Chapter 6 To 10 Exam

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Medical Science Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Ambulatory health professionals rarely, if ever, have to collect evidence in the cases of abuse or neglect so there is no need to be knowledgeable about the evidence process.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false because ambulatory health professionals may encounter cases of abuse or neglect in their practice. It is important for them to be knowledgeable about the evidence collection process in such cases to ensure the safety and well-being of their patients. Collecting evidence is crucial for reporting and documenting instances of abuse or neglect, and it can help in legal proceedings and providing support to the victims. Therefore, ambulatory health professionals should be aware of the evidence process and be prepared to handle such situations appropriately.

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  • 2. 

    HIPAA regulations do not apply when treating substance abuse clients because of their potential danger to themselves and others.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    HIPAA regulations do apply when treating substance abuse clients. HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) protects the privacy and security of individuals' health information, including those seeking treatment for substance abuse. The potential danger to themselves and others does not exempt substance abuse clients from HIPAA regulations. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 3. 

    A spouse does not have the legal right to consent to and receive medical care without a spouse's approval.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Spouses do have the legal right to consent to and receive medical care without their partner's approval. In most cases, individuals have the autonomy to make their own medical decisions, regardless of their marital status. However, there may be certain circumstances where spousal consent is required, such as for certain invasive procedures or in cases where the patient is unable to make decisions for themselves. Nonetheless, the statement that a spouse does not have the legal right to consent to and receive medical care without a spouse's approval is false.

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  • 4. 

    A “blanket consent” form is one that is used when surgeons are not sure of all of the procedures they might perform.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A "blanket consent" form is not used when surgeons are unsure of all the procedures they might perform. Instead, it is a form that grants general consent for a range of procedures or treatments that have been discussed with the patient in advance. This form allows the surgeon to perform any of the agreed-upon procedures without requiring the patient to sign a separate consent form for each one. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 5. 

    With increased health awareness and HIPAA, clients are not so concerned about what goes into their medical record.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement contradicts the general trend of increased health awareness and the implementation of HIPAA regulations, which emphasize the importance of privacy and control over personal health information. Clients are more concerned than ever about what goes into their medical records, as they want to ensure the accuracy and confidentiality of their health information. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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  • 6. 

    The primary goal of the medical record is the proper care and identification of the client.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The primary goal of the medical record is to ensure proper care and identification of the client. Medical records contain important information about a patient's medical history, diagnoses, treatments, and medications, which helps healthcare providers deliver appropriate care. Additionally, medical records play a crucial role in accurately identifying patients, reducing medical errors, and ensuring patient safety. Therefore, it is true that the primary goal of the medical record is the proper care and identification of the client.

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  • 7. 

    DRG is a classification system grouping clients together who are similar in diagnosis, treatment, and their consumption of hospital resources.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The given statement is true. DRG (Diagnosis Related Group) is indeed a classification system that groups together clients who have similar diagnoses, treatments, and utilization of hospital resources. This system is used for payment purposes and helps in determining the appropriate reimbursement for healthcare services provided to clients. By categorizing clients into groups based on their medical conditions and resource usage, DRG enables hospitals and healthcare providers to effectively manage and allocate resources.

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  • 8. 

    ICD-10-CM is a classification of diagnostic categories, specific DRG numbers, and monetary values.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    ICD-10-CM is indeed a classification system that includes diagnostic categories, specific DRG numbers (Diagnosis-Related Group numbers used for billing purposes in healthcare), and monetary values. This system is used for coding and classifying medical diagnoses and procedures. Therefore, the statement "ICD-10-CM is a classification of diagnostic categories, specific DRG numbers, and monetary values" is correct.

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  • 9. 

    Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is part of OSHA.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard is indeed part of OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration). This standard was established to protect workers from the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens, such as HIV and hepatitis B. It sets guidelines for employers to follow in order to minimize the risk of transmission and ensure the safety of employees who may come into contact with potentially infectious materials. By implementing this standard, OSHA aims to prevent workplace accidents and protect the health and well-being of workers.

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  • 10. 

    The ADA was passed to eliminate discrimination in employment against a qualified individual with a disability.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was indeed passed to address and eliminate discrimination in employment against individuals with disabilities. This legislation ensures that qualified individuals with disabilities have equal opportunities in the workplace and prohibits employers from discriminating against them based on their disability. The ADA requires employers to provide reasonable accommodations to enable individuals with disabilities to perform their job duties effectively. Therefore, the statement "The ADA was passed to eliminate discrimination in employment against a qualified individual with a disability" is true.

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  • 11. 

    Birth and death certificates:

    • A.

      Must be completed in blue not black ink.

    • B.

      Must be filed within 12 hours of the event.

    • C.

      Are legal documents that require prompt and proper completion.

    • D.

      Require physicians to complete or will be found guilty of a civil wrong.

    Correct Answer
    C. Are legal documents that require prompt and proper completion.
    Explanation
    Birth and death certificates are legal documents that hold significant importance. They serve as official records of vital events and are required to be completed accurately and promptly. The completion of these certificates must adhere to specific guidelines and procedures to ensure their validity and reliability. Failing to complete them properly may lead to legal consequences. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize that birth and death certificates are legal documents that necessitate prompt and proper completion.

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  • 12. 

    The main purpose for filing reports of certain communicable diseases to government agencies is to:

    • A.

      Facilitate statistical analyses of the cause and incidence of diseases.

    • B.

      Protect the health and welfare of the public.

    • C.

      Determine the need for prevention programs relating to specific diseases.

    • D.

      Determine priorities for research funding.

    Correct Answer
    B. Protect the health and welfare of the public.
    Explanation
    Filing reports of certain communicable diseases to government agencies is important to protect the health and welfare of the public. By reporting these diseases, government agencies can track the spread and incidence of diseases, which helps in identifying potential outbreaks and taking necessary preventive measures. This information also aids in understanding the causes of diseases and developing effective prevention programs. Additionally, reporting helps in allocating research funding to prioritize the study and development of interventions for specific diseases, ultimately safeguarding the health and welfare of the public.

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  • 13. 

    The doctrine of informed consent requires that clients:

    • A.

      Understand the nature of the illness.

    • B.

      Be told if no treatment is given.

    • C.

      Be told of any alternative procedures, treatments, and their risks.

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The doctrine of informed consent mandates that clients have a comprehensive understanding of their illness, are informed if no treatment is provided, and are made aware of any alternative procedures or treatments along with their associated risks. This ensures that clients are fully informed and can make autonomous decisions regarding their healthcare.

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  • 14. 

    Emancipated minors are likely to have the legal capacity of an adult when the following are indicated:

    • A.

      Age and maturity

    • B.

      Less than a high school education

    • C.

      Economic dependence

    • D.

      Continued parental control

    Correct Answer
    A. Age and maturity
    Explanation
    Emancipated minors are likely to have the legal capacity of an adult when they demonstrate age and maturity. This means that they are able to make responsible decisions and understand the consequences of their actions. Age and maturity are important factors in determining whether a minor can handle the rights and responsibilities of an adult. Other factors, such as having less than a high school education, economic dependence, and continued parental control, may also be considered, but age and maturity are the primary indicators of legal capacity.

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  • 15. 

    It is recommended that physicians keep clients' medical records until the:

    • A.

      Good Samaritan Law expires.

    • B.

      Statute of limitations has run out.

    • C.

      Client changes physicians.

    • D.

      Court subpoenas the record.

    Correct Answer
    B. Statute of limitations has run out.
    Explanation
    Physicians are advised to retain clients' medical records until the statute of limitations has expired. The statute of limitations refers to the time period during which a legal claim can be filed. By keeping the records until this time has passed, physicians ensure that they have the necessary documentation in case any legal issues arise. This also allows for the protection of patients' rights and ensures that medical professionals can provide accurate and comprehensive care based on the complete medical history of their clients.

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  • 16. 

    An efficient and complete medical record may be:

    • A.

      Only one or two sheets of paper.

    • B.

      Hundreds of pages with SOAP/SOAPER and POMR distinctions.

    • C.

      Electronic

    • D.

      All the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All the above
    Explanation
    An efficient and complete medical record may be all of the above options. It could be only one or two sheets of paper, which suggests that the medical information is concise and well-organized. Alternatively, it could be hundreds of pages with SOAP/SOAPER and POMR distinctions, indicating a detailed and comprehensive record. Additionally, an efficient and complete medical record can also be electronic, which allows for easy storage, access, and sharing of patient information.

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  • 17. 

    Federal health insurance plans include all but one of the following:

    • A.

      TRICARE

    • B.

      COBRA

    • C.

      Medicare and Medicaid

    • D.

      Workers' Compensation

    Correct Answer
    B. COBRA
    Explanation
    COBRA stands for Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, which allows individuals to continue their health insurance coverage after leaving their job. While TRICARE, Medicare, Medicaid, and Workers' Compensation are federal health insurance plans, COBRA is not. It is a federal law that requires employers with 20 or more employees to offer continuation coverage to employees and their dependents.

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  • 18. 

    Federal Wage Garnishing Law:

    • A.

      Addresses payment of debts utilizing employee salaries.

    • B.

      Puts no limit on the amount of money that can be garnished per pay period

    • C.

      Can be used to collect fairly large delinquent accounts.

    • D.

      A and C are correct

    Correct Answer
    D. A and C are correct
    Explanation
    The Federal Wage Garnishing Law addresses the payment of debts by deducting money from an employee's salary. It does not impose any limit on the amount of money that can be garnished per pay period. This means that it can be used to collect fairly large delinquent accounts. Therefore, both statement A and C are correct.

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  • 19. 

    The OSHA is authorized to do which of the following?

    • A.

      Help only employers in reducing workplace hazards

    • B.

      Maintain record-keeping systems to monitor job-related injuries and illnesses

    • C.

      Establish responsibilities and rights that are the same for employees and employers

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Maintain record-keeping systems to monitor job-related injuries and illnesses
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Maintain record-keeping systems to monitor job-related injuries and illnesses." This is because OSHA, which stands for the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. One of their key functions is to maintain record-keeping systems that track and monitor job-related injuries and illnesses. This helps OSHA identify trends, enforce regulations, and take necessary actions to protect workers. Additionally, OSHA also establishes responsibilities and rights for both employees and employers and helps employers in reducing workplace hazards, but these are not the main focus of their authority.

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  • 20. 

    The Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals Standard:

    • A.

      Is part of the Bloodborne Pathogens Law.

    • B.

      Requires employers to provide educational training for employees within 30 days of employment.

    • C.

      Addresses Universal Precautions.

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Requires employers to provide educational training for employees within 30 days of employment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Requires employers to provide educational training for employees within 30 days of employment." This is because the Occupational Exposure to Hazardous Chemicals Standard mandates that employers must provide educational training to their employees within 30 days of their employment. This training is essential to ensure that employees are aware of the hazards associated with the chemicals they may be exposed to in the workplace and are equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to protect themselves.

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  • 21. 

    Federal law states that an employer must provide “________________” accommodations to a qualified person with disabilities.

    Correct Answer
    reasonable
    Explanation
    Federal law states that an employer must provide "reasonable" accommodations to a qualified person with disabilities. This means that employers are legally obligated to make necessary modifications or adjustments to the work environment or job duties in order to enable individuals with disabilities to perform their job duties effectively. These accommodations should not impose excessive hardship on the employer, but should be reasonable and appropriate to ensure equal opportunity and access for individuals with disabilities in the workplace.

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  • 22. 

    ____________________________ provide a method for some individuals to purchase medical insurance by making tax-free deposits to this type of account

    Correct Answer
    Medical savings accounts
    Explanation
    Medical savings accounts provide a method for some individuals to purchase medical insurance by making tax-free deposits to this type of account. These accounts allow individuals to set aside money specifically for medical expenses, and the funds deposited into the account are not subject to taxation. This provides a financial incentive for individuals to save for their healthcare needs and can help make healthcare more affordable for those who may not have access to traditional insurance coverage.

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  • 23. 

    Protect client confidentiality when using computers by creating passwords that are not easily guessed and changed at least every _________________________.

    Correct Answer
    90 days.
    Explanation
    To protect client confidentiality when using computers, it is important to create passwords that are not easily guessed and regularly changed. Changing passwords every 90 days ensures that even if someone manages to guess or obtain a password, they will not have access to the system for an extended period. This practice helps to maintain the security and privacy of client information, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches.

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  • 24. 

    Without consent, intentional touching can be considered a/an _______________ offense.

    Correct Answer
    criminal
    Explanation
    Without consent, intentional touching can be considered a criminal offense because it violates the personal autonomy and bodily integrity of an individual. This type of offense is typically categorized as a criminal act because it involves the intentional violation of someone's rights and can cause harm or distress to the victim. The law recognizes the importance of consent in maintaining personal boundaries and protecting individuals from unwanted physical contact, hence making such actions punishable under criminal law.

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  • 25. 

    When caring for survivors of rape and IPV, health care professionals must remember that the survivor and ________________ both have rights protected by law.

    Correct Answer
    abuser
    Explanation
    When caring for survivors of rape and intimate partner violence (IPV), health care professionals must remember that the survivor and the abuser both have rights protected by law. This means that while the focus is on providing support and care to the survivor, the abuser is also entitled to legal protection and due process. It is important for health care professionals to be aware of these rights and to navigate the situation in a way that ensures the safety and well-being of the survivor while also respecting the legal rights of the abuser.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 16, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Creed35
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