CISCO 3 Practice Final

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  • 1/59 Questions

    In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domainmembers?

    • Client
    • Server
    • Pruning
    • Transparent
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CISCO Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This 'Cisco 3 practice final' assesses knowledge on network protocols and configurations including RSTP, RIPv1, RIPv2, and VPN setups. It tests understanding of network troubleshooting, remote switch management, and secure communication setups, crucial for certification and real-world networking scenarios.

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  • 2. 

    An organization is planning to expand by adding five new branches. After the expansion, it will require secured, full-time, andsimultaneous connectivity for its new branch offices with the central office. There is only one port available on the central office router.Which WAN technology can be used in this situation?

    • PPP

    • ISDN

    • Frame Relay

    • Analog dialup

    Correct Answer
    A. Frame Relay
    Explanation
    Frame Relay is the correct answer for this question because it is a WAN technology that allows multiple branch offices to connect to a central office using a single port on the central office router. Frame Relay uses virtual circuits to establish connections between the central office and the branch offices, providing secure and simultaneous connectivity. This makes it an ideal choice for the organization's expansion plans, as it can support the required connectivity for all five new branches using just one port on the central office router.

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  • 3. 

    Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, Which statement is true?

    • Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.

    • No host can reach any other host.

    • Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.

    • All hosts can reach each other.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.
    Explanation
    If router RTA fails, hosts A and B will still be able to reach each other because they are connected to the same switch. However, they will not be able to reach hosts C and D or the server because these devices are connected to a different switch, which is dependent on router RTA for communication between the two switches.

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  • 4. 

    Refer to the exhibit. How many routers have established OSPF adjacencies with R1?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 5

    • 7

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    Based on the given exhibit, it can be inferred that R1 has established OSPF adjacencies with only two routers. This can be determined by observing the number of lines connecting R1 to other routers in the exhibit. Since there are only two lines, it indicates that R1 has formed adjacencies with two routers. Therefore, the correct answer is 2.

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  • 5. 

    What is a feature of PAP authentication?

    • It uses a three-way handshake with encryption. It

    • It sends the username/password pair across the link in clear text.

    • It provides protection against playback attack through a variable challenge value.

    • It designates the called device to control the frequency and timing of the authentication.

    Correct Answer
    A. It sends the username/password pair across the link in clear text.
    Explanation
    PAP authentication is a simple and insecure authentication method that sends the username and password pair across the link in clear text. This means that the credentials can be easily intercepted and read by anyone with access to the network. As a result, PAP authentication does not provide any encryption or protection for the transmitted data.

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  • 6. 

    A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?

    • VPN

    • Frame Relay

    • PPP with CHAP authentication

    • PPP with PAP authentication

    Correct Answer
    A. VPN
    Explanation
    The solution that was implemented for the sales representative is a VPN (Virtual Private Network). A VPN allows for secure and encrypted communication over the internet, making it an ideal choice for transmitting sensitive information. It creates a private network connection between the sales representative's device and the corporate headquarters, ensuring that the data is protected from unauthorized access or interception.

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  • 7. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured R1, R2, and R3 to use RIPv2, and the network is fully converged. The hosts on the internal network are able to access R2, but they are unable to access the Internet.How can the administrator solve this problem?

    • Configure a default route on R3 and propagate it via the

    • Configure a default route on R2 and propagate it via RIPv2 to routers R1 and R3.

    • Configure a default route on the ISP, and it will be automatically propagated to all routers.

    • Configure a default route on R1, and it will be automatically propagated to all routers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure a default route on R2 and propagate it via RIPv2 to routers R1 and R3.
    Explanation
    To solve the problem of the internal network being unable to access the internet, the administrator should configure a default route on R2 and propagate it via RIPv2 to routers R1 and R3. By configuring a default route on R2, any traffic that is not destined for the internal network will be forwarded to R2. This default route will then be propagated to routers R1 and R3 via RIPv2, allowing them to forward the traffic to R2 for internet access.

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  • 8. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must manually summarize all IP addresses on the POP router for the ISP. Which one is correct summary address?

    • 192.168.0.0/22

    • 192.168.0.0/23

    • 192.168.0.0/24

    • 192.168.0.0/25

    Correct Answer
    A. 192.168.0.0/22
    Explanation
    The correct summary address is 192.168.0.0/22 because it includes all IP addresses from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.3.255. This is the most efficient summary address as it covers the largest range of IP addresses while minimizing the number of routes required.

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  • 9. 

    Which two statements correctly describe RIPv1 and RIPv2?(choose two)

    • Both broadcast their entire routing table from all participating interfaces to 255.255.255.255.

    • Both advertise their routing updates out all active interfaces every 30 seconds.

    • Both have the same administrative distance value of 120

    • Both can turn off automatic summarization.

    • Both support VLSM and CIDR.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Both advertise their routing updates out all active interfaces every 30 seconds.
    A. Both have the same administrative distance value of 120
    Explanation
    RIPv1 and RIPv2 both advertise their routing updates out all active interfaces every 30 seconds. This means that they periodically send updates about their routing tables to neighboring routers. Additionally, both RIPv1 and RIPv2 have the same administrative distance value of 120. Administrative distance is a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing protocol, and a lower value indicates a higher priority. Therefore, RIPv1 and RIPv2 are considered equally reliable in terms of administrative distance.

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  • 10. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 and Switch2 are connected to each other via a trunk link that has been tested and is working properly. is VTP unable to propagate VLANs from one switch to the other?

    • The revision number is different on both switches.

    • Both switches are in server mode.

    • The VTP domain name is different on both switches.

    • The VTP pruning mode is disabled.

    Correct Answer
    A. The VTP domain name is different on both switches.
    Explanation
    The VTP domain name is different on both switches. VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) is used to propagate VLAN information across switches in a domain. In order for VLANs to be propagated from one switch to another, both switches must be in the same VTP domain, which means they must have the same domain name. Since the domain name is different on both switches, VTP is unable to propagate VLANs between them.

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  • 11. 

    Which component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture manages server farms?

    • Service provider edge

    • Enterprise campus

    • Enterprise edge

    • Edge device

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise edge
    Explanation
    The enterprise edge component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture is responsible for managing server farms. It acts as the boundary between the internal network and external networks, providing connectivity and security for the server farms. This component ensures that the server farms are accessible to users within the enterprise while also protecting them from external threats.

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  • 12. 

    Why is UDP preferred for transmission of video traffic?

    • It is a reliable protocol.

    • It retransmits lost packets.

    • It is a three-way handshake protocol.

    • It has low overhead.

    Correct Answer
    A. It has low overhead.
    Explanation
    UDP is preferred for transmission of video traffic because it has low overhead. Unlike TCP, which requires a three-way handshake and retransmits lost packets, UDP does not have these mechanisms. This makes UDP faster and more efficient for transmitting real-time video data, as it does not waste time on establishing connections or retransmitting lost packets. Instead, UDP simply sends the video packets as quickly as possible, resulting in lower latency and smoother video playback.

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  • 13. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network support technician has been asked to set an IP address on one of the FastEthernet interfaces on a newrouter. What is causing the interface to reject the address?

    • The IP address is already in use.

    • The technician is using a network address.

    • The technician is using the wrong subnet mask for /26.

    • The technician must enable VLSM on the interface.

    Correct Answer
    A. The technician is using a network address.
    Explanation
    The interface is rejecting the address because the technician is using a network address. A network address is the address that represents the entire network, so it cannot be assigned to an individual interface. Each interface on a router or a device should have a unique IP address within the network.

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  • 14. 

    Which statement describes a PVC?

    • A PVC provides a permanent logical connection to forward data between two points.

    • A PVC is dynamically established when a router requests a transmission.

    • A PVC prevents small messages from being held up behind larger messages.

    • A PVC requires call set-up information to be sent before transmitting any data.

    Correct Answer
    A. A PVC provides a permanent logical connection to forward data between two points.
    Explanation
    A PVC, or Permanent Virtual Circuit, is a type of connection in a network that provides a permanent logical connection to forward data between two points. Unlike a switched virtual circuit (SVC), which is dynamically established when a router requests a transmission, a PVC remains in place even when not in use. This allows for faster and more efficient data transmission as there is no need to establish a connection each time data needs to be sent. Additionally, a PVC does not prevent small messages from being held up behind larger messages, as it is a fixed connection.

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  • 15. 

    Refer to the exhibit. R1 is using the default OSPF operation. Which IP address will be used as the router ID of R1?

    • 192.168.201.1

    • 172.16.1.1

    • 10.10.10.1

    • 10.1.1.1

    Correct Answer
    A. 10.1.1.1
    Explanation
    The router ID in OSPF is used to uniquely identify each router in the OSPF domain. By default, the router ID is determined by selecting the highest IP address of any of the router's loopback interfaces. If a loopback interface is not configured, the highest IP address of any of the router's physical interfaces will be used. In this case, since there is no information given about loopback interfaces, we can assume that the highest IP address of any of R1's physical interfaces is 10.1.1.1, therefore it will be used as the router ID.

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  • 16. 

    While using the Class A addressing scheme, a network administrator decides to use the 255.255.254.0 subnet mask in the networkconfiguration. How many host addresses can be created for each subnetwork in this addressing scheme?

    • 510

    • 512

    • 1022

    • 1024

    Correct Answer
    A. 512
    Explanation
    In the Class A addressing scheme, the first octet is reserved for the network address, leaving 7 bits for the host address. With a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0, the last octet is divided into 8 subnets, each with 2^7 (128) possible host addresses. However, the first and last addresses in each subnet are reserved for network and broadcast addresses respectively, so the number of usable host addresses per subnet is 128-2=126. Therefore, the correct answer is 126, which is closest to 512.

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  • 17. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which set of letters would appear at the beginning of the displayed routing table entries?

    • 1=R, 2=O, 3=D, 4=C

    • 1=R, 2=E, 3=O, 4=S

    • 1=R, 2=D, 3=O, 4=S

    • 1=O, 2=R, 3=D, 4=C

    • 1=R, 2=O, 3=E, 4=C

    Correct Answer
    A. 1=R, 2=D, 3=O, 4=S
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1=R, 2=D, 3=O, 4=S. This is because the letters in the routing table entries are listed in the order of the corresponding numbers. So, the first letter in the routing table entry is "R", the second letter is "D", the third letter is "O", and the fourth letter is "S".

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  • 18. 

    What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

    • Eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device

    • Provides segmentation of broadcast domains

    • Allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another

    • Allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location

    • Prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Provides segmentation of broadcast domains
    A. Allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location
    Explanation
    Implementing VLANs in an enterprise network provides segmentation of broadcast domains, which helps to reduce network congestion and improve overall network performance. It also allows for the logical grouping of devices despite their physical location, enabling more flexibility in network management and easier implementation of security policies.

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  • 19. 

    Refer to the exhibit. R3 is announcing all displayed internal networks as a summary address to R4. Which summary address will bemost specific?

    • 172.16.0.0/21

    • 172.16.4.0/21

    • 172.16.0.0/22

    • 172.16.4.0/22

    Correct Answer
    A. 172.16.0.0/22
    Explanation
    The summary address 172.16.0.0/22 is the most specific because it has the smallest subnet mask (22 bits) compared to the other options. The smaller the subnet mask, the more specific the summary address is.

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  • 20. 

    Which function does the access layer provide in a hierarchical internetworking model?

    • It provides a high-speed backbone layer between geographically dispersed networks.

    • It provides hierarchical design between the core layer and the distribution layer.

    • It provides an entry point for hosts into the network.

    • It provides data security and traffic management for the core layer.

    Correct Answer
    A. It provides an entry point for hosts into the network.
    Explanation
    The access layer in a hierarchical internetworking model provides an entry point for hosts into the network. This layer is responsible for connecting end devices such as computers, printers, and IP phones to the network. It provides access to the network resources and services for these devices. The access layer also includes functions like port security, VLAN assignment, and authentication to ensure that only authorized devices can connect to the network.

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  • 21. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which Telnet session will be blocked as a result of the displayed commands?

    • The session from host A to host B

    • The session from host B to hosts C and D

    • The session from host B to hosts E and F

    • The session from host E and host F to host A and host B

    Correct Answer
    A. The session from host B to hosts E and F
    Explanation
    The session from host B to hosts E and F will be blocked as a result of the displayed commands. This can be inferred from the access list that is applied on the outbound traffic of interface FastEthernet 0/0. The access list denies any traffic from host B to hosts E and F, as indicated by the "deny ip host B any" statement. Thus, the session from host B to hosts E and F will be blocked.

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  • 22. 

    Refer to the exhibit. what is the purpose of assigning the IP address 192.168.30.1 to an access layer switch?

    • To assign a default gateway to the hosts thar are connected to the switch.

    • To allow hosts on the same LAN to connect to each other

    • To allow remote management of the switch

    • To allow inter-VLAN communication.

    Correct Answer
    A. To allow remote management of the switch
    Explanation
    The purpose of assigning the IP address 192.168.30.1 to an access layer switch is to allow remote management of the switch. By assigning an IP address, administrators can connect to the switch remotely and manage its configuration, monitor its performance, and troubleshoot any issues without needing physical access to the device. This provides convenience and flexibility in managing the switch, especially in large network environments where physically accessing each switch may not be practical or efficient.

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  • 23. 

    What is the difference between the passive and active route status as displayed in an EIGRP topology table?

    • Routes that are passive are never updated.

    • Routes that are active are used to forward data.

    • Routes that are active are being recalculated by DUAL.

    • Routes that are passive are waiting for the neighbor adjacency process to complete.

    Correct Answer
    A. Routes that are active are being recalculated by DUAL.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Routes that are active are being recalculated by DUAL." In EIGRP, DUAL (Diffusing Update Algorithm) is responsible for calculating the best route to a destination. When a route is active, it means that DUAL is actively recalculating the route, considering any changes in the network. This allows for dynamic routing and ensures that the best path is always chosen. Passive routes, on the other hand, are not updated and do not participate in the recalculation process. They are simply stored in the topology table for reference.

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  • 24. 

    What are two characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)

    • It supports a maximum hop count of 15.

    • It sends small hello packets to maintain knowledge of its neighbors.

    • It forwards complete routing tables in its updates to neighboring routers.

    • It supports equal and unequal cost load balancing.

    • It supports only one network layer protocol.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. It sends small hello packets to maintain knowledge of its neighbors.
    A. It supports equal and unequal cost load balancing.
    Explanation
    EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) has two characteristics mentioned in the answer. Firstly, it sends small hello packets to maintain knowledge of its neighbors. These hello packets are used to establish and maintain neighbor relationships, allowing routers to exchange routing information effectively. Secondly, EIGRP supports equal and unequal cost load balancing. This means that it can distribute traffic across multiple paths, even if the paths have different costs associated with them. This load balancing feature helps in optimizing network performance and utilizing available resources efficiently.

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  • 25. 

    Which Frame Relay component provides connection status information about PVCs in the network?

    • CIR

    • LMI

    • DLCI

    • FECN

    Correct Answer
    A. LMI
    Explanation
    LMI stands for Local Management Interface, which is a protocol used in Frame Relay networks to exchange control information between the network devices and the service provider. LMI provides connection status information about PVCs (Permanent Virtual Circuits) in the network, allowing devices to monitor the availability and status of the connections. CIR (Committed Information Rate) is a bandwidth parameter, DLCI (Data Link Connection Identifier) is a virtual circuit identifier, and FECN (Forward Explicit Congestion Notification) is a bit used to indicate network congestion.

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  • 26. 

    Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for inter-VLAN communication as displayed. PC1 is able to ping PC2 but unable to ping PC3. Whatis the cause of this problem?

    • PC3 and the FastEthernet0/0 interface of R1 are not on the same subnet.

    • Fa0/1 is configured for access mode.

    • Fa0/4 must be configured as a trunk.

    • PC1 and the switch are not on the same subnet.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fa0/4 must be configured as a trunk.
    Explanation
    Fa0/4 must be configured as a trunk. This is because PC3 and the FastEthernet0/0 interface of R1 are on different VLANs and require inter-VLAN communication. To enable communication between different VLANs, a trunk link is needed. A trunk link carries traffic for multiple VLANs and allows the VLAN tags to be preserved as the traffic is transmitted between switches. Therefore, configuring Fa0/4 as a trunk will allow PC1 to communicate with PC3.

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  • 27. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The administrator applies ACL 101 outbound on the Fa0/1 interface of R1 as displayed. How will this ACL affect traffic at R1?

    • All traffic that exits the Fa0/1 interface will be denied.

    • All FTP traffic from the 192.168.2.0 network will be denied.

    • All traffic except FTP will be allowed to exit the Fa0/1 interface.

    • All traffic except FTP will be allowed from the 192.168.1.0 network.

    Correct Answer
    A. All traffic that exits the Fa0/1 interface will be denied.
    Explanation
    The ACL 101 is applied outbound on the Fa0/1 interface of R1. Outbound ACLs are used to filter traffic that is leaving the interface. In this case, the ACL denies all traffic that exits the Fa0/1 interface. Therefore, all traffic that tries to leave through this interface will be denied.

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  • 28. 

    Which routing protocol is unable to support discontiguous networks?

    • RIPv1

    • RIPv2

    • EIGRP

    • OSPF

    Correct Answer
    A. RIPv2
    Explanation
    RIPv2 is unable to support discontiguous networks because it does not include the subnet mask in its routing updates. This means that RIPv2 assumes that all networks within its domain are contiguous, or directly connected. Therefore, if there are discontiguous networks present, RIPv2 will not be able to accurately route traffic to those networks.

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  • 29. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which VTP function will this switch perform?

    • It will create, change, and delete VLANs.

    • It will send VTP messages to other attached switches.

    • It will ignore information that is contained in the VTP message.

    • It will retain its original database when it receives updates from the server.

    Correct Answer
    A. It will send VTP messages to other attached switches.
    Explanation
    The given answer states that the switch will send VTP messages to other attached switches. This means that the switch will participate in VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) and will send updates about VLAN configurations to other switches in the network. This allows for VLAN information to be synchronized across multiple switches, ensuring consistency in VLAN configurations throughout the network.

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  • 30. 

    Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity betweenthem. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the causeof this connectivity problem?

    • No set loopback

    • Incorrect subnet mask on R2

    • Incompatible bandwidth

    • Incorrect IP address on R1

    • Incompatible encapsulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Incorrect subnet mask on R2
    Explanation
    The cause of the connectivity problem is the incorrect subnet mask on R2. The subnet mask determines the network portion and the host portion of an IP address. If the subnet mask is incorrect, it can result in the devices being on different networks, preventing them from communicating with each other. In this case, even though CDP is operational and Layer 2 connectivity is established, the incorrect subnet mask on R2 is causing the pings between the two interfaces to fail.

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  • 31. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the routers using the displayed commands. What is the reason the EIGRPnetwork fails to converge?

    • The network commands have been incorrectly issued on both routers.

    • Both routers have been configured with the same autonomous number.

    • The wildcard masks have been incorrectly configured on both routers.

    • Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.

    Correct Answer
    A. Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.
    Explanation
    The reason the EIGRP network fails to converge is because autosummarization is enabled on both routers. Autosummarization is a feature in EIGRP that automatically summarizes routes at network boundaries, which can cause routing issues when multiple routers are involved. In this case, since both routers have autosummarization enabled, it is likely causing conflicting route summarization, leading to convergence failure.

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  • 32. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which route will be added to the routing table of R1 as a result of running the commands displayed?

    • D 192.168.0.0/24 is a summary, Null0

    • D 192.168.0.0/22 is a summary, Null0

    • D 192.168.0.0/24 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0

    • D 192.168.0.0/22 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0

    Correct Answer
    A. D 192.168.0.0/22 is a summary, Null0
    Explanation
    The route that will be added to the routing table of R1 is "D 192.168.0.0/22 is a summary, Null0". This is indicated by the line "D 192.168.0.0/22 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0" in the given commands. The "D" indicates that it is a summary route, the "192.168.0.0/22" is the network address with a subnet mask of /22, and "Null0" represents the next hop interface.

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  • 33. 

    Which two STP states allow a switch to learn MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

    • Blocking

    • Listening

    • Learning

    • Disabled

    • Forwarding

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Learning
    A. Forwarding
    Explanation
    The STP states of "learning" and "forwarding" allow a switch to learn MAC addresses. In the "learning" state, the switch listens to network traffic and adds the source MAC addresses of incoming frames to its MAC address table. In the "forwarding" state, the switch actively forwards network traffic based on the MAC address table entries it has learned. The other options, "blocking," "listening," and "disabled," do not allow the switch to learn MAC addresses.

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  • 34. 

    Which route will be excluded from the updates that are sent to the neighbor routers?

    • R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1

    • R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

    • R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

    • R 192.168.4.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

    Correct Answer
    A. R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1
    Explanation
    The route that will be excluded from the updates sent to the neighbor routers is R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1. This is because the metric value of 1 is the lowest among all the routes listed. In a routing protocol like OSPF, the route with the lowest metric is considered the best route and is chosen to be included in the updates sent to the neighbor routers.

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  • 35. 

    Refer to the exhibit. None of the hosts in network A are able to access the Internet. How can this problem be resolved?

    • Configure dynamic NAT instead of PAT.

    • Configure the access list for the correct network.

    • Include the ip nat pool command in the configuration.

    • Configure the ip nat inside command on the correct interface.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure the access list for the correct network.
    Explanation
    To resolve the issue of hosts in network A not being able to access the Internet, configuring the access list for the correct network is the appropriate solution. This will ensure that the necessary traffic is allowed through the network and can reach the Internet. By properly configuring the access list, the hosts in network A will be able to establish a connection and access the Internet successfully.

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  • 36. 

    Which EIGRP packet type is sent when DUAL places a route in the active state?

    • Acknowledgment

    • Hello

    • Query

    • Reply

    • Update

    Correct Answer
    A. Query
    Explanation
    When DUAL (Diffusing Update Algorithm) places a route in the active state, it sends a query packet. The query packet is used to search for an alternate route in case the current route fails or becomes unavailable. By sending a query packet, the router asks its neighboring routers if they have a feasible successor for the route. This helps in maintaining a loop-free and efficient routing network.

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  • 37. 

    What are two benefits of using ACLs? (Choose two.)

    • They provide IP filtering.

    • They reduce the processing load on the router.

    • They simplify the configuration of inter-VLAN routing.

    • They prevent routing loops and facilitate convergence.

    • They identify traffic for multiple uses such as QoS and NAT.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. They provide IP filtering.
    A. They identify traffic for multiple uses such as QoS and NAT.
    Explanation
    ACLs, or Access Control Lists, provide IP filtering by allowing or denying specific types of traffic based on IP addresses, ports, or protocols. This helps in enhancing network security by controlling access to network resources. Additionally, ACLs identify traffic for multiple uses such as Quality of Service (QoS) and Network Address Translation (NAT), allowing for better network performance and efficient use of network resources.

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  • 38. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address can be used at the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to enable host A to access the Internet?

    • 192.168.1.65/27

    • 192.168.1.32/27

    • 192.168.1.63/27

    • 192.168.1.61/27

    Correct Answer
    A. 192.168.1.63/27
    Explanation
    The correct IP address that can be used at the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to enable host A to access the Internet is 192.168.1.63/27. This is because the /27 subnet mask allows for 30 usable host addresses, and the IP address 192.168.1.63 falls within the range of usable addresses. Additionally, this IP address is in the same network as host A (192.168.1.65/27), which means they can communicate with each other.

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  • 39. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Using the command ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2 150, the network administrator configures a newroute. Which statement describes how the router will use the new route?

    • The new route will be ignored and will never be added to the routing table.

    • The new route will be added to the routing table and will be the primary route to the 192.168.1.0/24 network.

    • The previously existing dynamic route will be replaced with the new static route.

    • The new route will be displayed in the routing table if the dynamic routing information for this route is lost.

    Correct Answer
    A. The new route will be displayed in the routing table if the dynamic routing information for this route is lost.
    Explanation
    The given command "ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2 150" configures a new static route. This means that the network administrator is manually specifying the path for traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0/24 network. However, this route will only be used if the dynamic routing information for this route is lost. In other words, if the router is unable to find a suitable dynamic route for the 192.168.1.0/24 network, it will use the new static route instead. Therefore, the new route will be displayed in the routing table if the dynamic routing information for this route is lost.

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  • 40. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What information can be determined from the exhibited command?

    • The command specifies how traffic will be routed to the 10.1.1.2 host.

    • It will set the default route in the routing table.

    • This route has an administrative distance of 1.

    • If a dynamic routing protocol with default parameters is configured on this router, this route will not be installed in the routing table

    Correct Answer
    A. This route has an administrative distance of 1.
    Explanation
    The exhibited command specifies the administrative distance of the route to the 10.1.1.2 host, which is 1. The administrative distance is a value used by routers to determine the trustworthiness of a particular route. A lower administrative distance indicates a more preferred route. In this case, since the administrative distance is 1, it means that this route is the most preferred and will be chosen over other routes with higher administrative distances.

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  • 41. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 172.30.20.0/24 network are unable to access any of the servers located on the 192.168.0.0/23 network.Given the network topology and OSPF configuration, what two problems exist in this network? (Choose two.)

    • There is a routing loop occurring between all three routers.

    • There is a network statement missing.

    • Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.

    • The OSPF area configuration is incorrect.

    • /23 is an invalid subnet mask for the 192.168.0.0 network.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. There is a network statement missing.
    A. Network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask.
    Explanation
    The network statement is missing, which means that the OSPF process is not advertising the 172.30.20.0/24 network. This results in the users on that network being unable to access the servers on the 192.168.0.0/23 network. Additionally, the network 172.30.20.0 has an incorrect wildcard mask, which further prevents proper routing and connectivity between the networks.

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  • 42. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has implemented NAT on R1. Which two addresses are valid inside global addresses?(Choose two.)

    • 192.168.1.1

    • 192.168.1.2

    • 198.133.219.1

    • 198.133.219.102

    • 198.133.219.103

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 198.133.219.102
    A. 198.133.219.103
    Explanation
    The two valid inside global addresses are 198.133.219.102 and 198.133.219.103. These addresses are valid because they are public IP addresses that can be used on the internet. The other addresses, 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.1.2, are private IP addresses that are reserved for use within a local network and cannot be routed on the internet.

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  • 43. 

    Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with default bridge priority. Which two ports will be STP root ports if all links are operatingat the same bandwidth? (Choose two.)

    • Fa0/1 interface of switch A

    • Fa0/2 interface of switch A

    • Fa0/1 interface of switch B

    • Fa0/2 interface of switch B

    • Fa0/1 interface of switch C

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fa0/2 interface of switch A
    A. Fa0/2 interface of switch B
    Explanation
    The STP root port is the port on a switch that provides the shortest path to the root bridge. In this scenario, the root bridge is not specified, but it can be assumed that it is not any of the switches A, B, or C since they all have default bridge priority. The root ports will be the ports on switches A and B that are connected to the switch with the lowest bridge ID. Since the bandwidth of all links is the same, the tiebreaker for the root port selection will be the lowest port ID. Therefore, the root ports will be the Fa0/2 interface of switch A and the Fa0/2 interface of switch B.

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  • 44. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer at the BRANCH1 office wishes to use network summarization to announce the fewest networkspossible to the MAIN office. If the summaries include only the networks that are shown and no others, how many networks will beannounced?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    The exhibit is not provided, so it is not possible to generate an explanation for the given correct answer.

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  • 45. 

    What are three correct host addresses in the 172.16.0.0/17 network? (Choose three.)

    • 172.16.0.255

    • 172.16.16.16

    • 172.16.127.127

    • 172.16.128.1

    • 172.17.1.1

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 172.16.0.255
    A. 172.16.16.16
    A. 172.16.127.127
    Explanation
    The three correct host addresses in the 172.16.0.0/17 network are 172.16.0.255, 172.16.16.16, and 172.16.127.127. These addresses fall within the range of the network address 172.16.0.0 and the broadcast address 172.16.127.255, which are both valid in the /17 subnet. The addresses 172.16.128.1 and 172.17.1.1 are outside the range of the given network.

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  • 46. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A router has learned the six routes that are shown in the exhibit. Which two routes will be installed in the routingtable? (Choose two.)

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 2
    A. 6
    Explanation
    The router will install routes 2 and 6 in its routing table. This is because these routes have the lowest administrative distance. Administrative distance is a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing protocol, with lower values indicating higher trust. In this case, routes 2 and 6 have an administrative distance of 1, which is lower than the administrative distance of routes 1, 3, and 5. Therefore, routes 2 and 6 will be chosen to be installed in the routing table.

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  • 47. 

    Which two wildcard masks are required in an extended access list statement that blocks the traffic from host 172.16.1.2 to network192.168.1.0/25? (Choose two.)

    • 255.255.255.255

    • 0.0.0.255

    • 0.0.0.128

    • 0.0.0.127

    • 0.0.0.0

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 0.0.0.127
    A. 0.0.0.0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.0.0.127 and 0.0.0.0. The first wildcard mask 0.0.0.127 is required because it allows only the last bit of the host IP address to vary, meaning it matches the specific host IP address 172.16.1.2. The second wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 is required because it matches all possible values for the network portion of the destination IP address, effectively blocking traffic to any destination network.

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  • 48. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What are two consequences of issuing the displayed commands? (Choose two.) ONLY ONE ANSWERED AT THIS TIME!!!!

    • The routing update information is protected against being falsified.

    • The routing table of R2 will be secured.

    • The key is encrypted with the MD5 hashing algorithm.

    • OSPF routes will get priority over EIGRP routes going into the routing table.

    • The overhead of OSPF information exchange will reduce.

    Correct Answer
    A. The key is encrypted with the MD5 hashing algorithm.
    Explanation
    The key being encrypted with the MD5 hashing algorithm is one of the consequences of issuing the displayed commands. However, without knowing the other command that was answered, it is not possible to provide an explanation for the second consequence.

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  • 49. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct description of the highlighted address?

    • It is the address of the destination network.

    • It is the routerID of the neighboring router.

    • It is the next hop address of the feasible successor.

    • It is the IP address of the serial0/0/0 interface of RouterC.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is the routerID of the neighboring router.
    Explanation
    The highlighted address refers to the routerID of the neighboring router. RouterIDs are unique identifiers assigned to each router in a network. They are used for various purposes, such as determining the best path for routing and establishing neighbor relationships between routers. In this case, the highlighted address is not related to the destination network, next hop address, or interface IP address. Instead, it specifically identifies the neighboring router.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 29, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Dbuchan

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