: 172.30.12.192/27  

    Correct Answer
    A. Network A: 172.30.8.0/22 Network B: 172.30.12.0/25 Network C: 172.30.12.128/26 Network A: 172.30.12.192/26  
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because it follows the requirements of the company. Network A requires 600 hosts, which can be accommodated within the subnet 172.30.8.0/22. Network B requires 100 hosts, which can be accommodated within the subnet 172.30.12.0/25. Network C requires 56 hosts, which can be accommodated within the subnet 172.30.12.128/26. Network D requires 40 hosts, which can be accommodated within the subnet 172.30.12.192/26. This allocation minimizes the number of used addresses in each subnet while still meeting the company's requirements.

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  • 29. 

    Which media access method is used with 802.11 RTS/CTS network configurations and is NOT able to detect collisions during transmissions?

    • CSMA/CA

    • GSM

    • CDMA

    • CSMA/CD

    Correct Answer
    A. CSMA/CA
    Explanation
    CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) is the media access method used with 802.11 RTS/CTS network configurations. Unlike CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection), CSMA/CA is not able to detect collisions during transmissions. Instead, it uses a mechanism called "Request to Send/Clear to Send" (RTS/CTS) to avoid collisions by allowing devices to reserve the channel before transmitting data. This helps to reduce the chances of collisions and improve the efficiency of wireless communication.

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  • 30. 

    A company deploys six new computers that are configured for automatic address assignment to the 192.168.4/26 subnet. The DHCP server that hosts the scope for the subnet is deployed on the same subnet. Four of the new computers are able to lease valid IP addresses. The remaining two computers have the following addresses: 169.245.12.7 169.254.14.2 What is most likely wrong?

    • The TCP/IP stack did not load correctly on the two computers

    • The two computers are initially assigned duplicate addresses.

    • The DHCP server is failing.

    • The DHCP scope is exhausted.

    Correct Answer
    A. The DHCP scope is exhausted.
    Explanation
    The most likely explanation for the two computers being assigned invalid IP addresses is that the DHCP scope for the subnet is exhausted. This means that the DHCP server has run out of available IP addresses to assign to new devices. As a result, the two computers were not able to lease valid IP addresses and were assigned addresses from a different range (169.245.12.7 and 169.254.14.2) which are not within the expected subnet (192.168.4/26).

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  • 31. 

    Against which type of attack is end user training most effective?

    • Man-in-the-middle attack

    • Phishing

    • War driving

    • Evil twin

    Correct Answer
    A. Phishing
    Explanation
    End user training is most effective against phishing attacks. Phishing is a type of cyber attack where attackers impersonate a legitimate entity to deceive users into providing sensitive information or performing harmful actions. By educating end users about the signs of phishing attempts, such as suspicious emails or websites, they can learn to identify and avoid falling victim to such attacks. Training can help users understand the importance of not clicking on suspicious links, not sharing personal information, and being cautious with email attachments, thereby reducing the success rate of phishing attacks.

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  • 32. 

    A company's network is shown in the exhibit. the DHCP server is configured with a scope for each network. Clients in the 192.168.4.0 and 192.168.4.128 subnets are unable to lease addresses for he DHCP server. Clients in the 192.168.20 subnet are able to lease addresses. What should the company do?

    • Deploy a DHCP relay agent in the 192.168.2.0 subnet.

    • Open UDP port 53 on each of the routers.

    • Deploy DHCP relay agents in the 192.168.4.0 and 192.168.4.128 subnets.

    • Configure IP exclusions for the 192.168.4.0 and 192.168.4.128 subnets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Deploy a DHCP relay agent in the 192.168.2.0 subnet.
    Explanation
    The company should deploy a DHCP relay agent in the 192.168.2.0 subnet. This is because the DHCP server is unable to reach the clients in the 192.168.4.0 and 192.168.4.128 subnets. By deploying a DHCP relay agent in the 192.168.2.0 subnet, it will forward the DHCP requests from the clients in the 192.168.4.0 and 192.168.4.128 subnets to the DHCP server, allowing them to lease addresses.

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  • 33. 

    Supports secure communication with websites to protect data privacy and integrity.

    • HTTPS

    • 443

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. HTTPS
    A. 443
    Explanation
    HTTPS is the correct answer because it stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure. It is a secure version of HTTP that uses encryption to protect the privacy and integrity of data transmitted between a user's device and a website. By using HTTPS, websites can ensure that sensitive information, such as passwords or credit card details, cannot be intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized individuals. The number 443 is also mentioned, which is the default port used for HTTPS communication.

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  • 34. 

    Provides for audio-visual communication sessions and widely used in videoconferencing.

    • H.323

    • 1720

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. H.323
    A. 1720
    Explanation
    H.323 is a protocol suite that provides for audio-visual communication sessions, making it suitable for videoconferencing. Port 1720 is the default port used by H.323 for signaling, allowing devices to establish and manage connections for videoconferencing sessions. Therefore, the correct answer is H.323,1720.

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  • 35. 

    A sales manager wants to provide a mobile device to all remote employees. The devices have to support low power and short-range peer-to-peer file transfers and payments using passive sources. Which technololgy should the manager consider?

    • NFC

    • Ant+

    • Z-Wave

    • Bluetooth

    Correct Answer
    A. NFC
    Explanation
    NFC (Near Field Communication) is the technology that the sales manager should consider. NFC supports low power and short-range peer-to-peer file transfers and payments using passive sources. It allows devices to establish a connection by simply touching or bringing them close together, making it convenient for remote employees to transfer files and make payments using their mobile devices.

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  • 36. 

    Which network device uses ASICs to handle the packet switching for inter-VLAN communication?

    • L7 firewall

    • L4 router

    • L3 switch

    • L2 switch

    Correct Answer
    A. L3 switch
    Explanation
    An L3 switch uses ASICs (Application-Specific Integrated Circuits) to handle the packet switching for inter-VLAN communication. ASICs are specialized hardware components that are designed to perform specific tasks efficiently. In the case of an L3 switch, the ASICs are responsible for processing and forwarding packets between different VLANs, allowing for efficient and fast communication between them. This makes the L3 switch a suitable choice for handling inter-VLAN communication in a network.

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  • 37. 

    A security audit highlights some security concerns in a newly deployed SDN process. One of the scripts uses the verify md5 command to check the image integrity, uploads it to a server using FTP. What should the company do to address security concerns?

    • Use AES for file integrity and HTTPS for file uploads.

    • Use SHA512 for file integrity and FTPS for uploads.

    • Use SHA256 for file integrity and TFTP for uploads.

    • Use SSL for file integrity and FTPS for uploads.

    • Use SHA256 for file integrity and TFTP for uploads.

    Correct Answer
    A. Use SHA512 for file integrity and FTPS for uploads.
    Explanation
    The company should use SHA512 for file integrity and FTPS for uploads. SHA512 is a stronger hashing algorithm compared to SHA256, providing better security for verifying the integrity of the image. FTPS (FTP over SSL/TLS) ensures secure file transfers by encrypting the data during transmission. This combination of using a strong hashing algorithm and secure file transfer protocol helps address the security concerns highlighted in the security audit.

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  • 38. 

    A medium-sized company is moving into a new office space. The office is being prewired with Cat 6 cabling. Employees will be moving their own equipment and will need to connect into the network. Technical Services wants to help ensure that the move goes as smoothly as possible. What should Technical Services use to ensure this?

    • Labling

    • Physical network diagram

    • Logical network diagram

    • Work instructions

    Correct Answer
    A. Labling
    Explanation
    Technical Services should use labeling to ensure that the move goes as smoothly as possible. Labeling the cables and equipment will help employees easily identify and connect their equipment to the network. This will minimize confusion and prevent any delays or errors during the move.

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  • 39. 

    Which protocol provides time synchronization service over the global Internet?

    • SNMP

    • ICMP

    • IPAM

    • NTP

    Correct Answer
    A. NTP
    Explanation
    NTP (Network Time Protocol) is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to provide time synchronization service over the global Internet. NTP allows devices to synchronize their clocks with highly accurate time references, called NTP servers, which are distributed worldwide. This protocol is widely used in computer networks, ensuring accurate timekeeping for various applications and systems that rely on synchronized time. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for diagnostic and control purposes, SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for network management, and IPAM (IP Address Management) is used for managing IP addresses.

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  • 40. 

    A company is wiring a new office space to support 1000BaseT Ethernet. The network design for UTP cable. The  majority of the cable will be routed through a suspended ceiling. Which cable should the company use?

    • Cat 5e plenum

    • Cat 7 plenum

    • Cat 7 PVC

    • Cat 5 e PVC

    Correct Answer
    A. Cat 5e plenum
    Explanation
    The company should use Cat 5e plenum cable because it is specifically designed for use in plenum spaces, such as suspended ceilings. Plenum spaces are areas where air circulates for heating, ventilation, and air conditioning systems. Plenum-rated cables have a special insulation that is fire-retardant and low-smoke, which is required for safety in these types of spaces. Cat 5e plenum cable is also capable of supporting 1000BaseT Ethernet, making it the most suitable choice for wiring the new office space.

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  • 41. 

    An office area is prewired with Cat 5e cable. Technicians need to test cable continuity. Cable terminate at 110 block in a secure server room. RJ-45 jacks are installed at the device end of each cable. One technician will go from jack to jack with a loopback plug. What should the technician working in the server room use?

    • Punchdown tool

    • Multimeter

    • Tone generator

    • Spectrum analyzer

    Correct Answer
    A. Multimeter
    Explanation
    The technician working in the server room should use a multimeter. A multimeter is a versatile tool that can measure various electrical properties, including continuity. By connecting the multimeter to the RJ-45 jacks and using the loopback plug, the technician can test the cable continuity and ensure that the connections are functioning properly.

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  • 42. 

    Which Layer 2 security solution allows a network administrator to protect the topology against malicious STP messages?

    • ACL

    • ERRDISABLE

    • BPDU Filter

    • BPDU Guard

    Correct Answer
    A. ACL
    Explanation
    ACL (Access Control List) is not the correct answer for this question. ACL is a Layer 3 security solution that is used to control traffic flow based on source and destination IP addresses, ports, and protocols. It is not specifically designed to protect against malicious STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) messages. The correct answer is BPDU Guard, which is a Layer 2 security feature that prevents unauthorized switches from participating in the STP process, thereby protecting the network topology.

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  • 43. 

    A company is developing several web applications. The company does not have the hardware resources to support the development and does not want to incur the expense of additional hardware. The companyt wants to use its own development application and data, but it wants hardware, operating system and storage management to be the responsibility of a third-party provider. Which type of service does this describe? 

    • PaaS

    • SaaS

    • SECaaS

    • IaaS

    Correct Answer
    A. PaaS
    Explanation
    This scenario describes the use of Platform as a Service (PaaS). PaaS allows the company to use its own development application and data, while outsourcing the responsibility of hardware, operating system, and storage management to a third-party provider. This allows the company to focus on developing web applications without the need for additional hardware resources or incurring the expense of managing them.

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  • 44. 

    PC1 fails to receive an IP address in the network shown in the exhibit. What should be configured to fix the problem?

    • IP helper address on Router 2

    • Conditional forwarder on Router 2

    • Conditional forwarder on Router 1

    • Port forwarding on Router 2

    • DHCP option 66 on Router 1

    • Port forwarding on Router 1 

    • IP helper address on Router 1

    • DHCP option 66 on Router 2

    Correct Answer
    A. IP helper address on Router 1
    Explanation
    To fix the problem of PC1 failing to receive an IP address, the IP helper address should be configured on Router 1. An IP helper address is used to forward DHCP requests from clients in one subnet to a DHCP server in another subnet. By configuring the IP helper address on Router 1, it will forward the DHCP request from PC1 to the DHCP server, allowing PC1 to receive an IP address and resolve the issue.

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  • 45. 

    A network engineer has installed three gigabit switches. The switches will provide access to NAS devices for end users. What should the engineer configure to avoid a bottleneck in the network with big file transfers?

    • FTP with SSH

    • HSRP

    • Trunks with port aggregation

    • VRRP

    • QoS policy

    • Port security

    Correct Answer
    A. Trunks with port aggregation
    Explanation
    To avoid a bottleneck in the network with big file transfers, the network engineer should configure trunks with port aggregation. Trunks allow multiple physical connections to be combined into a single logical connection, increasing the available bandwidth. Port aggregation, also known as link aggregation or EtherChannel, allows multiple physical links between switches to be bundled together, providing increased bandwidth and redundancy. By configuring trunks with port aggregation, the engineer can ensure that the network has sufficient capacity to handle large file transfers without experiencing a bottleneck.

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  • 46. 

    Used to monitor and manage network devices.

    • SNMP

    • 161

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SNMP
    A. 161
    Explanation
    SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a widely used protocol for monitoring and managing network devices. It allows network administrators to collect information and manage devices such as routers, switches, and servers. The number "161" refers to the default port number used by SNMP for communication. This port is used for sending and receiving SNMP messages between the network management system and the network devices. By using SNMP on port 161, administrators can monitor and control various aspects of network devices, such as performance, availability, and configuration.

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  • 47. 

    A company wants to connect devices so that there are many redundant interconnections. Which topology should the company use?

    • Bus

    • Mesh

    • Star

    • Ad-hoc

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesh
    Explanation
    A company should use the Mesh topology because it allows for many redundant interconnections. In a Mesh topology, each device is connected to every other device in the network, creating multiple paths for data to travel. This redundancy ensures that if one connection fails, there are alternative paths available, increasing the network's reliability and fault tolerance.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is an example of valid authentication factors?

    • PIN and password 

    • Smart card and proximity tag

    • Thumb print and retinal scan

    • Facial recognition and PIN

    Correct Answer
    A. Facial recognition and PIN
    Explanation
    Facial recognition and PIN are examples of valid authentication factors because they combine something the user knows (the PIN) with something the user is (their facial features). This multi-factor authentication approach enhances security by requiring the user to provide both a physical characteristic (facial recognition) and a secret code (PIN) to verify their identity. This makes it more difficult for unauthorized individuals to gain access to the system or data.

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  • 49. 

    A company deployed a new network. The company secures access using WPA2-Personal. What is required for a client to connect to an access point?

    • Pre-shared key

    • Client certificate 

    • Recognized MAC address

    • User name and password

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-shared key
    Explanation
    To connect to an access point secured with WPA2-Personal, a client needs a pre-shared key. This key is a password that both the access point and client devices must have in order to establish a secure connection. The pre-shared key ensures that only authorized clients can connect to the network, as they need to provide the correct key. It acts as a shared secret between the access point and the client, allowing them to authenticate and encrypt their communication.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 25, 2018
    Quiz Created by
    Myron0576

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