CISCO 3 Practice Final

59 Questions | Total Attempts: 144

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CISCO Quizzes & Trivia

Cisco 3 practice final


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which two statements correctly describe RSTP?(choose two)
    • A. 

      It is a Cisco proprietary protocol.

    • B. 

      It recalculates the spanning tree in less than 1 second.

    • C. 

      It requires the PortFast and UplinkFast features on switch ports.

    • D. 

      It supports four states; blocking, listening, learning, and fowarding

    • E. 

      It requires a full-duplex, point-to-point connection between switches and achieve the highes recalculation speed

  • 2. 
    Which two statements correctly describe RIPv1 and RIPv2?(choose two)
    • A. 

      Both broadcast their entire routing table from all participating interfaces to 255.255.255.255.

    • B. 

      Both advertise their routing updates out all active interfaces every 30 seconds.

    • C. 

      Both have the same administrative distance value of 120

    • D. 

      Both can turn off automatic summarization.

    • E. 

      Both support VLSM and CIDR.

  • 3. 
    Refer to the exhibit. what is the purpose of assigning the IP address 192.168.30.1 to an access layer switch?
    • A. 

      To assign a default gateway to the hosts thar are connected to the switch.

    • B. 

      To allow hosts on the same LAN to connect to each other

    • C. 

      To allow remote management of the switch

    • D. 

      To allow inter-VLAN communication.

  • 4. 
    A sales representative is preparing to send sensitive information to corporate headquarters from a hotel room using the internet. Prior to the trip, the IT staff made the necessary provisions to allow secure Internet access. What solution was implemented for the sales representative?
    • A. 

      VPN

    • B. 

      Frame Relay

    • C. 

      PPP with CHAP authentication

    • D. 

      PPP with PAP authentication

  • 5. 
    Refer to the exhibit. If router RTA fails, Which statement is true?
    • A. 

      Hosts A and B can reach each other, but cannot reach hosts C and D or the server.

    • B. 

      No host can reach any other host.

    • C. 

      Hosts A, B, C, and D can reach each other, but cannot reach the server.

    • D. 

      All hosts can reach each other.

  • 6. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured R1, R2, and R3 to use RIPv2, and the network is fully converged. The hosts on the internal network are able to access R2, but they are unable to access the Internet.How can the administrator solve this problem?
    • A. 

      Configure a default route on R3 and propagate it via the

    • B. 

      Configure a default route on R2 and propagate it via RIPv2 to routers R1 and R3.

    • C. 

      Configure a default route on the ISP, and it will be automatically propagated to all routers.

    • D. 

      Configure a default route on R1, and it will be automatically propagated to all routers.

  • 7. 
    What are two benefits of implementing VLANs in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Eliminates the need for a Layer 3 device

    • B. 

      Provides segmentation of broadcast domains

    • C. 

      Allows for the propagation of broadcasts from one local network to another

    • D. 

      Allows for the logical grouping of devices despite physical location

    • E. 

      Prevents issues such as broadcast storms by ensuring a loop free environment

  • 8. 
    Refer to the exhibit. R1 is using the default OSPF operation. Which IP address will be used as the router ID of R1?
    • A. 

      192.168.201.1

    • B. 

      172.16.1.1

    • C. 

      10.10.10.1

    • D. 

      10.1.1.1

  • 9. 
    In which VTP mode can a switch create VLANs, ignore VTP messages, and not pass local VLAN information to other VTP domainmembers?
    • A. 

      Client

    • B. 

      Server

    • C. 

      Pruning

    • D. 

      Transparent

  • 10. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which VTP function will this switch perform?
    • A. 

      It will create, change, and delete VLANs.

    • B. 

      It will send VTP messages to other attached switches.

    • C. 

      It will ignore information that is contained in the VTP message.

    • D. 

      It will retain its original database when it receives updates from the server.

  • 11. 
    Which component of the Cisco Enterprise Architecture manages server farms?
    • A. 

      Service provider edge

    • B. 

      Enterprise campus

    • C. 

      Enterprise edge

    • D. 

      Edge device

  • 12. 
    Why is UDP preferred for transmission of video traffic?
    • A. 

      It is a reliable protocol.

    • B. 

      It retransmits lost packets.

    • C. 

      It is a three-way handshake protocol.

    • D. 

      It has low overhead.

  • 13. 
    Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with default bridge priority. Which two ports will be STP root ports if all links are operatingat the same bandwidth? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Fa0/1 interface of switch A

    • B. 

      Fa0/2 interface of switch A

    • C. 

      Fa0/1 interface of switch B

    • D. 

      Fa0/2 interface of switch B

    • E. 

      Fa0/1 interface of switch C

  • 14. 
    Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected via serial interfaces. Both interfaces show that there is Layer 2 connectivity betweenthem. The administrator verifies that CDP is operational; however, pings between the two interfaces are unsuccessful. What is the causeof this connectivity problem?
    • A. 

      No set loopback

    • B. 

      Incorrect subnet mask on R2

    • C. 

      Incompatible bandwidth

    • D. 

      Incorrect IP address on R1

    • E. 

      Incompatible encapsulation

  • 15. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which route will be added to the routing table of R1 as a result of running the commands displayed?
    • A. 

      D 192.168.0.0/24 is a summary, Null0

    • B. 

      D 192.168.0.0/22 is a summary, Null0

    • C. 

      D 192.168.0.0/24 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0

    • D. 

      D 192.168.0.0/22 [90/203010] via 10.1.1.2, 00:00:10, Serial0/0/0

  • 16. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which set of letters would appear at the beginning of the displayed routing table entries?
    • A. 

      1=R, 2=O, 3=D, 4=C

    • B. 

      1=R, 2=E, 3=O, 4=S

    • C. 

      1=R, 2=D, 3=O, 4=S

    • D. 

      1=O, 2=R, 3=D, 4=C

    • E. 

      1=R, 2=O, 3=E, 4=C

  • 17. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The administrator applies ACL 101 outbound on the Fa0/1 interface of R1 as displayed. How will this ACL affect traffic at R1?
    • A. 

      All traffic that exits the Fa0/1 interface will be denied.

    • B. 

      All FTP traffic from the 192.168.2.0 network will be denied.

    • C. 

      All traffic except FTP will be allowed to exit the Fa0/1 interface.

    • D. 

      All traffic except FTP will be allowed from the 192.168.1.0 network.

  • 18. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configured the routers using the displayed commands. What is the reason the EIGRPnetwork fails to converge?
    • A. 

      The network commands have been incorrectly issued on both routers.

    • B. 

      Both routers have been configured with the same autonomous number.

    • C. 

      The wildcard masks have been incorrectly configured on both routers.

    • D. 

      Autosummarization is enabled on both routers.

  • 19. 
    Which two STP states allow a switch to learn MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Blocking

    • B. 

      Listening

    • C. 

      Learning

    • D. 

      Disabled

    • E. 

      Forwarding

  • 20. 
    While using the Class A addressing scheme, a network administrator decides to use the 255.255.254.0 subnet mask in the networkconfiguration. How many host addresses can be created for each subnetwork in this addressing scheme?
    • A. 

      510

    • B. 

      512

    • C. 

      1022

    • D. 

      1024

  • 21. 
    Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has implemented NAT on R1. Which two addresses are valid inside global addresses?(Choose two.)
    • A. 

      192.168.1.1

    • B. 

      192.168.1.2

    • C. 

      198.133.219.1

    • D. 

      198.133.219.102

    • E. 

      198.133.219.103

  • 22. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Using the command ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2 150, the network administrator configures a newroute. Which statement describes how the router will use the new route?
    • A. 

      The new route will be ignored and will never be added to the routing table.

    • B. 

      The new route will be added to the routing table and will be the primary route to the 192.168.1.0/24 network.

    • C. 

      The previously existing dynamic route will be replaced with the new static route.

    • D. 

      The new route will be displayed in the routing table if the dynamic routing information for this route is lost.

  • 23. 
    Which route will be excluded from the updates that are sent to the neighbor routers?
    • A. 

      R 192.168.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.100.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/1

    • B. 

      R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/15] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

    • C. 

      R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

    • D. 

      R 192.168.4.0/24 [120/7] via 192.168.101.1, 00:00:12, FastEthernet0/0

  • 24. 
    Refer to the exhibit. How many routers have established OSPF adjacencies with R1?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7

  • 25. 
    Which Frame Relay component provides connection status information about PVCs in the network?
    • A. 

      CIR

    • B. 

      LMI

    • C. 

      DLCI

    • D. 

      FECN

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