CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test....(Part 2)

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  • 1/80 Questions

    Which of the following advantages does a 64-bit processor have over a 32-bit processor?

    • Provides access to larger hard drive partitions
    • Provides use of more powerful video graphics accelerators.
    • Provides addressing of memory beyond 4GB.
    • Provides use ofPCIe X16 expansion slots.
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A Plus Certification Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This CompTIA A+ 220-701 Essentials Practice Test (Part 2) assesses knowledge in PC recycling, secure password creation, troubleshooting display issues, understanding I\/O ports, cable technologies, and memory module speeds. It's designed for individuals preparing for IT certification, enhancing skills in hardware and security.


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  • 2. 

    Which of the following media types has the largest capacity?

    • DVD.RW+

    • DVD.RW

    • Blu-Ray

    • Dual-sided DVD

    Correct Answer
    A. Blu-Ray
    Explanation
    Blu-Ray has the largest capacity among the given media types. Blu-Ray discs have a storage capacity of up to 50GB for dual-layer discs and up to 100GB for triple-layer discs. This is significantly higher than the capacities of DVD.RW+ (4.7GB), DVD.RW (4.7GB), and Dual-sided DVD (9GB). Blu-Ray discs are able to store more data due to their higher density and use of a shorter wavelength laser for reading and writing data.

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  • 3. 

    The file server had an expected outage this morning. A technician believes the on-board NIC is bad. One particular caller demands to know exactly how long the system will be down. Which of the following would be the appropriate response?

    • There is no way to tell how long this will take. Hardware and software are not exact sciences. I am not the server technician so please do not take a bad tone with me.

    • Is your work solely depending on the server? Try to not be upset because before you know it, the server will be back up.

    • We believe the problem is the network interface card. We will have it back up within the hour.

    • We have identified the problem and we will have it back up as soon as possible."

    Correct Answer
    A. We have identified the problem and we will have it back up as soon as possible."
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "We have identified the problem and we will have it back up as soon as possible." This response acknowledges the issue and assures the caller that the problem has been identified and will be resolved as quickly as possible. It provides a clear and concise answer without making any assumptions or giving false promises about the exact duration of the outage.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is a Class C address?

    • 65.102.1.120

    • 192.168.1.1

    • 125.32.3.132

    • 134.28.1.120

    Correct Answer
    A. 192.168.1.1
    Explanation
    The IP address 192.168.1.1 is a Class C address because it falls within the range of IP addresses reserved for Class C networks. In Class C, the first three octets (192.168.1) represent the network portion of the address, while the last octet (1) represents the host portion. Class C addresses have a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, allowing for up to 254 hosts on the network.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following types of media is considered optical?

    • Floppy

    • Blu-Ray

    • Biometric device

    • Tape

    Correct Answer
    A. Blu-Ray
    Explanation
    Blu-Ray is considered an optical media because it uses optical technology to read and write data. Unlike floppy disks, biometric devices, and tapes, which use magnetic or electronic methods, Blu-Ray discs use a laser to read and write data on a reflective surface. This optical technology allows for higher storage capacity and faster data transfer rates, making Blu-Ray a preferred choice for high-definition video and large data files.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following should be done after installing a touch screen monitor to ensure that the display functions optimally?

    • Set the refresh rate to the lowest the monitor can display.

    • Calibrate the monitor.

    • Degauss the monitor.

    • Set the resolution to the highest the monitor can display.

    Correct Answer
    A. Calibrate the monitor.
    Explanation
    After installing a touch screen monitor, it is important to calibrate the monitor to ensure that the display functions optimally. Calibration helps to align the touch points accurately with the display, improving the accuracy and responsiveness of the touch screen. This process ensures that the touch screen recognizes and responds correctly to touch input, providing a smooth and accurate user experience.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is the FIRST step when troubleshooting an issue?

    • Establish a theory of probable cause.

    • Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

    • Verify full system functionality.

    • Identify the problem.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify the problem.
    Explanation
    The first step when troubleshooting an issue is to identify the problem. This involves understanding what the issue is and gathering information about it. Once the problem is identified, further steps can be taken to resolve it, such as establishing a theory of probable cause, documenting findings, actions, and outcomes, and verifying full system functionality. However, these steps can only be effective if the initial problem is correctly identified.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following are benefits from an active cooling system? (Select TWO).

    • Increase system security

    • Utilize less memory

    • Increased performance

    • Increased network speed

    • Longer chip life

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Increased performance
    A. Longer chip life
    Explanation
    An active cooling system provides benefits such as increased performance and longer chip life. The cooling system helps to dissipate heat generated by the system, preventing overheating and allowing the components to operate at optimal temperatures. This leads to improved performance as the system can run more efficiently without the risk of thermal throttling. Additionally, by maintaining lower temperatures, the cooling system helps to extend the lifespan of the chips, reducing the likelihood of premature failure and increasing the overall longevity of the system.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following methods is commonly used for Biometric authentication? (Select TWO).

    • Logical token

    • Encrypted passwords

    • RFID smartcards

    • Fingerprint reader

    • Retinal scan

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fingerprint reader
    A. Retinal scan
    Explanation
    Biometric authentication is a method of verifying an individual's identity based on unique biological characteristics. Two commonly used methods for biometric authentication are fingerprint readers and retinal scans. Fingerprint readers analyze the unique patterns on an individual's fingertips, while retinal scans analyze the blood vessel patterns in the back of the eye. These methods are highly accurate and secure, making them popular choices for biometric authentication.

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  • 10. 

    A user running Windows XP is experiencing degraded system performance while a particular application is running. Which of the following interfaces should the technician use to manage current application processes on the users computer?

    • Computer Management

    • REGEDIT

    • Task Manager

    • Event Viewer

    Correct Answer
    A. Task Manager
    Explanation
    The technician should use Task Manager to manage current application processes on the user's computer. Task Manager allows the user to view and manage running processes, monitor system performance, and end processes that may be causing degraded system performance. It provides information about CPU and memory usage, as well as the ability to end specific processes or applications that are not responding or consuming excessive resources.

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  • 11. 

    When a technician receives a call for assistance from a customer, which of the following should the technician do FIRST?

    • Identify the hardware make, model, and serial number.

    • Elevate the call to a higher level of support.

    • Assign an appropriate priority for the issue.

    • Identify the user and associated problem.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identify the user and associated problem.
    Explanation
    The technician should first identify the user and associated problem when receiving a call for assistance from a customer. This is important because understanding who the user is and what their specific problem is will help the technician provide the most efficient and effective support. By identifying the user and associated problem first, the technician can gather the necessary information to properly address the issue and determine the appropriate next steps, such as assigning a priority or escalating the call if needed.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following can be used to print a test page?

    • Start > Control Panel > System

    • Right-click My Computer then select Manage

    • Right-click on the printers icon and select Properties

    • Start > Control Panel > Printer icon

    Correct Answer
    A. Right-click on the printers icon and select Properties
    Explanation
    To print a test page, you can right-click on the printer's icon and select Properties. This option allows you to access the printer's settings and configuration, including the option to print a test page. The other options listed, such as accessing the Control Panel or System settings, do not directly provide the option to print a test page.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following wireless network security methods controls who can connect to the network based on the hardware they are using?

    • MAC filtering

    • WEP encryption

    • WPA encryption

    • NAT routing

    Correct Answer
    A. MAC filtering
    Explanation
    MAC filtering is a wireless network security method that controls who can connect to the network based on the hardware they are using. MAC addresses are unique identifiers assigned to network devices, and MAC filtering allows network administrators to create a list of approved MAC addresses. Only devices with MAC addresses on this list are allowed to connect to the network, providing an additional layer of security by preventing unauthorized devices from accessing the network.

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  • 14. 

    A technician can find the Administrative Tools folder in which of the following locations after the initial installation of Windows XP?

    • Program Files

    • Control Panel

    • Start Menu

    • My Computer

    Correct Answer
    A. Control Panel
    Explanation
    After the initial installation of Windows XP, a technician can find the Administrative Tools folder in the Control Panel. The Control Panel is a centralized location where users can access various settings and tools to customize and manage their computer. The Administrative Tools folder contains utilities and settings that are specifically designed for system administrators to manage and configure the computer system.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following are characteristics of a secure password? (Select TWO).

    • Obscure word in a dictionary

    • Contained in a text file

    • Contains AES encryption

    • Contains numbers and letters

    • Contains special characters

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Contains numbers and letters
    A. Contains special characters
    Explanation
    A secure password should contain both numbers and letters to increase the complexity and make it harder to guess or crack. Additionally, including special characters further enhances the security of the password by adding more variations and making it even more difficult to guess or brute force.

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  • 16. 

    If a computer needs Windows XP and Windows 2000 configured for a dual-boot environment, which of the following file system should be used in formatting the drive?

    • NTFS

    • UFS

    • FAT

    • NFS

    Correct Answer
    A. NTFS
    Explanation
    To configure a dual-boot environment with Windows XP and Windows 2000, the NTFS file system should be used in formatting the drive. NTFS (New Technology File System) is the preferred file system for Windows operating systems as it offers better security, reliability, and support for larger file sizes and volumes compared to FAT (File Allocation Table) file system. UFS (Unix File System) and NFS (Network File System) are not compatible with Windows operating systems and therefore not suitable for this scenario.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following types of media is considered solid state?

    • Tape drive

    • Floppy disk

    • DVD

    • Flash media

    Correct Answer
    A. Flash media
    Explanation
    Flash media is considered solid state because it does not have any moving parts. Unlike tape drives, floppy disks, and DVDs, which all rely on physical movement for data retrieval, flash media uses solid-state memory to store and retrieve data. This makes flash media more durable, faster, and less prone to mechanical failures.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following would be the MOST secure password?

    • SR1234ct

    • CompTIA558475

    • Rw2%HN

    • Ct23&P#h~

    Correct Answer
    A. Ct23&P#h~
    Explanation
    The password "ct23&P#h~" would be the most secure because it includes a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. This makes it more difficult for hackers to guess or crack the password. The other options either lack complexity or do not include a variety of character types, making them less secure.

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  • 19. 

    Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of:

    • 4.7GB.

    • 9GB.

    • 25GB.

    • 650MB.

    Correct Answer
    A. 25GB.
    Explanation
    Blu-Ray disks have a storage capacity of 25GB. This is because Blu-Ray technology allows for high-definition video and audio to be stored on the disk, which requires a larger amount of storage space compared to other formats such as DVDs or CDs. The 25GB capacity allows for a significant amount of data to be stored, making it ideal for storing movies, games, and other large files.

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  • 20. 

    A user states that a program is missing from the computer and it had just been used yesterday. Which of the following questions should a technician ask to help determine what occurred?

    • Was there a power outage since yesterday?

    • Did you check the Recycle Bin to see if the shortcut was accidentally deleted?

    • Are you sure you ran a find on the system and the program is just not misfiled?

    • Are you sure you were using that program?

    Correct Answer
    A. Did you check the Recycle Bin to see if the shortcut was accidentally deleted?
    Explanation
    The technician should ask if the user checked the Recycle Bin to see if the shortcut was accidentally deleted because it is a common occurrence for users to accidentally delete shortcuts and then assume that the program is missing. Checking the Recycle Bin can help determine if this is the case and potentially restore the shortcut.

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  • 21. 

    While troubleshooting a computer problem, a technician has determined what has caused the problem. Which of the following should be the technicians NEXT troubleshooting step?

    • Document findings, actions and outcomes.

    • Ask the user opened ended questions to see if they agree with the cause.

    • Establish a plan of action and implement the solution.

    • Verify full system functionality.

    Correct Answer
    A. Establish a plan of action and implement the solution.
    Explanation
    The technician's next troubleshooting step should be to establish a plan of action and implement the solution. This is because once the cause of the problem has been determined, the technician needs to come up with a plan to fix it and then take action to implement that plan. Documenting findings, actions, and outcomes should be done throughout the troubleshooting process, but it is not the next step after determining the cause. Asking the user open-ended questions to confirm the cause may be helpful, but it is not the next step in the troubleshooting process. Verifying full system functionality should be done after the solution has been implemented.

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  • 22. 

    A CRT monitor is displaying patches of distortion while in use. Which of the following actions BEST resolves this issue?

    • Reload the driver for the monitor.

    • Degauss the monitor.

    • Power cycle the computer.

    • Replace the display adaptor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Degauss the monitor.
    Explanation
    Degaussing the monitor is the best action to resolve patches of distortion on a CRT monitor. Degaussing involves using a degaussing coil or a degaussing button on the monitor to eliminate magnetic fields that may have built up and are causing the distortion. Reloading the driver for the monitor, power cycling the computer, or replacing the display adapter may not address the issue of distortion caused by magnetic fields.

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  • 23. 

    A customer brings a PC in for repair, and asks when it will be done. Which of the following is the BEST response for the technician to give?

    • Give the customer an estimated time for repair based on the technicians assessment.

    • Ask the customer to check daily to see when it is completed.

    • Ask the customer when they would like to have the work completed

    • Inform the customer that others are waiting. The technician will get back to them as soon as possible.

    Correct Answer
    A. Give the customer an estimated time for repair based on the technicians assessment.
    Explanation
    The best response for the technician to give is to provide the customer with an estimated time for repair based on the technician's assessment. This allows the customer to have an idea of when their PC will be ready without making false promises or giving an ambiguous answer. It also shows professionalism and transparency in the technician's communication with the customer.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following network ports is normally associated with unencrypted web traffic?

    • 53

    • 80

    • 110

    • 443

    Correct Answer
    A. 80
    Explanation
    Port 80 is normally associated with unencrypted web traffic. This is because port 80 is the default port for HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), which is the protocol used for transmitting web pages over the internet. When a user types a URL into their web browser, the browser sends a request to the web server on port 80 to retrieve the web page. Since HTTP does not provide encryption, the data transmitted over port 80 is not secure and can be easily intercepted and read by anyone with access to the network.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following are forms of biometric authentication? (Select THREE).

    • Smart card

    • Barcode scanner

    • Voice recognition

    • Fingerprint reader

    • Optical recognition

    • Secure ID Token

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Voice recognition
    A. Fingerprint reader
    A. Optical recognition
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Voice recognition, Fingerprint reader, and Optical recognition. These three options are forms of biometric authentication because they rely on unique physical characteristics of an individual. Voice recognition analyzes the unique features of a person's voice, fingerprint reader scans and matches the patterns on an individual's fingerprint, and optical recognition uses technology to analyze and match the unique patterns of an individual's iris or retina. Smart card, barcode scanner, and secure ID token are not forms of biometric authentication as they do not rely on unique physical characteristics of an individual.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is a characteristic of solid state drives?

    • Built-in encryption standards

    • Larger capacity than traditional magnetic drives

    • Lack of drive heads and platters

    • Higher data integrity

    Correct Answer
    A. Lack of drive heads and platters
    Explanation
    Solid state drives (SSDs) do not have any moving parts such as drive heads and platters, unlike traditional magnetic drives. This characteristic of SSDs makes them more durable and less prone to mechanical failures. Additionally, the absence of moving parts allows for faster data access and transfer speeds.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following cable types is LEAST affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI)?

    • Coaxial

    • UTP

    • Plenum

    • Fiber

    Correct Answer
    A. Fiber
    Explanation
    Fiber optic cables are least affected by electromagnetic interference (EMI) because they use light signals to transmit data instead of electrical signals. Unlike coaxial and UTP cables, which transmit data through electrical currents, fiber optic cables are made of glass or plastic fibers that carry light signals. This makes them immune to EMI, as light signals are not affected by electromagnetic fields. Plenum cables, on the other hand, are not specifically designed to be resistant to EMI, so they can be affected to some extent.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is a class A IP address?

    • 192.168.1.1

    • 224.0.0.1

    • 10.0.0.1

    • 172.16.1.1

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.0.0.1
    Explanation
    The class A IP address range is from 1.0.0.0 to 126.0.0.0, with the first octet being between 1 and 126. Therefore, the IP address 10.0.0.1 falls within this range and is a class A IP address.

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  • 29. 

    A technician is examining a laptop that is booting up but not showing the laptop display. When the technician plugs in an external monitor the display shows on the monitor but still not on the laptop display. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to resolve this issue?

    • Replace the video card inside the laptop.

    • Replace the LCD inverter.

    • Make sure the laptop display is enabled.

    • Make sure the OS has the latest video drivers installed

    Correct Answer
    A. Make sure the laptop display is enabled.
    Explanation
    The technician should first make sure that the laptop display is enabled. This means checking the display settings on the laptop to ensure that the display is not disabled or set to an external monitor only. By enabling the laptop display, the technician may be able to resolve the issue and have the display show up on the laptop screen.

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  • 30. 

    Disabling the SSID from broadcasting on a wireless access point (WAP) provides which of the following benefits?

    • Ensures all users physically login to the wired network

    • Ensures that only certain devices can access the network

    • Encrypts data traveling across the wireless network

    • Prevents users from seeing the wireless network

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevents users from seeing the wireless network
    Explanation
    Disabling the SSID from broadcasting on a wireless access point prevents users from seeing the wireless network. When the SSID is not broadcasted, the network is not visible to devices scanning for available networks. This adds an extra layer of security by making the network less discoverable to potential attackers. Users who are not aware of the network's existence will not be able to attempt unauthorized access.

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  • 31. 

    Aero is a feature of which operating system?

    • Windows Vista Basic

    • Windows XP Home

    • Windows XP Media Center

    • Windows Vista Ultimate

    Correct Answer
    A. Windows Vista Ultimate
    Explanation
    Aero is a graphical user interface feature that was introduced in Windows Vista Ultimate. It includes visual enhancements such as transparent window borders, live taskbar previews, and desktop window animations. Therefore, Aero is a feature specific to Windows Vista Ultimate.

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  • 32. 

    A technician must configure a computer for a special needs user who can only press one key at a time. Which of the following must the technician enable for this user to press Ctrl-Alt-Del or other multi-key combinations?

    • Filter Keys

    • Toggle Keys

    • Encryption Keys

    • Sticky Keys

    Correct Answer
    A. Sticky Keys
    Explanation
    The technician must enable Sticky Keys for the special needs user to press Ctrl-Alt-Del or other multi-key combinations. Sticky Keys allows the user to press one key at a time and have it remain active until another key is pressed, making it easier for users with physical disabilities to use keyboard shortcuts.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following would be the maximum transfer rate between a 10/100 NIC and a 10/100/1000 NIC?

    • 100Mb/s

    • 1000Mb/s

    • 10000Mb/s

    • 1Gb/s

    Correct Answer
    A. 100Mb/s
    Explanation
    The maximum transfer rate between a 10/100 NIC and a 10/100/1000 NIC would be 100Mb/s. This is because the transfer rate is limited by the slower device, which in this case is the 10/100 NIC. Even though the 10/100/1000 NIC is capable of higher transfer rates, it can only transfer data at the speed that the 10/100 NIC can handle.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following definitions below BEST describes System Restore?

    • Allows the operating system to be backed up with immunity to virus activity

    • Allows the operating system to assigns dates so that user data files are backed up

    • Allows the operating system to be rolled back to a previous point in time

    • Allows all data on the hard drive to be rolled back to a previous point in time

    Correct Answer
    A. Allows the operating system to be rolled back to a previous point in time
    Explanation
    System Restore is a feature in the operating system that allows it to be rolled back to a previous point in time. This means that any changes made to the system, such as software installations or updates, can be undone and the system can be restored to its previous state. It does not back up user data files or the entire hard drive, but rather focuses on restoring the operating system itself.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following display connections are the MOST commonly used to connect an LCD monitor to a desktop? (Select TWO)

    • USB

    • DVI

    • CGA

    • VGA

    • S-Video

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. DVI
    A. VGA
    Explanation
    DVI and VGA are the most commonly used display connections to connect an LCD monitor to a desktop. DVI (Digital Visual Interface) is a high-quality digital connection that provides better image quality and supports higher resolutions. VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an analog connection that is widely compatible with older devices and can support lower resolutions. These two connections are widely available on both LCD monitors and desktop computers, making them the most commonly used options for connecting the two devices.

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  • 36. 

    A user states that every time they try to pull down video clips from a website, a notice appears on the screen which says the site is being blocked by a filter. The technician knows that a new web filtering application was recently introduced which assigns a 120 minute quota on streaming media and a message appears allowing the user to click to continue. Which is the following is the MOST appropriate response from the technician?

    • What particular website are you trying to download videos from? Are they work related?

    • Video takes a large amount of bandwidth so management has decided to limit each user to what can be downloaded and watched. If you take issue with that please inform your supervisor.

    • Did you read the entire screen? The last sentence clearly says click to continue.

    • Bandwidth usage has become a problem. A new application has been implemented to help manage and improve the network. Simply select continue on the message and the video should appear.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bandwidth usage has become a problem. A new application has been implemented to help manage and improve the network. Simply select continue on the message and the video should appear.
    Explanation
    The technician's response explains that the website is being blocked by a new web filtering application that has been implemented to manage and improve the network due to bandwidth usage becoming a problem. The technician advises the user to simply select "continue" on the message that appears on the screen, and the video should then appear. This response provides a clear explanation of the situation and offers a solution to the user's problem.

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  • 37. 

    A user states that the print server needs to be reset because they have been unable to print and can see a number of documents pending when looking at the printer in control panel. The technician notices that the real solution is to clear a paper jam in the printer. Which of the following is the BEST response for the technician to give the user?

    • Thank the user for their assistance with the problem; however, their solution did not work and inform the user that the company has personnel working on the problem.

    • Thank the user for their concern ask the user open ended questions to see what they think is the problem.

    • Tell the user that there are indeed print jobs piling up but that the printer has a paper jam and a technician is in the process of repairing the issue.

    • Fix the paper jam and then give the user some reference material so they can research preventative techniques and be more involved in the troubleshooting process.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tell the user that there are indeed print jobs piling up but that the printer has a paper jam and a technician is in the process of repairing the issue.
    Explanation
    The technician should inform the user that there are print jobs piling up because of a paper jam in the printer and assure them that a technician is already working on resolving the issue. This response acknowledges the user's observation about the pending print jobs and provides the correct solution, which is to clear the paper jam. It also reassures the user that the problem is being addressed by a professional.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is the correct class address for an IP address of 194.168.10.25?

    • Class A

    • Class B

    • Class C

    • Class D

    Correct Answer
    A. Class C
    Explanation
    The IP address 194.168.10.25 falls within the range of Class C addresses. In Class C, the first octet of the IP address is used to identify the network, while the remaining three octets are used to identify the host. Class C addresses have a range of 192.0.0.0 to 223.255.255.255, and they are typically assigned to small to medium-sized networks.

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  • 39. 

    While trying to resolve an issue with wireless connectivity on a users laptop, a coworker starts interrupting the user with an unrelated issue as the user is explaining what is happening on the laptop. Which of the following should the technician do?

    • Politely tell the user they can solve the coworkers issue and then contact the technician when they are ready to give their attention to the technician.

    • Politely ask the coworker to stop interrupting and ask the coworker to come back at another time.

    • Tell the user the technician will figure out the problem and fix it they have more important problems to take care of.

    • Politely ask coworker to let the user finish their explanation and focus on what the user is saying.

    Correct Answer
    A. Politely ask coworker to let the user finish their explanation and focus on what the user is saying.
    Explanation
    The technician should politely ask the coworker to let the user finish their explanation and focus on what the user is saying. This is the most appropriate response because it shows respect for the user's issue and ensures that their problem is fully understood and addressed. Interrupting the user with an unrelated issue is unprofessional and can hinder the troubleshooting process. By politely asking the coworker to wait, the technician can give their full attention to the user and effectively resolve their wireless connectivity issue.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following I/O ports has the SLOWEST transfer rate?

    • S/PDIF

    • USB 1.1

    • IEEE 1394

    • USB 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. USB 1.1
    Explanation
    USB 1.1 has the slowest transfer rate among the given options. USB 1.1 has a maximum transfer rate of 12 Mbps (megabits per second), which is significantly slower compared to the other options. S/PDIF (Sony/Philips Digital Interface) is used for digital audio transmission and has a higher transfer rate. IEEE 1394 (FireWire) is a high-speed serial bus that supports data transfer rates of up to 400 Mbps. USB 2.0, on the other hand, has a maximum transfer rate of 480 Mbps, making it faster than USB 1.1. Therefore, USB 1.1 has the slowest transfer rate among the given options.

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  • 41. 

    Two users want to print to a USB printer connected locally. Which of the following is the quickest way to accomplish this?

    • Purchase an external Ethernet print card.

    • Share out the printer from the attached computer.

    • Move the computer and attach to the printer.

    • Set up a local print queue.

    Correct Answer
    A. Share out the printer from the attached computer.
    Explanation
    Sharing out the printer from the attached computer is the quickest way to accomplish printing to a USB printer connected locally. By sharing the printer, both users can access and print to it directly from their own computers without the need for additional hardware or physically moving the computer. This allows for convenient and efficient printing for both users.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following can be used to configure a Windows installation for imaging multiple computers?

    • Fdisk

    • Sysprep

    • Regedit

    • Telnet

    Correct Answer
    A. Sysprep
    Explanation
    To perform a network installation of Windows 2000 Professional by creating an image of an existing computer, you need to use the Sysprep utility, which comes with Windows 2000 Professional. Ghost is a third-party utility, RIS only comes with Windows Server operating systems, and WDS is available in Windows Server 2003.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following draws too much power and should never be plugged into a UPS?

    • Laser printer

    • Laptop computer

    • LCD monitor

    • Server

    Correct Answer
    A. Laser printer
    Explanation
    He should plug in the monitor, the AC adapter of the laptop and the computer. Nothing else should be plugged into the UPS under a user's desk.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following cable types uses a BNC?

    • Fiber

    • CAT6

    • Coaxial

    • UTP

    Correct Answer
    A. Coaxial
    Explanation
    Coaxial cable uses a BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman) connector. BNC connectors are commonly used in video and radio frequency applications. Coaxial cables are designed to carry high-frequency signals with low loss and interference. They are widely used in applications such as television broadcasting, CCTV, and computer networks. The BNC connector provides a secure and reliable connection, making it suitable for various professional and consumer electronic devices.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following services uses the TCP port 21 by default?

    • TELNET

    • HTTPS

    • SMTP

    • FTP

    Correct Answer
    A. FTP
    Explanation
    FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses TCP port 21 by default. FTP is a standard network protocol that is used to transfer files from one host to another over a TCP-based network, such as the internet. The use of TCP port 21 allows FTP clients to establish a connection with FTP servers and exchange commands and data securely. TELNET, HTTPS, and SMTP use different TCP ports for their respective services.

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  • 46. 

    Wake on LAN describes the PCs ability to:

    • Collect all packets that are sent to any device on the LAN.

    • Send broadcast packets over the LAN to all computers simultaneously.

    • Send packets to other network devices on the LAN instructing then to enter a low power state (e.g. Hibernate, Off).

    • Resume from a low power state when it receives a network packet telling it to do so.

    Correct Answer
    A. Resume from a low power state when it receives a network packet telling it to do so.
    Explanation
    Wake on LAN refers to the ability of a PC to wake up from a low power state, such as hibernation or being turned off, when it receives a network packet instructing it to do so. This feature allows remote management and control of the PC, as it can be powered on without physically pressing the power button. It is not about collecting packets, sending broadcast packets, or instructing other devices to enter a low power state.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following utilities can be used to change a FAT file system into an NTFS file system without data loss?

    • Convert

    • Format

    • Diskpart

    • Fdisk

    Correct Answer
    A. Convert
    Explanation
    The utility "convert" can be used to change a FAT file system into an NTFS file system without data loss. This command is used in Windows operating systems to convert the file system of a partition from FAT to NTFS. It preserves all existing files and data on the partition while converting the file system.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is MOST likely to be the source of wireless network interference?

    • Bluetooth headset

    • Large screen television

    • AM/FM radio

    • Cordless telephone

    Correct Answer
    A. Cordless telephone
    Explanation
    Cordless telephones are most likely to be the source of wireless network interference. Cordless telephones operate on the same frequency range as wireless networks, which can cause interference and disrupt the wireless signal. This is because both devices use similar radio frequencies to transmit and receive signals. Therefore, when a cordless telephone is used near a wireless network, it can cause interference and degrade the performance of the wireless network.

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  • 49. 

    Management has approved the purchase of uninterruptible power supplies (UPSs) for all workstations. Which of the following is the MOST important factor for a technician to consider when in determining which UPS to purchase?

    • Amount of time necessary for the UPS to run in a power outage.

    • The physical footprint of the UPS.

    • The number and size of all applications running on each workstation.

    • The amount of space available at each workstation to place the UPS.

    Correct Answer
    A. Amount of time necessary for the UPS to run in a power outage.
    Explanation
    The most important factor for a technician to consider when determining which UPS to purchase is the amount of time necessary for the UPS to run in a power outage. This is crucial because it determines how long the workstations will remain operational during a power outage, ensuring that important tasks can be completed and data can be saved before shutting down. The physical footprint of the UPS, the number and size of applications running on each workstation, and the amount of space available are also important factors to consider, but they are secondary to the primary concern of ensuring sufficient runtime during power outages.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 02, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Freddyoca
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