CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 2)
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which of the following will BEST ensure data is removed before recycling a PC?
- A.
Remove the memory and destroy it.
- B.
Reformat the hard drive to a clean state using the format command.
- C.
Remove the hard drive and destroy it.
- D.
Run a large magnet over the top of the hard drive several times.
Correct Answer
C. Remove the hard drive and destroy it.Explanation
Removing the hard drive and destroying it is the best way to ensure that data is removed before recycling a PC. This is because the hard drive is where all the data is stored, and physically destroying it ensures that the data cannot be accessed or recovered. Simply reformatting the hard drive or removing the memory may not completely erase the data, as it can still be recovered using specialized software. Running a large magnet over the top of the hard drive may also not be effective in completely erasing the data. Therefore, removing and destroying the hard drive is the most secure method.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following would be the MOST secure password?
- A.
SR1234ct
- B.
CompTIA558475
- C.
Rw2%HN
- D.
Ct23&P#h~
Correct Answer
D. Ct23&P#h~Explanation
The password "ct23&P#h~" would be the most secure because it includes a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. This makes it more difficult for hackers to guess or crack the password. The other options either lack complexity or do not include a variety of character types, making them less secure.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A technician is examining a laptop that is booting up but not showing the laptop display. When the technician plugs in an external monitor the display shows on the monitor but still not on the laptop display. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to resolve this issue?
- A.
Replace the video card inside the laptop.
- B.
Replace the LCD inverter.
- C.
Make sure the laptop display is enabled.
- D.
Make sure the OS has the latest video drivers installed
Correct Answer
C. Make sure the laptop display is enabled.Explanation
The technician should first make sure that the laptop display is enabled. This means checking the display settings on the laptop to ensure that the display is not disabled or set to an external monitor only. By enabling the laptop display, the technician may be able to resolve the issue and have the display show up on the laptop screen.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of the following I/O ports has the SLOWEST transfer rate?
- A.
S/PDIF
- B.
USB 1.1
- C.
IEEE 1394
- D.
USB 2.
Correct Answer
B. USB 1.1Explanation
USB 1.1 has the slowest transfer rate among the given options. USB 1.1 has a maximum transfer rate of 12 Mbps (megabits per second), which is significantly slower compared to the other options. S/PDIF (Sony/Philips Digital Interface) is used for digital audio transmission and has a higher transfer rate. IEEE 1394 (FireWire) is a high-speed serial bus that supports data transfer rates of up to 400 Mbps. USB 2.0, on the other hand, has a maximum transfer rate of 480 Mbps, making it faster than USB 1.1. Therefore, USB 1.1 has the slowest transfer rate among the given options.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which of the following technologies can support the longest cable length between devices?
- A.
IEEE 1394
- B.
USB 1.1/2.0
- C.
SATA
- D.
Serial
Correct Answer
D. SerialExplanation
Serial technology can support the longest cable length between devices compared to the other options. Serial communication involves transmitting data one bit at a time sequentially over a single wire, allowing for longer distances without signal degradation. In contrast, technologies like IEEE 1394, USB 1.1/2.0, and SATA are designed for shorter cable lengths and may experience signal loss or interference over longer distances.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following memory modules has the HIGHEST transfer rate?
- A.
PC2100
- B.
DDR333
- C.
DDR400
- D.
PC2700
Correct Answer
C. DDR400Explanation
DDR400 has the highest transfer rate among the given memory modules. DDR stands for Double Data Rate, which means that it can transfer data twice per clock cycle. DDR400 operates at a clock speed of 200 MHz, while PC2100, DDR333, and PC2700 operate at lower clock speeds of 133 MHz, 166 MHz, and 166 MHz respectively. Therefore, DDR400 has the highest transfer rate due to its higher clock speed.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following would be the maximum transfer rate between a 10/100 NIC and a 10/100/1000 NIC?
- A.
100Mb/s
- B.
1000Mb/s
- C.
10000Mb/s
- D.
1Gb/s
Correct Answer
A. 100Mb/sExplanation
The maximum transfer rate between a 10/100 NIC and a 10/100/1000 NIC would be 100Mb/s. This is because the transfer rate is limited by the slower device, which in this case is the 10/100 NIC. Even though the 10/100/1000 NIC is capable of higher transfer rates, it can only transfer data at the speed that the 10/100 NIC can handle.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A technician can find the Administrative Tools folder in which of the following locations after the initial installation of Windows XP?
- A.
Program Files
- B.
Control Panel
- C.
Start Menu
- D.
My Computer
Correct Answer
B. Control PanelExplanation
After the initial installation of Windows XP, a technician can find the Administrative Tools folder in the Control Panel. The Control Panel is a centralized location where users can access various settings and tools to customize and manage their computer. The Administrative Tools folder contains utilities and settings that are specifically designed for system administrators to manage and configure the computer system.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following advantages does a 64-bit processor have over a 32-bit processor?
- A.
Provides access to larger hard drive partitions
- B.
Provides use of more powerful video graphics accelerators.
- C.
Provides addressing of memory beyond 4GB.
- D.
Provides use ofPCIe X16 expansion slots.
Correct Answer
C. Provides addressing of memory beyond 4GB.Explanation
A 64-bit processor has the advantage of being able to address memory beyond 4GB. This means that it can access and utilize more than 4GB of RAM, allowing for better performance and the ability to run more memory-intensive applications. A 32-bit processor, on the other hand, is limited to addressing a maximum of 4GB of memory.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following should be done after installing a touch screen monitor to ensure that the display functions optimally?
- A.
Set the refresh rate to the lowest the monitor can display.
- B.
Calibrate the monitor.
- C.
Degauss the monitor.
- D.
Set the resolution to the highest the monitor can display.
Correct Answer
B. Calibrate the monitor.Explanation
After installing a touch screen monitor, it is important to calibrate the monitor to ensure that the display functions optimally. Calibration helps to align the touch points accurately with the display, improving the accuracy and responsiveness of the touch screen. This process ensures that the touch screen recognizes and responds correctly to touch input, providing a smooth and accurate user experience.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following BEST describes virtual memory?
- A.
Flash memory used to hold temporary files before deletion.
- B.
Data written to a disk located in a paging file that would not fit into the systems RAM.
- C.
The maximum amount of memory a given system can potentially have.
- D.
A portion of physical RAM that is mirrored to the hard drive for redundancy.
Correct Answer
B. Data written to a disk located in a paging file that would not fit into the systems RAM.Explanation
Virtual memory is a memory management technique that allows the operating system to use a combination of physical RAM and disk space to store and retrieve data. When the system's RAM is full, data that is not currently being used is moved from RAM to a disk located in a paging file. This allows the system to free up RAM for other processes and ensures that the system can continue to run smoothly even when the available physical RAM is limited. Therefore, the answer "Data written to a disk located in a paging file that would not fit into the systems RAM" best describes virtual memory.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Wake on LAN describes the PCs ability to:
- A.
Collect all packets that are sent to any device on the LAN.
- B.
Send broadcast packets over the LAN to all computers simultaneously.
- C.
Send packets to other network devices on the LAN instructing then to enter a low power state (e.g. Hibernate, Off).
- D.
Resume from a low power state when it receives a network packet telling it to do so.
Correct Answer
D. Resume from a low power state when it receives a network packet telling it to do so.Explanation
Wake on LAN refers to the ability of a PC to wake up from a low power state, such as hibernation or being turned off, when it receives a network packet instructing it to do so. This feature allows remote management and control of the PC, as it can be powered on without physically pressing the power button. It is not about collecting packets, sending broadcast packets, or instructing other devices to enter a low power state.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which of the following is a characteristic of solid state drives?
- A.
Built-in encryption standards
- B.
Larger capacity than traditional magnetic drives
- C.
Lack of drive heads and platters
- D.
Higher data integrity
Correct Answer
C. Lack of drive heads and plattersExplanation
Solid state drives (SSDs) do not have any moving parts such as drive heads and platters, unlike traditional magnetic drives. This characteristic of SSDs makes them more durable and less prone to mechanical failures. Additionally, the absence of moving parts allows for faster data access and transfer speeds.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following is the FIRST step when troubleshooting an issue?
- A.
Establish a theory of probable cause.
- B.
Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
- C.
Verify full system functionality.
- D.
Identify the problem.
Correct Answer
D. Identify the problem.Explanation
The first step when troubleshooting an issue is to identify the problem. This involves understanding what the issue is and gathering information about it. Once the problem is identified, further steps can be taken to resolve it, such as establishing a theory of probable cause, documenting findings, actions, and outcomes, and verifying full system functionality. However, these steps can only be effective if the initial problem is correctly identified.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A user states that a program is missing from the computer and it had just been used yesterday. Which of the following questions should a technician ask to help determine what occurred?
- A.
Was there a power outage since yesterday?
- B.
Did you check the Recycle Bin to see if the shortcut was accidentally deleted?
- C.
Are you sure you ran a find on the system and the program is just not misfiled?
- D.
Are you sure you were using that program?
Correct Answer
B. Did you check the Recycle Bin to see if the shortcut was accidentally deleted?Explanation
The technician should ask if the user checked the Recycle Bin to see if the shortcut was accidentally deleted because it is a common occurrence for users to accidentally delete shortcuts and then assume that the program is missing. Checking the Recycle Bin can help determine if this is the case and potentially restore the shortcut.Rate this question:
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- 16.
A user states a computer will not completely boot; it just keeps rebooting. Which of the following questions might a technician ask to try and determine the cause? (Select TWO).
- A.
Are you sure the power button is not stuck?
- B.
Was any hardware installed since it last worked?
- C.
Is the power cable on the monitor loose?
- D.
Has the monitor been replaced recently?
- E.
Were there any new software updates done?
Correct Answer(s)
B. Was any hardware installed since it last worked?
E. Were there any new software updates done?Explanation
The technician might ask these two questions to determine the cause of the computer continuously rebooting. By asking if any hardware was installed since it last worked, the technician can identify if incompatible or faulty hardware may be causing the issue. Similarly, by asking if there were any new software updates done, the technician can determine if a software update may have caused a conflict or error that is causing the continuous rebooting.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Two users want to print to a USB printer connected locally. Which of the following is the quickest way to accomplish this?
- A.
Purchase an external Ethernet print card.
- B.
Share out the printer from the attached computer.
- C.
Move the computer and attach to the printer.
- D.
Set up a local print queue.
Correct Answer
B. Share out the printer from the attached computer.Explanation
Sharing out the printer from the attached computer is the quickest way to accomplish printing to a USB printer connected locally. By sharing the printer, both users can access and print to it directly from their own computers without the need for additional hardware or physically moving the computer. This allows for convenient and efficient printing for both users.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A technician wants to install a RAID array that has two hard drives and the best performance. Which of the following RAID levels should be implemented?
- A.
RAID 0
- B.
RAID 1
- C.
RAID 4
- D.
RAID 6
Correct Answer
A. RAID 0Explanation
RAID 0, also known as striping, is the best choice for achieving the best performance with two hard drives in a RAID array. This level distributes data evenly across both drives, allowing for simultaneous read and write operations, which significantly increases the overall performance. However, it is important to note that RAID 0 does not provide any data redundancy or fault tolerance.Rate this question:
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- 19.
When a technician receives a call for assistance from a customer, which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
- A.
Identify the hardware make, model, and serial number.
- B.
Elevate the call to a higher level of support.
- C.
Assign an appropriate priority for the issue.
- D.
Identify the user and associated problem.
Correct Answer
D. Identify the user and associated problem.Explanation
The technician should first identify the user and associated problem when receiving a call for assistance from a customer. This is important because understanding who the user is and what their specific problem is will help the technician provide the most efficient and effective support. By identifying the user and associated problem first, the technician can gather the necessary information to properly address the issue and determine the appropriate next steps, such as assigning a priority or escalating the call if needed.Rate this question:
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- 20.
A technician uses a call logging process in order to: (Select TWO).
- A.
Select the appropriate priority level for the issue.
- B.
Track the process of the incident.
- C.
Identify common issues among multiple users.
- D.
Help maintain a balanced workload for the help desk technicians.
- E.
Compose a record which allows user authentication.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Track the process of the incident.
C. Identify common issues among multiple users.Explanation
The technician uses a call logging process to track the process of the incident, which helps in keeping a record of the steps taken and the progress made towards resolving the issue. This allows for better communication and coordination among the team members involved in resolving the incident. Additionally, the call logging process helps in identifying common issues among multiple users by analyzing the data collected from various incidents. This helps in identifying patterns and trends, which can then be used to proactively address and resolve similar issues in the future.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following definitions below BEST describes System Restore?
- A.
Allows the operating system to be backed up with immunity to virus activity
- B.
Allows the operating system to assigns dates so that user data files are backed up
- C.
Allows the operating system to be rolled back to a previous point in time
- D.
Allows all data on the hard drive to be rolled back to a previous point in time
Correct Answer
C. Allows the operating system to be rolled back to a previous point in timeExplanation
System Restore is a feature in the operating system that allows it to be rolled back to a previous point in time. This means that any changes made to the system, such as software installations or updates, can be undone and the system can be restored to its previous state. It does not back up user data files or the entire hard drive, but rather focuses on restoring the operating system itself.Rate this question:
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- 22.
A user reports that a computer is running very slow and also states that the machine has been rebooted several times with the same result. The hard drive light is constantly on. Which of the following can be performed on the hard drive to improve performance? (Select TWO).
- A.
Use the defragment utility.
- B.
Use the drive compression utility.
- C.
Use the checkdisk utility.
- D.
Empty the recycle bin and deleted email items.
- E.
Use restore point to roll back the computer to a previous date.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Use the defragment utility.
C. Use the checkdisk utility.Explanation
The hard drive light being constantly on and the computer running very slow suggest that the hard drive may be fragmented and have errors. Using the defragment utility will rearrange the fragmented files on the hard drive, improving performance. Using the checkdisk utility will scan the hard drive for errors and fix them, further improving performance.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of the following media types has the largest capacity?
- A.
DVD.RW+
- B.
DVD.RW
- C.
Blu-Ray
- D.
Dual-sided DVD
Correct Answer
C. Blu-RayExplanation
Blu-Ray has the largest capacity among the given media types. Blu-Ray discs have a storage capacity of up to 50GB for dual-layer discs and up to 100GB for triple-layer discs. This is significantly higher than the capacities of DVD.RW+ (4.7GB), DVD.RW (4.7GB), and Dual-sided DVD (9GB). Blu-Ray discs are able to store more data due to their higher density and use of a shorter wavelength laser for reading and writing data.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of the following are benefits from an active cooling system? (Select TWO).
- A.
Increase system security
- B.
Utilize less memory
- C.
Increased performance
- D.
Increased network speed
- E.
Longer chip life
Correct Answer(s)
C. Increased performance
E. Longer chip lifeExplanation
An active cooling system provides benefits such as increased performance and longer chip life. The cooling system helps to dissipate heat generated by the system, preventing overheating and allowing the components to operate at optimal temperatures. This leads to improved performance as the system can run more efficiently without the risk of thermal throttling. Additionally, by maintaining lower temperatures, the cooling system helps to extend the lifespan of the chips, reducing the likelihood of premature failure and increasing the overall longevity of the system.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which of the following display connections are the MOST commonly used to connect an LCD monitor to a desktop? (Select TWO)
- A.
USB
- B.
DVI
- C.
CGA
- D.
VGA
- E.
S-Video
Correct Answer(s)
B. DVI
D. VGAExplanation
DVI and VGA are the most commonly used display connections to connect an LCD monitor to a desktop. DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is a high-quality digital connection that provides better image quality and supports higher resolutions. VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an analog connection that is widely compatible with older devices and can support lower resolutions. These two connections are widely available on both LCD monitors and desktop computers, making them the most commonly used options for connecting the two devices.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A customer brings a PC in for repair, and asks when it will be done. Which of the following is the BEST response for the technician to give?
- A.
Give the customer an estimated time for repair based on the technicians assessment.
- B.
Ask the customer to check daily to see when it is completed.
- C.
Ask the customer when they would like to have the work completed
- D.
Inform the customer that others are waiting. The technician will get back to them as soon as possible.
Correct Answer
A. Give the customer an estimated time for repair based on the technicians assessment.Explanation
The best response for the technician to give is to provide the customer with an estimated time for repair based on the technician's assessment. This allows the customer to have an idea of when their PC will be ready without making false promises or giving an ambiguous answer. It also shows professionalism and transparency in the technician's communication with the customer.Rate this question:
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- 27.
A user is running a program that is not successfully connecting to the network after upgrading the wireless network router. The user states that they do have Internet connectivity. Which of the following solutions will MOST likely to resolve the issue with the program?
- A.
Add an exception to the firewall for the program.
- B.
Check the Hardware Compatibility List to see if the program is not compatible with the OS.
- C.
Run the program as a local administrator.
- D.
Check for any updates to the program.
Correct Answer
A. Add an exception to the firewall for the program.Explanation
Adding an exception to the firewall for the program is the most likely solution to resolve the issue with the program not connecting to the network after upgrading the wireless network router. The upgraded router might be blocking the program's access to the network, and adding an exception to the firewall will allow the program to bypass the blockage and establish a connection. This solution ensures that the program can communicate with the network while still maintaining the security provided by the firewall.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following methods is commonly used for Biometric authentication? (Select TWO).
- A.
Logical token
- B.
Encrypted passwords
- C.
RFID smartcards
- D.
Fingerprint reader
- E.
Retinal scan
Correct Answer(s)
D. Fingerprint reader
E. Retinal scanExplanation
Biometric authentication is a method of verifying an individual's identity based on unique biological characteristics. Two commonly used methods for biometric authentication are fingerprint readers and retinal scans. Fingerprint readers analyze the unique patterns on an individual's fingertips, while retinal scans analyze the blood vessel patterns in the back of the eye. These methods are highly accurate and secure, making them popular choices for biometric authentication.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Disabling the SSID from broadcasting on a wireless access point (WAP) provides which of the following benefits?
- A.
Ensures all users physically login to the wired network
- B.
Ensures that only certain devices can access the network
- C.
Encrypts data traveling across the wireless network
- D.
Prevents users from seeing the wireless network
Correct Answer
D. Prevents users from seeing the wireless networkExplanation
Disabling the SSID from broadcasting on a wireless access point prevents users from seeing the wireless network. When the SSID is not broadcasted, the network is not visible to devices scanning for available networks. This adds an extra layer of security by making the network less discoverable to potential attackers. Users who are not aware of the network's existence will not be able to attempt unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which of the following cable types is LEAST affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
- A.
Coaxial
- B.
UTP
- C.
Plenum
- D.
Fiber
Correct Answer
D. FiberExplanation
Fiber optic cables are least affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI) because they use light signals to transmit data instead of electrical signals. Unlike coaxial and UTP cables, which transmit data through electrical currents, fiber optic cables are made of glass or plastic fibers that carry light signals. This makes them immune to EMI, as light signals are not affected by electromagnetic fields. Plenum cables, on the other hand, are not specifically designed to be resistant to EMI, so they can be affected to some extent.Rate this question:
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- 31.
After installing a new piece of hardware with the hardware CD, a user is reporting system crashes and performance loss. Which of the following would be the FIRST step in resolving this issue?
- A.
Try installing the device to a different port or slot.
- B.
Disable the device in Device Manager.
- C.
Download and install updated drivers for the device.
- D.
Contact the vendor for an RMA.
Correct Answer
C. Download and install updated drivers for the device.Explanation
The first step in resolving the issue of system crashes and performance loss after installing a new piece of hardware would be to download and install updated drivers for the device. This is because outdated or incompatible drivers can often cause compatibility issues and system instability. By updating the drivers, it is possible to address any software-related problems that may be causing the crashes and performance loss. Trying to install the device to a different port or slot, disabling the device in Device Manager, or contacting the vendor for an RMA should be considered if updating the drivers does not resolve the issue.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A user has recently installed a new graphics driver, and after restarting their PC the display is no longer appearing. Which of the following boot options would be MOST effective in troubleshooting this issue?
- A.
Safe mode
- B.
Boot to the recovery console
- C.
Safe mode with command prompt
- D.
Boot with repair disk
Correct Answer
A. Safe modeExplanation
Safe mode is the most effective boot option for troubleshooting this issue because it starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services. By booting into safe mode, the user can isolate any potential conflicts or issues caused by the new graphics driver. They can then uninstall or update the driver to resolve the display problem. Safe mode with command prompt may also be helpful if the user needs to run specific commands to fix the issue. Boot to the recovery console and boot with repair disk are less likely to address the problem directly related to the graphics driver.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following, when locally connected, can be used as a boot device to install a new installation of Windows Vista? (Select TWO).
- A.
Serial Cable
- B.
CD.ROM
- C.
USB drive
- D.
Floppy drive
- E.
DVD.ROM
Correct Answer(s)
C. USB drive
E. DVD.ROMExplanation
A USB drive and a DVD-ROM can be used as boot devices to install a new installation of Windows Vista. USB drives are commonly used as boot devices because they are portable and can store large amounts of data. DVD-ROMs can also be used as boot devices as they can read installation discs for operating systems.Rate this question:
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- 34.
A laptop with a docking station is normally wired into a local network. When the laptop is removed from the docking station, the user would like the laptop to automatically switch to the wireless connection. Which of the following Windows features BEST accomplishes this?
- A.
Driver signing
- B.
Hardware profile
- C.
Wireless Zero Configuration
- D.
Roaming profile
Correct Answer
B. Hardware profileExplanation
The Hardware profile feature in Windows allows the laptop to automatically switch to the wireless connection when it is removed from the docking station. This feature allows the laptop to detect the change in hardware configuration and adjust the network settings accordingly. It ensures a seamless transition from the wired to the wireless network without the need for manual intervention from the user.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following Windows features should be disabled to ensure that malware and viruses are completely removed during the disinfection process?
- A.
Security Center
- B.
System Restore
- C.
Machine Debug Manager
- D.
Hardware Profile
Correct Answer
B. System RestoreExplanation
System Restore should be disabled to ensure that malware and viruses are completely removed during the disinfection process. System Restore is a feature in Windows that allows users to restore their system to a previous point in time. However, malware and viruses can also be saved in these restore points, which can hinder the complete removal of the malicious software. Therefore, disabling System Restore prevents the possibility of the malware or virus being reintroduced to the system during the disinfection process.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following are characteristics of a secure password? (Select TWO).
- A.
Obscure word in a dictionary
- B.
Contained in a text file
- C.
Contains AES encryption
- D.
Contains numbers and letters
- E.
Contains special characters
Correct Answer(s)
D. Contains numbers and letters
E. Contains special charactersExplanation
A secure password should contain both numbers and letters to increase the complexity and make it harder to guess or crack. Additionally, including special characters further enhances the security of the password by adding more variations and making it even more difficult to guess or brute force.Rate this question:
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- 37.
After successfully installing a free antivirus solution, Windows reports that no antivirus software is currently protecting the system. Which of the following solutions would resolve this issue?
- A.
Disable the antivirus logging in the Event Viewer.
- B.
Disable antivirus protection withinSecurity Center notification
- C.
Install the Microsoft Malicious Software removal tool
- D.
Update the Antivirus definitions.
Correct Answer
B. Disable antivirus protection withinSecurity Center notificationExplanation
Disabling antivirus protection within the Security Center notification would resolve the issue of Windows reporting that no antivirus software is currently protecting the system. By disabling the antivirus protection within the Security Center notification, the system will no longer recognize that there is no antivirus software installed. This may be necessary if the free antivirus solution that was installed is not compatible with the Security Center notification system.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following can be used to configure a Windows installation for imaging multiple computers?
- A.
Fdisk
- B.
Sysprep
- C.
Regedit
- D.
Telnet
Correct Answer
B. SysprepExplanation
To perform a network installation of Windows 2000 Professional by creating an image of an existing computer, you need to use the Sysprep utility, which comes with Windows 2000 Professional. Ghost is a third-party utility, RIS only comes with Windows Server operating systems, and WDS is available in Windows Server 2003.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following is a class A IP address?
- A.
192.168.1.1
- B.
224.0.0.1
- C.
10.0.0.1
- D.
172.16.1.1
Correct Answer
C. 10.0.0.1Explanation
The class A IP address range is from 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0, with the first octet being between 1 and 126. Therefore, the IP address 10.0.0.1 falls within this range and is a class A IP address.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following network ports is normally associated with unencrypted web traffic?
- A.
53
- B.
80
- C.
110
- D.
443
Correct Answer
B. 80Explanation
Port 80 is normally associated with unencrypted web traffic. This is because port 80 is the default port for HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), which is the protocol used for transmitting web pages over the internet. When a user types a URL into their web browser, the browser sends a request to the web server on port 80 to retrieve the web page. Since HTTP does not provide encryption, the data transmitted over port 80 is not secure and can be easily intercepted and read by anyone with access to the network.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Aero is a feature of which operating system?
- A.
Windows Vista Basic
- B.
Windows XP Home
- C.
Windows XP Media Center
- D.
Windows Vista Ultimate
Correct Answer
D. Windows Vista UltimateExplanation
Aero is a graphical user interface feature that was introduced in Windows Vista Ultimate. It includes visual enhancements such as transparent window borders, live taskbar previews, and desktop window animations. Therefore, Aero is a feature specific to Windows Vista Ultimate.Rate this question:
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- 42.
The Windows Experience Index is used to determine:
- A.
Remaining hard disk storage space.
- B.
A performance value of system components.
- C.
The speed and available bandwidth of Internet connections.
- D.
The reliability and speed of search indexing.
Correct Answer
B. A performance value of system components.Explanation
The Windows Experience Index is a feature in Windows operating systems that measures the performance of various components in a computer system, such as the processor, memory, graphics, and storage. It assigns a performance value, called a base score, to each component based on its capabilities and performance. This allows users to quickly assess the overall performance of their system and identify any areas that may need improvement. The Windows Experience Index is not used to determine remaining hard disk storage space, the speed and available bandwidth of Internet connections, or the reliability and speed of search indexing.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of:
- A.
4.7GB.
- B.
9GB.
- C.
25GB.
- D.
650MB.
Correct Answer
C. 25GB.Explanation
Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of 25GB. This is because Blu-Ray technology allows for high-definition video and audio to be stored on the disk, which requires a larger amount of storage space compared to other formats such as DVDs or CDs. The 25GB capacity allows for a significant amount of data to be stored, making it ideal for storing movies, games, and other large files.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The edit command line tool:
- A.
Changes the boot sequence order.
- B.
Can be used to modify desktop preferences.
- C.
Makes changes to the registry.
- D.
Opens a text based word processor.
Correct Answer
D. Opens a text based word processor.Explanation
The edit command line tool is used to open a text-based word processor. It allows users to create, edit, and save text files directly from the command line interface. This tool is commonly used in older operating systems such as MS-DOS and Windows Command Prompt. It provides a simple and efficient way to work with text files without the need for a graphical user interface.Rate this question:
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- 45.
While troubleshooting a computer problem, a technician has determined what has caused the problem. Which of the following should be the technicians NEXT troubleshooting step?
- A.
Document findings, actions and outcomes.
- B.
Ask the user opened ended questions to see if they agree with the cause.
- C.
Establish a plan of action and implement the solution.
- D.
Verify full system functionality.
Correct Answer
C. Establish a plan of action and implement the solution.Explanation
The technician's next troubleshooting step should be to establish a plan of action and implement the solution. This is because once the cause of the problem has been determined, the technician needs to come up with a plan to fix it and then take action to implement that plan. Documenting findings, actions, and outcomes should be done throughout the troubleshooting process, but it is not the next step after determining the cause. Asking the user open-ended questions to confirm the cause may be helpful, but it is not the next step in the troubleshooting process. Verifying full system functionality should be done after the solution has been implemented.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A user running Windows XP is experiencing degraded system performance while a particular application is running. Which of the following interfaces should the technician use to manage current application processes on the users computer?
- A.
Computer Management
- B.
REGEDIT
- C.
Task Manager
- D.
Event Viewer
Correct Answer
C. Task ManagerExplanation
The technician should use Task Manager to manage current application processes on the user's computer. Task Manager allows the user to view and manage running processes, monitor system performance, and end processes that may be causing degraded system performance. It provides information about CPU and memory usage, as well as the ability to end specific processes or applications that are not responding or consuming excessive resources.Rate this question:
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- 47.
As a best practice, before performing hardware upgrades a technician should:
- A.
Archive old drivers.
- B.
Check the HCL.
- C.
Perform a disk defrag.
- D.
Clean each component with an approved cleaning solution.
Correct Answer
B. Check the HCL.Explanation
Before performing hardware upgrades, it is important for a technician to check the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL). The HCL provides a list of hardware devices and components that are compatible with a particular operating system or software. By checking the HCL, the technician can ensure that the new hardware being installed is supported by the system, minimizing the risk of compatibility issues or conflicts. This helps to ensure a smooth and successful hardware upgrade process.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which of the following are forms of biometric authentication? (Select THREE).
- A.
Smart card
- B.
Barcode scanner
- C.
Voice recognition
- D.
Fingerprint reader
- E.
Optical recognition
- F.
Secure ID Token
Correct Answer(s)
C. Voice recognition
D. Fingerprint reader
E. Optical recognitionExplanation
The correct answer is Voice recognition, Fingerprint reader, and Optical recognition. These three options are forms of biometric authentication because they rely on unique physical characteristics of an individual. Voice recognition analyzes the unique features of a person's voice, fingerprint reader scans and matches the patterns on an individual's fingerprint, and optical recognition uses technology to analyze and match the unique patterns of an individual's iris or retina. Smart card, barcode scanner, and secure ID token are not forms of biometric authentication as they do not rely on unique physical characteristics of an individual.Rate this question:
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- 49.
If a computer needs Windows XP and Windows 2000 configured for a dual-boot environment, which of the following file system should be used in formatting the drive?
- A.
NTFS
- B.
UFS
- C.
FAT
- D.
NFS
Correct Answer
A. NTFSExplanation
To configure a dual-boot environment with Windows XP and Windows 2000, the NTFS file system should be used in formatting the drive. NTFS (New Technology File System) is the preferred file system for Windows operating systems as it offers better security, reliability, and support for larger file sizes and volumes compared to FAT (File Allocation Table) file system. UFS (Unix File System) and NFS (Network File System) are not compatible with Windows operating systems and therefore not suitable for this scenario.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which of the following can be used to print a test page?
- A.
Start > Control Panel > System
- B.
Right-click My Computer then select Manage
- C.
Right-click on the printers icon and select Properties
- D.
Start > Control Panel > Printer icon
Correct Answer
C. Right-click on the printers icon and select PropertiesExplanation
To print a test page, you can right-click on the printer's icon and select Properties. This option allows you to access the printer's settings and configuration, including the option to print a test page. The other options listed, such as accessing the Control Panel or System settings, do not directly provide the option to print a test page.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Sep 02, 2011Quiz Created by
Freddyoca
CompTIA A+ 220-702 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 2)
CompTIA A+ 220-702 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 2)
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CompTIA A+ 220-702 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 1)
CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 3)
CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 3)
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