CompTIA A+ Practice Test Set 1 Of 7
Comptia A+ practice test
Questions and Answers
- 1.
A user states that their laptop is suddenly not receiving any wireless signals, yet other users are. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
- A.
The wireless communication switch has been turned off.
- B.
The laptop has entered sleep mode.
- C.
The drivers for the wireless card have become corrupted.
- D.
The wireless antenna has become disconnected.
Correct Answer
A. The wireless communication switch has been turned off.Explanation
The most likely cause for the user's laptop not receiving any wireless signals while others are is that the wireless communication switch has been turned off. This is a common issue where the user accidentally or unknowingly switches off the wireless communication on their laptop, resulting in the loss of wireless signal reception. It is a simple fix as the user just needs to turn the switch back on to restore the wireless functionality.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following connectors has only two pairs of wires?
- A.
RJ-45
- B.
BNC
- C.
RJ-11
- D.
LC
Correct Answer
C. RJ-11Explanation
RJ-11 is the correct answer because it is a standard connector used for telephone lines and has only two pairs of wires. RJ-45, on the other hand, is used for Ethernet connections and has four pairs of wires. BNC is a coaxial connector used for video signals and LC is a fiber optic connector used for high-speed data transmission.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following is the definition of plenum-rated cable?
- A.
Cabling that has a special coating to protect from electronic eavesdropping.
- B.
Cabling that has extra shielding to reduce EMI.
- C.
Cabling that can be used for twice the normal maximum distance.
- D.
Cabling that can be used within a dropped ceiling.
Correct Answer
D. Cabling that can be used within a dropped ceiling.Explanation
Plenum-rated cable refers to cabling that is specifically designed and approved for use in plenum spaces, which are the spaces above suspended or dropped ceilings. These spaces are used for air circulation in buildings, and in the event of a fire, they can quickly spread smoke and toxic fumes. Plenum-rated cables have a special coating that is fire-resistant and emits low smoke and fumes, making them safe for use in these areas. Therefore, the correct answer is "Cabling that can be used within a dropped ceiling."Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following are the output voltages of an ATX power supply? (Select TWO).
- A.
5V and 12V
- B.
9V and 24V
- C.
12V and 24V
- D.
15V and 5V
- E.
9V and 5V
Correct Answer
A. 5V and 12VExplanation
An ATX power supply typically provides multiple output voltages to power various components in a computer system. The correct answer is 5V and 12V. These voltages are commonly used to power different components such as the motherboard, hard drives, and peripherals. The 5V voltage is used for low-power components, while the 12V voltage is used for higher-power components.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The FASTEST cache in a computer is:
- A.
L1.
- B.
L2.
- C.
L3.
- D.
L4.
Correct Answer
A. L1.Explanation
The L1 cache is the fastest cache in a computer. It is located closest to the CPU, allowing for quick access to frequently used data and instructions. The L1 cache has very low latency and high bandwidth, making it ideal for storing small amounts of critical data that the CPU needs to access frequently. The L2 and L3 caches are larger but slower than the L1 cache, and the L4 cache, if present, is even slower. Therefore, the L1 cache is the correct answer as it provides the fastest access to data for the CPU.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following voltages does the ATX power supply provide? (Select TWO).
- A.
3.3V and 15V
- B.
5V and 15V
- C.
5V and -5V
- D.
15V and -15V
- E.
3.3V and -5V
Correct Answer
C. 5V and -5VExplanation
The ATX power supply provides two voltages: 5V and -5V. These voltages are commonly used in computer systems to power various components and peripherals. The 5V voltage is used to power devices such as USB ports, fans, and some integrated circuits. The -5V voltage is used for legacy components and circuits that require a negative voltage supply, although it is less commonly used in modern systems.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following is BEST practice when installing a new hardware device in a Windows OS?
- A.
Uninstall all unused drivers.
- B.
Use the oldest most tested release of the driver.
- C.
Upgrade the BIOS after the install.
- D.
Use a digitally signed driver.
Correct Answer
D. Use a digitally signed driver.Explanation
Using a digitally signed driver is the best practice when installing a new hardware device in a Windows OS. A digitally signed driver ensures that the driver has been tested and verified by the device manufacturer and is free from any malicious code. It provides an added layer of security and stability to the system, reducing the risk of compatibility issues and system crashes.Rate this question:
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- 8.
EEE1394b (Fire wire) is capable of transfer rates of up to:
- A.
12Mbps.
- B.
400Mbps.
- C.
480Mbps.
- D.
800Mbps.
Correct Answer
D. 800Mbps.Explanation
The correct answer is 800Mbps because EEE1394b, also known as FireWire, is a high-speed serial bus interface that can support data transfer rates of up to 800Mbps. This makes it suitable for transferring large amounts of data quickly and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following is a limitation of satellite broadband?
- A.
The speed is capped by ISO regulations
- B.
Requires line of sight
- C.
Cannot be used in remote locations
- D.
It is a receive only transmission
Correct Answer
D. It is a receive only transmissionExplanation
Satellite broadband is limited in that it only allows for receive-only transmission. This means that users can only download data from the satellite, but cannot upload or send data back. This limitation can be a disadvantage for users who require two-way communication, such as for video conferencing or online gaming.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following ports is associated with POP3?
- A.
20
- B.
23
- C.
25
- D.
110
Correct Answer
D. 110Explanation
Port 110 is associated with POP3. POP3 stands for Post Office Protocol version 3, which is a protocol used for receiving emails from a mail server. Port 110 is the default port used by POP3 for communication between the email client and the mail server. By using this port, the email client can connect to the mail server and retrieve incoming emails.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of these is the BEST example of a strong password?
- A.
E$a7M5l
- B.
Globall
- C.
123454321
- D.
Library*
Correct Answer
A. E$a7M5lExplanation
The password "e$a7M5l" is the best example of a strong password because it includes a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. This combination adds complexity to the password, making it harder for hackers to guess or crack. Additionally, the password is long enough to provide sufficient security.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A user reports that their CRT monitor is discolored in one corner. When a technician receives the unit, they are unable to reproduce the error. The technician returns the PC and the problem persists. Which of the following categories would this symptom fall under?
- A.
Permanent
- B.
Environmental
- C.
Universal
- D.
Transient
Correct Answer
B. EnvironmentalExplanation
This symptom would fall under the category of "Environmental." The fact that the problem persists even after the technician returns the PC suggests that the issue is not with the hardware or software of the computer itself, but rather with the environment in which the monitor is being used. There may be external factors, such as lighting conditions or electromagnetic interference, that are causing the discoloration in one corner of the CRT monitor.Rate this question:
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- 13.
802.11b has the potential to support up to:
- A.
11Mbps.
- B.
50Mbps.
- C.
54Mbps.
- D.
100Mbps.
Correct Answer
A. 11Mbps.Explanation
The correct answer is 11Mbps because 802.11b is a wireless networking standard that operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency range. It uses Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) modulation and can achieve a maximum data rate of 11 megabits per second (Mbps). Although there are other wireless standards like 802.11a, 802.11g, and 802.11n that offer higher data rates, 802.11b is limited to 11Mbps.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following is used to list all of the hops from a starting point to a final destination?
- A.
Tracert
- B.
Ipconfig
- C.
Netsh
- D.
Netstat
Correct Answer
A. TracertExplanation
Tracert is used to list all of the hops from a starting point to a final destination. It is a command-line tool that traces the route that an IP packet takes to reach its destination. It shows the IP addresses of the routers or intermediate devices through which the packet passes, along with the time taken for each hop. This information is helpful in troubleshooting network connectivity issues and identifying any bottlenecks or delays in the network path.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Which of the following configurations would BEST allow sensitive data to be stored on the same hard drive as the operating system, while protecting the data from the operating system related issues?
- A.
Partition the drive into two physical drives making C: the OS and D: the data.
- B.
Encrypt the sensitive data so that it cannot be read without a key.
- C.
Partition the drive into two logical drives, making C: the OS and D: the data.
- D.
Hide the sensitive data from casual view using folder Properties - Attributes.
Correct Answer
C. Partition the drive into two logical drives, making C: the OS and D: the data.Explanation
Partitioning the drive into two logical drives, with one for the operating system (C:) and the other for the sensitive data (D:), would be the best configuration to protect the data from operating system related issues. By separating the operating system and the sensitive data into different partitions, any issues or errors with the operating system would not affect the data partition. This provides an additional layer of protection for the sensitive data, ensuring its integrity and security.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which of the following ports is used for telnet, by default?
- A.
Port 21
- B.
Port 23
- C.
Port 25
- D.
Port 110
Correct Answer
B. Port 23Explanation
Telnet is a protocol used for remote login and command execution on a remote computer. By default, it uses port 23 for communication. Therefore, the correct answer is Port 23.Rate this question:
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- 17.
All of the following can be plugged into a UPS EXCEPT:
- A.
Docking station
- B.
Laser printer
- C.
Laptop
- D.
Router
Correct Answer
B. Laser printerExplanation
A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is a device used to provide backup power to electrical equipment in case of a power outage. It is designed to protect sensitive devices such as computers, laptops, routers, and other electronic equipment from sudden power loss. However, laser printers typically consume a large amount of power and require a higher voltage than what a standard UPS can handle. Therefore, plugging a laser printer into a UPS may overload the UPS and cause it to fail or not function properly.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following can be disabled to help prevent access to a wireless network?
- A.
SSID broadcast
- B.
MAC filtering
- C.
WEP key
- D.
WPA passphrase
Correct Answer
A. SSID broadcastExplanation
Disabling SSID broadcast can help prevent access to a wireless network because it makes the network invisible to devices that are scanning for available networks. When the SSID broadcast is disabled, the network name is not broadcasted, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to discover and connect to the network.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which of the following commands is used to troubleshoot problems with DirectX that is currently installed on the system?
- A.
Msinfo32
- B.
Msconfig
- C.
Dxdiag
- D.
Cmd
Correct Answer
C. DxdiagExplanation
The command "dxdiag" is used to troubleshoot problems with DirectX that is currently installed on the system. It provides detailed information about the DirectX version, hardware acceleration, and any errors or issues that may be present. By running this command, users can diagnose and resolve problems related to DirectX, ensuring optimal performance of graphics and multimedia applications.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of placing special rubber mats on the floor and tables where technicians repair machines?
- A.
EMI prevention
- B.
MSDS
- C.
RFI prevention
- D.
ESD preventior
Correct Answer
D. ESD preventiorExplanation
The purpose of placing special rubber mats on the floor and tables where technicians repair machines is to prevent Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). ESD can cause damage to sensitive electronic components and circuits, so the rubber mats act as insulators to prevent the buildup and discharge of static electricity. This helps to protect the machines being repaired from potential damage caused by ESD.Rate this question:
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- 21.
A technician is called to a school lab to fix a computer. The computer worked fine the day before, but now does not power on. The computer is plugged into a power strip with another computer. The other computer works fine. Which of the following could be the problem?
- A.
The power strip is overloaded.
- B.
The monitor is unplugged.
- C.
The power cable is unplugged from the computer.
- D.
The power strip is unplugged.
Correct Answer
A. The power strip is overloaded.Explanation
The correct answer is that the power strip is overloaded. This is because the other computer plugged into the power strip is working fine, indicating that there is power coming from the outlet. If the monitor or power cable were unplugged, the other computer would also be affected. However, if the power strip is overloaded, it can cause the computer to not power on.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which of the following maintenance utilities is used to remove no longer needed files or temporary files that were installed during a program installation?
- A.
CHKDSK
- B.
DEFRAG
- C.
SCANDISK
- D.
Disk Cleanup
Correct Answer
D. Disk CleanupExplanation
Disk Cleanup is a maintenance utility used to remove no longer needed files or temporary files that were installed during a program installation. It helps to free up disk space and improve system performance by deleting unnecessary files such as temporary internet files, downloaded program files, and recycle bin contents. CHKDSK, DEFRAG, and SCANDISK are other maintenance utilities used for different purposes such as checking disk errors, defragmenting the hard drive, and scanning for disk errors respectively.Rate this question:
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- 23.
A customer states their computer was fine until yesterday when they heard a pop noise and the computer stopped working. Which of the following components should the technician test FIRST?
- A.
Main system board
- B.
Processor
- C.
Hard disk drive
- D.
Power supply
Correct Answer
D. Power supplyExplanation
Given the information provided, the customer heard a pop noise and the computer stopped working. This suggests that there may have been a power surge or a faulty power supply that caused the issue. Therefore, the technician should test the power supply first to determine if it is functioning properly or if it needs to be replaced.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following is a solution to switch between an internal and external display on a laptop?
- A.
Change the setting in the BIOS.
- B.
Disable the internal monitor in the device manager.
- C.
Toggle using Fn keys.
- D.
Hold the cutoff switch down
Correct Answer
C. Toggle using Fn keys.Explanation
The Fn keys on a laptop keyboard are often used to toggle between different display modes, including switching between an internal and external display. This allows the user to easily switch between using just the laptop screen or connecting to an external monitor or projector. By pressing the Fn key in combination with the appropriate function key, the display mode can be changed, providing a convenient solution to switch between internal and external displays.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following connector types are typically used on LCD displays?
- A.
XGA and VGA
- B.
Bluetooth and XGA
- C.
CGA and Bluetooth
- D.
DVI and VGA
- E.
CGA and DVI
Correct Answer
D. DVI and VGAExplanation
DVI and VGA are typically used on LCD displays. DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is a digital video connector that provides high-quality video transmission, making it suitable for LCD displays. VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an analog video connector commonly used for computer displays, including LCD monitors. Both connectors are widely compatible with LCD displays, making them the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A user wants their computer to automatically receive updates from Microsoft; however, they do not want the updates to interfere while they are working. Which of the following should be selected to BEST meet the user's needs?
- A.
Set automatic updates to download only.
- B.
Turn on Automatic Updates.
- C.
Turn off the firewall.
- D.
Set automatic updates to download and install.
Correct Answer
D. Set automatic updates to download and install.Explanation
Setting automatic updates to download and install would be the best option to meet the user's needs. This option ensures that the computer will automatically receive updates from Microsoft without any manual intervention from the user. By selecting this option, the updates will be downloaded and installed in the background, minimizing any interference while the user is working on their computer.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which of the following needs to happen after connecting a new device to a computer?
- A.
Configure device settings
- B.
Update the OS
- C.
Rebootthe computer
- D.
Install the device driver
Correct Answer
D. Install the device driverExplanation
After connecting a new device to a computer, it is necessary to install the device driver. A device driver is a software program that allows the operating system to communicate with and control the device. Without the appropriate driver, the computer will not recognize the new device and will be unable to utilize its functions. Therefore, installing the device driver is crucial to ensure proper functioning of the newly connected device.Rate this question:
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- 28.
After successfully installing a free antivirus solution, Windows reports that no antivirus software is currently protecting the system. Which of the following solutions would resolve this issue?
- A.
Disable the antivirus logging in the Event Viewer.
- B.
Disable antivirus protection notification within Security Center.
- C.
Install the Microsoft Malicious Software removal tool.
- D.
Update the Antivirus definitions
Correct Answer
D. Update the Antivirus definitionsExplanation
Updating the antivirus definitions would resolve the issue because even though the antivirus software is installed, it may not have the latest virus definitions. By updating the definitions, the antivirus software will be able to detect and protect against the latest threats, and Windows will recognize that the system is being protected.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which of the following BEST describes a network of computers inside a house that communicate with each other but not with computers outside of the house?
- A.
WAN
- B.
VPN
- C.
LAN
- D.
VLAN
Correct Answer
C. LANExplanation
A LAN (Local Area Network) is a network of computers that are connected within a limited area, such as a house or office, and they can communicate with each other but not with computers outside of the network. This makes LAN the best description for a network of computers inside a house that communicate with each other but not with computers outside of the house.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following BEST describes single data rate memory?
- A.
The memory will only operate at a single rate.
- B.
It is rated for use on single processor computers only.
- C.
It operates on a single piece of data at a time.
- D.
It transfers data at the same rate as the system bus.
Correct Answer
C. It operates on a single piece of data at a time.Explanation
Single data rate memory operates on a single piece of data at a time. This means that it can only process and transfer one piece of data at a time, rather than multiple pieces simultaneously. Unlike other options, it does not refer to the operating rate or compatibility with single processor computers.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following computer infections allows several computers to launch attacks against a network?
- A.
Spyware
- B.
Botnet
- C.
Spam
- D.
Aclware
Correct Answer
B. BotnetExplanation
A botnet is a network of infected computers that are under the control of a single entity or attacker. These infected computers, also known as "bots" or "zombies," can be used to launch coordinated attacks against a network. The attacker can remotely control these computers to send massive amounts of traffic or perform other malicious activities, such as Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks. Botnets are commonly used for spreading malware, stealing sensitive information, or conducting cybercrimes.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A technician needs to test connectivity to a particular host. Which of the following commands would MOST likely be used?
- A.
Telnet
- B.
Netstat
- C.
Ipconfig
- D.
Ping
Correct Answer
D. PingExplanation
The most likely command to test connectivity to a particular host is "ping". The ping command sends a small packet of data to the specified host and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the host is reachable and there is connectivity between the technician's device and the host. Therefore, ping is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and verify if a host is accessible.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following needs to be configured on a Windows Vista machine to allow for ports 21 and 25 to function properly?
- A.
Anti-spyware protector
- B.
Firewall
- C.
UAC
- D.
Antivirus protection
Correct Answer
B. FirewallExplanation
A firewall needs to be configured on a Windows Vista machine to allow for ports 21 and 25 to function properly. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. By configuring the firewall settings, the user can allow ports 21 and 25, which are commonly used for FTP and SMTP protocols respectively, to function properly and allow communication through these ports.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which of the following BEST describes the North Bridge change that occurred with the introduction of AMD Athlon 64?
- A.
Upstream communication to the North Bridge was enhanced.
- B.
Multiple pipelines were provided doubling the bus rate.
- C.
Downstream communication to the North Bridge was enhanced.
- D.
The memory controller is onboard the processor chip
Correct Answer
D. The memory controller is onboard the processor chipExplanation
The North Bridge change that occurred with the introduction of AMD Athlon 64 was that the memory controller was onboard the processor chip. This means that the memory controller, which is responsible for managing and controlling the flow of data between the processor and the memory, was integrated into the processor chip itself. This change resulted in improved performance and efficiency as it eliminated the need for external memory controllers and reduced latency in data transfer.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following uses 2.4GHz and has data transfer speeds up to 11Mbps?
- A.
802.11a
- B.
802.11b
- C.
802.11g
- D.
802.11n
Correct Answer
B. 802.11bExplanation
802.11b uses the 2.4GHz frequency and has data transfer speeds up to 11Mbps. This wireless networking standard was introduced before 802.11g and 802.11n, which offer higher data transfer speeds. However, 802.11b is still commonly used in some devices and networks, especially in older or lower-end equipment.Rate this question:
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- 36.
A user reports that none of their documents are printing. The user sent ten different documents over a span of an hour. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
- A.
If the printer needs a firmware upgrade to print multiple documents at once
- B.
If the print spooler service needs to be configured for multi-page printing.
- C.
If the printer needs a memory upgrade to print multiple documents at once
- D.
If the printer needs the queue cleared
Correct Answer
D. If the printer needs the queue clearedExplanation
The technician should check if the printer needs the queue cleared first because if there are pending print jobs in the queue, it may be causing a backlog and preventing any new documents from printing. By clearing the queue, the technician can ensure that there are no conflicting or stuck print jobs, allowing new documents to be printed successfully.Rate this question:
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- 37.
A technician arrives at a customer's location and identifies a problem. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is NEXT?
- A.
Establish a theory of probable cause.
- B.
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
- C.
Ask the customer what the issue is.
- D.
Document findings, actions, and outcomes
Correct Answer
A. Establish a theory of probable cause.Explanation
Explanation: The steps in the troubleshooting process, according to the CompTIA A+
certification exam objectives, are the following:
1. Identify the problem - Question the user, identify user changes, and perform
backups before making changes.
2. Analyze the problem Establish a theory of probable cause. - This is often referred to as root
cause analysis.
3. Test components - Test the theory to determine the cause. Once the theory is
confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. If the theory is
not confirmed, establish a new theory or escalate the problem.
4. Establish a plan of action – Finally, implement the solution.
5. Evaluate the results - Verify full system functionality. If applicable, implement
preventative measures.
6. Document - Record your findings, actions, and outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following wireless standards offers transfer rates of over 54Mb/s?
- A.
802.11b
- B.
802.11n
- C.
802.11a
- D.
802.11g
Correct Answer
B. 802.11nExplanation
802.11n is the correct answer because it offers transfer rates of over 54Mb/s. This standard uses multiple antennas and advanced techniques like channel bonding and MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) to achieve higher data rates compared to other standards such as 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g. It is capable of reaching speeds up to 600Mb/s, making it the fastest wireless standard among the options provided.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following commands is used to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server?
- A.
Ipconfig/renew
- B.
Ping-t
- C.
Nslookup
- D.
Msconfig
Correct Answer
A. Ipconfig/renewExplanation
The ipconfig/renew command is used to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. When this command is executed, the computer sends a request to the DHCP server to renew its IP address lease. The DHCP server then assigns a new IP address to the computer, ensuring that it has a valid and unique address on the network.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following is MOST likely used for archiving large amounts of data?
- A.
FDD
- B.
CD-RW
- C.
Thumb drive
- D.
Tape
Correct Answer
D. TapeExplanation
Tape is most likely used for archiving large amounts of data because it offers high storage capacity and is cost-effective compared to other options. Additionally, tape storage provides long-term durability and reliability, making it suitable for data archiving purposes.Rate this question:
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- 41.
A technician has been asked to install a PATA optical drive. Which of the following below is necessary for the installation?
- A.
CD extensions must be installed.
- B.
Verify jumpers are set correctly.
- C.
Plug and play must be used for the install.
- D.
CD application software must be installed
Correct Answer
B. Verify jumpers are set correctly.Explanation
When installing a PATA optical drive, it is necessary to verify that the jumpers are set correctly. Jumpers are small connectors on the back of the drive that determine its master/slave status and its position on the IDE cable. If the jumpers are not set correctly, the drive may not be recognized by the computer or may not function properly. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the jumpers are set correctly during the installation process.Rate this question:
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- 42.
A Windows XP system just experienced a bluescreen error and has automatically rebooted into the normal desktop. Which of the following would be the FIRST place to check for specifics regarding the error?
- A.
Help and Support
- B.
Event Viewer
- C.
System Information
- D.
Services Console
Correct Answer
B. Event ViewerExplanation
The Event Viewer would be the first place to check for specifics regarding the bluescreen error. The Event Viewer logs system events and errors, providing detailed information about the cause of the error. It can help identify the specific error code, the time the error occurred, and any associated error messages or warnings. By analyzing the event logs in the Event Viewer, one can troubleshoot and diagnose the cause of the bluescreen error, allowing for appropriate actions to be taken to prevent future occurrences.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following commands will display the current IP address?
- A.
Ping
- B.
Tracert
- C.
Nslookup
- D.
Ipconfig
Correct Answer
D. IpconfigExplanation
The correct answer is ipconfig. The ipconfig command is used to display the current IP address of a device. It provides information about the network configuration including the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. This command is commonly used in Windows operating systems to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and to view the current network settings.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A user calls the helpdesk to report that their computer has crashed and that a document has been lost. The user is yelling and blaming the technician. Which of the following is the proper way for the technician to respond?
- A.
Hang up the phone
- B.
Ask if the user needs assistance
- C.
Respond with a collective and calm voice
- D.
Transfer the call to another technician
Correct Answer
C. Respond with a collective and calm voiceExplanation
In this situation, the proper way for the technician to respond is to maintain a collective and calm voice. This is important because the user is already upset and blaming the technician. By responding calmly, the technician can help diffuse the situation and reassure the user that they are there to assist. Hanging up the phone would be rude and unprofessional, asking if the user needs assistance is redundant as they have already called for help, and transferring the call to another technician may not address the user's concerns effectively.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following processors uses a pin array cartridge?
- A.
Athlon XP
- B.
Itanium
- C.
Xeon
- D.
Pentium 4
Correct Answer
B. ItaniumExplanation
The Itanium processor uses a pin array cartridge. This type of cartridge is a packaging technology that allows the processor to be easily inserted and removed from the motherboard. Itanium processors were designed for high-performance computing and were used primarily in servers and workstations. The pin array cartridge provided a convenient and efficient way to install and upgrade these processors.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A user would like to upgrade their sound card. Which of the following slots would allow the BEST performance?
- A.
PCI and AGP
- B.
SCSI and ISA
- C.
PCIe and PCI
- D.
ISA and PCI
- E.
AGP and SCSI
Correct Answer
C. PCIe and PCIExplanation
PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) and PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect) slots would allow the best performance for upgrading a sound card. PCIe is the latest and fastest interface for connecting peripherals to a computer, offering higher bandwidth and faster data transfer speeds compared to PCI. However, since not all motherboards may have PCIe slots, PCI slots can still provide decent performance for sound card upgrades. The other options listed, such as SCSI, ISA, and AGP, are not commonly used for sound card connections and do not offer the same level of performance as PCIe and PCI.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following would indicate a lack of thermal compound in a computer system?
- A.
A low RPM reading from the case fan
- B.
A high temperature reading from the hard drive
- C.
A rattling noise from the case fan
- D.
A high temperature reading from the CPU
Correct Answer
D. A high temperature reading from the CPUExplanation
A high temperature reading from the CPU would indicate a lack of thermal compound in a computer system. Thermal compound is a substance that is applied between the CPU and the heat sink to improve heat transfer and prevent overheating. Without thermal compound, the CPU would not be able to effectively dissipate heat, leading to high temperatures.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which of the following would MOST likely be used to offer a high level of security on a wireless
- A.
WPA
- B.
SSID
- C.
WEP
- D.
MAC filtering
Correct Answer
A. WPAExplanation
WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) is the most likely option to offer a high level of security on a wireless network. WPA provides stronger encryption and authentication methods compared to its predecessor, WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy). It uses a dynamic encryption key that changes periodically, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to gain access to the network. Additionally, WPA supports advanced security features like TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) and AES (Advanced Encryption Standard), further enhancing the overall security of the wireless network. MAC filtering and SSID (Service Set Identifier) are also security measures, but they are not as effective as WPA in providing a high level of security.Rate this question:
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- 49.
During which of the following steps in the troubleshooting theory would a user be questioned about changes to the system?
- A.
Verify full system functionality
- B.
Identify the problem
- C.
Test the theory to determine cause
- D.
Establish a plan of action
Correct Answer
B. Identify the problemExplanation
The steps in the troubleshooting process, according to the CompTIA A+
certification exam objectives, are the following:
1. Identify the problem - Question the user, identify user changes, and perform
backups before making changes.
2. Analyze the problem Establish a theory of probable cause. - This is often referred to as root
cause analysis.
3. Test components - Test the theory to determine the cause. Once the theory is
confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. If the theory is
not confirmed, establish a new theory or escalate the problem.
4. Establish a plan of action – Finally, implement the solution.
5. Evaluate the results - Verify full system functionality. If applicable, implement preventative
measures.
6. Document - Record your findings, actions, and outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 50.
A customer reports that after connecting a laptop to a projector they can see their presentation on the laptop but not on the projector screen. Which of the following should the customer perform?
- A.
Use the function + f8 key to toggle between screens.
- B.
Use the function + f10 key to toggle between screens
- C.
Use alt + tab to toggle between screens.
- D.
Reboot the laptop to toggle image between screens
Correct Answer
A. Use the function + f8 key to toggle between screens.Explanation
The customer should use the function + f8 key to toggle between screens. This key combination is commonly used to switch between display modes on a laptop, allowing the user to control whether the display is shown on the laptop screen, the projector screen, or both simultaneously. By pressing function + f8, the customer should be able to toggle the display to show their presentation on the projector screen.Rate this question:
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Comptia A+ 220-702 Practical Application Topic 4 Vol.D
Comptia A+ 220-702 Practical Application Topic 4 Vol.D
Comptia A+ 220-702 Practical Application Topic 3 Vol.C
Comptia A+ 220-702 Practical Application Topic 3 Vol.C