CompTIA A+ Practice Test Set 1 Of 7

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1. Which of these is the BEST example of a strong password?

Explanation

The password "e$a7M5l" is the best example of a strong password because it includes a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. This combination adds complexity to the password, making it harder for hackers to guess or crack. Additionally, the password is long enough to provide sufficient security.

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About This Quiz
A Plus Certification Quizzes & Trivia

This practice set, part of CompTIA A+ certification series, assesses essential skills in troubleshooting wireless communication, understanding network connectors, cable ratings, and power supply voltages. Designed for aspiring... see moreIT professionals, it enhances practical knowledge in hardware and networking. see less

2. A user calls the helpdesk to report that their computer has crashed and that a document has been lost. The user is yelling and blaming the technician. Which of the following is the proper way for the technician to respond?

Explanation

In this situation, the proper way for the technician to respond is to maintain a collective and calm voice. This is important because the user is already upset and blaming the technician. By responding calmly, the technician can help diffuse the situation and reassure the user that they are there to assist. Hanging up the phone would be rude and unprofessional, asking if the user needs assistance is redundant as they have already called for help, and transferring the call to another technician may not address the user's concerns effectively.

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3. Which of the following device types would BEST describe a microphone?

Explanation

A microphone would be best described as a multimedia device because it is commonly used for recording and transmitting audio in various multimedia applications. It is not a KVM (Keyboard, Video, Mouse) device as it does not control or switch between multiple computers. It is also not a biometric device as it does not measure biological or physical characteristics. Additionally, it is not a touch device as it does not have a touch-sensitive interface.

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4. Which of the following would indicate a lack of thermal compound in a computer system?

Explanation

A high temperature reading from the CPU would indicate a lack of thermal compound in a computer system. Thermal compound is a substance that is applied between the CPU and the heat sink to improve heat transfer and prevent overheating. Without thermal compound, the CPU would not be able to effectively dissipate heat, leading to high temperatures.

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5. A company is replacing aging CRT monitors with new LCD monitors. Which of the following must be performed to safely dispose of the CRT monitors?

Explanation

To safely dispose of the CRT monitors, it is necessary to use the local government code on procedure for disposal. This means following the specific regulations and guidelines set by the local government regarding the proper and safe disposal of electronic waste such as CRT monitors. This ensures that the monitors are disposed of in an environmentally friendly manner and in compliance with any legal requirements.

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6. Which of the following commands will display the current IP address?

Explanation

The correct answer is ipconfig. The ipconfig command is used to display the current IP address of a device. It provides information about the network configuration including the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. This command is commonly used in Windows operating systems to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and to view the current network settings.

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7. A technician needs to boot a computer using a diagnostic CD. Which of the following should the technician check prior to attempting to boot the system?

Explanation

The technician should check the boot priority sequence in the BIOS before attempting to boot the system using a diagnostic CD. The boot priority sequence determines the order in which the computer looks for a bootable device. By setting the CD drive as the first boot option, the technician ensures that the computer will attempt to boot from the diagnostic CD before trying other devices. This is important because if the boot priority sequence is not configured correctly, the computer may not recognize the diagnostic CD as a bootable device and fail to boot from it.

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8. Which of the following maintenance utilities is used to remove no longer needed files or temporary files that were installed during a program installation?

Explanation

Disk Cleanup is a maintenance utility used to remove no longer needed files or temporary files that were installed during a program installation. It helps to free up disk space and improve system performance by deleting unnecessary files such as temporary internet files, downloaded program files, and recycle bin contents. CHKDSK, DEFRAG, and SCANDISK are other maintenance utilities used for different purposes such as checking disk errors, defragmenting the hard drive, and scanning for disk errors respectively.

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9. Which of the following BEST describes a network of computers inside a house that communicate with each other but not with computers outside of the house?

Explanation

A LAN (Local Area Network) is a network of computers that are connected within a limited area, such as a house or office, and they can communicate with each other but not with computers outside of the network. This makes LAN the best description for a network of computers inside a house that communicate with each other but not with computers outside of the house.

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10. Which of the following is a solution to switch between an internal and external display on a laptop?

Explanation

The Fn keys on a laptop keyboard are often used to toggle between different display modes, including switching between an internal and external display. This allows the user to easily switch between using just the laptop screen or connecting to an external monitor or projector. By pressing the Fn key in combination with the appropriate function key, the display mode can be changed, providing a convenient solution to switch between internal and external displays.

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11. Which of the following device drivers is not loaded in Safe Mode?

Explanation

In Safe Mode, only essential drivers and services are loaded to troubleshoot and fix issues. NIC (Network Interface Card) drivers are not loaded in Safe Mode as networking functionality is disabled to prevent any potential conflicts or issues. Therefore, the correct answer is NIC.

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12. Which of the following should be run on a regular schedule to reorganize how files are laid out on a hard drive?

Explanation

Defragmentation, or "DEFRAG," should be run on a regular schedule to reorganize how files are laid out on a hard drive. This process helps optimize the performance of the hard drive by rearranging fragmented files and storing them in contiguous space. By doing so, it reduces the time it takes to access files and improves overall system efficiency. SCANDISK is used to check and repair errors on a hard drive, FDISK is used for disk partitioning, and FORMAT is used to prepare a disk for use by erasing all existing data.

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13. Which of the following is used to list all of the hops from a starting point to a final destination?

Explanation

Tracert is used to list all of the hops from a starting point to a final destination. It is a command-line tool that traces the route that an IP packet takes to reach its destination. It shows the IP addresses of the routers or intermediate devices through which the packet passes, along with the time taken for each hop. This information is helpful in troubleshooting network connectivity issues and identifying any bottlenecks or delays in the network path.

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14. Which of the following needs to happen after connecting a new device to a computer?

Explanation

After connecting a new device to a computer, it is necessary to install the device driver. A device driver is a software program that allows the operating system to communicate with and control the device. Without the appropriate driver, the computer will not recognize the new device and will be unable to utilize its functions. Therefore, installing the device driver is crucial to ensure proper functioning of the newly connected device.

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15. A technician needs to test connectivity to a particular host. Which of the following commands would MOST likely be used?

Explanation

The most likely command to test connectivity to a particular host is "ping". The ping command sends a small packet of data to the specified host and waits for a response. If a response is received, it indicates that the host is reachable and there is connectivity between the technician's device and the host. Therefore, ping is commonly used to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and verify if a host is accessible.

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16. A customer states their computer was fine until yesterday when they heard a pop noise and the computer stopped working. Which of the following components should the technician test FIRST?

Explanation

Given the information provided, the customer heard a pop noise and the computer stopped working. This suggests that there may have been a power surge or a faulty power supply that caused the issue. Therefore, the technician should test the power supply first to determine if it is functioning properly or if it needs to be replaced.

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17. During which of the following steps in the troubleshooting theory would a user be questioned about changes to the system?

Explanation

The steps in the troubleshooting process, according to the CompTIA A+
certification exam objectives, are the following:
1. Identify the problem - Question the user, identify user changes, and perform
backups before making changes.
2. Analyze the problem Establish a theory of probable cause. - This is often referred to as root
cause analysis.
3. Test components - Test the theory to determine the cause. Once the theory is
confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. If the theory is
not confirmed, establish a new theory or escalate the problem.
4. Establish a plan of action – Finally, implement the solution.
5. Evaluate the results - Verify full system functionality. If applicable, implement preventative
measures.
6. Document - Record your findings, actions, and outcomes.

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18. Which of the following connector types are typically used on LCD displays?

Explanation

DVI and VGA are typically used on LCD displays. DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is a digital video connector that provides high-quality video transmission, making it suitable for LCD displays. VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an analog video connector commonly used for computer displays, including LCD monitors. Both connectors are widely compatible with LCD displays, making them the correct answer.

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19. Which of the following commands is used to troubleshoot problems with DirectX that is currently installed on the system?

Explanation

The command "dxdiag" is used to troubleshoot problems with DirectX that is currently installed on the system. It provides detailed information about the DirectX version, hardware acceleration, and any errors or issues that may be present. By running this command, users can diagnose and resolve problems related to DirectX, ensuring optimal performance of graphics and multimedia applications.

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20. Which of the following is used to list all of the hops from a starting point to a final destination?

Explanation

Tracert is used to list all of the hops from a starting point to a final destination. It is a command-line tool that traces the route that packets take to reach a destination by sending ICMP Echo Request messages to each hop along the way. It displays the IP addresses and round-trip times of each hop, allowing network administrators to identify any network issues or bottlenecks.

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21. Which of the following commands is used to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server?

Explanation

The ipconfig/renew command is used to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server. When this command is executed, the computer sends a request to the DHCP server to renew its IP address lease. The DHCP server then assigns a new IP address to the computer, ensuring that it has a valid and unique address on the network.

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22. A user would like to upgrade their sound card. Which of the following slots would allow the BEST performance?

Explanation

PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) and PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect) slots would allow the best performance for upgrading a sound card. PCIe is the latest and fastest interface for connecting peripherals to a computer, offering higher bandwidth and faster data transfer speeds compared to PCI. However, since not all motherboards may have PCIe slots, PCI slots can still provide decent performance for sound card upgrades. The other options listed, such as SCSI, ISA, and AGP, are not commonly used for sound card connections and do not offer the same level of performance as PCIe and PCI.

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23. Which of the following Windows operating systems can address more than 4GB of RAM?

Explanation

Windows XP 64-bit and Windows Vista 64-bit operating systems can address more than 4GB of RAM. This is because these versions are specifically designed to support 64-bit architecture, which allows for a larger memory address space. In contrast, the 32-bit versions of Windows XP and Windows Vista are limited to addressing a maximum of 4GB of RAM due to the limitations of the 32-bit architecture. Windows 2000 Professional and Windows XP 32-bit also cannot address more than 4GB of RAM.

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24. A user states that their laptop is suddenly not receiving any wireless signals, yet other users are. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

Explanation

The most likely cause for the user's laptop not receiving any wireless signals while others are is that the wireless communication switch has been turned off. This is a common issue where the user accidentally or unknowingly switches off the wireless communication on their laptop, resulting in the loss of wireless signal reception. It is a simple fix as the user just needs to turn the switch back on to restore the wireless functionality.

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25. An unidentified person gains access to an office workplace, posing as a new IT staff member. The unidentified person tries to obtain passwords through conversation with other administrators. Which of the following security breaches is occurring?

Explanation

The correct answer is social engineering. Social engineering is a type of security breach where an attacker manipulates or deceives individuals into revealing sensitive information or providing access to secure systems. In this scenario, the unidentified person is posing as an IT staff member and attempting to obtain passwords through conversation with other administrators, which is a form of social engineering.

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26. A Windows XP system just experienced a bluescreen error and has automatically rebooted into the normal desktop. Which of the following would be the FIRST place to check for specifics regarding the error?

Explanation

The Event Viewer would be the first place to check for specifics regarding the bluescreen error. The Event Viewer logs system events and errors, providing detailed information about the cause of the error. It can help identify the specific error code, the time the error occurred, and any associated error messages or warnings. By analyzing the event logs in the Event Viewer, one can troubleshoot and diagnose the cause of the bluescreen error, allowing for appropriate actions to be taken to prevent future occurrences.

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27. Which of the following ports is associated with POP3?

Explanation

Port 110 is associated with POP3. POP3 stands for Post Office Protocol version 3, which is a protocol used for receiving emails from a mail server. Port 110 is the default port used by POP3 for communication between the email client and the mail server. By using this port, the email client can connect to the mail server and retrieve incoming emails.

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28. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of placing special rubber mats on the floor and tables where technicians repair machines?

Explanation

The purpose of placing special rubber mats on the floor and tables where technicians repair machines is to prevent Electrostatic Discharge (ESD). ESD can cause damage to sensitive electronic components and circuits, so the rubber mats act as insulators to prevent the buildup and discharge of static electricity. This helps to protect the machines being repaired from potential damage caused by ESD.

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29. A technician has been asked to install a PATA optical drive. Which of the following below is necessary for the installation?

Explanation

When installing a PATA optical drive, it is necessary to verify that the jumpers are set correctly. Jumpers are small connectors on the back of the drive that determine its master/slave status and its position on the IDE cable. If the jumpers are not set correctly, the drive may not be recognized by the computer or may not function properly. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the jumpers are set correctly during the installation process.

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30. A workstation is not functioning properly. Which of the following is the FIRST action a technician should take?

Explanation

The first action a technician should take when a workstation is not functioning properly is to interview the user. By interviewing the user, the technician can gather important information about the problem, such as when it started, any error messages, and any recent changes or updates. This information can help the technician narrow down the possible causes of the issue and determine the most appropriate course of action to resolve it.

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31. A user reports that none of their documents are printing. The user sent ten different documents over a span of an hour. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

Explanation

The technician should check if the printer needs the queue cleared first because if there are pending print jobs in the queue, it may be causing a backlog and preventing any new documents from printing. By clearing the queue, the technician can ensure that there are no conflicting or stuck print jobs, allowing new documents to be printed successfully.

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32. After successfully installing a free antivirus solution, Windows reports that no antivirus software is currently protecting the system. Which of the following solutions would resolve this issue?

Explanation

Updating the antivirus definitions would resolve the issue because even though the antivirus software is installed, it may not have the latest virus definitions. By updating the definitions, the antivirus software will be able to detect and protect against the latest threats, and Windows will recognize that the system is being protected.

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33. Which of the following needs to be configured on a Windows Vista machine to allow for ports 21 and 25 to function properly?

Explanation

A firewall needs to be configured on a Windows Vista machine to allow for ports 21 and 25 to function properly. A firewall is a network security device that monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. By configuring the firewall settings, the user can allow ports 21 and 25, which are commonly used for FTP and SMTP protocols respectively, to function properly and allow communication through these ports.

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34. Which of the following network devices interconnects networks together?

Explanation

A router is a network device that interconnects networks together by forwarding data packets between them. It determines the most efficient path for data to travel from one network to another, based on the destination IP address. Unlike a switch or a hub, which only connect devices within a single network, a router can connect multiple networks and enable communication between them. A modem, on the other hand, is a device that connects a computer or network to an internet service provider, allowing access to the internet.

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35. An orange blinking light on a laptop generally indicates which of the following?

Explanation

An orange blinking light on a laptop generally indicates that the battery is low. This is a common feature in laptops where the battery indicator light changes color or blinks when the battery level drops below a certain threshold. It serves as a warning to the user that the battery is running out of charge and needs to be plugged in or charged soon.

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36. Which of the following actions should a technician take to prevent a computer from rebooting after a system failure?

Explanation

To prevent a computer from rebooting after a system failure, a technician should uncheck the "automatically restart" option in the startup and recovery settings. By doing so, the computer will not automatically reboot when it encounters a system failure, allowing the technician to diagnose and troubleshoot the issue without interruptions. This option is commonly used when troubleshooting blue screen errors or other critical system failures.

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37. Which of the following ports is used for telnet, by default?

Explanation

Telnet is a protocol used for remote login and command execution on a remote computer. By default, it uses port 23 for communication. Therefore, the correct answer is Port 23.

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38. Which of the following connector types is used on fiber optic cable?

Explanation

The correct answer is ST. ST connectors are commonly used on fiber optic cables. They have a bayonet-style coupling mechanism and are known for their durability and ease of use. ST connectors are typically used for multimode fibers and are widely used in telecommunications and networking applications.

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39. Which of the following is an example of active cooling?Thermal compound

Explanation

A heatsink fan is an example of active cooling because it actively moves air over the heatsink to dissipate heat and cool down the component. The fan creates airflow which helps in removing the heat generated by the component, thereby preventing overheating. This active cooling method is commonly used in computer systems to maintain optimal operating temperatures and prevent damage to the components.

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40. Which of the following is used for a software driver that is approved in a Windows environment?

Explanation

A digitally signed driver is used for a software driver that is approved in a Windows environment. This means that the driver has undergone a verification process by a trusted third-party authority, confirming its authenticity and integrity. The digital signature ensures that the driver has not been tampered with or modified since it was signed, providing a level of security and trustworthiness. This approval is important in a Windows environment to ensure the driver's compatibility and reliability with the operating system.

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41. Which of the following computer infections allows several computers to launch attacks against a network?

Explanation

A botnet is a network of infected computers that are under the control of a single entity or attacker. These infected computers, also known as "bots" or "zombies," can be used to launch coordinated attacks against a network. The attacker can remotely control these computers to send massive amounts of traffic or perform other malicious activities, such as Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks. Botnets are commonly used for spreading malware, stealing sensitive information, or conducting cybercrimes.

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42. Which of the following are the output voltages of an ATX power supply? (Select TWO).

Explanation

An ATX power supply typically provides multiple output voltages to power various components in a computer system. The correct answer is 5V and 12V. These voltages are commonly used to power different components such as the motherboard, hard drives, and peripherals. The 5V voltage is used for low-power components, while the 12V voltage is used for higher-power components.

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43. The FASTEST cache in a computer is:

Explanation

The L1 cache is the fastest cache in a computer. It is located closest to the CPU, allowing for quick access to frequently used data and instructions. The L1 cache has very low latency and high bandwidth, making it ideal for storing small amounts of critical data that the CPU needs to access frequently. The L2 and L3 caches are larger but slower than the L1 cache, and the L4 cache, if present, is even slower. Therefore, the L1 cache is the correct answer as it provides the fastest access to data for the CPU.

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44. Which of the following commands is used to bring up the interface to permanently remove keys and entries on a computer system running Windows XP Professional?

Explanation

The correct answer is "regedit". The regedit command is used to bring up the Windows Registry Editor, which allows users to view, modify, and remove keys and entries in the Windows Registry. The Windows Registry is a database that stores important configuration settings for the operating system and installed software. By using regedit, users can permanently remove keys and entries from the registry, which can help resolve issues or clean up unnecessary entries on a Windows XP Professional system.

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45. A technician wants to find out if a computer is still under warranty, but the customer does not have the warranty information that shipped with the computer. Which of the following websites can the technician use to find the warranty information?

Explanation

The technician can use the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) website to find the warranty information for the computer. OEM websites often provide support and warranty information for the products they manufacture.

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46. Which of the following is MOST likely used for archiving large amounts of data?

Explanation

Tape is most likely used for archiving large amounts of data because it offers high storage capacity and is cost-effective compared to other options. Additionally, tape storage provides long-term durability and reliability, making it suitable for data archiving purposes.

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47. Which of the following is a reason why a technician would install a new Windows XP Pro installation with a FAT32 file structure?

Explanation

A technician may choose to install a new Windows XP Pro installation with a FAT32 file structure to provide legacy support for older systems. FAT32 is an older file system that is compatible with older versions of Windows and can be read by various operating systems. By using FAT32, the technician ensures that the new installation can be accessed and used on older systems that may not support newer file systems like NTFS.

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48. Which of the following can be disabled to help prevent access to a wireless network?

Explanation

Disabling SSID broadcast can help prevent access to a wireless network because it makes the network invisible to devices that are scanning for available networks. When the SSID broadcast is disabled, the network name is not broadcasted, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to discover and connect to the network.

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49. A customer reports that the laser printer produces poor quality printouts. Having arrived onsite, the technician has a discussion with the customer and reviews some examples of their print jobs. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

Explanation

The technician should print a test page next. By printing a test page, the technician can determine if the poor print quality issue is consistent or if it was just a one-time occurrence. This will help the technician in diagnosing the root cause of the problem and deciding on the appropriate solution.

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50. Which of the following connectors has only two pairs of wires?

Explanation

RJ-11 is the correct answer because it is a standard connector used for telephone lines and has only two pairs of wires. RJ-45, on the other hand, is used for Ethernet connections and has four pairs of wires. BNC is a coaxial connector used for video signals and LC is a fiber optic connector used for high-speed data transmission.

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51. Which of the following uses 2.4GHz and has data transfer speeds up to 11Mbps?

Explanation

802.11b uses the 2.4GHz frequency and has data transfer speeds up to 11Mbps. This wireless networking standard was introduced before 802.11g and 802.11n, which offer higher data transfer speeds. However, 802.11b is still commonly used in some devices and networks, especially in older or lower-end equipment.

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52. Which of the following optical media has the GREATEST storage space?

Explanation

Blu-Ray has the greatest storage space among the given options. Blu-Ray discs have a larger storage capacity compared to DVDs, HD-DVDs, and hard drives. A single-layer Blu-Ray disc can store up to 25GB of data, while a dual-layer Blu-Ray disc can store up to 50GB. This makes Blu-Ray an ideal choice for storing high-definition movies, large files, and data backups.

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53. Which of the following would MOST likely be used to offer a high level of security on a wireless

Explanation

WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) is the most likely option to offer a high level of security on a wireless network. WPA provides stronger encryption and authentication methods compared to its predecessor, WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy). It uses a dynamic encryption key that changes periodically, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to gain access to the network. Additionally, WPA supports advanced security features like TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) and AES (Advanced Encryption Standard), further enhancing the overall security of the wireless network. MAC filtering and SSID (Service Set Identifier) are also security measures, but they are not as effective as WPA in providing a high level of security.

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54. A user reports that their CRT monitor is discolored in one corner. When a technician receives the unit, they are unable to reproduce the error. The technician returns the PC and the problem persists. Which of the following categories would this symptom fall under?

Explanation

This symptom would fall under the category of "Environmental." The fact that the problem persists even after the technician returns the PC suggests that the issue is not with the hardware or software of the computer itself, but rather with the environment in which the monitor is being used. There may be external factors, such as lighting conditions or electromagnetic interference, that are causing the discoloration in one corner of the CRT monitor.

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55. 802.11b has the potential to support up to:

Explanation

The correct answer is 11Mbps because 802.11b is a wireless networking standard that operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency range. It uses Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS) modulation and can achieve a maximum data rate of 11 megabits per second (Mbps). Although there are other wireless standards like 802.11a, 802.11g, and 802.11n that offer higher data rates, 802.11b is limited to 11Mbps.

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56. A user purchases a new laptop. The old laptop used a PCMCIA wireless adapter to connect to the Internet. When the user attempts to install the PCMCIA card into the new machine they find the slot is too small. Which of the following is MOST likely the expansion slot type?

Explanation

The most likely expansion slot type in this scenario is Mini PCI. This is because the old laptop used a PCMCIA wireless adapter, which is commonly inserted into a Mini PCI slot. The fact that the slot in the new machine is too small suggests that it is a Mini PCI slot, as opposed to other expansion slot types such as Express bus, eSATA, or IEEE 1394.

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57. Which of the following should be done FIRST if a printer fails to print very large documents but prints smaller documents without issue?

Explanation

If a printer fails to print very large documents but prints smaller documents without issue, the first thing that should be done is to add additional memory to the printer. This is because printing larger documents requires more memory to process the data, and if the printer does not have enough memory, it may fail to print large documents. By adding additional memory, the printer will have the necessary resources to handle larger print jobs.

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58. Which of the following BEST describes the differences between a switch and a router?

Explanation

A switch interconnects devices on the same network to enable communication between them, while a router interconnects multiple networks, allowing devices from different networks to communicate with each other.

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59. A technician receives a call from a client requesting that a faster CPU be installed into their PC. The technician has determined this can be done, but the motherboard needs an update. Which of the following must the technician update?

Explanation

The technician must update the firmware of the motherboard. Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a motherboard, and provides instructions for the device to function properly. In this case, the technician needs to update the firmware in order to support the installation of a faster CPU. Updating the firmware will ensure that the motherboard is compatible with the new CPU and will allow it to operate at its full potential.

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60. Which of the following printers would MOST likely be used for multipart forms?

Explanation

Dot matrix printers would most likely be used for multipart forms because they use an impact printing method that creates multiple copies of a document simultaneously. This is achieved by striking an inked ribbon against the paper, creating an impression on multiple layers of the form. Dot matrix printers are capable of printing on multipart forms with carbon copies, making them suitable for applications such as invoices, receipts, and order forms that require multiple copies. Laser, inkjet, and thermal printers do not have the ability to create multiple copies simultaneously and are better suited for single-page printing tasks.

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61. Which of the following protocols makes a wireless network secure?SFTP

Explanation

WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) is the correct answer because it is a security protocol that provides encryption and authentication for wireless networks. It is designed to replace the older and less secure WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) protocol. WPA uses stronger encryption algorithms and implements a more robust authentication process, making it more difficult for unauthorized users to access the network and intercept sensitive information. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is not a wireless network security protocol but rather a secure method for transferring files over a network. WAP (Wireless Application Protocol) is a protocol for accessing information over a mobile wireless network, and HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is a secure version of the standard HTTP protocol used for secure communication over the internet.

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62. Which of the following is the definition of plenum-rated cable?

Explanation

Plenum-rated cable refers to cabling that is specifically designed and approved for use in plenum spaces, which are the spaces above suspended or dropped ceilings. These spaces are used for air circulation in buildings, and in the event of a fire, they can quickly spread smoke and toxic fumes. Plenum-rated cables have a special coating that is fire-resistant and emits low smoke and fumes, making them safe for use in these areas. Therefore, the correct answer is "Cabling that can be used within a dropped ceiling."

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63. Which of the following would a technician enable on a router to allow specific devices to connect to the Internet?

Explanation

A technician would enable MAC filtering on a router to allow specific devices to connect to the Internet. MAC filtering is a security feature that allows the router to only accept connections from devices with specific MAC addresses. By configuring MAC filtering, the technician can create a whitelist of approved devices, ensuring that only those devices are able to access the Internet through the router. This helps to enhance network security and restrict unauthorized access to the network.

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64. Which of the following should be done FIRST after the initial installation of a Windows operating system?

Explanation

After the initial installation of a Windows operating system, the first thing that should be done is to update the operating system. This is important because operating system updates often include security patches, bug fixes, and performance improvements that can enhance the stability and security of the system. By updating the operating system first, any known vulnerabilities or issues can be addressed, ensuring a more secure and optimized system. Firmware and BIOS updates, as well as user group permissions, can be addressed later once the operating system is up to date.

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65. A wireless network broadcasted from a SOHO WIFI single band router can have a maximum of how many SSIDs associated with it?

Explanation

A wireless network broadcasted from a SOHO WIFI single band router can have a maximum of one SSID associated with it. This means that only one network name can be used to identify and connect to the wireless network.

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66. Which of the following is the MOST secure encryption technology that Windows Vista can use?

Explanation

Windows BitLocker is the most secure encryption technology that Windows Vista can use. BitLocker is a full disk encryption feature that encrypts the entire Windows operating system and all the data on the hard drive. It provides strong protection against unauthorized access to the system and data, even if the hard drive is stolen or accessed by an unauthorized person. BitLocker uses advanced encryption algorithms and requires authentication to unlock the encrypted drive, ensuring the highest level of security for Windows Vista users.

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67. Which of the following is BEST practice when installing a new hardware device in a Windows OS?

Explanation

Using a digitally signed driver is the best practice when installing a new hardware device in a Windows OS. A digitally signed driver ensures that the driver has been tested and verified by the device manufacturer and is free from any malicious code. It provides an added layer of security and stability to the system, reducing the risk of compatibility issues and system crashes.

Submit
68. Which of the following BEST describes the North Bridge change that occurred with the introduction of AMD Athlon 64?

Explanation

The North Bridge change that occurred with the introduction of AMD Athlon 64 was that the memory controller was onboard the processor chip. This means that the memory controller, which is responsible for managing and controlling the flow of data between the processor and the memory, was integrated into the processor chip itself. This change resulted in improved performance and efficiency as it eliminated the need for external memory controllers and reduced latency in data transfer.

Submit
69. How many concurrent connections can a Windows XP computer have established at any given time?

Explanation

A Windows XP computer can have a maximum of 20 concurrent connections established at any given time. This means that the computer can handle up to 20 simultaneous connections from other devices or users. These connections can be for various purposes such as file sharing, remote desktop access, or internet browsing. Having a limit on the number of concurrent connections helps to ensure that the computer's resources are not overwhelmed and that it can effectively handle the incoming network traffic.

Submit
70. A Windows XP workgroup computer can have up to how many concurrent connections?

Explanation

A Windows XP workgroup computer can have a maximum of 20 or fewer concurrent connections. This means that the computer can handle up to 20 simultaneous connections from other devices or computers on the same network. Any additional connection attempts beyond this limit will be denied. It is important to note that this limit applies specifically to Windows XP and may vary for different operating systems.

Submit
71. Which of the following technologies suffers from shortened life due primarily to excessive reads and writes?

Explanation

SSD (Solid State Drive) technology suffers from shortened life due primarily to excessive reads and writes. SSDs use flash memory to store data, and each memory cell has a limited number of write cycles before it becomes unreliable. Constantly reading and writing data to an SSD can cause the memory cells to wear out faster, leading to a shorter lifespan compared to other technologies like DLT (Digital Linear Tape), SATA (Serial ATA), or SCSI (Small Computer System Interface).

Submit
72. Which of the following wireless standards offers transfer rates of over 54Mb/s?

Explanation

802.11n is the correct answer because it offers transfer rates of over 54Mb/s. This standard uses multiple antennas and advanced techniques like channel bonding and MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output) to achieve higher data rates compared to other standards such as 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g. It is capable of reaching speeds up to 600Mb/s, making it the fastest wireless standard among the options provided.

Submit
73. A customer reports that after connecting a laptop to a projector they can see their presentation on the laptop but not on the projector screen. Which of the following should the customer perform?

Explanation

The customer should use the function + f8 key to toggle between screens. This key combination is commonly used to switch between display modes on a laptop, allowing the user to control whether the display is shown on the laptop screen, the projector screen, or both simultaneously. By pressing function + f8, the customer should be able to toggle the display to show their presentation on the projector screen.

Submit
74. Which of the following can be used to make a wireless connection between two computers?

Explanation

Ad-hoc mode can be used to make a wireless connection between two computers. Ad-hoc mode allows devices to connect directly to each other without the need for a central access point. In this mode, the computers can communicate with each other directly, creating a wireless network between them. This is useful in situations where a traditional network infrastructure is not available or practical, such as in a temporary setup or in a small network with only a few devices.

Submit
75. Which of the following Windows Vista versions comes with an application to create HD movies?

Explanation

Windows Vista Ultimate is the correct answer because it is the most advanced version of Windows Vista and comes with Windows Movie Maker, an application that allows users to create and edit HD movies. The other versions of Windows Vista do not include this specific application.

Submit
76. All of the following can be plugged into a UPS EXCEPT:

Explanation

A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is a device used to provide backup power to electrical equipment in case of a power outage. It is designed to protect sensitive devices such as computers, laptops, routers, and other electronic equipment from sudden power loss. However, laser printers typically consume a large amount of power and require a higher voltage than what a standard UPS can handle. Therefore, plugging a laser printer into a UPS may overload the UPS and cause it to fail or not function properly.

Submit
77. Which of the following BEST describes single data rate memory?

Explanation

Single data rate memory operates on a single piece of data at a time. This means that it can only process and transfer one piece of data at a time, rather than multiple pieces simultaneously. Unlike other options, it does not refer to the operating rate or compatibility with single processor computers.

Submit
78. The user boots their computer in the morning to discover the message 'OS not found'. Which of the following would recover from that error without data loss?

Explanation

By inserting the system boot disk and repairing the operating system, the user can fix the "OS not found" error without losing any data. This option allows the user to access the operating system and repair any issues that may have caused the error. Installing a new hard drive and restoring the system would result in data loss, while restoring the BIOS configuration to default may not necessarily fix the issue. Using the manufacturer's supplied system recovery disk and restoring the system could also result in data loss.

Submit
79. Which of the following features is only available with the Windows XP Professional version as compared to the Windows XP Home version?

Explanation

Joining a domain is a feature that is only available in the Windows XP Professional version and not in the Windows XP Home version. Joining a domain allows a computer to become a member of a network domain, which enables centralized management and control over user accounts, security policies, and network resources. This feature is particularly useful in business environments where multiple computers need to be managed and controlled centrally.

Submit
80. EEE1394b (Fire wire) is capable of transfer rates of up to:

Explanation

The correct answer is 800Mbps because EEE1394b, also known as FireWire, is a high-speed serial bus interface that can support data transfer rates of up to 800Mbps. This makes it suitable for transferring large amounts of data quickly and efficiently.

Submit
81. A laptop needs a new card reader installed in order to provide the ability to access CF and SD media. Which of the following ports, found on laptops, would be used to install the upgrade?

Explanation

The PCMCIA port is used to install the upgrade because it is a common port found on laptops that allows for the installation of various expansion cards, including card readers. The DVI port is used for connecting external displays, the parallel port is used for connecting printers, and the Mini-PCI port is used for internal wireless network cards.

Submit
82. A user wants to print on multipart forms. Which of the following printer types would a technician MOST likely recommend?

Explanation

A technician would most likely recommend an impact printer for printing on multipart forms. Impact printers use a mechanical impact to transfer ink onto the paper, making them ideal for printing on multiple layers of forms. This type of printer is commonly used in environments where multipart forms are frequently used, such as in businesses that require duplicate or triplicate copies of documents. Impact printers are known for their durability and ability to produce clear and legible prints on multipart forms.

Submit
83. Which of the following configurations would BEST allow sensitive data to be stored on the same hard drive as the operating system, while protecting the data from the operating system related issues?

Explanation

Partitioning the drive into two logical drives, with one for the operating system (C:) and the other for the sensitive data (D:), would be the best configuration to protect the data from operating system related issues. By separating the operating system and the sensitive data into different partitions, any issues or errors with the operating system would not affect the data partition. This provides an additional layer of protection for the sensitive data, ensuring its integrity and security.

Submit
84. Which of the following advanced boot menu options would a technician use to repair the MBR?

Explanation

The Recovery Console option in the advanced boot menu is used by technicians to repair the Master Boot Record (MBR). The MBR is a crucial component of the computer's startup process, and if it gets corrupted or damaged, it can prevent the operating system from loading properly. The Recovery Console provides a command-line interface that allows technicians to perform various tasks, including fixing the MBR, restoring system files, and troubleshooting startup issues.

Submit
85. A technician arrives at a customer's location and identifies a problem. Which of the following troubleshooting steps is NEXT?

Explanation

Explanation: The steps in the troubleshooting process, according to the CompTIA A+
certification exam objectives, are the following:
1. Identify the problem - Question the user, identify user changes, and perform
backups before making changes.
2. Analyze the problem Establish a theory of probable cause. - This is often referred to as root
cause analysis.
3. Test components - Test the theory to determine the cause. Once the theory is
confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. If the theory is
not confirmed, establish a new theory or escalate the problem.
4. Establish a plan of action – Finally, implement the solution.
5. Evaluate the results - Verify full system functionality. If applicable, implement
preventative measures.
6. Document - Record your findings, actions, and outcomes.

Submit
86. A user wants their computer to automatically receive updates from Microsoft; however, they do not want the updates to interfere while they are working. Which of the following should be selected to BEST meet the user's needs?

Explanation

Setting automatic updates to download and install would be the best option to meet the user's needs. This option ensures that the computer will automatically receive updates from Microsoft without any manual intervention from the user. By selecting this option, the updates will be downloaded and installed in the background, minimizing any interference while the user is working on their computer.

Submit
87. A technician upgrades a user's laptop to Windows Vista. If the user changes any system properties, a confirmation dialog appears and the screen dims. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of these confirmation pop-ups?

Explanation

The confirmation pop-ups and dimming of the screen are most likely caused by UAC (User Account Control). UAC is a security feature in Windows Vista that prompts the user for confirmation when making changes to system properties or performing administrative tasks. It helps prevent unauthorized changes and ensures that the user is aware of any potential system modifications.

Submit
88. A technician has just completed a processor swap for a rebuilt PC. After the PC is reassembled and powered on it starts momentarily and immediately shuts off during POST. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

Explanation

The most likely issue is that the heatsink is loose and the processor overheated. The heatsink is responsible for dissipating heat away from the processor, and if it is not properly secured, it may not make proper contact with the processor, causing it to overheat. This can result in the PC starting momentarily and then shutting off during the Power-On Self Test (POST) as the overheating protection mechanism kicks in.

Submit
89. Which of the following is the MINIMUM available hard drive space requirement for installing Windows XP Professional?1GB1.5GB

Explanation

The minimum available hard drive space requirement for installing Windows XP Professional is 1.5GB. This means that in order to successfully install the operating system, the computer must have at least 1.5GB of free space on its hard drive.

Submit
90. A technician is called to a school lab to fix a computer. The computer worked fine the day before, but now does not power on. The computer is plugged into a power strip with another computer. The other computer works fine. Which of the following could be the problem?

Explanation

The correct answer is that the power strip is overloaded. This is because the other computer plugged into the power strip is working fine, indicating that there is power coming from the outlet. If the monitor or power cable were unplugged, the other computer would also be affected. However, if the power strip is overloaded, it can cause the computer to not power on.

Submit
91. After a power surge, a computer will not boot. Which of the following is the BEST place to start troubleshooting the issue?

Explanation

The best place to start troubleshooting the issue of a computer not booting after a power surge is to check the power connectors on the hard drive. This is because a power surge could have caused damage to the power connectors, resulting in a lack of power supply to the hard drive. By checking the power connectors, it can be determined if they are properly connected or if they need to be replaced.

Submit
92. Which of the following is a hot plug device for a laptop?

Explanation

Both the Mini-PCI card and PCMCIA card are hot plug devices for a laptop. Hot plug refers to the ability to connect and disconnect a device from a computer system while it is still running. Mini-PCI cards are used to add functionality to a laptop, such as wireless networking or additional storage. PCMCIA cards, also known as PC cards, are used to add various types of functionality to a laptop, such as network adapters, sound cards, or modems. Both of these devices can be inserted or removed from a laptop without needing to shut down or restart the system.

Submit
93. Which of the following voltages does the ATX power supply provide? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The ATX power supply provides two voltages: 5V and -5V. These voltages are commonly used in computer systems to power various components and peripherals. The 5V voltage is used to power devices such as USB ports, fans, and some integrated circuits. The -5V voltage is used for legacy components and circuits that require a negative voltage supply, although it is less commonly used in modern systems.

Submit
94. Which of the following memory modules could be installed if the system workstation requirements called for PC2700 DDR DIMMS?

Explanation

PC2700 DDR DIMMs have a maximum transfer rate of 2700 MB/s. PC3200 memory modules have a maximum transfer rate of 3200 MB/s, which is higher than the requirement of PC2700. Therefore, PC3200 memory modules could be installed in the system workstation if the requirements called for PC2700 DDR DIMMs. PC2100, PC133, and DDR3-1600 memory modules have lower transfer rates and would not meet the required specifications.

Submit
95. Which of the following processors uses a pin array cartridge?

Explanation

The Itanium processor uses a pin array cartridge. This type of cartridge is a packaging technology that allows the processor to be easily inserted and removed from the motherboard. Itanium processors were designed for high-performance computing and were used primarily in servers and workstations. The pin array cartridge provided a convenient and efficient way to install and upgrade these processors.

Submit
96. Which of the following is the maximum transfer speed that can be achieved on SATA interface?

Explanation

The correct answer is 300Mbps. SATA (Serial ATA) is a computer bus interface used to connect storage devices such as hard drives and solid-state drives to the motherboard. SATA interfaces can achieve different transfer speeds depending on the version. SATA 1.0 has a maximum transfer speed of 1.5Gbps (1500Mbps), SATA 2.0 has a maximum transfer speed of 3Gbps (3000Mbps), and SATA 3.0 has a maximum transfer speed of 6Gbps (6000Mbps). Therefore, the maximum transfer speed that can be achieved on the SATA interface is 300Mbps.

Submit
97. Which of the following is a limitation of satellite broadband?

Explanation

Satellite broadband is limited in that it only allows for receive-only transmission. This means that users can only download data from the satellite, but cannot upload or send data back. This limitation can be a disadvantage for users who require two-way communication, such as for video conferencing or online gaming.

Submit
98. In which of the following steps of the troubleshooting theory is it important to perform backups?

Explanation

The steps in the troubleshooting process, according to the CompTIA A+
certification exam objectives, are the following:
1. Identify the problem - Question the user, identify user changes, and perform
backups before making changes.
2. Analyze the problem Establish a theory of probable cause. - This is often referred to as root
cause analysis.
3. Test components - Test the theory to determine the cause. Once the theory is
confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. If the theory is
not confirmed, establish a new theory or escalate the problem.
4. Establish a plan of action – Finally, implement the solution.
5. Evaluate the results - Verify full system functionality. If applicable, implement preventative
measures.
6. Document - Record your findings, actions, and outcomes.

Submit
99. A technician is informed that a computer shuts down unexpectedly different times during the day. After the technician performs the work on the computer the NEXT course of action should be to:

Explanation

After performing work on the computer and experiencing unexpected shutdowns, it is important to instruct the user to save any projects in case the problem persists. This is because the unexpected shutdowns may still occur and could potentially lead to data loss if the projects are not saved. By advising the user to save their work, it ensures that they do not lose any important data in case the issue continues.

Submit
100. Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting process should be performed when the cause cannot be confirmed?

Explanation

The steps in the troubleshooting process, according to the CompTIA A+
certification exam objectives, are the following:
1. Identify the problem - Question the user, identify user changes, and perform
backups before making changes.
2. Analyze the problem Establish a theory of probable cause. - This is often referred to as root
cause analysis.
3. Test components - Test the theory to determine the cause. Once the theory is
confirmed, determine the next steps to resolve the problem. If the theory is
not confirmed, establish a new theory or escalate the problem.
4. Establish a plan of action – Finally, implement the solution.
5. Evaluate the results - Verify full system functionality. If applicable, implement preventative measures.
6. Document - Record your findings, actions, and outcomes.

Submit
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