CompTIA A+ Quiz: Practice Exam Trivia!

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CompTIA A+ Quiz: Practice Exam Trivia! - Quiz


How much do you know about CompTIA A+? CompTIA A+ is a beneficial credential that helps IT people worldwide to help start their IT careers. For this quiz on CompTIA, you will want to know about BitLocker and encryption keys and what to do when your computer laptop’s LCD is being scratched, among other things. It is wise to prepare for the exam. This CompTIA quiz will give you an A+ for trying.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    You need to automatically check for performance issues in Windows 7. Which tool is the best...

    • A.

      Troubleshooting item in the Control Panel

    • B.

      Windows Trouble shooting

    • C.

      Application Trouble shooting

    • D.

      Custom based Trouble shoting

    Correct Answer
    A. Troubleshooting item in the Control Panel
    Explanation
    The Troubleshooting item in the Control Panel is the best tool to automatically check for performance issues in Windows 7. This tool allows users to diagnose and resolve common problems that may be affecting the performance of the operating system. It provides a range of troubleshooting options and guides users through the process of identifying and fixing issues that could be causing performance problems. By using this tool, users can efficiently troubleshoot and improve the overall performance of their Windows 7 system.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is used by BitLocker to provide an encryption key and to protect data?  

    • A.

      TPM

    • B.

      TKIP

    • C.

      TIP

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. TPM
    Explanation
    TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware component used by BitLocker to provide an encryption key and protect data. It securely stores encryption keys and verifies the integrity of the system during the boot process, ensuring that the system has not been tampered with. This helps to protect the confidentiality and integrity of data on the system. TKIP and TIP are not related to BitLocker, and "None of the above" is incorrect as TPM is the correct answer.

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  • 3. 

    How would you secure a smartphone and its data?  

    • A.

      Passcode lock Remote wipe

    • B.

      Passcode lock

    • C.

      Passcode lock Remote wipe along with voice bade

    • D.

      Remote wipe

    Correct Answer
    A. Passcode lock Remote wipe
    Explanation
    Securing a smartphone and its data involves implementing measures to protect it from unauthorized access and potential data breaches. One effective method is to set up a passcode lock, which requires a unique code to be entered before accessing the device. This adds an extra layer of security and prevents unauthorized individuals from gaining access to the smartphone and its data. Additionally, remote wipe is another important security feature that allows the user to erase all data on the smartphone remotely in case it is lost or stolen, ensuring that sensitive information does not fall into the wrong hands.

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  • 4. 

    Your customer has a computer (called comp_science that has been infected by a worm. The worm has...

    • A.

      Change ip

    • B.

      Enable firewall

    • C.

      Disable firewall

    • D.

      Disconnect the network cable from the computer

    Correct Answer
    D. Disconnect the network cable from the computer
    Explanation
    Disconnecting the network cable from the infected computer is the correct answer because it effectively isolates the computer from the network, preventing further spread of the worm. By disconnecting the network cable, the computer is no longer able to communicate with other devices on the network, reducing the risk of infecting other computers or devices. This action buys time to address the worm infection without further compromising the network or other systems.

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  • 5. 

    You have determined that the USB controller is malfunctioning. What should you do first to... 

    • A.

      Use control application wizard

    • B.

      Use the Windows Device Manager

    • C.

      Try restoring O.S

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Use the Windows Device Manager
    Explanation
    To address a malfunctioning USB controller, the first step should be to use the Windows Device Manager. This tool allows you to view and manage hardware devices connected to your computer, including USB controllers. By accessing the Device Manager, you can check for any issues or conflicts with the USB controller, update drivers, disable and re-enable the controller, or uninstall and reinstall it if necessary. Therefore, using the Windows Device Manager is the appropriate course of action in this situation.

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  • 6. 

    Your computer's laptop's LCD is being scratched by the keyboard when the lid is closed.... 

    • A.

      Clean with a thick cloth

    • B.

      Clean with a wet cloth

    • C.

      Replace the rubber bumpers

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Clean with a wet cloth
    Explanation
    Cleaning the LCD screen with a wet cloth can help remove any dust, dirt, or smudges that may be causing the scratches. Using a wet cloth ensures that the screen is properly cleaned without causing any further damage. A thick cloth may not be as effective in removing the scratches, and replacing the rubber bumpers would not address the issue of the screen being scratched by the keyboard.

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  • 7. 

    Which command should you use to fid out the intergrity of a hard drive? 

    • A.

      FDISK/MBR

    • B.

      FDISK/ACTIVE

    • C.

      FORMAT/S/U/V/Q

    • D.

      CHKDSK

    Correct Answer
    D. CHKDSK
    Explanation
    CHKDSK is the correct command to use in order to check the integrity of a hard drive. CHKDSK stands for "check disk" and it is a command-line utility in Windows that scans the file system and file system metadata of a hard drive for errors and fixes them if possible. It can also check for bad sectors and recover readable information from them. Using CHKDSK helps to ensure that the hard drive is functioning properly and any potential issues are identified and resolved.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following printer failures is described as a condition in which the internal feed

    • A.

      Paper try

    • B.

      Paper jam

    • C.

      Track feeder

    • D.

      Duplexer

    Correct Answer
    B. Paper jam
    Explanation
    A paper jam is a printer failure where the paper gets stuck inside the printer, causing it to stop functioning properly. This can happen when the paper is not properly aligned or if there are multiple sheets of paper being fed at once. It can also occur if there are any foreign objects obstructing the paper path. In such cases, the printer needs to be cleared of the jammed paper before it can resume normal printing operations.

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  • 9. 

    You are upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. What is the best tool to use... 

    • A.

      Easy Copy

    • B.

      Backup the data

    • C.

      Easy Transfer

    • D.

      None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    C. Easy Transfer
    Explanation
    Easy Transfer is the best tool to use when upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. This tool allows users to transfer files, settings, and user accounts from one computer to another. It simplifies the process of migrating data and ensures a smooth transition to the new operating system.

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  • 10. 

    You work at a PC bench and receive a laptop that has a dim display. You confirm that it is... 

    • A.

      LCD Panel

    • B.

      LCD Inverter

    • C.

      LCD Base

    • D.

      None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    B. LCD Inverter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is LCD Inverter. The LCD Inverter is responsible for providing power to the backlight of the laptop's LCD panel. If the display is dim, it indicates that the inverter is not functioning properly and needs to be replaced.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following answers can be the cause of a blue screen error? 

    • A.

      Bad O.S

    • B.

      Bad device driver

    • C.

      This problem is related to the NIC card

    • D.

      Above all are correct

    Correct Answer
    B. Bad device driver
    Explanation
    A bad device driver can be the cause of a blue screen error. Device drivers are software programs that allow the operating system to communicate with hardware devices. If a device driver is outdated, incompatible, or corrupted, it can lead to system instability and result in a blue screen error. This error occurs when the operating system encounters a critical error that it cannot recover from, causing the system to crash and display a blue screen with an error message. Therefore, a bad device driver can be a potential cause of a blue screen error.

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  • 12. 

    A program is no longer responding. Where would a technician go to end the program?

    • A.

      Task Manager

    • B.

      Process ID

    • C.

      Task Id

    • D.

      Application que

    Correct Answer
    A. Task Manager
    Explanation
    When a program becomes unresponsive, a technician would typically go to the Task Manager to end the program. The Task Manager is a system utility that provides information about running processes and allows users to monitor and control them. It allows the technician to view all the running programs, their process IDs, and other details. By locating the unresponsive program in the Task Manager, the technician can select it and choose to end the process, effectively terminating the program and resolving the issue.

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  • 13. 

    You are setting up a SOHO wireless network. Which of the following provides the best security?

    • A.

      Enable SSID and configure WPA2

    • B.

      Disable SSID and configure WPA2

    • C.

      Enable SSID and configure WPA2 with the channel set to 6

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. Enable SSID and configure WPA2
    Explanation
    Enabling the SSID and configuring WPA2 provides the best security for a SOHO wireless network. By enabling the SSID, the network name is broadcasted, making it easier for authorized devices to connect. Configuring WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) ensures that the network is encrypted, protecting it from unauthorized access and potential security breaches. The option to set the channel to 6 is not mentioned in the explanation but may be considered as an additional step to avoid interference from neighboring networks.

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  • 14. 

    After replacing a motherboard in a PC, the system overheats and fails to boot. What is the...  

    • A.

      No proper power supply to the CPU

    • B.

      Case FAN is not functioning

    • C.

      Thermal paste was not applied between the heat sink and the CPU

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Thermal paste was not applied between the heat sink and the CPU
    Explanation
    The lack of thermal paste between the heat sink and the CPU can cause overheating in a PC. Thermal paste is a conductive material that helps to transfer heat away from the CPU and onto the heat sink. Without it, there is not enough contact between the two surfaces, leading to poor heat dissipation and potential overheating.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following utilities enables a Windows 7 user to edit a file offline, and then...  

    • A.

      Sync Center

    • B.

      Manually upload the files

    • C.

      Update the file then copy the updating folder

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Sync Center
    Explanation
    Sync Center is the correct answer because it is a utility in Windows 7 that allows users to sync files between their computer and other devices or network locations. It enables users to edit files offline and then sync the changes when they are back online. This allows for seamless file management and collaboration across different devices and locations.

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  • 16. 

    You have an inkjet printer. Recently, papers are being printed with excessive amounts of ink,and the ink is smearing. What is the most likely cause of the problem? 

    • A.

      A faulty ink cartridge

    • B.

      A corrupt print driver

    • C.

      A faulty fuser

    • D.

      Too much humidity in the air

    Correct Answer
    A. A faulty ink cartridge
    Explanation
    A faulty ink cartridge is the most likely cause of the problem because it is responsible for delivering the ink onto the paper. If the cartridge is faulty, it may release excessive amounts of ink, leading to smearing.

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  • 17. 

    You just clicked Start a Run on a Windows XP workstation. Which of the following can Do you type to open a command prompt?   

    • A.

      RUN

    • B.

      CMD

    • C.

      COMMAND

    • D.

      OPEN

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. CMD
    C. COMMAND
    Explanation
    To open a command prompt on a Windows XP workstation, you can type either "CMD" or "COMMAND" in the "Run" dialog box. Both of these commands will launch the command prompt interface, allowing you to execute various commands and perform tasks using the command line.

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  • 18. 

    The Windows Explorer program can be used to do which of the following? (Choose two.)  

    • A.

      Browse the Internet

    • B.

      Copy and move files

    • C.

      Change file attributes

    • D.

      Create backup jobs

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Copy and move files
    C. Change file attributes
    Explanation
    The Windows Explorer program allows users to copy and move files, as well as change file attributes. It provides a graphical interface for navigating and managing files and folders on a computer. Users can easily select files or folders and use the copy and move functions to transfer them to different locations. Additionally, Windows Explorer allows users to change file attributes such as read-only, hidden, or archive status, providing more control over file management.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following file attributes are available to files on a FAT32 partition? 

    • A.

      Hidden, Read Only, Archive, System

    • B.

      Compression, Hidden, Archive, Encryption, Read Only

    • C.

      Read Only, Hidden, System, Encryption

    • D.

      Indexing, Read Only, Hidden, System, Compression

    Correct Answer
    A. Hidden, Read Only, Archive, System
    Explanation
    The file attributes available to files on a FAT32 partition are Hidden, Read Only, Archive, and System. These attributes allow files to be hidden from view, marked as read-only to prevent modification, flagged as archived for backup purposes, and designated as system files that are essential for the operating system.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is the name of the graphical interface included with Windows Vista?  

    • A.

      Start

    • B.

      Aero

    • C.

      KDE

    • D.

      GNOME

    Correct Answer
    B. Aero
    Explanation
    Aero is the correct answer because it is the name of the graphical interface included with Windows Vista. Aero introduced a new visual style with transparent windows, live thumbnails, and animations, giving Windows Vista a more modern and visually appealing look compared to previous versions.

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  • 21. 

    What is the minimum recommended memory for a 64-bit installation of Windows 7? 

    • A.

      512MB

    • B.

      1GB

    • C.

      2GB

    • D.

      4GB

    Correct Answer
    C. 2GB
    Explanation
    The minimum recommended memory for a 64-bit installation of Windows 7 is 2GB. This is because 64-bit operating systems require more memory to run efficiently compared to 32-bit systems. With 2GB of memory, the operating system will have enough resources to handle the demands of running multiple applications and processes simultaneously. Having less than 2GB of memory may result in slower performance and potential system crashes.

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  • 22. 

    What is the minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for the installation of Windows Vista Home Basic?  

    • A.

      1.5GB

    • B.

      15GB

    • C.

      30GB

    • D.

      60GB

    Correct Answer
    B. 15GB
    Explanation
    The minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for the installation of Windows Vista Home Basic is 15GB. This is the amount of space required to install the operating system and any necessary updates or patches. Having at least 15GB of free space ensures that the system has enough room to operate efficiently and allows for the installation of additional software and files.

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  • 23. 

    Which utility works like ping but returns the different IP addresses the packet was routedthrough to reach the final destination? 

    • A.

      Ipconfig

    • B.

      Nbtstat

    • C.

      Tracert

    • D.

      Netstat

    Correct Answer
    C. Tracert
    Explanation
    Tracert is a utility that works similarly to ping but provides additional information about the route the packet takes to reach the final destination. It returns a list of IP addresses that the packet was routed through, allowing users to identify any network issues or delays along the path. This information can be useful for troubleshooting network connectivity problems.

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  • 24. 

    You have been told to use the /FIXBOOT switch to write a new boot sector on a Windows 7machine. Which command does this switch work with? 

    • A.

      SFC

    • B.

      BOOTREC

    • C.

      BCEDIT

    • D.

      ROBOCOPY

    Correct Answer
    B. BOOTREC
    Explanation
    The /FIXBOOT switch is used with the BOOTREC command to write a new boot sector on a Windows 7 machine. The BOOTREC command is a Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) tool that can fix various boot-related issues, including repairing the Master Boot Record (MBR) and the boot sector. By using the /FIXBOOT switch with the BOOTREC command, you can specifically instruct it to write a new boot sector, which can help resolve boot problems and ensure the system starts up properly.

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  • 25. 

    Virtual memory is configured through which system tool? 

    • A.

      Taskbar

    • B.

      System control applet

    • C.

      Memory Manager

    • D.

      Virtual Configuration

    Correct Answer
    B. System control applet
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "System control applet" because the system control applet is a system tool that allows users to configure various settings on their computer, including virtual memory. It provides access to the virtual memory settings, allowing users to adjust the size of the virtual memory, allocate it to different drives, or disable it if needed. This tool is typically found in the Control Panel or Settings menu of the operating system.

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  • 26. 

    Which tool is shown in the following screen shot?  

    • A.

      MSINFO

    • B.

      DXDIAG

    • C.

      MSCONFIG

    • D.

      MSINFO32

    Correct Answer
    B. DXDIAG
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DXDIAG. DXDIAG is a diagnostic tool used to gather information about the DirectX components and drivers installed on a computer. It provides detailed information about the system's hardware and software configuration, including the version of DirectX installed, display and sound device information, and system information. The screenshot likely shows the user interface of DXDIAG, which typically displays tabs for different categories of information.

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  • 27. 

    14. You believe that your system files are corrupted in Windows XP. You run System FileChecker. What do you do to make System File Checker automatically repair your systemfiles if repair is needed? 

    • A.

      Run SFC /AUTOREPAIR

    • B.

      Run SFC /REPAIR

    • C.

      Run SFC /REVERT

    • D.

      Run SFC /SCANNOW

    Correct Answer
    D. Run SFC /SCANNOW
    Explanation
    Running the command "SFC /SCANNOW" will initiate the System File Checker tool in Windows XP. This command will scan all protected system files and check for any corruption or errors. If any issues are found, the tool will automatically attempt to repair the corrupted files. Therefore, running "SFC /SCANNOW" will ensure that the System File Checker automatically repairs the system files if repair is needed.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following partitions is specifically the partition from which the operatingsystem boots? 

    • A.

      Extended partition

    • B.

      Primary partition

    • C.

      Active partition

    • D.

      Logical partition

    Correct Answer
    B. Primary partition
    Explanation
    The primary partition is specifically the partition from which the operating system boots. This is because the primary partition is the main partition on a hard drive that contains the necessary files and data for the operating system to start and run. Other partitions such as extended, active, and logical partitions serve different purposes and do not directly contain the boot files for the operating system.

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  • 29. 

    19. Which of the following switches can be used with ROBOCOPY to mirror a completedirectory tree? 

    • A.

      /S

    • B.

      /MIR

    • C.

      /CDT

    • D.

      /AH

    Correct Answer
    B. /MIR
    Explanation
    The /MIR switch can be used with ROBOCOPY to mirror a complete directory tree. This switch ensures that the destination directory exactly matches the source directory by copying all files and directories, including deleting any files in the destination that no longer exist in the source. It also copies file attributes and timestamps.

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  • 30. 

    Which editions of Windows 7 can create a HomeGroup? (Choose four.) 

    • A.

      Windows 7 Starter

    • B.

      Windows 7 Home Premium

    • C.

      Windows 7 Professional

    • D.

      Windows 7 Enterprise

    • E.

      Windows 7 Ultimate

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Windows 7 Home Premium
    C. Windows 7 Professional
    D. Windows 7 Enterprise
    E. Windows 7 Ultimate
    Explanation
    Windows 7 Home Premium, Windows 7 Professional, Windows 7 Enterprise, and Windows 7 Ultimate can create a HomeGroup.

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  • 31. 

    As an administrator, you need to get an inventory of computers on your network and plan arollout of Windows 7. Which tool can be used for this purpose? 

    • A.

      UDMT

    • B.

      Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit

    • C.

      USMT

    • D.

      MigWiz

    Correct Answer
    B. Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit
    Explanation
    The Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit is the appropriate tool for getting an inventory of computers on a network and planning a rollout of Windows 7. This tool provides detailed reports and analysis of hardware and software inventory, compatibility assessment, and readiness for migration to Windows 7. It helps administrators make informed decisions and streamline the deployment process. UDMT, USMT, and MigWiz are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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  • 32. 

    Which utility is shown in the following screen shot?  

    • A.

      Windows State Mover

    • B.

      Windows Easy Transfer

    • C.

      Windows Anytime Upgrade

    • D.

      Windows Edition Roller

    Correct Answer
    C. Windows Anytime Upgrade
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Windows Anytime Upgrade. This utility allows users to easily upgrade their current version of Windows to a higher edition, such as upgrading from Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 7 Professional. It provides a convenient way to unlock additional features and capabilities without the need for a full installation or reinstallation of the operating system.

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  • 33. 

    Which feature allows you to use free space on an SD card to speed up a system? 

    • A.

      ReadyDrive

    • B.

      Shadow Copy

    • C.

      BitLocker to Go

    • D.

      ReadyBoost

    Correct Answer
    D. ReadyBoost
    Explanation
    ReadyBoost is a feature that allows users to utilize the free space on an SD card or USB flash drive to enhance the performance of a system. By using the extra storage as a cache, ReadyBoost can speed up the system's operations by reducing the reliance on the slower hard drive for frequently accessed data. This feature is particularly useful for systems with limited RAM, as it provides a cost-effective way to improve overall performance.

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  • 34. 

    In Windows 7, what is the default setting for the UAC? 

    • A.

      Always notify

    • B.

      Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer

    • C.

      Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer (do not dim my desktop).

    • D.

      Never notify

    Correct Answer
    B. Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer
    Explanation
    The default setting for the UAC in Windows 7 is "Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer". This means that the user will be notified whenever a program attempts to make changes to the computer, such as installing software or making system changes. This setting provides a balance between security and user convenience, as it allows the user to have control over their system while still being alerted to potential changes that could affect the computer's stability or security.

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  • 35. 

    What is the maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit Enterprise edition ofWindows 7? 

    • A.

      8GB

    • B.

      16GB

    • C.

      128GB

    • D.

      192GB

    Correct Answer
    D. 192GB
    Explanation
    The maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit Enterprise edition of Windows 7 is 192GB.

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  • 36. 

    What is the first file used in the boot-up of Windows Vista? 

    • A.

      NTOSKRNL.EXE

    • B.

      CONFIG.SYS

    • C.

      AUTOEXEC.BAT

    • D.

      BOOTMGR

    Correct Answer
    D. BOOTMGR
    Explanation
    BOOTMGR is the first file used in the boot-up of Windows Vista. This file is responsible for locating the operating system kernel (NTOSKRNL.EXE) and initializing the boot process. It is located in the root directory of the active partition and is essential for the system to start up properly. CONFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT were used in older versions of Windows but are not directly involved in the boot process of Windows Vista.

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  • 37. 

    Which Windows Vista feature allows you to recover from an accidental deletion or overwrite? 

    • A.

      BitLocker

    • B.

      User Account Control

    • C.

      Security Center

    • D.

      Shadow Copy

    Correct Answer
    D. Shadow Copy
    Explanation
    Shadow Copy is a Windows Vista feature that allows users to recover from accidental deletion or overwrite. It creates point-in-time copies of files and folders, which can be accessed and restored if needed. This feature provides a safety net for users, ensuring that they can retrieve previous versions of files in case of mistakes or data loss. BitLocker is a drive encryption feature, User Account Control is a security feature, and Security Center is a monitoring and reporting feature, none of which directly address accidental deletion or overwrite recovery.

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  • 38. 

    You are migrating one stand-alone machine from Windows XP to Window Vista. Which ofthe following tools should you consider for transferring user state data and application files?A. B. C.D. 

    • A.

      Windows State Mover

    • B.

      UDMT

    • C.

      Windows Easy Transfer

    • D.

      USMT

    Correct Answer
    C. Windows Easy Transfer
    Explanation
    Windows Easy Transfer is the tool that should be considered for transferring user state data and application files when migrating from Windows XP to Windows Vista.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following network locations disables network discovery in Windows Vista? 

    • A.

      Home

    • B.

      Work

    • C.

      Public

    • D.

      Personal

    Correct Answer
    C. Public
    Explanation
    The Public network location in Windows Vista disables network discovery. This means that when a device is connected to a public network, it will not be able to discover other devices on the same network. This is a security measure to prevent unauthorized access and protect sensitive information.

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  • 40. 

    What do you use in Windows XP to create a recovery disk? 

    • A.

      Automated System Recovery (ASR)

    • B.

      RDISK.EXE

    • C.

      Enhanced Startup Disk (ESD)

    • D.

      Emergency Recovery System (ERS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Automated System Recovery (ASR)
    Explanation
    Automated System Recovery (ASR) is used in Windows XP to create a recovery disk. ASR is a feature that allows users to create a backup of the system files and configuration settings. This backup can be used to restore the system in case of a system failure or other critical issues. ASR creates a recovery disk that includes a copy of the Windows XP installation files and the user's data. This recovery disk can be used to perform a complete system restore, ensuring that the system can be recovered to a working state.

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  • 41. 

    During what type of installation must a user be present to choose all options as they appear? 

    • A.

      Attended

    • B.

      Existing

    • C.

      Bootstrap

    • D.

      Denote

    Correct Answer
    A. Attended
    Explanation
    During an attended installation, a user must be present to choose all options as they appear. This type of installation requires user interaction and input throughout the process. The user is responsible for selecting preferences, customizing settings, and making decisions at each stage of the installation. This ensures that the installation is tailored to the user's specific requirements and allows them to have control over the installation process.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is a replacement for RIS? 

    • A.

      STIR

    • B.

      UAC

    • C.

      WDS

    • D.

      SIR

    Correct Answer
    C. WDS
    Explanation
    WDS is a replacement for RIS.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is/are performed by formatting the hard drive? (Choose four.) 

    • A.

      Formatting scans the surface of the hard drive platter to find bad spots and marks the areas surrounding a bad spot as bad sectors.

    • B.

      Formatting lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles

    • C.

      The tracks are split into pieces of 512 bytes called sectors.

    • D.

      Formatting creates a File Allocation Table that contains information about the location of files

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Formatting scans the surface of the hard drive platter to find bad spots and marks the areas surrounding a bad spot as bad sectors.
    B. Formatting lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles
    C. The tracks are split into pieces of 512 bytes called sectors.
    D. Formatting creates a File Allocation Table that contains information about the location of files
    Explanation
    Formatting the hard drive performs several tasks. Firstly, it scans the surface of the hard drive platter to identify any bad spots and marks the surrounding areas as bad sectors. Secondly, it lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles on the platter. Thirdly, it splits these tracks into sectors, which are small units of data storage typically consisting of 512 bytes. Lastly, formatting creates a File Allocation Table (FAT) that keeps track of the location of files on the hard drive.

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  • 44. 

    Windows XP includes a feature called a _________, which is a copy of your system configurationthat can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a configuration error occurs. 

    • A.

      Restore point

    • B.

      Repair point

    • C.

      Roll back point

    • D.

      Registry

    Correct Answer
    A. Restore point
    Explanation
    Windows XP includes a feature called a restore point, which is a copy of your system configuration that can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a configuration error occurs. This feature allows users to revert any changes made to the system settings or installed software, effectively restoring the computer to a previous working state. By creating restore points, users can easily undo any undesirable changes and ensure the stability and functionality of their system.

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  • 45. 

    Setup Manager is used to create answer files for automatically providing computer or userinformation during setup. These files are also known as what? 

    • A.

      UDFs

    • B.

      INIs

    • C.

      DLLs

    • D.

      BTKs

    Correct Answer
    A. UDFs
    Explanation
    Setup Manager is used to create answer files for automatically providing computer or user information during setup. These files are also known as UDFs.

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  • 46. 

    Where would you configure a workstation to boot from the USB drive first and the harddrive only if there is not a bootable USB device attached? 

    • A.

      NTLDR

    • B.

      C:\WINDOWS\TEMP\1st.txt

    • C.

      BOOT.INI

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None of the above" because the options provided (NTLDR, C:\WINDOWS\TEMP\1st.txt, and BOOT.INI) do not represent the correct configuration for setting the boot order on a workstation. To configure the boot order, one would typically access the BIOS or UEFI settings of the workstation. Within these settings, there is usually a "Boot" or "Boot Order" section where the user can specify the priority of boot devices. By selecting the USB drive as the first boot device and the hard drive as the second, the workstation will attempt to boot from the USB drive first and only move to the hard drive if there is no bootable USB device attached.

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  • 47. 

    Which technology uses a physical characteristic to establish identity? 

    • A.

      Surveillance

    • B.

      Smart card

    • C.

      CHAP authenticator

    • D.

      Biometrics

    Correct Answer
    D. Biometrics
    Explanation
    Biometrics is the correct answer because it is a technology that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, facial features, or iris patterns, to establish and verify a person's identity. This technology is commonly used in security systems, access control, and identification processes as it provides a more reliable and secure method of authentication compared to traditional methods like passwords or smart cards.

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  • 48. 

    As part of your training program, you’re trying to educate users on the importance of security.You explain to them that not every attack depends on implementing advanced technologicalmethods. Some attacks, you explain, take advantage of human shortcomings to gain accessthat should otherwise be denied. What term do you use to describe attacks of this type? 

    • A.

      Social engineering

    • B.

      IDS system

    • C.

      Perimeter security

    • D.

      Biometrics

    Correct Answer
    A. Social engineering
    Explanation
    Social engineering is the term used to describe attacks that exploit human weaknesses rather than relying on advanced technological methods. These attacks manipulate people into performing actions or revealing sensitive information that they shouldn't. By raising awareness about social engineering, users can understand the importance of being cautious and vigilant to prevent such attacks.

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  • 49. 

    Which type of attack denies authorized users access to network resources? 

    • A.

      DoS

    • B.

      Worm

    • C.

      Logic bomb

    • D.

      Social engineering

    Correct Answer
    A. DoS
    Explanation
    A Denial of Service (DoS) attack is a type of cyber attack that aims to disrupt or deny authorized users access to network resources. This is typically achieved by overwhelming the target system with a flood of illegitimate requests or by exploiting vulnerabilities to crash the system. The attacker's goal is to exhaust the system's resources, making it unable to respond to legitimate user requests. This type of attack can cause significant downtime, loss of productivity, and financial loss for organizations.

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  • 50. 

    As the security administrator for your organization, you must be aware of all types of attacksthat can occur and plan for them. Which type of attack uses more than one computer toattack the victim? 

    • A.

      DoS

    • B.

      DDoS

    • C.

      Worm

    • D.

      UDP attack

    Correct Answer
    B. DDoS
    Explanation
    A DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack is a type of attack that uses multiple computers to overwhelm a target system or network with a flood of incoming traffic, causing it to become unavailable to its intended users. The attackers typically use a botnet, which is a network of compromised computers, to launch the attack. Each computer in the botnet sends a large number of requests or data packets to the target simultaneously, overwhelming its resources and making it unable to respond to legitimate requests. This type of attack is often used to disrupt websites, online services, or networks.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 02, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Maganoor
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