CompTIA A+ Quiz: Practice Exam Trivia!

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1. Which of the following can you do to help eliminate security problems? (Choose four.) 

Explanation

To help eliminate security problems, you can establish security policies and procedures to ensure that everyone in the organization follows best practices. Additionally, updating your operating systems, applications, and network devices regularly is important as it helps to patch any vulnerabilities and keep them secure. By doing these four actions, you can significantly reduce the risk of security problems occurring.

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CompTIA A+ Quiz: Practice Exam Trivia! - Quiz

How much do you know about CompTIA A+? CompTIA A+ is a beneficial credential that helps IT people worldwide to help start their IT careers. For this quiz on CompTIA, you will want to know about BitLocker and encryption keys and what to do when your computer laptop’s LCD is... see morebeing scratched, among other things. It is wise to prepare for the exam. This CompTIA quiz will give you an A+ for trying. see less

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2. A program is no longer responding. Where would a technician go to end the program?

Explanation

When a program becomes unresponsive, a technician would typically go to the Task Manager to end the program. The Task Manager is a system utility that provides information about running processes and allows users to monitor and control them. It allows the technician to view all the running programs, their process IDs, and other details. By locating the unresponsive program in the Task Manager, the technician can select it and choose to end the process, effectively terminating the program and resolving the issue.

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3. Which of the following are used to prevent pop-unders from appearing? 

Explanation

Pop-up blockers are used to prevent pop-unders from appearing. Pop-up blockers are software programs or browser extensions that block or suppress pop-up windows from appearing on websites. Pop-unders are a type of pop-up window that opens behind the main browser window, making them less noticeable to the user. By using pop-up blockers, users can prevent these pop-unders from appearing, providing a better browsing experience and reducing the risk of unwanted or malicious content being displayed.

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4. Which of the following tools can you use to delete temporary Internet files and other unneededfiles to free up disk space? 

Explanation

Disk Cleanup is the correct answer because it is a tool that allows users to delete temporary Internet files and other unnecessary files from their computer in order to free up disk space. This tool scans the computer for files that can be safely removed, such as temporary files, system files, and recycle bin files. By deleting these unnecessary files, users can optimize their computer's performance and free up valuable storage space.

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5. You have determined that the USB controller is malfunctioning. What should you do first to... 

Explanation

To address a malfunctioning USB controller, the first step should be to use the Windows Device Manager. This tool allows you to view and manage hardware devices connected to your computer, including USB controllers. By accessing the Device Manager, you can check for any issues or conflicts with the USB controller, update drivers, disable and re-enable the controller, or uninstall and reinstall it if necessary. Therefore, using the Windows Device Manager is the appropriate course of action in this situation.

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6. Bob's iPhone 4S cannot detect when he turns his device to the left and right like it's asteering wheel. Games and other apps that require this motion will not work correctly asa result. Which component has failed in Bob's phone? 

Explanation

The gyroscope is the component that has failed in Bob's phone. The gyroscope is responsible for detecting rotational motion, such as when the device is turned to the left or right like a steering wheel. Since Bob's iPhone 4S cannot detect this motion, it suggests that the gyroscope is not functioning correctly.

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7. While inspecting a motherboard, you notice a discolored area. What is usually a cause of this?  

Explanation

A power surge is usually the cause of a discolored area on a motherboard. A power surge refers to a sudden increase in electrical voltage that exceeds the normal flow of electricity. This surge can cause damage to electronic components, including the motherboard, leading to discoloration.

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8. The display on your laptop appears warped and fuzzy. You plug in an external monitor, and the image on it is fine. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

Explanation

The most likely cause of the warped and fuzzy display on the laptop is the LCD display itself. This is indicated by the fact that when an external monitor is plugged in, the image on it is fine, suggesting that the issue lies with the laptop's own display. The video card, motherboard, and video driver are less likely to be the cause of the problem as they would affect the image on both the laptop's display and the external monitor.

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9. Which utility works like ping but returns the different IP addresses the packet was routedthrough to reach the final destination? 

Explanation

Tracert is a utility that works similarly to ping but provides additional information about the route the packet takes to reach the final destination. It returns a list of IP addresses that the packet was routed through, allowing users to identify any network issues or delays along the path. This information can be useful for troubleshooting network connectivity problems.

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10. One of the vice presidents of the company calls a meeting with the information technologydepartment after a recent trip to competitors' sites. She reports that many of the companiesshe visited granted access to their buildings only after fingerprint scans, and she wants similartechnology employed at this company. Of the following, which technology relies on aphysical attribute of the user for authentication? 

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it relies on a physical attribute of the user for authentication. It involves the use of unique biological characteristics such as fingerprints, facial recognition, or iris scans to verify the identity of an individual. In this case, the vice president wants to implement a similar technology to the competitors' sites, where access to buildings is granted only after fingerprint scans.

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11. After replacing a motherboard in a PC, the system overheats and fails to boot. What is the...  

Explanation

The lack of thermal paste between the heat sink and the CPU can cause overheating in a PC. Thermal paste is a conductive material that helps to transfer heat away from the CPU and onto the heat sink. Without it, there is not enough contact between the two surfaces, leading to poor heat dissipation and potential overheating.

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12. Which of the following is not a type of Android passcode lock that can be set? 

Explanation

A spoken passphrase is not a type of Android passcode lock that can be set. Android passcode locks typically include options such as a drawn pattern, numeric PIN, or password. However, a spoken passphrase is not a common or available option for setting a passcode lock on an Android device.

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13. During what type of installation must a user be present to choose all options as they appear? 

Explanation

During an attended installation, a user must be present to choose all options as they appear. This type of installation requires user interaction and input throughout the process. The user is responsible for selecting preferences, customizing settings, and making decisions at each stage of the installation. This ensures that the installation is tailored to the user's specific requirements and allows them to have control over the installation process.

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14. Which technology uses a physical characteristic to establish identity? 

Explanation

Biometrics is the correct answer because it is a technology that uses physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, facial features, or iris patterns, to establish and verify a person's identity. This technology is commonly used in security systems, access control, and identification processes as it provides a more reliable and secure method of authentication compared to traditional methods like passwords or smart cards.

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15. Which of the following do modern mobile devices most likely have? 

Explanation

Modern mobile devices most likely have SSD (Solid State Drive). SSDs are a type of storage device that use flash memory to store data, providing faster access times and improved performance compared to traditional hard disk drives. Mobile devices, such as smartphones and tablets, require fast and efficient storage to handle the demands of running multiple applications and storing large amounts of data. SSDs are compact, lightweight, and have no moving parts, making them ideal for mobile devices where space and durability are important factors.

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16. Which of the following programs could be considered anti-malware? 

Explanation

Windows Defender could be considered anti-malware because it is a built-in security program provided by Microsoft for Windows operating systems. It is designed to detect, remove, and prevent malware infections, including viruses, spyware, and other malicious software. Windows Defender regularly scans the system for potential threats, provides real-time protection, and offers various security features to safeguard the computer and its data. Therefore, it is an effective solution for protecting against malware attacks.

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17. You have an inkjet printer. Recently, papers are being printed with excessive amounts of ink,and the ink is smearing. What is the most likely cause of the problem? 

Explanation

A faulty ink cartridge is the most likely cause of the problem because it is responsible for delivering the ink onto the paper. If the cartridge is faulty, it may release excessive amounts of ink, leading to smearing.

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18. Which of the following is the name of the graphical interface included with Windows Vista?  

Explanation

Aero is the correct answer because it is the name of the graphical interface included with Windows Vista. Aero introduced a new visual style with transparent windows, live thumbnails, and animations, giving Windows Vista a more modern and visually appealing look compared to previous versions.

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19. Which command should you use to fid out the intergrity of a hard drive? 

Explanation

CHKDSK is the correct command to use in order to check the integrity of a hard drive. CHKDSK stands for "check disk" and it is a command-line utility in Windows that scans the file system and file system metadata of a hard drive for errors and fixes them if possible. It can also check for bad sectors and recover readable information from them. Using CHKDSK helps to ensure that the hard drive is functioning properly and any potential issues are identified and resolved.

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20. You work at a PC bench and receive a laptop that has a dim display. You confirm that it is... 

Explanation

The correct answer is LCD Inverter. The LCD Inverter is responsible for providing power to the backlight of the laptop's LCD panel. If the display is dim, it indicates that the inverter is not functioning properly and needs to be replaced.

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21. You are migrating one stand-alone machine from Windows XP to Window Vista. Which ofthe following tools should you consider for transferring user state data and application files?A. B. C.D. 

Explanation

Windows Easy Transfer is the tool that should be considered for transferring user state data and application files when migrating from Windows XP to Windows Vista.

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22. Windows XP includes a feature called a _________, which is a copy of your system configurationthat can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a configuration error occurs. 

Explanation

Windows XP includes a feature called a restore point, which is a copy of your system configuration that can be used to roll back the system to a previous state if a configuration error occurs. This feature allows users to revert any changes made to the system settings or installed software, effectively restoring the computer to a previous working state. By creating restore points, users can easily undo any undesirable changes and ensure the stability and functionality of their system.

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23. What is the default TCP port number for SMTP? 

Explanation

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is a communication protocol used for sending and receiving email messages. The default TCP port number for SMTP is 25. This means that when a mail client or server wants to send an email, it will connect to the destination mail server on port 25 to establish a connection and transfer the email. By default, SMTP servers listen for incoming connections on port 25, making it the standard port for SMTP communication.

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24. Which of the following are you most likely to be able to do to a larger mobile device, suchas Apple's iPad? 

Explanation

You are most likely to be able to print over WiFi or Bluetooth to a larger mobile device such as Apple's iPad. This is because larger mobile devices like the iPad often have more advanced connectivity options and are designed to be compatible with printers and other devices over wireless connections. The ability to print wirelessly is a common feature in larger mobile devices, allowing users to easily print documents, photos, and other files without the need for physical connections.

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25. One of your users claims that their hard drive seems to be running slowly. What tool canyou use to check to see how fragmented the hard drive is? 

Explanation

Disk Defragmenter is the correct tool to check the fragmentation level of a hard drive. Fragmentation occurs when files on a hard drive are split into multiple pieces scattered across different locations, which can slow down the system. Disk Defragmenter analyzes the hard drive and reorganizes the fragmented files, placing them in contiguous locations to improve performance. Disk Analyzer is used to analyze disk space usage, Disk Cleanup is used to remove unnecessary files, and Chkdsk is used to check for errors on the hard drive.

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26. To open System Restore, click Start a All Programs a Accessories, and then:  

Explanation

To open System Restore, you need to click on "System Tools" in the list of options provided after clicking on "Start" and then navigating to "All Programs" and "Accessories".

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27. Every computer has a diagnostic program built into its BIOS called the __________.  

Explanation

The correct answer is POST. POST stands for Power-On Self-Test, which is a diagnostic program built into the BIOS of every computer. It is responsible for checking the hardware components of the computer during the boot process to ensure that they are functioning properly.

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28. Which of the following partitions is specifically the partition from which the operatingsystem boots? 

Explanation

The primary partition is specifically the partition from which the operating system boots. This is because the primary partition is the main partition on a hard drive that contains the necessary files and data for the operating system to start and run. Other partitions such as extended, active, and logical partitions serve different purposes and do not directly contain the boot files for the operating system.

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29. Which utility is shown in the following screen shot?  

Explanation

The correct answer is Windows Anytime Upgrade. This utility allows users to easily upgrade their current version of Windows to a higher edition, such as upgrading from Windows 7 Home Premium to Windows 7 Professional. It provides a convenient way to unlock additional features and capabilities without the need for a full installation or reinstallation of the operating system.

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30. Which of the following is/are performed by formatting the hard drive? (Choose four.) 

Explanation

Formatting the hard drive performs several tasks. Firstly, it scans the surface of the hard drive platter to identify any bad spots and marks the surrounding areas as bad sectors. Secondly, it lays down magnetic tracks in concentric circles on the platter. Thirdly, it splits these tracks into sectors, which are small units of data storage typically consisting of 512 bytes. Lastly, formatting creates a File Allocation Table (FAT) that keeps track of the location of files on the hard drive.

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31. A junior administrator comes to you in a panic. After looking at the log files, he hasbecome convinced that an attacker is attempting to use a duplicate IP address to replaceanother system in the network to gain access. Which type of attack is this? 

Explanation

TCP/IP hijacking refers to the act of intercepting and altering TCP/IP packets in a network communication. In this scenario, the junior administrator believes that an attacker is trying to use a duplicate IP address to replace another system in the network, which can lead to the attacker gaining unauthorized access to the network. This aligns with the concept of TCP/IP hijacking, where an attacker manipulates network packets to gain control or access to a system.

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32. You just clicked Start a Run on a Windows XP workstation. Which of the following can Do you type to open a command prompt?   

Explanation

To open a command prompt on a Windows XP workstation, you can type either "CMD" or "COMMAND" in the "Run" dialog box. Both of these commands will launch the command prompt interface, allowing you to execute various commands and perform tasks using the command line.

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33. Which of the following file attributes are available to files on a FAT32 partition? 

Explanation

The file attributes available to files on a FAT32 partition are Hidden, Read Only, Archive, and System. These attributes allow files to be hidden from view, marked as read-only to prevent modification, flagged as archived for backup purposes, and designated as system files that are essential for the operating system.

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34. 19. Which of the following switches can be used with ROBOCOPY to mirror a completedirectory tree? 

Explanation

The /MIR switch can be used with ROBOCOPY to mirror a complete directory tree. This switch ensures that the destination directory exactly matches the source directory by copying all files and directories, including deleting any files in the destination that no longer exist in the source. It also copies file attributes and timestamps.

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35. Which of the following are text-messaging services used with mobile devices? (Choose two.) 

Explanation

SMS and iMessage are both text-messaging services used with mobile devices. SMS stands for Short Message Service and is a standard feature on most mobile devices that allows users to send and receive short text messages. iMessage, on the other hand, is a messaging service developed by Apple for their iOS devices. It allows users to send text messages, photos, videos, and other media to other iOS users over Wi-Fi or cellular data. Both SMS and iMessage are widely used and popular options for text messaging on mobile devices.

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36. Which one do you like?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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37. Which of the following network locations disables network discovery in Windows Vista? 

Explanation

The Public network location in Windows Vista disables network discovery. This means that when a device is connected to a public network, it will not be able to discover other devices on the same network. This is a security measure to prevent unauthorized access and protect sensitive information.

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38. A smurf attack attempts to use a broadcast ping on a network; the return address of theping may be that of a valid system in your network. Which protocol does a smurf attack useto conduct the attack? 

Explanation

A smurf attack uses the ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) to conduct the attack. In a smurf attack, the attacker sends a large number of ICMP echo request packets (ping) to a network's broadcast address. The packets are spoofed to appear as if they were sent from the victim's IP address. When the packets reach the network, all the devices reply to the victim's IP address, overwhelming it with responses and causing a denial of service.

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39. What is the minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for the installation of Windows Vista Home Basic?  

Explanation

The minimum amount of free hard drive space recommended for the installation of Windows Vista Home Basic is 15GB. This is the amount of space required to install the operating system and any necessary updates or patches. Having at least 15GB of free space ensures that the system has enough room to operate efficiently and allows for the installation of additional software and files.

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40. You're working late one night, and you notice that the hard disk on your new computer isvery active even though you aren't doing anything on the computer and it isn't connected tothe Internet. What is the most likely suspect? 

Explanation

The most likely suspect for the hard disk activity is that a virus is spreading in the system. Viruses often run in the background without the user's knowledge, causing increased disk activity. Since the computer is not connected to the internet and the user is not actively using it, other options like a DoS attack or TCP/IP hijacking are less likely. The mention of a disk failure being imminent is not supported by the given information.

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41. Which editions of Windows 7 can create a HomeGroup? (Choose four.) 

Explanation

Windows 7 Home Premium, Windows 7 Professional, Windows 7 Enterprise, and Windows 7 Ultimate can create a HomeGroup.

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42. In Windows 7, which utility is responsible for finding, downloading, and installing Windowsservice packs? 

Explanation

Windows Update is the correct answer because it is the utility in Windows 7 that is responsible for finding, downloading, and installing Windows service packs. This utility regularly checks for updates and allows users to download and install them to keep their system up to date with the latest security patches, bug fixes, and feature enhancements provided by Microsoft.

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43. You are setting up a SOHO wireless network. Which of the following provides the best security?

Explanation

Enabling the SSID and configuring WPA2 provides the best security for a SOHO wireless network. By enabling the SSID, the network name is broadcasted, making it easier for authorized devices to connect. Configuring WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) ensures that the network is encrypted, protecting it from unauthorized access and potential security breaches. The option to set the channel to 6 is not mentioned in the explanation but may be considered as an additional step to avoid interference from neighboring networks.

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44. As the security administrator for your organization, you must be aware of all types of attacksthat can occur and plan for them. Which type of attack uses more than one computer toattack the victim? 

Explanation

A DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack is a type of attack that uses multiple computers to overwhelm a target system or network with a flood of incoming traffic, causing it to become unavailable to its intended users. The attackers typically use a botnet, which is a network of compromised computers, to launch the attack. Each computer in the botnet sends a large number of requests or data packets to the target simultaneously, overwhelming its resources and making it unable to respond to legitimate requests. This type of attack is often used to disrupt websites, online services, or networks.

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45. Which of the following allows you to register and unregister modules and controls fortroubleshooting purposes? 

Explanation

RegSvr32 allows you to register and unregister modules and controls for troubleshooting purposes. This command-line tool is used to register and unregister DLL files in Windows operating systems. By using RegSvr32, you can troubleshoot issues related to missing or corrupted DLL files by re-registering them. This can help resolve various problems, such as error messages, application crashes, or issues with ActiveX controls.

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46. Your system log files report an ongoing attempt to gain access to a single account. Thisattempt has been unsuccessful to this point. What type of attack are you most likely experiencing? 

Explanation

Based on the information provided, the ongoing attempt to gain access to a single account suggests that someone is repeatedly trying different passwords to gain unauthorized access. This aligns with a password-guessing attack, where an attacker systematically tries different passwords in order to find the correct one and gain access to the account.

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47. How would you secure a smartphone and its data?  

Explanation

Securing a smartphone and its data involves implementing measures to protect it from unauthorized access and potential data breaches. One effective method is to set up a passcode lock, which requires a unique code to be entered before accessing the device. This adds an extra layer of security and prevents unauthorized individuals from gaining access to the smartphone and its data. Additionally, remote wipe is another important security feature that allows the user to erase all data on the smartphone remotely in case it is lost or stolen, ensuring that sensitive information does not fall into the wrong hands.

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48. Which of the following printer failures is described as a condition in which the internal feed

Explanation

A paper jam is a printer failure where the paper gets stuck inside the printer, causing it to stop functioning properly. This can happen when the paper is not properly aligned or if there are multiple sheets of paper being fed at once. It can also occur if there are any foreign objects obstructing the paper path. In such cases, the printer needs to be cleared of the jammed paper before it can resume normal printing operations.

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49. As an administrator, you need to get an inventory of computers on your network and plan arollout of Windows 7. Which tool can be used for this purpose? 

Explanation

The Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit is the appropriate tool for getting an inventory of computers on a network and planning a rollout of Windows 7. This tool provides detailed reports and analysis of hardware and software inventory, compatibility assessment, and readiness for migration to Windows 7. It helps administrators make informed decisions and streamline the deployment process. UDMT, USMT, and MigWiz are not specifically designed for this purpose.

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50. Your company provides medical data to doctors from a worldwide database. Because of thesensitive nature of the data you work with, it's imperative that authentication be establishedon each session and be valid only for that session. Which of the following authenticationmethods provides credentials that are valid only during a single session? 

Explanation

Tokens provide credentials that are valid only during a single session. Tokens are temporary and are generated for each session. They are used to authenticate the user and provide access to the system or database for that specific session. Once the session is over, the token expires and cannot be used again, ensuring that the authentication is valid only for that session and cannot be reused by an unauthorized user.

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51. Which mail protocol commonly uses TCP port 587? 

Explanation

SMTP with TLS commonly uses TCP port 587. TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a computer network. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is the standard protocol used for sending email messages between servers. By using TLS, SMTP ensures that the email communication is encrypted and protected from unauthorized access or tampering. TCP port 587 is specifically designated for email submission, allowing clients to submit outgoing mail to a mail server.

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52. Which of the following is a replacement for RIS? 

Explanation

WDS is a replacement for RIS.

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53. Which media is susceptible to viruses? 

Explanation

All of the above media are susceptible to viruses. Viruses can infect and spread through various storage devices, including tape, memory sticks, and CD-Rs. These viruses can corrupt files, steal data, or even render the entire device unusable. It is important to have proper antivirus software and regularly scan these media to prevent any potential virus infections.

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54. Which of the following utilities enables a Windows 7 user to edit a file offline, and then...  

Explanation

Sync Center is the correct answer because it is a utility in Windows 7 that allows users to sync files between their computer and other devices or network locations. It enables users to edit files offline and then sync the changes when they are back online. This allows for seamless file management and collaboration across different devices and locations.

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55. Which of the following features is not supported when you are unable to zoom in on a pictureor screen of information by placing two fingers together on the screen and spreading them? 

Explanation

Multi-touch is not supported when you are unable to zoom in on a picture or screen of information by placing two fingers together on the screen and spreading them. This feature allows users to perform multiple touch gestures simultaneously, such as pinch-to-zoom, rotate, and swipe. If multi-touch is not supported, the device will not recognize or respond to these gestures, limiting the user's ability to interact with the screen in a more intuitive and efficient manner.

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56. As part of your training program, you're trying to educate users on the importance of security.You explain to them that not every attack depends on implementing advanced technologicalmethods. Some attacks, you explain, take advantage of human shortcomings to gain accessthat should otherwise be denied. What term do you use to describe attacks of this type? 

Explanation

Social engineering is the term used to describe attacks that exploit human weaknesses rather than relying on advanced technological methods. These attacks manipulate people into performing actions or revealing sensitive information that they shouldn't. By raising awareness about social engineering, users can understand the importance of being cautious and vigilant to prevent such attacks.

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57. Which of the following are universally common items that are synced between a mobiledevice and a larger computer? (Choose three.)  

Explanation

Contacts, email, and apps are universally common items that are synced between a mobile device and a larger computer. Contacts are often synced to ensure that the same contact information is available on both devices. Email is synced to have access to the same emails and email settings on both devices. Apps can be synced to ensure that the same apps and their data are available on both devices.

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58. Internal users are seeing repeated attempts to infect their systems as reported to them bypop-up messages from their virus scanning software. According to the pop-up messages,the virus seems to be the same in every case. What is the most likely culprit? 

Explanation

The most likely culprit is that a server is acting as a carrier for a virus. This is indicated by the fact that internal users are seeing repeated attempts to infect their systems, as reported by pop-up messages from their virus scanning software. The fact that the virus seems to be the same in every case suggests that it is being transmitted from a central source, which could be a server.

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59. What is the minimum recommended memory for a 64-bit installation of Windows 7? 

Explanation

The minimum recommended memory for a 64-bit installation of Windows 7 is 2GB. This is because 64-bit operating systems require more memory to run efficiently compared to 32-bit systems. With 2GB of memory, the operating system will have enough resources to handle the demands of running multiple applications and processes simultaneously. Having less than 2GB of memory may result in slower performance and potential system crashes.

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60. You have been told to use the /FIXBOOT switch to write a new boot sector on a Windows 7machine. Which command does this switch work with? 

Explanation

The /FIXBOOT switch is used with the BOOTREC command to write a new boot sector on a Windows 7 machine. The BOOTREC command is a Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) tool that can fix various boot-related issues, including repairing the Master Boot Record (MBR) and the boot sector. By using the /FIXBOOT switch with the BOOTREC command, you can specifically instruct it to write a new boot sector, which can help resolve boot problems and ensure the system starts up properly.

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61. Which tool is shown in the following screen shot?  

Explanation

The correct answer is DXDIAG. DXDIAG is a diagnostic tool used to gather information about the DirectX components and drivers installed on a computer. It provides detailed information about the system's hardware and software configuration, including the version of DirectX installed, display and sound device information, and system information. The screenshot likely shows the user interface of DXDIAG, which typically displays tabs for different categories of information.

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62. You are upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. What is the best tool to use... 

Explanation

Easy Transfer is the best tool to use when upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. This tool allows users to transfer files, settings, and user accounts from one computer to another. It simplifies the process of migrating data and ensures a smooth transition to the new operating system.

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63. Which of the following answers can be the cause of a blue screen error? 

Explanation

A bad device driver can be the cause of a blue screen error. Device drivers are software programs that allow the operating system to communicate with hardware devices. If a device driver is outdated, incompatible, or corrupted, it can lead to system instability and result in a blue screen error. This error occurs when the operating system encounters a critical error that it cannot recover from, causing the system to crash and display a blue screen with an error message. Therefore, a bad device driver can be a potential cause of a blue screen error.

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64. What is the first file used in the boot-up of Windows Vista? 

Explanation

BOOTMGR is the first file used in the boot-up of Windows Vista. This file is responsible for locating the operating system kernel (NTOSKRNL.EXE) and initializing the boot process. It is located in the root directory of the active partition and is essential for the system to start up properly. CONFIG.SYS and AUTOEXEC.BAT were used in older versions of Windows but are not directly involved in the boot process of Windows Vista.

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65. Which Windows Vista feature allows you to recover from an accidental deletion or overwrite? 

Explanation

Shadow Copy is a Windows Vista feature that allows users to recover from accidental deletion or overwrite. It creates point-in-time copies of files and folders, which can be accessed and restored if needed. This feature provides a safety net for users, ensuring that they can retrieve previous versions of files in case of mistakes or data loss. BitLocker is a drive encryption feature, User Account Control is a security feature, and Security Center is a monitoring and reporting feature, none of which directly address accidental deletion or overwrite recovery.

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66. Which of the following is not a valid reason to disable cellular data networking? 

Explanation

Disabling cellular data networking would not affect phone calls going out over the carrier's cellular network. Disabling cellular data only restricts the data usage for internet-related activities such as browsing, streaming, or downloading. Phone calls use a separate network called the voice network, which is not affected by disabling cellular data. Therefore, this is not a valid reason to disable cellular data networking.

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67. Setup Manager is used to create answer files for automatically providing computer or userinformation during setup. These files are also known as what? 

Explanation

Setup Manager is used to create answer files for automatically providing computer or user information during setup. These files are also known as UDFs.

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68. What do you use in Windows XP to create a recovery disk? 

Explanation

Automated System Recovery (ASR) is used in Windows XP to create a recovery disk. ASR is a feature that allows users to create a backup of the system files and configuration settings. This backup can be used to restore the system in case of a system failure or other critical issues. ASR creates a recovery disk that includes a copy of the Windows XP installation files and the user's data. This recovery disk can be used to perform a complete system restore, ensuring that the system can be recovered to a working state.

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69. Which type of attack denies authorized users access to network resources? 

Explanation

A Denial of Service (DoS) attack is a type of cyber attack that aims to disrupt or deny authorized users access to network resources. This is typically achieved by overwhelming the target system with a flood of illegitimate requests or by exploiting vulnerabilities to crash the system. The attacker's goal is to exhaust the system's resources, making it unable to respond to legitimate user requests. This type of attack can cause significant downtime, loss of productivity, and financial loss for organizations.

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70. A server in your network has a program running on it that bypasses authentication.Which type of attack has occurred? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Back door." In this scenario, a back door attack has occurred. A back door refers to a hidden method or vulnerability in a system that allows unauthorized access or bypasses authentication. In this case, the program running on the server has enabled unauthorized access without requiring authentication, indicating the presence of a back door.

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71. The Windows Explorer program can be used to do which of the following? (Choose two.)  

Explanation

The Windows Explorer program allows users to copy and move files, as well as change file attributes. It provides a graphical interface for navigating and managing files and folders on a computer. Users can easily select files or folders and use the copy and move functions to transfer them to different locations. Additionally, Windows Explorer allows users to change file attributes such as read-only, hidden, or archive status, providing more control over file management.

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72. Your computer's laptop's LCD is being scratched by the keyboard when the lid is closed.... 

Explanation

Cleaning the LCD screen with a wet cloth can help remove any dust, dirt, or smudges that may be causing the scratches. Using a wet cloth ensures that the screen is properly cleaned without causing any further damage. A thick cloth may not be as effective in removing the scratches, and replacing the rubber bumpers would not address the issue of the screen being scratched by the keyboard.

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73. If you do not have your iPhone 4S set to erase data after too many failed login attempts butyour phone still locks you out after making the maximum allowable attempts, how can youunlock the phone? 

Explanation

If you have exceeded the maximum allowable login attempts on your iPhone 4S and it is locked, you can unlock it by plugging it into the last computer that it synced with in iTunes. When you connect your iPhone to the computer, iTunes will recognize it and allow you to unlock the device by following the necessary steps. This method does not require erasing data or visiting an Apple Store.

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74. Which of the following can Apple's Find My iPhone application not do? 

Explanation

Apple's Find My iPhone application can remotely lock the device, remotely wipe the device, and locate the device. However, it does not have the capability to alert the authorities. This means that while the application can help users protect their personal information and locate their device, it does not have a direct connection to law enforcement or emergency services.

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75. Your help desk has informed you that they received an urgent call from the vice presidentlast night requesting his logon ID and password. When talking with the VP today, he sayshe never made that call. What type of attack is this? 

Explanation

This is a social engineering attack because it involves manipulating and deceiving the help desk into revealing sensitive information (logon ID and password) by impersonating the vice president. The attacker used psychological manipulation to trick the help desk into believing the request was urgent and legitimate, even though the VP denies making the call.

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76. Which of the following tools automatically verifies system files after a reboot to see if theywere changed to unprotected copies? 

Explanation

SFC stands for System File Checker, which is a tool in Windows that automatically verifies system files after a reboot to see if they were changed to unprotected copies. It scans for any corrupted or modified system files and replaces them with the correct versions from the Windows installation source. This helps to maintain the integrity and security of the system files.

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77. Which of the following is not a requirement for installing iTunes on a Windows machine? 

Explanation

The correct answer is 512MB of RAM or higher. This is not a requirement for installing iTunes on a Windows machine. The other options, such as a 1GHz processor or better, 200MB of available disk space, and the x64 versions of Windows, are all necessary requirements for installing iTunes.

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78. You want to ensure that your Windows XP computer receives automatic updates toWindows and Microsoft Office. Which tool will take care of this for you? 

Explanation

Microsoft Update is the tool that will take care of automatic updates for both Windows and Microsoft Office on a Windows XP computer. Windows Update only handles updates for the Windows operating system, while System Update is not a tool specifically designed for Windows XP and Microsoft Office updates. Therefore, Microsoft Update is the correct answer as it covers both Windows and Microsoft Office updates.

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79. Which of the following is used by BitLocker to provide an encryption key and to protect data?  

Explanation

TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware component used by BitLocker to provide an encryption key and protect data. It securely stores encryption keys and verifies the integrity of the system during the boot process, ensuring that the system has not been tampered with. This helps to protect the confidentiality and integrity of data on the system. TKIP and TIP are not related to BitLocker, and "None of the above" is incorrect as TPM is the correct answer.

Submit
80. In Windows 7, what is the default setting for the UAC? 

Explanation

The default setting for the UAC in Windows 7 is "Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer". This means that the user will be notified whenever a program attempts to make changes to the computer, such as installing software or making system changes. This setting provides a balance between security and user convenience, as it allows the user to have control over their system while still being alerted to potential changes that could affect the computer's stability or security.

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81. What is the maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit Enterprise edition ofWindows 7? 

Explanation

The maximum amount of RAM supported in the 64-bit Enterprise edition of Windows 7 is 192GB.

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82. You need to automatically check for performance issues in Windows 7. Which tool is the best...

Explanation

The Troubleshooting item in the Control Panel is the best tool to automatically check for performance issues in Windows 7. This tool allows users to diagnose and resolve common problems that may be affecting the performance of the operating system. It provides a range of troubleshooting options and guides users through the process of identifying and fixing issues that could be causing performance problems. By using this tool, users can efficiently troubleshoot and improve the overall performance of their Windows 7 system.

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83. You're the administrator for a large bottling company. At the end of each month, youroutinely view all logs and look for discrepancies. This month, your email system errorlog reports a large number of unsuccessful attempts to log on. It's apparent that the emailserver is being targeted. Which type of attack is most likely occurring? 

Explanation

The correct answer is a software exploitation attack. This is because the email system error log is reporting a large number of unsuccessful attempts to log on, indicating that someone is trying to exploit vulnerabilities in the software to gain unauthorized access. This type of attack involves exploiting weaknesses or bugs in software to gain control or access to a system or network.

Submit
84. Where would you configure a workstation to boot from the USB drive first and the harddrive only if there is not a bootable USB device attached? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "None of the above" because the options provided (NTLDR, C:\WINDOWS\TEMP\1st.txt, and BOOT.INI) do not represent the correct configuration for setting the boot order on a workstation. To configure the boot order, one would typically access the BIOS or UEFI settings of the workstation. Within these settings, there is usually a "Boot" or "Boot Order" section where the user can specify the priority of boot devices. By selecting the USB drive as the first boot device and the hard drive as the second, the workstation will attempt to boot from the USB drive first and only move to the hard drive if there is no bootable USB device attached.

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85. 14. You believe that your system files are corrupted in Windows XP. You run System FileChecker. What do you do to make System File Checker automatically repair your systemfiles if repair is needed? 

Explanation

Running the command "SFC /SCANNOW" will initiate the System File Checker tool in Windows XP. This command will scan all protected system files and check for any corruption or errors. If any issues are found, the tool will automatically attempt to repair the corrupted files. Therefore, running "SFC /SCANNOW" will ensure that the System File Checker automatically repairs the system files if repair is needed.

Submit
86. Which feature allows you to use free space on an SD card to speed up a system? 

Explanation

ReadyBoost is a feature that allows users to utilize the free space on an SD card or USB flash drive to enhance the performance of a system. By using the extra storage as a cache, ReadyBoost can speed up the system's operations by reducing the reliance on the slower hard drive for frequently accessed data. This feature is particularly useful for systems with limited RAM, as it provides a cost-effective way to improve overall performance.

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87. Your customer has a computer (called comp_science that has been infected by a worm. The worm has...

Explanation

Disconnecting the network cable from the infected computer is the correct answer because it effectively isolates the computer from the network, preventing further spread of the worm. By disconnecting the network cable, the computer is no longer able to communicate with other devices on the network, reducing the risk of infecting other computers or devices. This action buys time to address the worm infection without further compromising the network or other systems.

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88. Which BOOTREC option can be used in Windows 7 to rebuild the boot configuration file? 

Explanation

The correct answer is /REBUILDBCD. This option can be used in Windows 7 to rebuild the boot configuration file. This command scans for missing or corrupted system files and replaces them with new ones, ensuring that the boot configuration is restored and the system can boot properly.

Submit
89. Virtual memory is configured through which system tool? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "System control applet" because the system control applet is a system tool that allows users to configure various settings on their computer, including virtual memory. It provides access to the virtual memory settings, allowing users to adjust the size of the virtual memory, allocate it to different drives, or disable it if needed. This tool is typically found in the Control Panel or Settings menu of the operating system.

Submit
90. Which of the following statements about configuring email access on a mobile device is true? 

Explanation

The correct answer is that the TCP ports used for configuring access are usually standard port numbers. This means that when setting up email access on a mobile device, the TCP ports that are used for communication are typically well-known port numbers that are commonly used for email protocols such as SMTP (port 25), POP3 (port 110), and IMAP (port 143). These standard port numbers allow the mobile device to establish a connection with the email server and retrieve or send email messages.

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