CompTIA A+ Essential #1

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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 317
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CompTIA A+ Essential #1 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A user is having problems printing. The technician believes the printer may be out of ink. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed NEXT?

    • A.

      Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem

    • B.

      Implement the solution

    • C.

      Test the theory to determine cause

    • D.

      Verify full system functionality

    Correct Answer
    C. Test the theory to determine cause
    Explanation
    The technician should test the theory that the printer is out of ink to determine the cause of the printing problem. This step is necessary to confirm whether the printer is indeed out of ink or if there is another issue causing the problem. By testing the theory, the technician can gather evidence and data to support their conclusion and proceed with the appropriate solution. Once the cause is determined, the technician can then move on to implementing the solution to resolve the printing problem.

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  • 2. 

    A user can no longer launch their word processing program. The program worked fine yesterday. Which of the following options could BEST be used to fix the word processing program?

    • A.

      Safe Mode

    • B.

      Automated System Recovery

    • C.

      Last Known Good Configuration

    • D.

      System Restore

    Correct Answer
    D. System Restore
    Explanation
    System Restore could be the best option to fix the word processing program. System Restore allows the user to revert their computer's settings to a previous point in time when the program was working fine. By restoring the system to a previous state, any changes or issues that may have caused the program to stop working can be undone, potentially resolving the problem and allowing the user to launch the word processing program again.

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  • 3. 

    The contrast ratio for an LCD monitor is BEST defined as the ratio between:

    • A.

      Display resolution and brightness.

    • B.

      Power consumption and output intensity.

    • C.

      Power savings of a comparable CRT monitor and the LCD.

    • D.

      The darkest and lightest displayed output.

    Correct Answer
    D. The darkest and lightest displayed output.
    Explanation
    The contrast ratio for an LCD monitor is defined as the ratio between the darkest and lightest displayed output. This means that it measures the difference in brightness between the darkest black and the brightest white that the monitor can produce. A higher contrast ratio indicates a greater range of colors and better image quality, as it allows for more detail and depth in the displayed content.

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  • 4. 

    A technician arrives in Germany and discovers that when their PC is plugged into the outlet, no power is received. Which of the following actions should the technician take to get the PC to operate?

    • A.

      Change the BIOS settings to the local time

    • B.

      Adjust the voltage selector switch

    • C.

      Attach a 220 volt power strip from the current region to the PC

    • D.

      Attach a 120 volt battery backup power supply to the PC

    Correct Answer
    B. Adjust the voltage selector switch
    Explanation
    The technician should adjust the voltage selector switch. This is because different countries have different voltage standards for their electrical outlets. In Germany, the standard voltage is 220 volts, while in some other countries it may be 120 volts. By adjusting the voltage selector switch on the PC to match the local voltage, the technician can ensure that the PC receives the correct amount of power and can operate properly.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following technologies is the MOST secure form of wireless encryption?

    • A.

      SSL

    • B.

      WPA

    • C.

      WEP

    • D.

      TLS

    Correct Answer
    B. WPA
    Explanation
    WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) is the most secure form of wireless encryption among the given options. WPA provides stronger security measures compared to WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy), which is vulnerable to various attacks. SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS (Transport Layer Security) are encryption protocols used for securing internet communications, but they are not specifically designed for wireless encryption. Therefore, WPA is the most appropriate choice for ensuring the security of wireless networks.

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  • 6. 

    The technician is repairing a PC which appears to have a failing RAM module. After replacing the module, the extra memory still is not registering. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?

    • A.

      Jumper settings are incorrect

    • B.

      The RAM module is defective

    • C.

      The memory slot is defective

    • D.

      CMOS needs to be flashed

    Correct Answer
    C. The memory slot is defective
    Explanation
    The technician has already replaced the failing RAM module, but the extra memory is still not registering. This suggests that the issue is not with the RAM module itself, but with the memory slot. It is likely that the memory slot is defective and not properly recognizing or connecting with the new RAM module.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following processing types allows two instructions to be received and processed nanoseconds apart?

    • A.

      Quad core

    • B.

      Triple core

    • C.

      Dual core

    • D.

      Hyper-threading

    Correct Answer
    D. Hyper-threading
    Explanation
    Hyper-threading is a processing type that allows two instructions to be received and processed nanoseconds apart. It is a technology developed by Intel that enables a single physical processor core to behave like two logical processors. This allows for better utilization of the CPU resources and improved multitasking performance. By executing multiple threads simultaneously, hyper-threading increases overall system performance and responsiveness.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following operating system types will allow a user to utilize 16GB of RAM if installed on a PC workstation?

    • A.

      8-bit

    • B.

      16-bit

    • C.

      32-bit

    • D.

      64-bit

    Correct Answer
    D. 64-bit
    Explanation
    A 64-bit operating system is capable of utilizing 16GB of RAM if installed on a PC workstation. This is because a 64-bit system can address a larger memory space compared to a 32-bit system. In a 32-bit system, the maximum amount of RAM that can be utilized is limited to around 4GB. However, a 64-bit system can access much larger amounts of memory, allowing for the full utilization of 16GB of RAM.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following adapter cards allows I/O devices to be connected and transmits data using a POTS line?

    • A.

      PCI tuner card

    • B.

      PCI modem

    • C.

      PCI SCSI

    • D.

      PCI Ethernet

    Correct Answer
    B. PCI modem
    Explanation
    A PCI modem is the correct answer because it is an adapter card that allows I/O devices to be connected and transmits data using a POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) line. This type of modem is commonly used for dial-up internet connections and allows for the transmission of data over a telephone line. The other options listed (PCI tuner card, PCI SCSI, and PCI Ethernet) do not specifically mention the use of a POTS line for data transmission.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following expansion devices would allow a user to utilize multiple hardware profiles to control an external display and power option?

    • A.

      PCI Express card

    • B.

      KVM

    • C.

      PCMCIA card

    • D.

      Docking station

    Correct Answer
    D. Docking station
    Explanation
    A docking station is a device that allows a user to connect their laptop or mobile device to various peripherals such as an external display, keyboard, mouse, and power source. It provides multiple hardware profiles, meaning that the user can easily switch between different configurations depending on their needs. This allows them to control the external display and power options efficiently. The other options, such as the PCI Express card, KVM, and PCMCIA card, do not typically offer the same level of versatility and flexibility as a docking station.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following BIOS level settings allow an administrator to view warnings on possible hardware level changes?

    • A.

      Drive lock

    • B.

      Intrusion detection

    • C.

      BIOS password

    • D.

      Trusted platform module

    Correct Answer
    B. Intrusion detection
    Explanation
    Intrusion detection is the correct answer because it is a BIOS level setting that allows an administrator to view warnings on possible hardware level changes. Intrusion detection is a security feature that detects and alerts the administrator when there is an unauthorized attempt to access or tamper with the system hardware. This setting helps protect the system from physical attacks or unauthorized modifications, and allows the administrator to take appropriate action in response to any detected intrusion attempts.

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  • 12. 

    A technician just installed an antivirus suite on a workstation. It is kept up-to-date and has recently scanned the system. A day later the user reports slower response times than usual. Which of the following is the user MOST likely experiencing?

    • A.

      Advertisements

    • B.

      Resource consumption

    • C.

      A trojan infection

    • D.

      Unremoved viruses

    Correct Answer
    B. Resource consumption
    Explanation
    The user is most likely experiencing resource consumption. This means that the antivirus suite, while functioning properly and keeping the system protected, may be using a significant amount of system resources, such as CPU or memory, causing the workstation to run slower than usual. This can happen especially if the workstation has limited resources or if there are other resource-intensive programs running simultaneously.

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  • 13. 

    A technician installs a new video card in a desktop with onboard video. The technician boots the unit but sees no display. The monitor power light is on and the OS seems to be loading. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

    • A.

      The display is defective.

    • B.

      The video card needs to be flashed.

    • C.

      The internal adapter has not been disabled.

    • D.

      The new video card is defective.

    Correct Answer
    C. The internal adapter has not been disabled.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause for the technician seeing no display despite the monitor power light being on and the OS loading is that the internal adapter has not been disabled. This means that the computer is still trying to use the onboard video instead of the newly installed video card. Disabling the internal adapter would allow the computer to recognize and use the new video card properly.

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  • 14. 

    A user wants to install a new game and needs to make sure the proper version of DirectX is installed. Which of the following is the BEST way to check for the DirectX version?

    • A.

      REGEDIT

    • B.

      Services.msc

    • C.

      Dxdiag

    • D.

      Msconfig

    Correct Answer
    C. Dxdiag
    Explanation
    Dxdiag is the best way to check for the DirectX version. Dxdiag is a built-in Windows tool that provides detailed information about the DirectX components installed on the system, including the version. It allows users to diagnose and troubleshoot DirectX-related issues, making it the most appropriate option for checking the DirectX version before installing a new game.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following methods can be used to apply a file system to a hard drive partition? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      Device Manager MMC

    • B.

      Format Command

    • C.

      Disk Management MMC

    • D.

      Windows Explorer Menus

    • E.

      FDISK Command

    Correct Answer
    B. Format Command
    Explanation
    The Format Command can be used to apply a file system to a hard drive partition. This command allows the user to format a partition with a specific file system, such as NTFS or FAT32. It is a command-line tool that can be used in the Windows Command Prompt. Another method that can be used is the Disk Management MMC (Microsoft Management Console). This tool provides a graphical interface for managing disk partitions and allows the user to format a partition with a file system.

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  • 16. 

    A Windows XP Professional PC needs to be checked for compatibility before being upgraded to Windows Vista Business. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take before the upgrade?

    • A.

      Run the Windows Vista Upgrade Advisor on the target PC.

    • B.

      Check the README file on the Vista installation DVD for system requirements.

    • C.

      Check the manufacturer's support pages for system requirements.

    • D.

      Run the Windows AIK on the Vista installation DVD.

    Correct Answer
    A. Run the Windows Vista Upgrade Advisor on the target PC.
    Explanation
    Before upgrading a Windows XP Professional PC to Windows Vista Business, the best action to take is to run the Windows Vista Upgrade Advisor on the target PC. This tool will analyze the hardware and software on the PC and provide a report on its compatibility with Windows Vista. This will help identify any potential issues or conflicts that may arise during the upgrade process, allowing the user to address them beforehand and ensure a smooth transition to the new operating system.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following WLAN protocols is in the 5GHz band with a MAXIMUM data rate of 54Mbps?

    • A.

      802.11a

    • B.

      802.11b

    • C.

      802.11g

    • D.

      802.11n

    Correct Answer
    A. 802.11a
    Explanation
    802.11a is the correct answer because it operates in the 5GHz band and has a maximum data rate of 54Mbps. 802.11b operates in the 2.4GHz band and has a maximum data rate of 11Mbps. 802.11g also operates in the 2.4GHz band but has a maximum data rate of 54Mbps. 802.11n can operate in both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands and has a maximum data rate of up to 600Mbps.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following media types is considered a solid state?

    • A.

      Thumb drive

    • B.

      DVD drive

    • C.

      Blu-Ray drive

    • D.

      IDE FDD

    Correct Answer
    A. Thumb drive
    Explanation
    A thumb drive is considered a solid state media type because it uses flash memory to store data. Unlike traditional hard drives or optical drives like DVD and Blu-Ray drives, which have moving parts, a thumb drive has no moving parts. This makes it more durable, reliable, and faster in terms of data transfer. Solid state media types are also less prone to damage from physical shocks or vibrations, making them ideal for portable storage devices like thumb drives.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following malicious software types will create multiple pop-ups on a computer?

    • A.

      Adware

    • B.

      Grayware

    • C.

      Worms

    • D.

      Spyware

    Correct Answer
    A. Adware
    Explanation
    Adware is a type of malicious software that is designed to display unwanted advertisements on a computer. It is known for creating multiple pop-ups on the screen, interrupting the user's browsing experience and potentially leading to other security risks. Unlike other types of malware such as grayware, worms, or spyware, adware specifically focuses on generating revenue through advertising and can be quite intrusive.

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  • 20. 

    A technician replaces a user's 15 inch LCD with a 20 inch LCD. Later, the user informs the technician that icons are very large and the text on the monitor is fuzzy and distorted. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

    • A.

      The contrast setting needs to be raised from the default.

    • B.

      The monitor firmware was not updated.

    • C.

      The new monitor has a different native resolution.

    • D.

      The monitor needs to be degaussed to clarify the picture.

    Correct Answer
    C. The new monitor has a different native resolution.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the icons being large and the text being fuzzy and distorted is that the new monitor has a different native resolution. Native resolution refers to the number of pixels that the monitor is designed to display. When a monitor with a different native resolution is connected, it can result in the display appearing stretched or distorted, causing icons and text to appear larger and unclear. Adjusting the contrast setting or updating the monitor firmware would not directly address the issue of native resolution mismatch. Degaussing is a process used to remove magnetic interference and would not affect the resolution.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following devices is used to move frames between a source and destination based on a MAC address?

    • A.

      Repeater

    • B.

      Hub

    • C.

      Router

    • D.

      Switch

    Correct Answer
    D. Switch
    Explanation
    A switch is used to move frames between a source and destination based on a MAC address. Switches operate at the data link layer of the OSI model and use the MAC address to determine the destination of the frame. They create a temporary connection between the source and destination devices, allowing for efficient and direct communication between them. Unlike hubs or repeaters, switches can handle multiple connections simultaneously and provide dedicated bandwidth to each connected device. Routers, on the other hand, operate at the network layer and use IP addresses to forward packets between different networks.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following protocols would BEST grant the user secure access to a remote location?

    • A.

      VPN

    • B.

      FTP

    • C.

      POP3

    • D.

      DNS

    Correct Answer
    A. VPN
    Explanation
    A VPN (Virtual Private Network) would be the best protocol to grant the user secure access to a remote location. VPNs create a secure and encrypted connection between the user's device and the remote network, ensuring that data transmitted over the internet is protected from unauthorized access. This allows users to securely access resources, files, and services on the remote network as if they were directly connected to it, regardless of their physical location. FTP, POP3, and DNS are not specifically designed for secure remote access and do not provide the same level of encryption and security as a VPN.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following protocols encrypt communication? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      HTTPS

    • B.

      TELNET

    • C.

      SMTP

    • D.

      DNS

    • E.

      SSH

    Correct Answer
    E. SSH
    Explanation
    SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol that encrypts communication between devices, ensuring secure remote access and data transfer. It provides authentication and encryption, protecting against eavesdropping and unauthorized access. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is another protocol that encrypts communication, commonly used for secure web browsing. TELNET, SMTP, and DNS do not encrypt communication, making them less secure options.

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  • 24. 

    On which of the following transmission media types can LC connectors be found?

    • A.

      UTP

    • B.

      STP

    • C.

      Coaxial

    • D.

      Fiber

    Correct Answer
    D. Fiber
    Explanation
    LC connectors can be found on fiber transmission media. Fiber optic cables use LC connectors to connect and terminate the cables. LC connectors are small form-factor connectors that are commonly used in high-density applications. They provide low insertion loss and high return loss, making them ideal for high-speed and long-distance data transmission over fiber optic networks.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following BEST describes a hub?

    • A.

      Determines the best route to transmit data

    • B.

      Inspects traffic and accepts or declines transmission

    • C.

      Broadcasts data to specific network devices

    • D.

      Broadcasts data to all network devices

    Correct Answer
    D. Broadcasts data to all network devices
    Explanation
    A hub is a networking device that broadcasts data to all network devices connected to it. It does not determine the best route to transmit data or inspect traffic. Its main function is to receive data from one device and transmit it to all other devices on the network. Therefore, the best description of a hub is that it broadcasts data to all network devices.

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  • 26. 

    A client states they are receiving poor signal strength on their wireless Internet connection. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the interference? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      Cordless phones

    • B.

      Drywall

    • C.

      Access points

    • D.

      Microwaves

    • E.

      Fluorescents lights

    Correct Answer
    D. Microwaves
    Explanation
    Microwaves are a common source of interference for wireless Internet connections. The electromagnetic waves emitted by microwaves can disrupt the wireless signals, leading to poor signal strength. Cordless phones can also cause interference as they operate on similar frequencies as Wi-Fi. Drywall, access points, and fluorescent lights do not typically cause interference with wireless signals.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is the MOST common secure web server port?

    • A.

      22

    • B.

      80

    • C.

      110

    • D.

      443

    Correct Answer
    D. 443
    Explanation
    Port 443 is the most common secure web server port because it is the default port for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) connections. HTTPS is a secure version of HTTP that encrypts the data being transmitted between a web server and a client, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the communication. Port 443 is widely used by websites that require secure connections, such as online banking, e-commerce, and other websites that handle sensitive information.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is needed to boot into the Recovery Console in Windows XP?

    • A.

      Emergency Restore Disk

    • B.

      System Restore point

    • C.

      Original Installation CD

    • D.

      Automated System Recovery

    Correct Answer
    C. Original Installation CD
    Explanation
    To boot into the Recovery Console in Windows XP, the original installation CD is needed. The Recovery Console is a command-line interface that allows users to perform advanced troubleshooting and repair tasks on the operating system. By booting from the original installation CD, users can access the Recovery Console and use its tools to fix issues such as startup problems, system file corruption, and malware infections. The Emergency Restore Disk, System Restore point, and Automated System Recovery are not specifically required for booting into the Recovery Console.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following network connections would use a standard POTS line to both send and receive Internet packets? (Select TWO).

    • A.

      Dial-up

    • B.

      DSL

    • C.

      Satellite

    • D.

      OC3

    • E.

      T1

    Correct Answer
    B. DSL
    Explanation
    DSL, or Digital Subscriber Line, is a network connection that uses a standard POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) line to send and receive Internet packets. DSL technology allows for high-speed data transmission over traditional copper telephone lines, making it a popular choice for residential and small business internet connections. Dial-up is also a correct answer as it uses a standard POTS line, but it is a slower and less common option compared to DSL. Satellite, OC3, and T1 connections do not use POTS lines for internet connectivity.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is the NEXT step in the troubleshooting theory after identifying the problem?

    • A.

      Establish a theory of probable cause

    • B.

      Test the theory

    • C.

      Implement preventative measures

    • D.

      Establish a plan of action

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish a theory of probable cause
    Explanation
    After identifying the problem, the next step in the troubleshooting theory is to establish a theory of probable cause. This involves analyzing the information gathered about the problem and coming up with a hypothesis or educated guess about what might be causing it. This theory will guide the subsequent steps in the troubleshooting process, such as testing the theory and implementing preventative measures. By establishing a theory of probable cause, technicians can narrow down the possible sources of the problem and focus their efforts on finding a solution.

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  • 31. 

    A user has purchased a laptop that has no means to charge the battery. Which of the following would the user MOST likely purchase?

    • A.

      USB cable

    • B.

      AC adapter

    • C.

      PCMCIA card

    • D.

      Replacement battery

    Correct Answer
    B. AC adapter
    Explanation
    The user would most likely purchase an AC adapter because it is used to connect the laptop to a power source and charge the battery. Since the laptop has no means to charge the battery, the user would need an AC adapter to provide power to the laptop. A USB cable is used for data transfer and connecting peripherals, a PCMCIA card is used for expanding the laptop's capabilities, and a replacement battery would not solve the problem of not being able to charge the battery.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following will help dissipate heat through the heat sink when upgrading a CPU?

    • A.

      Case fan

    • B.

      Thermal compound

    • C.

      Motherboard riser

    • D.

      Power supply

    Correct Answer
    B. Thermal compound
    Explanation
    Thermal compound is used to improve the heat transfer between the CPU and the heat sink. It fills in the microscopic gaps and imperfections on the surfaces, allowing for better thermal conductivity. By applying thermal compound, the heat generated by the CPU can efficiently transfer to the heat sink, which then dissipates the heat into the surrounding environment. Therefore, using thermal compound is essential when upgrading a CPU to ensure effective heat dissipation and prevent overheating.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following is an advantage that a USB mouse has over a PS/2 mouse?

    • A.

      A USB mouse uses less power

    • B.

      A USB mouse is more portable

    • C.

      A USB mouse is hot swappable

    • D.

      A USB mouse is more secure

    Correct Answer
    C. A USB mouse is hot swappable
    Explanation
    A USB mouse being hot swappable means that it can be connected and disconnected from a computer while it is powered on, without the need for restarting the system. This is advantageous as it allows for easy and convenient plug-and-play functionality. In contrast, a PS/2 mouse requires the computer to be turned off before connecting or disconnecting, making it less convenient to use.

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  • 34. 

    A technician dropped a screw in the case of a desktop computer. Which of the following tools should be used to retrieve the screws?

    • A.

      Computer vacuum

    • B.

      Plastic tweezers

    • C.

      Canned air

    • D.

      Screwdriver with magnetized tip

    Correct Answer
    B. Plastic tweezers
    Explanation
    Plastic tweezers should be used to retrieve the screws because they are non-conductive and will not cause any damage to the computer components. Additionally, the plastic material will not create any static electricity that could potentially harm the sensitive electronic parts inside the computer case. The tweezers will provide a precise grip on the screw, allowing the technician to safely and easily retrieve it without causing any further damage to the computer.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following tools is an advanced option of the Windows XP backup tool?

    • A.

      Emergency Repair Disk

    • B.

      Recovery Console

    • C.

      Disk Probe

    • D.

      Automated System Recovery

    Correct Answer
    D. Automated System Recovery
    Explanation
    Automated System Recovery is an advanced option of the Windows XP backup tool. It allows users to create a recovery disk that includes a copy of the system state, system files, and user data. This recovery disk can be used to restore the system to a previous working state in case of system failure or other issues. It provides a comprehensive backup and recovery solution for Windows XP users.

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  • 36. 

    A customer states their computer was fine until yesterday when they heard a pop noise and the computer stopped working. Which of the following components should the technician test FIRST?

    • A.

      Main system board

    • B.

      Processor

    • C.

      Hard disk drive

    • D.

      Power supply

    Correct Answer
    D. Power supply
    Explanation
    The customer's description of hearing a pop noise and the computer immediately stopping working suggests a potential issue with the power supply. A pop noise could indicate a blown capacitor or a short circuit within the power supply, which can cause the computer to shut down. Therefore, testing the power supply would be the first step in diagnosing and resolving the issue.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following command prompt utilities displays the current version of Windows XP and any Service Packs that are installed?

    • A.

      CHECKVER.EXE

    • B.

      VERSION.EXE

    • C.

      SIGVERIF.EXE

    • D.

      WINVER.EXE

    Correct Answer
    D. WINVER.EXE
    Explanation
    WINVER.EXE is the correct answer because it is a command prompt utility that displays the current version of Windows XP and any Service Packs that are installed. It provides information about the operating system version, build number, and service pack level.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following would be the BEST resolution setting for an application that requires a minimum resolution of 1024 x 768?

    • A.

      SVGA

    • B.

      PAL

    • C.

      VGA

    • D.

      XGA

    Correct Answer
    D. XGA
    Explanation
    XGA (Extended Graphics Array) would be the best resolution setting for an application that requires a minimum resolution of 1024 x 768. XGA has a resolution of 1024 x 768, which meets the minimum requirement. SVGA, PAL, and VGA have lower resolutions than 1024 x 768, so they would not be suitable for this application.

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  • 39. 

    A technician just finished installing a new printer on an end user's computer. Which of the following will enable the technician to see the test page option for the printer?

    • A.

      Right-click on the printer and select Properties

    • B.

      Double click on the printer icon

    • C.

      Right-click on the printer and select Set as Default

    • D.

      Right-click on the printer and select Open

    Correct Answer
    A. Right-click on the printer and select Properties
    Explanation
    Right-clicking on the printer and selecting Properties will enable the technician to see the test page option for the printer. This is because the Properties option allows the technician to access the printer's settings and configuration, including the option to print a test page.

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  • 40. 

    An end user reports that their computer is making noise constantly. The technician notes that the hard drive activity light is on frequently. The technician finds plenty of free space on the drive. Which of the following BEST explains why the drive light is continuously active?

    • A.

      The system has a fragmented hard drive.

    • B.

      The drive interface needs to be changed.

    • C.

      The user has too many documents on the hard drive.

    • D.

      The system page file has an issue.

    Correct Answer
    A. The system has a fragmented hard drive.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "The system has a fragmented hard drive." When a hard drive is fragmented, it means that files are stored in non-contiguous clusters on the disk. This can cause the hard drive to work harder to access and read the files, resulting in constant activity and noise. In this scenario, since there is plenty of free space on the drive, the fragmentation of the files is the most likely cause of the continuous activity.

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  • 41. 

    A customer's computer crashes consistently when a specific application is launched. The technician has looked at the computer and confirmed the cause of the crash. Which of the following is the NEXT troubleshooting step the technician should take?

    • A.

      Verify full system functionality.

    • B.

      Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.

    • C.

      Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.

    • D.

      Question the user and identify changes the user has made to the system.

    Correct Answer
    C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
    Explanation
    The technician should establish a plan of action to resolve the problem because they have already identified the cause of the crash. By creating a plan, the technician can outline the necessary steps and resources needed to fix the issue. This will help ensure a systematic and efficient approach to resolving the problem, rather than simply documenting the findings or questioning the user.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following services processes print requests and sends them to the printer?

    • A.

      Printer Driver

    • B.

      Print Spooler

    • C.

      Printer Service

    • D.

      Print Properties

    Correct Answer
    B. Print Spooler
    Explanation
    The Print Spooler is a service that processes print requests and sends them to the printer. It manages the printing queue, allowing multiple print jobs to be stored and processed in the background while the user continues to work. The Print Spooler ensures that print jobs are sent to the printer in the correct order and handles any errors or issues that may occur during the printing process. Printer Driver, Printer Service, and Print Properties are not responsible for processing print requests and sending them to the printer.

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  • 43. 

    A user reports that their UPS is making a loud beeping sound. Which of the following would cause this problem?

    • A.

      The UPS is overcharged.

    • B.

      Incorrect wattage on the power supply.

    • C.

      The UPS battery is not charged.

    • D.

      The UPS is in power management mode.

    Correct Answer
    C. The UPS battery is not charged.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the UPS battery is not charged. When the UPS battery is not charged, it can cause the UPS to emit a loud beeping sound as a warning. This indicates that the battery is either low or completely drained, and it needs to be charged in order to provide backup power during a power outage.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following broadband types can provide the MOST available bandwidth?

    • A.

      DSL

    • B.

      Fiber

    • C.

      Satellite

    • D.

      Cable

    Correct Answer
    B. Fiber
    Explanation
    Fiber broadband can provide the most available bandwidth compared to DSL, satellite, and cable. Fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data, allowing for faster and more efficient data transfer. This technology can support higher bandwidth capacities, making it ideal for high-speed internet connections and handling large amounts of data simultaneously. DSL, satellite, and cable broadband types have limitations in terms of bandwidth capacity, making fiber the superior choice for maximum available bandwidth.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following devices would MOST likely require a serial adapter to be installed on a modern PC?

    • A.

      External modem

    • B.

      TV tuner

    • C.

      Mouse

    • D.

      Keyboard

    Correct Answer
    A. External modem
    Explanation
    An external modem would most likely require a serial adapter to be installed on a modern PC because many modern PCs do not have built-in serial ports. Serial ports are used to connect devices that require a serial connection, such as older modems, to a computer. Therefore, in order to connect an external modem to a modern PC, a serial adapter would need to be installed to provide the necessary serial port connection.

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  • 46. 

    Hyperthreading technology:

    • A.

      Only works on computer systems with multiple core CPUs.

    • B.

      Enables a processor to work with two independent computer instructions at once.

    • C.

      Enables two independent processors to work on the same task, simultaneously.

    • D.

      Allows a computer program to work on multiple tasks simultaneously.

    Correct Answer
    B. Enables a processor to work with two independent computer instructions at once.
    Explanation
    Hyperthreading technology enables a processor to work with two independent computer instructions at once. This means that the processor can handle multiple tasks simultaneously, improving overall performance and efficiency. It accomplishes this by creating virtual cores within a physical core, allowing for better utilization of resources and faster execution of instructions. Unlike multiple core CPUs, hyperthreading can be implemented on single-core CPUs as well, making it a valuable technology for enhancing multitasking capabilities.

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  • 47. 

    The user turns on the computer and hears a popping sound and detects a burning smell. The system will not power on. Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?

    • A.

      Power supply has blown.

    • B.

      CPU fan is faulty.

    • C.

      Motherboard has overheated and shutdown.

    • D.

      UPS has been tripped.

    Correct Answer
    A. Power supply has blown.
    Explanation
    The popping sound and burning smell indicate a hardware malfunction, most likely caused by a blown power supply. When the power supply fails, it can cause a short circuit or overheating, resulting in the system not being able to power on. The other options, such as a faulty CPU fan, overheated motherboard, or tripped UPS, may cause issues but are less likely to produce a popping sound and burning smell.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following can be hot-swappable?

    • A.

      Hard drive

    • B.

      Tape drive

    • C.

      Floppy drive

    • D.

      DVD-RW

    Correct Answer
    A. Hard drive
    Explanation
    A hard drive can be hot-swappable, meaning it can be replaced or removed while the system is still running without causing any damage or interruption. This is because hard drives are designed to be easily removable and replaceable, allowing for convenient upgrades or maintenance without the need to shut down the entire system. On the other hand, tape drives, floppy drives, and DVD-RW drives are not typically hot-swappable as they require manual intervention and system shutdown to be replaced or removed safely.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following wireless security techniques is the MOST secure?

    • A.

      Enable Wired Equivalent Privacy

    • B.

      Disable SSID broadcast

    • C.

      Enable Wi-Fi Protected Access

    • D.

      Enable MAC filtering

    Correct Answer
    C. Enable Wi-Fi Protected Access
    Explanation
    Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) is the most secure wireless security technique among the given options. WPA provides stronger encryption and authentication methods compared to Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) and SSID broadcast disabling. WPA uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) or Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encryption to protect data transmission. It also supports authentication through the use of a pre-shared key or an enterprise authentication server. MAC filtering, while providing an additional layer of security, can be bypassed by skilled attackers. Therefore, enabling WPA is the best choice for ensuring the highest level of wireless security.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following technologies has the HIGHEST potential throughput?

    • A.

      DSL

    • B.

      Fiber

    • C.

      Satellite

    • D.

      Cable

    Correct Answer
    B. Fiber
    Explanation
    Fiber has the highest potential throughput among the given technologies. Fiber optic cables use light signals to transmit data, allowing for much higher data transfer rates compared to DSL, satellite, and cable. Fiber can provide significantly faster internet speeds, making it capable of handling large amounts of data with ease. This makes it the technology with the highest potential throughput.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 16, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Gerardo_ceboller
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