Clinical Orientation Post Test-CNA Only

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| By Angelahedworth
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Angelahedworth
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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 981
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Clinical Orientation Post Test-CNA Only - Quiz

This test is completed at the end of clinical orientation.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How you say something is more important than what you say.

    • A.

      A. True

    • B.

      B. False

    Correct Answer
    A. A. True
    Explanation
    This statement suggests that the way in which something is communicated holds more significance than the actual content of the message. It implies that the manner, tone, and delivery of speech or expression can greatly impact how the message is received and understood by others.

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  • 2. 

    What are the most important key words to use?

    • A.

      A. Hello, my name is...

    • B.

      B. For your safety, I am going to check your wristband

    • C.

      C. How is your pain today?

    • D.

      D. Is there anything else I can do for you?

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Is there anything else I can do for you?
    Explanation
    This question asks for the most important key words to use. Option D, "Is there anything else I can do for you?" is the correct answer because it shows a willingness to help and provide further assistance to the person. Options A, B, and C do not directly address the idea of offering additional help or assistance.

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  • 3. 

    Showing care and compassion for the customer includes seeing things through their eyes.

    • A.

      A.True

    • B.

      B. False

    Correct Answer
    A. A.True
    Explanation
    To show care and compassion for the customer, it is important to empathize with them and understand their perspective. Seeing things through their eyes allows us to better understand their needs, concerns, and emotions. This helps build trust and rapport with the customer, leading to a more positive and satisfying customer experience. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 4. 

    The following are the steps for service recovery:

    • A.

      A. Listen, Fix the Problem, Report the Problem, Thank you

    • B.

      B. Listen, Fix the problem, Thank you, Follow up

    • C.

      C. Listen, Apologize, Fix the Problem, Thank you, Follow Up

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Listen, Apologize, Fix the Problem, Thank you, Follow Up
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. Listen, Apologize, Fix the Problem, Thank you, Follow Up. This sequence of steps for service recovery is effective because it involves actively listening to the customer's complaint, showing empathy and apologizing for the issue, resolving the problem, expressing gratitude to the customer for bringing it to their attention, and following up to ensure customer satisfaction. This approach demonstrates a commitment to addressing the customer's concerns and providing a positive resolution to the issue.

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  • 5. 

    During individualized rounding we form our future plans and visits on

    • A.

      A. How our schedule is going

    • B.

      B. What the patient says is their personal preferences

    • C.

      C. When the discharge will be

    • D.

      D. To watch their TV

    Correct Answer
    B. B. What the patient says is their personal preferences
    Explanation
    During individualized rounding, the future plans and visits are based on what the patient says is their personal preferences. This means that the healthcare provider takes into consideration the patient's preferences and desires when planning their care and visits. This approach ensures that the patient's individual needs and wants are taken into account, promoting patient-centered care and improving patient satisfaction. It also helps to create a more personalized and tailored healthcare experience for the patient.

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  • 6. 

    Risk factors for falls include:

    • A.

      A. Depression, administration of anti-epileptic and benzodiazepine medications

    • B.

      B. Impulsivity, confusion, altered elimination

    • C.

      C. Gender, dizziness/vertigo and compromised ability to rise from a sitting position

    • D.

      D. All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. All of the above. This means that all the risk factors listed in options A, B, and C contribute to an increased risk of falls. Depression, administration of certain medications like anti-epileptic and benzodiazepine drugs, impulsivity, confusion, altered elimination, gender, dizziness/vertigo, and compromised ability to rise from a sitting position are all factors that can make a person more prone to falling.

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  • 7. 

    The Get-Up and Go test assesses for patients at high risk for falls.

    • A.

      A. True

    • B.

      B. False

    Correct Answer
    A. A. True
    Explanation
    The Get-Up and Go test is a commonly used assessment tool to evaluate a patient's risk of falling. It involves measuring the time it takes for a patient to stand up from a chair, walk a short distance, turn around, walk back to the chair, and sit down again. This test helps healthcare professionals identify individuals who may be at a higher risk of falls and allows for appropriate interventions to be implemented to prevent future accidents. Therefore, the statement that the Get-Up and Go test assesses patients at high risk for falls is true.

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  • 8. 

    Fall assessment is completed

    • A.

      A. Every shift

    • B.

      B. Daily

    • C.

      C. Every 12 hours at 0800 and 2000

    • D.

      D. Every 12 hours and if the patient falls and/or changes in status are noted

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Every 12 hours and if the patient falls and/or changes in status are noted
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. Every 12 hours and if the patient falls and/or changes in status are noted. This means that a fall assessment is completed every 12 hours as a routine, but it is also done if the patient falls or if there are any changes in their status. This approach ensures that the patient's condition is regularly monitored and any potential risks or changes are promptly addressed.

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  • 9. 

    Interventions for preventing a fall in a high risk patient include:

    • A.

      A. Standard Fall precautions and a yellow fall risk armband

    • B.

      B. Use of bed exit alarm as appropriate

    • C.

      C. Staff rounding every hour around the clock, with toileting offered during waking hours

    • D.

      D. All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. All of the above. This means that all of the interventions mentioned in options A, B, and C are necessary for preventing a fall in a high-risk patient. Standard fall precautions and a yellow fall risk armband help to identify the patient as high risk and remind staff to take extra precautions. The use of a bed exit alarm alerts staff if the patient tries to get out of bed unsafely. Staff rounding every hour and offering toileting during waking hours ensures that the patient's needs are met and reduces the risk of falls.

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  • 10. 

    Signs and symptoms of abuse or neglect may include:

    • A.

      A. Inadequate dress

    • B.

      B. Malnourishment or hydration

    • C.

      C. Confiscation of checkbook

    • D.

      D. Delay in seeking medical care or filling prescription

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
    Explanation
    The signs and symptoms of abuse or neglect can manifest in various ways. Inadequate dress can indicate neglect, as it suggests that the person is not receiving proper care or attention. Malnourishment or dehydration can also be signs of neglect, as it implies that the person is not getting enough food or fluids. Confiscation of a checkbook can be a form of financial abuse, where the person's access to their own funds is restricted. Lastly, a delay in seeking medical care or filling prescriptions can indicate neglect or abuse, as it suggests that the person is not receiving the necessary medical attention. Therefore, all of the given options can be signs of abuse or neglect.

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  • 11. 

    The steps I take when I suspect abuse or neglect:

    • A.

      A. Plan for safety, notify Social service or supervisor

    • B.

      B. Document objective findings and actions taken

    • C.

      C. Both a and b

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Both a and b
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. Both a and b. When suspecting abuse or neglect, it is important to prioritize safety and take immediate action by notifying social services or a supervisor. Additionally, it is crucial to document objective findings and any actions taken. By combining both steps, one can ensure that proper authorities are alerted and there is a record of the situation for future reference or investigation.

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  • 12. 

    Abuse only occurs in:

    • A.

      A. Children

    • B.

      B. Disabled

    • C.

      C. Elderly

    • D.

      D. All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Abuse can occur in any population, including children, disabled individuals, and the elderly. It is not limited to any specific group.

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  • 13. 

    My role with the victim of abuse is:

    • A.

      A. Rescue, alarm, confine, and evacuate

    • B.

      B. Indentify, report, document and keep safe

    • C.

      C. Rescue, intervene, call 911

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Indentify, report, document and keep safe
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. Identify, report, document, and keep safe. In a role with a victim of abuse, it is essential to first identify the abuse, whether it is physical, emotional, or sexual. Once identified, it is important to report the abuse to the appropriate authorities or organizations that can provide assistance. Documenting the abuse is crucial for legal purposes and to ensure the victim receives the necessary support. Lastly, keeping the victim safe is a priority, which may involve providing a safe environment or connecting them with resources that can help protect them from further harm.

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  • 14. 

    The barriers to managing effective pain relief include:

    • A.

      A. Fear of addiction

    • B.

      B. Fear or respiratory depression

    • C.

      C. Fear of patient selling drugs

    • D.

      D. A and B only

    Correct Answer
    D. D. A and B only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. A and B only. This is because the barriers to managing effective pain relief include both the fear of addiction and the fear of respiratory depression. These concerns often prevent healthcare providers from prescribing adequate pain medication, leading to inadequate pain relief for patients. The fear of patient selling drugs (option C) is not mentioned as a barrier in the given information.

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  • 15. 

    The six characteristics included in pain assessment are:

    • A.

      A. Location, duration, onset, quality, alleviating and aggravating factors

    • B.

      B. Location, onset, injury, disease, hours of sleep, and nutrition

    • C.

      C. Location, onset, injury, exercise and nutrition

    • D.

      D. Location, onset, injury, quality, alleviating and aggravating factors

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Location, duration, onset, quality, alleviating and aggravating factors
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. Location, duration, onset, quality, alleviating and aggravating factors. This answer is correct because these six characteristics are commonly used in pain assessment. Location refers to where the pain is felt in the body, duration refers to how long the pain lasts, onset refers to when the pain started, quality refers to the type or nature of the pain, and alleviating and aggravating factors refer to what makes the pain better or worse. These characteristics help healthcare professionals gather important information about a patient's pain in order to determine the best course of treatment.

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  • 16. 

    Signs and symptoms of pain include all except:

    • A.

      A. Moaning and facial grimacing

    • B.

      B. Patient complaining of pain even when no signs or symptoms are visible

    • C.

      C. Restlessness

    • D.

      D. Increased heart rate, blood pressure and respirations

    • E.

      E. Patient reports no pain

    Correct Answer
    E. E. Patient reports no pain
    Explanation
    The correct answer is E. Patient reports no pain. This is because signs and symptoms of pain are typically observable or measurable, such as moaning, facial grimacing, restlessness, and physiological changes like increased heart rate, blood pressure, and respirations. However, pain is subjective and can vary from person to person, so a patient may still be experiencing pain even if they do not report it. Therefore, the absence of a patient reporting pain does not necessarily mean that they are not experiencing pain.

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  • 17. 

    A multidisciplinary approach for pain management includes services from:

    • A.

      A. Psychosocial and/or Spiritual Care

    • B.

      B. Physical or Occupational Therapy

    • C.

      C. Pharmaceutical interventionalists

    • D.

      D. All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A multidisciplinary approach for pain management includes services from psychosocial and/or spiritual care, physical or occupational therapy, and pharmaceutical interventionalists. This approach recognizes that pain is a complex issue that can be influenced by various factors, including psychological, social, and spiritual aspects. By incorporating different disciplines, patients can receive comprehensive care that addresses their physical, emotional, and spiritual needs, leading to more effective pain management.

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  • 18. 

    Rapid Response Team:

    • A.

      A. Provides early intervention before a patient's status may necessitate a Code Blue response

    • B.

      B. Provides critical care treatment options in the non-ICU environment

    • C.

      C. Establishes a collaborative Patient-Focused work environment

    • D.

      D. All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. All of the above. The Rapid Response Team provides early intervention before a patient's condition worsens to the point of needing a Code Blue response. They also provide critical care treatment options in a non-ICU environment. Additionally, the team works collaboratively to establish a patient-focused work environment.

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  • 19. 

    You can only call a Rapid Response Team if the patient has an unstable pulse, BP or respiratory status

    • A.

      A. True

    • B.

      B. False

    Correct Answer
    B. B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because you can call a Rapid Response Team not only if the patient has an unstable pulse, BP, or respiratory status, but also in other situations such as if the patient is experiencing a change in mental status, has a concerning lab result, or if the healthcare provider feels that the patient's condition is deteriorating and requires immediate intervention. The Rapid Response Team is called to assess and provide timely intervention in any situation where the patient's condition is concerning or deteriorating.

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  • 20. 

    Upon arrival of the Rapid Response Team, the SBAR format of communication includes:

    • A.

      A. Situation, Background, Alarms, Resuscitation status

    • B.

      B. Status, Blood work, Assessment, Response to treatment

    • C.

      C. Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
    Explanation
    The Rapid Response Team uses the SBAR format of communication to provide a concise and effective handoff. "Situation" refers to the current condition or problem of the patient, "Background" includes relevant medical history and context, "Assessment" is the evaluation of the patient's current status, and "Recommendation" involves suggesting a course of action or intervention. This format ensures that all necessary information is communicated clearly and helps the team make informed decisions and provide appropriate care.

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  • 21. 

    Code Blue is called when the patient is:

    • A.

      A. Unresponsive, pulse 40, respirations 38 and rapidly deteriorationg

    • B.

      B. Responsive, pulse 48, respirations 20

    • C.

      C. Pulseless, no respirations and unconscious

    • D.

      D. A and C

    Correct Answer
    D. D. A and C
    Explanation
    Code Blue is called when the patient is unresponsive and experiencing a rapid deterioration in their condition, as indicated by a low pulse rate (40) and high respiratory rate (38). It is also called when the patient is pulseless, not breathing, and unconscious. Therefore, both options A and C meet the criteria for a Code Blue situation.

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  • 22. 

    The role of the clinical staff includes:

    • A.

      A. Initiation of CPR or AED per ACLS Protocol

    • B.

      B. Follow the Code Blue Team orders when they arrive

    • C.

      C. Provide SBAR report and assist Code Blue team with administration of IV medications

    • D.

      D. All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. All of the above. This means that the role of the clinical staff includes all of the mentioned tasks: initiation of CPR or AED per ACLS Protocol, following the Code Blue Team orders when they arrive, and providing SBAR report and assisting the Code Blue team with administration of IV medications.

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  • 23. 

    What are some other necessary duties during a Code Blue:

    • A.

      A. Bring crash cart to room, set up suction equipment

    • B.

      B. Obtain extra IV pumps

    • C.

      C. Have patient's chart available

    • D.

      D. Attend to/contact family

    • E.

      E. All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. E. All of the above
    Explanation
    During a Code Blue, which is a medical emergency situation, there are several necessary duties that need to be performed. These include bringing the crash cart to the room, setting up suction equipment, obtaining extra IV pumps, having the patient's chart available, and attending to or contacting the patient's family. All of these duties are crucial in providing immediate and appropriate care during a Code Blue situation.

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  • 24. 

    Who responds to a Code Blue?

    • A.

      A. ACLS Certified RN, Respiratory Therapist, EKG Tech

    • B.

      B. ICU and Telemetry RN, Physician, Staff Nurse, Respiratory Therapist, EKG Technician and Chaplin

    • C.

      C. Unit Manager, ICU RN, and Respiratory Therapist

    Correct Answer
    A. A. ACLS Certified RN, Respiratory Therapist, EKG Tech
    Explanation
    In a hospital setting, a Code Blue is an emergency situation that typically refers to a cardiac arrest. The correct answer, option A, includes healthcare professionals who are trained and certified in Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS), which is a set of protocols and skills specifically designed for managing cardiac emergencies. This includes ACLS Certified RNs (Registered Nurses) who have received specialized training in advanced cardiac life support, Respiratory Therapists who are trained in airway management and providing respiratory support, and EKG Techs who are skilled in interpreting and monitoring cardiac rhythms. These professionals are essential in responding to a Code Blue and providing immediate care to the patient.

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  • 25. 

    Once a Code is over, the Primary nurse is responsible for:

    • A.

      A. Delegating a team member to rush the used crash cart to Central Supply Department and bring up a new cart

    • B.

      B. Cleaning defibrillator paddles and laryngoscopes, cables and calling the Central Service Department for a cart replacement

    • C.

      C. Locking used crash cart with green lock

    • D.

      D. B and C

    Correct Answer
    D. D. B and C
    Explanation
    The primary nurse is responsible for cleaning the defibrillator paddles and laryngoscopes, cables and calling the Central Service Department for a cart replacement. They are also responsible for locking the used crash cart with a green lock. This ensures that the equipment is properly cleaned and replaced, and that the crash cart is secured for future use.

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  • 26. 

    A Code H is called:

    • A.

      A. Right before a Rapid Response

    • B.

      B. When other clinical departments notice a change in the patient's status

    • C.

      C. When patients, families, associates, or visitors notice a change in condition, unresponsiveness to concerns or confusion/inadequate information regarding the plan of care

    Correct Answer
    C. C. When patients, families, associates, or visitors notice a change in condition, unresponsiveness to concerns or confusion/inadequate information regarding the plan of care
    Explanation
    Code H is called when patients, families, associates, or visitors notice a change in condition, unresponsiveness to concerns, or confusion/inadequate information regarding the plan of care. This means that if anyone in the healthcare setting, including patients and their loved ones, notices any concerning signs or feels that the patient's condition is not being properly addressed or communicated, they can initiate a Code H. This helps ensure that any issues or changes in the patient's condition are promptly addressed and appropriate actions are taken to provide the necessary care and support.

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  • 27. 

    LET means:

    • A.

      A. Look, Examine, Treat

    • B.

      B. Limited Emergency Treatment

    • C.

      C. Limit Every Trainee

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Limited Emergency Treatment
    Explanation
    LET stands for "Limited Emergency Treatment." This acronym is commonly used in medical contexts to refer to the level of care provided in emergency situations where immediate treatment is necessary but may be limited in scope or duration. This term is often used in first aid and emergency medical training to emphasize the need for quick and efficient treatment in emergency situations.

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  • 28. 

    The categories of restraints include:

    • A.

      A. Psychiatric and medical

    • B.

      B. Behavioral and medical

    • C.

      C. Violent and self destructive OR non-violent and non-selt-destructive

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Violent and self destructive OR non-violent and non-selt-destructive
    Explanation
    The categories of restraints can be classified as either violent and self-destructive or non-violent and non-self-destructive. This means that restraints are used for individuals who exhibit violent or self-destructive behavior, as well as for individuals who do not display such behaviors. This categorization helps in determining the appropriate type of restraint to be used based on the individual's behavior and level of risk.

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  • 29. 

    An "Environmental Check" is defined as:

    • A.

      A. Ensuring the room is free of spills, call light and water within reach

    • B.

      B. The hourly rounding checklist

    • C.

      C. Assessment of the patient's immediate surroundings to ensure that it is free of contraband and other risks of harm

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Assessment of the patient's immediate surroundings to ensure that it is free of contraband and other risks of harm
    Explanation
    An "Environmental Check" refers to assessing the patient's immediate surroundings to ensure that it is free of contraband and other risks of harm. This involves checking for potential dangers or hazards in the patient's environment that could pose a threat to their safety or well-being. It is important to ensure that the patient's immediate surroundings are free from any items or substances that could potentially harm them or hinder their recovery process. This includes checking for contraband, such as drugs or weapons, as well as other potential risks, such as sharp objects or slippery surfaces.

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  • 30. 

    Assessment of a patient in restraints includes:

    • A.

      A. Vital signs, nutrition/hydration, skin integrity and circulation

    • B.

      B. Environmental safety check, hygiene, elimination

    • C.

      C. A and B

    • D.

      D. A, B, and documentation of interventions attemtped to facilitate removal of restraints

    Correct Answer
    D. D. A, B, and documentation of interventions attemtped to facilitate removal of restraints
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D. A, B, and documentation of interventions attempted to facilitate removal of restraints. When a patient is in restraints, it is important to assess their vital signs, nutrition/hydration, skin integrity, and circulation (option A). Additionally, an assessment should be done to ensure environmental safety, hygiene, and elimination (option B). Lastly, it is crucial to document any interventions that have been attempted to facilitate the removal of restraints, as this helps in monitoring the patient's progress and ensuring appropriate care.

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  • 31. 

    Violent restraints require:

    • A.

      A. Physicians order within one hour of application and monitoring every 15 minutes

    • B.

      B. Face-to-face assessment by the physician every 24 hours

    • C.

      C. Providing the patient/family and placing in the chart a copy of the: Illinois Mental Health Restriction of Rights Form Illinois Developmental Disablilty Restriction of Rights Form

    • D.

      D. A and C

    Correct Answer
    D. D. A and C
    Explanation
    Violent restraints require a physician's order within one hour of application and monitoring every 15 minutes. This is important to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient. Additionally, it is necessary to provide the patient/family with a copy of the Illinois Mental Health Restriction of Rights Form and the Illinois Developmental Disability Restriction of Rights Form. This is to inform them about their rights and the restrictions that may be placed on them during the use of restraints. Therefore, the correct answer is D, which includes both A and C.

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  • 32. 

    If non-violent, non-self-destuctive restraints are removed and within minutes the patine meets the criteria of re-restraint, the RN may reapply them based on the original order

    • A.

      A. True

    • B.

      B. False

    Correct Answer
    B. B. False
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that if non-violent, non-self-destructive restraints are removed and the patient meets the criteria for re-restraint within minutes, the RN cannot simply reapply them based on the original order. The RN must reassess the patient and obtain a new order for restraints before reapplying them. This is important to ensure that the patient's current condition and need for restraints are properly evaluated and documented. Therefore, the statement is false.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 29, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Angelahedworth
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