CompTIA A+ Practical Application #3

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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 317
Questions: 21 | Attempts: 75

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CompTIA A+ Practical Application #3 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A laptop is going into standby mode unexpectedly. Which of the following hardware components is MOST likely causing the issue?

    • A.

      Hard drive

    • B.

      IDE controller

    • C.

      LCD cutoff switch

    • D.

      Video card

    Correct Answer
    C. LCD cutoff switch
    Explanation
    The LCD cutoff switch is most likely causing the laptop to go into standby mode unexpectedly. This switch is responsible for turning off the display when the laptop lid is closed. If the switch is faulty or stuck, it may mistakenly signal the laptop to go into standby mode even when the lid is open.

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  • 2. 

    A legacy AGP 2X video card is upgraded to an AGP 8X card. The PC is powered on and nothing happens. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The AGP 8X video card does not have proper jumper settings.

    • B.

      The PC BIOS must use a larger AGP window setting.

    • C.

      The AGP version is not supported by the PC BIOS.

    • D.

      The AGP card requires the video memory shading enabled.

    Correct Answer
    C. The AGP version is not supported by the PC BIOS.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is that the AGP version of the new video card is not supported by the PC BIOS. The BIOS is responsible for initializing and configuring hardware components, including the video card. If the BIOS does not support the AGP version of the card, it will not be able to properly communicate with and utilize the card, resulting in nothing happening when the PC is powered on.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following commands will allow modification of file C:\BOOT.INI?

    • A.

      Attrib-s+h+r C:\BOOT.INI

    • B.

      Attrib+s-h+r C:\BOOT.INI

    • C.

      Attrib +s +h +r C:\BOOT.INI

    • D.

      Attrib-s-h-r C:\BOOT.INI

    Correct Answer
    D. Attrib-s-h-r C:\BOOT.INI
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "attrib-s-h-r C:\BOOT.INI". This command will remove the system, hidden, and read-only attributes from the file C:\BOOT.INI, allowing modification of the file. The "-s" option removes the system attribute, the "-h" option removes the hidden attribute, and the "-r" option removes the read-only attribute.

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  • 4. 

    A Windows XP system has been badly infected with malware. The technician notices that the malware is making repeated attempts to broadcast over the network from activity seen on the local firewall. Which of the following Windows XP startup options would be the SAFEST way to remove the malware?

    • A.

      Use the Safe Mode with Networking option

    • B.

      Use the Safe Mode option

    • C.

      Use the Enable Boot Logging option

    • D.

      Use the Last Known Good Configuration option

    Correct Answer
    B. Use the Safe Mode option
    Explanation
    Using the Safe Mode option would be the safest way to remove the malware. Safe Mode starts the computer with only the basic files and drivers necessary to run, which can help prevent the malware from running and spreading further. This mode also disables network connectivity, which can prevent the malware from broadcasting over the network. By booting into Safe Mode, the technician can access the system and run antivirus scans or other malware removal tools to safely remove the malware.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following uses port 143 by default?

    • A.

      SNMP

    • B.

      POP3

    • C.

      IMAP

    • D.

      SMTP

    Correct Answer
    C. IMAP
    Explanation
    IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) uses port 143 by default. IMAP is an email protocol that allows users to access and manage their email messages on a remote server. Port 143 is the default port used for IMAP communication between the email client and the email server. It allows the client to retrieve and manipulate email messages stored on the server, providing features such as folder synchronization, message search, and server-side storage.

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  • 6. 

    A program is crashing and causing the computer to lockup. Which of the following is the BEST location for a technician to check for further information about the cause of the crash?

    • A.

      Application log

    • B.

      File Replication log

    • C.

      System log

    • D.

      Security log

    Correct Answer
    A. Application log
    Explanation
    The application log is the best location for a technician to check for further information about the cause of the crash. The application log records events and errors related to specific applications running on the computer. By reviewing the application log, the technician can gather information about any errors or issues that occurred during the execution of the program, which can help in identifying the cause of the crash and resolving the problem.

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  • 7. 

    A user states that when the user copies files from 'My Documents' to a network share, the files are no longer available locally. Which of the following BEST describes the reason the files are no longer visible?

    • A.

      A user states that when the user copies files from 'My Documents' to a network share, the files are no longer available locally. Which of the following BEST describes the reason the files are no longer visible?

    • B.

      The user changed the attributes of the files.

    • C.

      The user copied the files from the local My Documents folder.

    • D.

      The user moved instead of copied the files.

    Correct Answer
    D. The user moved instead of copied the files.
    Explanation
    When the user moves files from 'My Documents' to a network share, the files are physically relocated from the local storage to the network location. This means that the files are no longer available locally because they have been removed from the original location. If the user had copied the files instead, they would have remained in the local 'My Documents' folder while also being copied to the network share.

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  • 8. 

    How many logical partitions are allowed on a single NTFS drive?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      6

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    NTFS (New Technology File System) allows a maximum of 4 logical partitions on a single drive. A logical partition is a division of a physical disk into separate areas that can be used to store data. This limit of 4 partitions is imposed by the partition table structure used by NTFS. Each partition can be assigned a drive letter and function as a separate storage unit. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

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  • 9. 

    A small momentary button on the inside of a computer case is MOST likely which of the following?

    • A.

      BIOS reset button

    • B.

      Fan switch

    • C.

      Fan switch

    • D.

      Intrusion detection

    Correct Answer
    D. Intrusion detection
    Explanation
    The small momentary button on the inside of a computer case is most likely an intrusion detection button. This button is typically used to detect if the computer case has been opened or tampered with. When the button is pressed, it triggers an alert or notification to the user or system administrator, indicating that unauthorized access may have occurred. This helps to enhance the security of the computer system by monitoring for potential intrusions or unauthorized access attempts.

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  • 10. 

    A user has a computer with a 100GB IDE hard drive formatted as a single FAT32 partition. This drive is only used to store data. The user adds a second 100GB hard drive and wants to mirror the two drives. When the user goes to disk management there is no option to mirror the drives. Which of the following will resolve this issue?

    • A.

      Convert the partition to NTFS.

    • B.

      Change the partition to be an extended partition.

    • C.

      Convert both drives to a dynamic disk.

    • D.

      Change the partition to be the active partition.

    Correct Answer
    C. Convert both drives to a dynamic disk.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to convert both drives to a dynamic disk. By converting the drives to a dynamic disk, the user will be able to create a mirrored volume, also known as a RAID 1 configuration. This will allow the data to be mirrored between the two drives, providing redundancy in case of drive failure. Converting the partition to NTFS, changing the partition to be an extended partition, or changing the partition to be the active partition will not enable the user to create a mirrored volume.

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  • 11. 

    Mike, a technician, is getting ready to upgrade the graphics card in a customer's computer with a performance PCIe graphics card. The customer has verified that she has a 16x PCIe slot on her motherboard. Which of the following may also need to be upgraded?

    • A.

      RAM

    • B.

      Motherboard

    • C.

      Power supply

    • D.

      Processor

    Correct Answer
    C. Power supply
    Explanation
    When upgrading to a performance PCIe graphics card, it is important to consider the power supply. High-performance graphics cards require more power than standard ones, so it is possible that the customer's current power supply may not be able to handle the increased power demand. Upgrading the power supply will ensure that the system has enough power to support the new graphics card and prevent any potential issues or instability.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is the correct socket type for a Pentium 4 processor?

    • A.

      478

    • B.

      939

    • C.

      1366

    • D.

      AM2+

    Correct Answer
    A. 478
    Explanation
    The correct socket type for a Pentium 4 processor is 478. This socket type was specifically designed for Pentium 4 processors and is not compatible with other processor types.

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  • 13. 

    A new security administrator asks Bob, a technician, to help review logs on a computer system. Which of the following tools would Bob use to show the security administrator the logs?

    • A.

      Performance Monitor

    • B.

      Administrator logs

    • C.

      Event Viewer

    • D.

      Disk Manager

    Correct Answer
    C. Event Viewer
    Explanation
    Bob would use the Event Viewer tool to show the security administrator the logs. The Event Viewer is a built-in Windows tool that allows users to view and analyze event logs on a computer system. These logs contain information about system events, errors, warnings, and other important activities that occur on the system. By using the Event Viewer, Bob can easily access and review the logs, helping the security administrator to identify any security-related issues or anomalies.

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  • 14. 

    While using the ping command to try and reach a local server, a technician receives a response of "Destination host unreachable". After confirming that the PC is physically connected to the network, which of the following commands should the technician use to get more detailed information?

    • A.

      TRACERT

    • B.

      GREP

    • C.

      TELNET

    • D.

      DIG

    Correct Answer
    A. TRACERT
    Explanation
    The technician should use the TRACERT command to get more detailed information. TRACERT is a command-line tool used to trace the route that packets take to reach a destination. It provides a list of all the routers or hops that the packets pass through before reaching the destination. By using TRACERT, the technician can identify where the connection is failing and determine the reason for the "Destination host unreachable" response.

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  • 15. 

    Bob, a technician, wants to run antivirus scans on every machine on a daily basis. To minimize the impact to all system resources, which of the following is the BEST time to schedule the scans to run?

    • A.

      5:00 p.m. - 7:00 p.m.

    • B.

      7:30 a.m. - 9:30 a.m.

    • C.

      11:00 p.m. - 1:00 a.m.

    • D.

      12:00 p.m. - 2:00 p.m.

    Correct Answer
    C. 11:00 p.m. - 1:00 a.m.
    Explanation
    Running antivirus scans during the time when system usage is typically low, such as during the late night or early morning hours, would minimize the impact on system resources. This is because fewer users would be actively using the machines during this time, resulting in less competition for system resources. Therefore, scheduling the scans to run from 11:00 p.m. to 1:00 a.m. would be the best time to minimize the impact on system resources.

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  • 16. 

    A technician is attempting to install a RAID 1 configuration. Which of the following is the MINIMUM amount of disks that can be used to create a RAID 1 array?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    RAID 1 is a mirrored configuration where data is duplicated across multiple disks to ensure redundancy and data protection. In a RAID 1 array, each disk is an exact copy of the other, providing fault tolerance. To create a RAID 1 array, a minimum of 2 disks is required, as there needs to be at least one duplicate disk to mirror the data. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 17. 

    A technician is attempting to install a RAID 5 configuration. Which of the following is the MINUMUM amount of disks that can be used to create a RAID 5 array?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    RAID 5 requires a minimum of three disks to create an array. This is because RAID 5 uses block-level striping with distributed parity. It distributes the parity information across all the disks in the array, providing fault tolerance and allowing for the loss of one disk without data loss. With only two disks, there would not be enough disks to distribute the parity information, making a minimum of three disks necessary for RAID 5.

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  • 18. 

    A customer reports that a laser printer has a paper jam error at the output assembly. After a visual inspection, there are no visible paper jams. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      Fuser flag sensor is defective

    • B.

      Transfer roller is defective

    • C.

      Exit flag sensor is defective

    • D.

      Toner cartridge is defective

    • E.

      Paper input sensor is defective

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fuser flag sensor is defective
    C. Exit flag sensor is defective
    Explanation
    The fuser flag sensor and exit flag sensor being defective are the most likely causes of the paper jam error at the output assembly. These sensors are responsible for detecting the presence of paper in the respective areas of the printer. If either of these sensors is malfunctioning, it could result in a false paper jam error being reported even when there is no actual paper jam.

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  • 19. 

    When disassembling a laptop Mike, a technician, should do which of the following?

    • A.

      Remove the hard drive and backup all data before disassembly.

    • B.

      Carefully place all screws in one container so that they do not get lost.

    • C.

      Refer to the manufacturer's documentation.

    • D.

      Start from the top of the laptop, carefully disassembling each component.

    Correct Answer
    C. Refer to the manufacturer's documentation.
    Explanation
    When disassembling a laptop, it is important for a technician to refer to the manufacturer's documentation. This documentation provides specific instructions and guidelines for disassembling the laptop, ensuring that the process is done correctly and without causing any damage. It may also include important information about specific components or connectors that need special attention during disassembly. By following the manufacturer's documentation, the technician can ensure that the laptop is disassembled properly and can avoid any potential issues or mistakes.

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  • 20. 

    A user, Bob, would like 50GB of data transferred from his old computer to his new computer. Which of the following would be the BEST way for Mike, a technician, to transfer the user's data?

    • A.

      Flash drive

    • B.

      DVD

    • C.

      Floppy disks

    • D.

      USB hard drive adapter

    Correct Answer
    D. USB hard drive adapter
    Explanation
    The best way for Mike, the technician, to transfer Bob's 50GB of data from his old computer to his new computer would be by using a USB hard drive adapter. This device allows for a direct and fast transfer of large amounts of data between two computers. It eliminates the need for multiple storage devices like flash drives, DVDs, or floppy disks, which may not have enough capacity to handle the 50GB of data.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following will translate an IP address to a FQDN?

    • A.

      Tracert

    • B.

      Nslookup

    • C.

      Ipconfig

    • D.

      Netsh

    Correct Answer
    B. Nslookup
    Explanation
    Nslookup is a command-line tool used to query the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain information about domain names, including translating an IP address to a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN). It allows users to enter an IP address and receive the corresponding domain name, which can be helpful for troubleshooting network issues or verifying DNS configurations. Tracert is used for tracing the route that packets take to reach a destination, ipconfig is used to view and manage IP configuration settings, and netsh is used to configure network settings.

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