CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 2)

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1. Which of the following advantages does a 64-bit processor have over a 32-bit processor?

Explanation

A 64-bit processor has the advantage of being able to address memory beyond 4GB. This means that it can access and utilize more than 4GB of RAM, allowing for better performance and the ability to run more memory-intensive applications. A 32-bit processor, on the other hand, is limited to addressing a maximum of 4GB of memory.

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About This Quiz
A Plus Certification Quizzes & Trivia

This CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test (Part 2) assesses knowledge in PC recycling, secure password creation, troubleshooting display issues, understanding I\/O ports, cable technologies, and memory module... see morespeeds. It's designed for individuals preparing for IT certification, enhancing skills in hardware and security. see less

2. Which of the following media types has the largest capacity?

Explanation

Blu-Ray has the largest capacity among the given media types. Blu-Ray discs have a storage capacity of up to 50GB for dual-layer discs and up to 100GB for triple-layer discs. This is significantly higher than the capacities of DVD.RW+ (4.7GB), DVD.RW (4.7GB), and Dual-sided DVD (9GB). Blu-Ray discs are able to store more data due to their higher density and use of a shorter wavelength laser for reading and writing data.

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3. The file server had an expected outage this morning. A technician believes the on-board NIC is bad. One particular caller demands to know exactly how long the system will be down. Which of the following would be the appropriate response?

Explanation

The correct answer is "We have identified the problem and we will have it back up as soon as possible." This response acknowledges the issue and assures the caller that the problem has been identified and will be resolved as quickly as possible. It provides a clear and concise answer without making any assumptions or giving false promises about the exact duration of the outage.

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4. Which of the following is a Class C address?

Explanation

The IP address 192.168.1.1 is a Class C address because it falls within the range of IP addresses reserved for Class C networks. In Class C, the first three octets (192.168.1) represent the network portion of the address, while the last octet (1) represents the host portion. Class C addresses have a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, allowing for up to 254 hosts on the network.

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5. Which of the following types of media is considered optical?

Explanation

Blu-Ray is considered an optical media because it uses optical technology to read and write data. Unlike floppy disks, biometric devices, and tapes, which use magnetic or electronic methods, Blu-Ray discs use a laser to read and write data on a reflective surface. This optical technology allows for higher storage capacity and faster data transfer rates, making Blu-Ray a preferred choice for high-definition video and large data files.

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6. Which of the following should be done after installing a touch screen monitor to ensure that the display functions optimally?

Explanation

After installing a touch screen monitor, it is important to calibrate the monitor to ensure that the display functions optimally. Calibration helps to align the touch points accurately with the display, improving the accuracy and responsiveness of the touch screen. This process ensures that the touch screen recognizes and responds correctly to touch input, providing a smooth and accurate user experience.

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7. Which of the following is the FIRST step when troubleshooting an issue?

Explanation

The first step when troubleshooting an issue is to identify the problem. This involves understanding what the issue is and gathering information about it. Once the problem is identified, further steps can be taken to resolve it, such as establishing a theory of probable cause, documenting findings, actions, and outcomes, and verifying full system functionality. However, these steps can only be effective if the initial problem is correctly identified.

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8. Which of the following are benefits from an active cooling system? (Select TWO).

Explanation

An active cooling system provides benefits such as increased performance and longer chip life. The cooling system helps to dissipate heat generated by the system, preventing overheating and allowing the components to operate at optimal temperatures. This leads to improved performance as the system can run more efficiently without the risk of thermal throttling. Additionally, by maintaining lower temperatures, the cooling system helps to extend the lifespan of the chips, reducing the likelihood of premature failure and increasing the overall longevity of the system.

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9. Which of the following methods is commonly used for Biometric authentication? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Biometric authentication is a method of verifying an individual's identity based on unique biological characteristics. Two commonly used methods for biometric authentication are fingerprint readers and retinal scans. Fingerprint readers analyze the unique patterns on an individual's fingertips, while retinal scans analyze the blood vessel patterns in the back of the eye. These methods are highly accurate and secure, making them popular choices for biometric authentication.

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10. A user running Windows XP is experiencing degraded system performance while a particular application is running. Which of the following interfaces should the technician use to manage current application processes on the users computer?

Explanation

The technician should use Task Manager to manage current application processes on the user's computer. Task Manager allows the user to view and manage running processes, monitor system performance, and end processes that may be causing degraded system performance. It provides information about CPU and memory usage, as well as the ability to end specific processes or applications that are not responding or consuming excessive resources.

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11. When a technician receives a call for assistance from a customer, which of the following should the technician do FIRST?

Explanation

The technician should first identify the user and associated problem when receiving a call for assistance from a customer. This is important because understanding who the user is and what their specific problem is will help the technician provide the most efficient and effective support. By identifying the user and associated problem first, the technician can gather the necessary information to properly address the issue and determine the appropriate next steps, such as assigning a priority or escalating the call if needed.

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12. Which of the following can be used to print a test page?

Explanation

To print a test page, you can right-click on the printer's icon and select Properties. This option allows you to access the printer's settings and configuration, including the option to print a test page. The other options listed, such as accessing the Control Panel or System settings, do not directly provide the option to print a test page.

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13. Which of the following wireless network security methods controls who can connect to the network based on the hardware they are using?

Explanation

MAC filtering is a wireless network security method that controls who can connect to the network based on the hardware they are using. MAC addresses are unique identifiers assigned to network devices, and MAC filtering allows network administrators to create a list of approved MAC addresses. Only devices with MAC addresses on this list are allowed to connect to the network, providing an additional layer of security by preventing unauthorized devices from accessing the network.

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14. A technician can find the Administrative Tools folder in which of the following locations after the initial installation of Windows XP?

Explanation

After the initial installation of Windows XP, a technician can find the Administrative Tools folder in the Control Panel. The Control Panel is a centralized location where users can access various settings and tools to customize and manage their computer. The Administrative Tools folder contains utilities and settings that are specifically designed for system administrators to manage and configure the computer system.

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15. Which of the following are characteristics of a secure password? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A secure password should contain both numbers and letters to increase the complexity and make it harder to guess or crack. Additionally, including special characters further enhances the security of the password by adding more variations and making it even more difficult to guess or brute force.

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16. If a computer needs Windows XP and Windows 2000 configured for a dual-boot environment, which of the following file system should be used in formatting the drive?

Explanation

To configure a dual-boot environment with Windows XP and Windows 2000, the NTFS file system should be used in formatting the drive. NTFS (New Technology File System) is the preferred file system for Windows operating systems as it offers better security, reliability, and support for larger file sizes and volumes compared to FAT (File Allocation Table) file system. UFS (Unix File System) and NFS (Network File System) are not compatible with Windows operating systems and therefore not suitable for this scenario.

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17. Which of the following types of media is considered solid state?

Explanation

Flash media is considered solid state because it does not have any moving parts. Unlike tape drives, floppy disks, and DVDs, which all rely on physical movement for data retrieval, flash media uses solid-state memory to store and retrieve data. This makes flash media more durable, faster, and less prone to mechanical failures.

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18. Which of the following would be the MOST secure password?

Explanation

The password "ct23&P#h~" would be the most secure because it includes a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. This makes it more difficult for hackers to guess or crack the password. The other options either lack complexity or do not include a variety of character types, making them less secure.

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19. Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of:

Explanation

Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of 25GB. This is because Blu-Ray technology allows for high-definition video and audio to be stored on the disk, which requires a larger amount of storage space compared to other formats such as DVDs or CDs. The 25GB capacity allows for a significant amount of data to be stored, making it ideal for storing movies, games, and other large files.

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20. A user states that a program is missing from the computer and it had just been used yesterday. Which of the following questions should a technician ask to help determine what occurred?

Explanation

The technician should ask if the user checked the Recycle Bin to see if the shortcut was accidentally deleted because it is a common occurrence for users to accidentally delete shortcuts and then assume that the program is missing. Checking the Recycle Bin can help determine if this is the case and potentially restore the shortcut.

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21. While troubleshooting a computer problem, a technician has determined what has caused the problem. Which of the following should be the technicians NEXT troubleshooting step?

Explanation

The technician's next troubleshooting step should be to establish a plan of action and implement the solution. This is because once the cause of the problem has been determined, the technician needs to come up with a plan to fix it and then take action to implement that plan. Documenting findings, actions, and outcomes should be done throughout the troubleshooting process, but it is not the next step after determining the cause. Asking the user open-ended questions to confirm the cause may be helpful, but it is not the next step in the troubleshooting process. Verifying full system functionality should be done after the solution has been implemented.

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22. A CRT monitor is displaying patches of distortion while in use. Which of the following actions BEST resolves this issue?

Explanation

Degaussing the monitor is the best action to resolve patches of distortion on a CRT monitor. Degaussing involves using a degaussing coil or a degaussing button on the monitor to eliminate magnetic fields that may have built up and are causing the distortion. Reloading the driver for the monitor, power cycling the computer, or replacing the display adapter may not address the issue of distortion caused by magnetic fields.

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23. A customer brings a PC in for repair, and asks when it will be done. Which of the following is the BEST response for the technician to give?

Explanation

The best response for the technician to give is to provide the customer with an estimated time for repair based on the technician's assessment. This allows the customer to have an idea of when their PC will be ready without making false promises or giving an ambiguous answer. It also shows professionalism and transparency in the technician's communication with the customer.

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24. Which of the following network ports is normally associated with unencrypted web traffic?

Explanation

Port 80 is normally associated with unencrypted web traffic. This is because port 80 is the default port for HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), which is the protocol used for transmitting web pages over the internet. When a user types a URL into their web browser, the browser sends a request to the web server on port 80 to retrieve the web page. Since HTTP does not provide encryption, the data transmitted over port 80 is not secure and can be easily intercepted and read by anyone with access to the network.

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25. Which of the following are forms of biometric authentication? (Select THREE).

Explanation

The correct answer is Voice recognition, Fingerprint reader, and Optical recognition. These three options are forms of biometric authentication because they rely on unique physical characteristics of an individual. Voice recognition analyzes the unique features of a person's voice, fingerprint reader scans and matches the patterns on an individual's fingerprint, and optical recognition uses technology to analyze and match the unique patterns of an individual's iris or retina. Smart card, barcode scanner, and secure ID token are not forms of biometric authentication as they do not rely on unique physical characteristics of an individual.

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26. Which of the following is a characteristic of solid state drives?

Explanation

Solid state drives (SSDs) do not have any moving parts such as drive heads and platters, unlike traditional magnetic drives. This characteristic of SSDs makes them more durable and less prone to mechanical failures. Additionally, the absence of moving parts allows for faster data access and transfer speeds.

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27. Which of the following cable types is LEAST affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

Explanation

Fiber optic cables are least affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI) because they use light signals to transmit data instead of electrical signals. Unlike coaxial and UTP cables, which transmit data through electrical currents, fiber optic cables are made of glass or plastic fibers that carry light signals. This makes them immune to EMI, as light signals are not affected by electromagnetic fields. Plenum cables, on the other hand, are not specifically designed to be resistant to EMI, so they can be affected to some extent.

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28. Which of the following is a class A IP address?

Explanation

The class A IP address range is from 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0, with the first octet being between 1 and 126. Therefore, the IP address 10.0.0.1 falls within this range and is a class A IP address.

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29. A technician is examining a laptop that is booting up but not showing the laptop display. When the technician plugs in an external monitor the display shows on the monitor but still not on the laptop display. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to resolve this issue?

Explanation

The technician should first make sure that the laptop display is enabled. This means checking the display settings on the laptop to ensure that the display is not disabled or set to an external monitor only. By enabling the laptop display, the technician may be able to resolve the issue and have the display show up on the laptop screen.

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30. Disabling the SSID from broadcasting on a wireless access point (WAP) provides which of the following benefits?

Explanation

Disabling the SSID from broadcasting on a wireless access point prevents users from seeing the wireless network. When the SSID is not broadcasted, the network is not visible to devices scanning for available networks. This adds an extra layer of security by making the network less discoverable to potential attackers. Users who are not aware of the network's existence will not be able to attempt unauthorized access.

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31. Aero is a feature of which operating system?

Explanation

Aero is a graphical user interface feature that was introduced in Windows Vista Ultimate. It includes visual enhancements such as transparent window borders, live taskbar previews, and desktop window animations. Therefore, Aero is a feature specific to Windows Vista Ultimate.

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32. A technician must configure a computer for a special needs user who can only press one key at a time. Which of the following must the technician enable for this user to press Ctrl-Alt-Del or other multi-key combinations?

Explanation

The technician must enable Sticky Keys for the special needs user to press Ctrl-Alt-Del or other multi-key combinations. Sticky Keys allows the user to press one key at a time and have it remain active until another key is pressed, making it easier for users with physical disabilities to use keyboard shortcuts.

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33. Which of the following would be the maximum transfer rate between a 10/100 NIC and a 10/100/1000 NIC?

Explanation

The maximum transfer rate between a 10/100 NIC and a 10/100/1000 NIC would be 100Mb/s. This is because the transfer rate is limited by the slower device, which in this case is the 10/100 NIC. Even though the 10/100/1000 NIC is capable of higher transfer rates, it can only transfer data at the speed that the 10/100 NIC can handle.

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34. Which of the following definitions below BEST describes System Restore?

Explanation

System Restore is a feature in the operating system that allows it to be rolled back to a previous point in time. This means that any changes made to the system, such as software installations or updates, can be undone and the system can be restored to its previous state. It does not back up user data files or the entire hard drive, but rather focuses on restoring the operating system itself.

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35. Which of the following display connections are the MOST commonly used to connect an LCD monitor to a desktop? (Select TWO)

Explanation

DVI and VGA are the most commonly used display connections to connect an LCD monitor to a desktop. DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is a high-quality digital connection that provides better image quality and supports higher resolutions. VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an analog connection that is widely compatible with older devices and can support lower resolutions. These two connections are widely available on both LCD monitors and desktop computers, making them the most commonly used options for connecting the two devices.

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36. A user states that every time they try to pull down video clips from a website, a notice appears on the screen which says the site is being blocked by a filter. The technician knows that a new web filtering application was recently introduced which assigns a 120 minute quota on streaming media and a message appears allowing the user to click to continue. Which is the following is the MOST appropriate response from the technician?

Explanation

The technician's response explains that the website is being blocked by a new web filtering application that has been implemented to manage and improve the network due to bandwidth usage becoming a problem. The technician advises the user to simply select "continue" on the message that appears on the screen, and the video should then appear. This response provides a clear explanation of the situation and offers a solution to the user's problem.

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37. A user states that the print server needs to be reset because they have been unable to print and can see a number of documents pending when looking at the printer in control panel. The technician notices that the real solution is to clear a paper jam in the printer. Which of the following is the BEST response for the technician to give the user?

Explanation

The technician should inform the user that there are print jobs piling up because of a paper jam in the printer and assure them that a technician is already working on resolving the issue. This response acknowledges the user's observation about the pending print jobs and provides the correct solution, which is to clear the paper jam. It also reassures the user that the problem is being addressed by a professional.

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38. Which of the following is the correct class address for an IP address of 194.168.10.25?

Explanation

The IP address 194.168.10.25 falls within the range of Class C addresses. In Class C, the first octet of the IP address is used to identify the network, while the remaining three octets are used to identify the host. Class C addresses have a range of 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255, and they are typically assigned to small to medium-sized networks.

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39. While trying to resolve an issue with wireless connectivity on a users laptop, a coworker starts interrupting the user with an unrelated issue as the user is explaining what is happening on the laptop. Which of the following should the technician do?

Explanation

The technician should politely ask the coworker to let the user finish their explanation and focus on what the user is saying. This is the most appropriate response because it shows respect for the user's issue and ensures that their problem is fully understood and addressed. Interrupting the user with an unrelated issue is unprofessional and can hinder the troubleshooting process. By politely asking the coworker to wait, the technician can give their full attention to the user and effectively resolve their wireless connectivity issue.

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40. Which of the following I/O ports has the SLOWEST transfer rate?

Explanation

USB 1.1 has the slowest transfer rate among the given options. USB 1.1 has a maximum transfer rate of 12 Mbps (megabits per second), which is significantly slower compared to the other options. S/PDIF (Sony/Philips Digital Interface) is used for digital audio transmission and has a higher transfer rate. IEEE 1394 (FireWire) is a high-speed serial bus that supports data transfer rates of up to 400 Mbps. USB 2.0, on the other hand, has a maximum transfer rate of 480 Mbps, making it faster than USB 1.1. Therefore, USB 1.1 has the slowest transfer rate among the given options.

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41. Two users want to print to a USB printer connected locally. Which of the following is the quickest way to accomplish this?

Explanation

Sharing out the printer from the attached computer is the quickest way to accomplish printing to a USB printer connected locally. By sharing the printer, both users can access and print to it directly from their own computers without the need for additional hardware or physically moving the computer. This allows for convenient and efficient printing for both users.

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42. Which of the following can be used to configure a Windows installation for imaging multiple computers?

Explanation

To perform a network installation of Windows 2000 Professional by creating an image of an existing computer, you need to use the Sysprep utility, which comes with Windows 2000 Professional. Ghost is a third-party utility, RIS only comes with Windows Server operating systems, and WDS is available in Windows Server 2003.

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43. Which of the following draws too much power and should never be plugged into a UPS?

Explanation

He should plug in the monitor, the AC adapter of the laptop and the computer. Nothing else should be plugged into the UPS under a user's desk.

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44. Which of the following cable types uses a BNC?

Explanation

Coaxial cable uses a BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman) connector. BNC connectors are commonly used in video and radio frequency applications. Coaxial cables are designed to carry high-frequency signals with low loss and interference. They are widely used in applications such as television broadcasting, CCTV, and computer networks. The BNC connector provides a secure and reliable connection, making it suitable for various professional and consumer electronic devices.

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45. Which of the following services uses the TCP port 21 by default?

Explanation

FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses TCP port 21 by default. FTP is a standard network protocol that is used to transfer files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, such as the internet. The use of TCP port 21 allows FTP clients to establish a connection with FTP servers and exchange commands and data securely. TELNET, HTTPS, and SMTP use different TCP ports for their respective services.

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46. Wake on LAN describes the PCs ability to:

Explanation

Wake on LAN refers to the ability of a PC to wake up from a low power state, such as hibernation or being turned off, when it receives a network packet instructing it to do so. This feature allows remote management and control of the PC, as it can be powered on without physically pressing the power button. It is not about collecting packets, sending broadcast packets, or instructing other devices to enter a low power state.

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47. Which of the following utilities can be used to change a FAT file system into an NTFS file system without data loss?

Explanation

The utility "convert" can be used to change a FAT file system into an NTFS file system without data loss. This command is used in Windows operating systems to convert the file system of a partition from FAT to NTFS. It preserves all existing files and data on the partition while converting the file system.

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48. Which of the following is MOST likely to be the source of wireless network interference?

Explanation

Cordless telephones are most likely to be the source of wireless network interference. Cordless telephones operate on the same frequency range as wireless networks, which can cause interference and disrupt the wireless signal. This is because both devices use similar radio frequencies to transmit and receive signals. Therefore, when a cordless telephone is used near a wireless network, it can cause interference and degrade the performance of the wireless network.

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49. Management has approved the purchase of uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs) for all workstations. Which of the following is the MOST important factor for a technician to consider when in determining which UPS to purchase?

Explanation

The most important factor for a technician to consider when determining which UPS to purchase is the amount of time necessary for the UPS to run in a power outage. This is crucial because it determines how long the workstations will remain operational during a power outage, ensuring that important tasks can be completed and data can be saved before shutting down. The physical footprint of the UPS, the number and size of applications running on each workstation, and the amount of space available are also important factors to consider, but they are secondary to the primary concern of ensuring sufficient runtime during power outages.

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50. Which of the following will BEST ensure data is removed before recycling a PC?

Explanation

Removing the hard drive and destroying it is the best way to ensure that data is removed before recycling a PC. This is because the hard drive is where all the data is stored, and physically destroying it ensures that the data cannot be accessed or recovered. Simply reformatting the hard drive or removing the memory may not completely erase the data, as it can still be recovered using specialized software. Running a large magnet over the top of the hard drive may also not be effective in completely erasing the data. Therefore, removing and destroying the hard drive is the most secure method.

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51. A user states a computer will not completely boot; it just keeps rebooting. Which of the following questions might a technician ask to try and determine the cause? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The technician might ask these two questions to determine the cause of the computer continuously rebooting. By asking if any hardware was installed since it last worked, the technician can identify if incompatible or faulty hardware may be causing the issue. Similarly, by asking if there were any new software updates done, the technician can determine if a software update may have caused a conflict or error that is causing the continuous rebooting.

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52. A user has recently installed a new graphics driver, and after restarting their PC the display is no longer appearing. Which of the following boot options would be MOST effective in troubleshooting this issue?

Explanation

Safe mode is the most effective boot option for troubleshooting this issue because it starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services. By booting into safe mode, the user can isolate any potential conflicts or issues caused by the new graphics driver. They can then uninstall or update the driver to resolve the display problem. Safe mode with command prompt may also be helpful if the user needs to run specific commands to fix the issue. Boot to the recovery console and boot with repair disk are less likely to address the problem directly related to the graphics driver.

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53. The Windows Experience Index is used to determine:

Explanation

The Windows Experience Index is a feature in Windows operating systems that measures the performance of various components in a computer system, such as the processor, memory, graphics, and storage. It assigns a performance value, called a base score, to each component based on its capabilities and performance. This allows users to quickly assess the overall performance of their system and identify any areas that may need improvement. The Windows Experience Index is not used to determine remaining hard disk storage space, the speed and available bandwidth of Internet connections, or the reliability and speed of search indexing.

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54. A computer is being sold over the Internet. Which of the following steps should be taken to ensure that none of the original hard drive data is given to the buyer?

Explanation

To ensure that none of the original hard drive data is given to the buyer, the hard drive should be erased using a disk wiping program. This program is specifically designed to overwrite the entire hard drive with random data, making it extremely difficult, if not impossible, to recover any previous data. Passing all computer components near a large magnet may cause damage to the hard drive and other components, but it will not guarantee the complete erasure of data. Running FDISK on the hard drive and reformatting it using the format command may remove the file system, but the data can still be recovered using specialized software.

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55. Which of the following audio/video devices have the ability to decode NTSC/PAL signals from an external source?

Explanation

A TV tuner card is capable of decoding NTSC/PAL signals from an external source. This means that it can receive and process analog television signals, allowing users to watch and record TV programs on their computer. Unlike graphics cards, video capture cards, and sound cards, which are primarily designed for other purposes, a TV tuner card specifically includes the necessary hardware and software to decode and display television signals. Therefore, a TV tuner card is the correct answer to this question.

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56. A printer with an integrated NIC has been connected to a LAN. Which of the following connection methods is the MOST effective when installing the printer on several PCs?

Explanation

Connecting the printer to the LAN through a TCP/IP port is the most effective method when installing the printer on several PCs. TCP/IP is the standard protocol used for communication on networks, and connecting the printer through a TCP/IP port allows for direct network printing. This means that multiple PCs can send print jobs to the printer over the LAN without the need for a computer share or physical cable connections. It provides a more efficient and convenient way to share the printer among multiple users on the network.

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57. After installing a new piece of hardware with the hardware CD, a user is reporting system crashes and performance loss. Which of the following would be the FIRST step in resolving this issue?

Explanation

The first step in resolving the issue of system crashes and performance loss after installing a new piece of hardware would be to download and install updated drivers for the device. This is because outdated or incompatible drivers can often cause compatibility issues and system instability. By updating the drivers, it is possible to address any software-related problems that may be causing the crashes and performance loss. Trying to install the device to a different port or slot, disabling the device in Device Manager, or contacting the vendor for an RMA should be considered if updating the drivers does not resolve the issue.

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58. A technician is installing a RAM upgrade into a PC. The PC is currently holding two sticks of 512MB PC2700, and the technician would like to install an additional two sticks of 512MB PC3200. Assuming the necessary slots are available, which of the following will be the overall speed of the new RAM?

Explanation

The overall speed of the new RAM will be 2700. This is because the PC is currently holding two sticks of 512MB PC2700 RAM, and the technician wants to install two additional sticks of 512MB PC3200 RAM. However, the overall speed of the RAM is determined by the slowest RAM module installed. Since PC2700 is slower than PC3200, the overall speed will be limited to PC2700, which is 2700.

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59. Which of the following is a loopback address on a computer with an IP address of 192.168.0.12, a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and a gateway of 192.168.0.1?

Explanation

The loopback address 127.0.0.1 is a special IP address that is used to test network connectivity on a local machine. It is often referred to as the "localhost" address. In this scenario, the computer has an IP address of 192.168.0.12 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, which means it is on the same network as the gateway 192.168.0.1. However, the loopback address is not associated with any physical network interface and is used to communicate with the local machine itself. Therefore, 127.0.0.1 is the correct loopback address in this case.

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60. Which of the following memory modules has the HIGHEST transfer rate?

Explanation

DDR400 has the highest transfer rate among the given memory modules. DDR stands for Double Data Rate, which means that it can transfer data twice per clock cycle. DDR400 operates at a clock speed of 200 MHz, while PC2100, DDR333, and PC2700 operate at lower clock speeds of 133 MHz, 166 MHz, and 166 MHz respectively. Therefore, DDR400 has the highest transfer rate due to its higher clock speed.

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61. A user reports that a computer is running very slow and also states that the machine has been rebooted several times with the same result. The hard drive light is constantly on. Which of the following can be performed on the hard drive to improve performance? (Select TWO).

Explanation

The hard drive light being constantly on and the computer running very slow suggest that the hard drive may be fragmented and have errors. Using the defragment utility will rearrange the fragmented files on the hard drive, improving performance. Using the checkdisk utility will scan the hard drive for errors and fix them, further improving performance.

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62. Which of the following utilities can help prevent viruses and other malware? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Windows Defender is a utility provided by Microsoft that helps prevent viruses and other malware by scanning and removing malicious software from a computer system. It provides real-time protection and regularly updates its virus definitions to detect and block new threats. Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is another utility that can help prevent viruses and malware. DEP is a security feature that prevents the execution of code from non-executable memory regions, making it more difficult for attackers to exploit vulnerabilities and inject malicious code into a system.

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63. Which of the following is the correct way to get to the Services MMC Plug-in to see what services are currently running? (Select TWO).

Explanation

To access the Services MMC Plug-in and view currently running services, you can follow two methods. Firstly, open the Control Panel, navigate to Administrative Tools, and double click on the Services icon. Secondly, click on Start, then Run, and type in "services.msc" to directly open the Services MMC Plug-in. These two methods allow you to access and manage services on your computer.

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64. A user reports that after coming back from lunch their PC will no longer turn on. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?

Explanation

The most likely problem in this scenario is that the power cord is loose. This is because the user reports that their PC will no longer turn on after coming back from lunch, which suggests that there is a power issue. The other options, such as hard disk failure or operating system reload, cleaning the mouse and keyboard, or the hard drive being in standby mode, do not directly relate to the PC not turning on. Therefore, the loose power cord is the most probable cause for the issue.

Submit
65. Which of the following will navigate to the Computer Management MMC Plug-in? (Select TWO).

Explanation

Right clicking on My Computer and selecting Manage will navigate to the Computer Management MMC Plug-in. Additionally, double clicking the Computer Management icon under Administrative Tools will also navigate to the same plug-in.

Submit
66. The edit command line tool:

Explanation

The edit command line tool is used to open a text-based word processor. It allows users to create, edit, and save text files directly from the command line interface. This tool is commonly used in older operating systems such as MS-DOS and Windows Command Prompt. It provides a simple and efficient way to work with text files without the need for a graphical user interface.

Submit
67. A user is running a program that is not successfully connecting to the network after upgrading the wireless network router. The user states that they do have Internet connectivity. Which of the following solutions will MOST likely to resolve the issue with the program?

Explanation

Adding an exception to the firewall for the program is the most likely solution to resolve the issue with the program not connecting to the network after upgrading the wireless network router. The upgraded router might be blocking the program's access to the network, and adding an exception to the firewall will allow the program to bypass the blockage and establish a connection. This solution ensures that the program can communicate with the network while still maintaining the security provided by the firewall.

Submit
68. A user receives the message The security log on this system is full. Only an administrator can log on and fix this problem. The administrator should use which of the following to fix this issue?

Explanation

The user should use the Event Viewer to fix the issue of the security log being full. The Event Viewer is a Windows tool that allows administrators to view and manage the event logs on a system. By accessing the Event Viewer, the administrator can clear the security log or adjust its settings to prevent it from becoming full in the future.

Submit
69. Which of the following BEST describes virtual memory?

Explanation

Virtual memory is a memory management technique that allows the operating system to use a combination of physical RAM and disk space to store and retrieve data. When the system's RAM is full, data that is not currently being used is moved from RAM to a disk located in a paging file. This allows the system to free up RAM for other processes and ensures that the system can continue to run smoothly even when the available physical RAM is limited. Therefore, the answer "Data written to a disk located in a paging file that would not fit into the systems RAM" best describes virtual memory.

Submit
70. A technician wants to install a RAID array that has two hard drives and the best performance. Which of the following RAID levels should be implemented?

Explanation

RAID 0, also known as striping, is the best choice for achieving the best performance with two hard drives in a RAID array. This level distributes data evenly across both drives, allowing for simultaneous read and write operations, which significantly increases the overall performance. However, it is important to note that RAID 0 does not provide any data redundancy or fault tolerance.

Submit
71. Which of the following Windows features should be disabled to ensure that malware and viruses are completely removed during the disinfection process?

Explanation

System Restore should be disabled to ensure that malware and viruses are completely removed during the disinfection process. System Restore is a feature in Windows that allows users to restore their system to a previous point in time. However, malware and viruses can also be saved in these restore points, which can hinder the complete removal of the malicious software. Therefore, disabling System Restore prevents the possibility of the malware or virus being reintroduced to the system during the disinfection process.

Submit
72. Which of the following BEST summarizes computer intrusion detection?

Explanation

Computer intrusion detection refers to the process of identifying unauthorized access or malicious activities on a computer system. An alert when the computer case has been opened can be considered as a form of intrusion detection because it notifies the user or system administrator about a potential physical breach or unauthorized access to the computer system. This can help in identifying and preventing unauthorized access to the system, ensuring the security of the computer and its data.

Submit
73. As a best practice, before performing hardware upgrades a technician should:

Explanation

Before performing hardware upgrades, it is important for a technician to check the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL). The HCL provides a list of hardware devices and components that are compatible with a particular operating system or software. By checking the HCL, the technician can ensure that the new hardware being installed is supported by the system, minimizing the risk of compatibility issues or conflicts. This helps to ensure a smooth and successful hardware upgrade process.

Submit
74. Which of the following is a valid boot device? (Select THREE).

Explanation

RAM, Sound card, and Tape drive are not valid boot devices because they do not have the necessary capabilities to load an operating system. DVD.ROM, Hard disk, and NIC (Network Interface Card) are valid boot devices because they can store and load the necessary boot files to start the computer. DVD.ROM can be used to boot from a DVD disc, Hard disk can store the operating system and boot files, and NIC can be used to boot from a network server.

Submit
75. Which of the following, when locally connected, can be used as a boot device to install a new installation of Windows Vista? (Select TWO).

Explanation

A USB drive and a DVD-ROM can be used as boot devices to install a new installation of Windows Vista. USB drives are commonly used as boot devices because they are portable and can store large amounts of data. DVD-ROMs can also be used as boot devices as they can read installation discs for operating systems.

Submit
76. A user states that their monitor is acting up and at times the image shakes. The technician checks the asset number and notes that it is one of the last remaining CRT monitors. The company is currently replacing all CRTs with new LCDs. Which of the following is the BEST response?

Explanation

The user's monitor is experiencing shaking images because it is one of the last remaining CRT monitors. The company is replacing all CRTs with new LCDs. The best response is to empathize with the user and send them a new monitor to solve the issue.

Submit
77. Which of the following technologies can support the longest cable length between devices?

Explanation

Serial technology can support the longest cable length between devices compared to the other options. Serial communication involves transmitting data one bit at a time sequentially over a single wire, allowing for longer distances without signal degradation. In contrast, technologies like IEEE 1394, USB 1.1/2.0, and SATA are designed for shorter cable lengths and may experience signal loss or interference over longer distances.

Submit
78. A laptop with a docking station is normally wired into a local network. When the laptop is removed from the docking station, the user would like the laptop to automatically switch to the wireless connection. Which of the following Windows features BEST accomplishes this?

Explanation

The Hardware profile feature in Windows allows the laptop to automatically switch to the wireless connection when it is removed from the docking station. This feature allows the laptop to detect the change in hardware configuration and adjust the network settings accordingly. It ensures a seamless transition from the wired to the wireless network without the need for manual intervention from the user.

Submit
79. A technician uses a call logging process in order to: (Select TWO).

Explanation

The technician uses a call logging process to track the process of the incident, which helps in keeping a record of the steps taken and the progress made towards resolving the issue. This allows for better communication and coordination among the team members involved in resolving the incident. Additionally, the call logging process helps in identifying common issues among multiple users by analyzing the data collected from various incidents. This helps in identifying patterns and trends, which can then be used to proactively address and resolve similar issues in the future.

Submit
80. After successfully installing a free antivirus solution, Windows reports that no antivirus software is currently protecting the system. Which of the following solutions would resolve this issue?

Explanation

Disabling antivirus protection within the Security Center notification would resolve the issue of Windows reporting that no antivirus software is currently protecting the system. By disabling the antivirus protection within the Security Center notification, the system will no longer recognize that there is no antivirus software installed. This may be necessary if the free antivirus solution that was installed is not compatible with the Security Center notification system.

Submit
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The edit command line tool:
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