Chapter 43- Sleep And Rest

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Chapter 43- Sleep And Rest - Quiz

Craven chapter 43 review


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Disrupted sleep affects the human body, because it results in

    • A.

      Easy response to environmental stimuli

    • B.

      The body's inability to make stress hormones

    • C.

      An irreversible state of cell reproduction

    Correct Answer
    B. The body's inability to make stress hormones
    Explanation
    Disrupted sleep affects the human body by causing the body's inability to make stress hormones. During sleep, the body produces and regulates various hormones, including stress hormones like cortisol. When sleep is disrupted, the normal production and regulation of these hormones are disrupted as well. This can lead to imbalances in hormone levels, which can have negative effects on the body's ability to respond to stress and regulate other bodily functions.

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  • 2. 

    The difference between sleep and rest is that

    • A.

      In rest an awareness of the environment is maintained

    • B.

      In sleep an awareness of the environment is maintained

    • C.

      In rest there is no change to motor or cognitive response

    Correct Answer
    A. In rest an awareness of the environment is maintained
    Explanation
    In rest, an awareness of the environment is maintained, which means that even though a person is resting, they are still conscious of their surroundings. This implies that they can perceive and respond to stimuli in their environment while at rest. On the other hand, in sleep, an awareness of the environment is not maintained, indicating that during sleep, a person is not conscious of their surroundings and is not able to respond to external stimuli. Therefore, the key difference between sleep and rest lies in the level of awareness and responsiveness to the environment.

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  • 3. 

    A polysonogram consists of all of the following except

    • A.

      EEG electroencephalogram

    • B.

      EOG electrooculogram

    • C.

      EMG electromyogram

    • D.

      ECG electrocardiogram

    Correct Answer
    D. ECG electrocardiogram
    Explanation
    A polysonogram is a recording of multiple physiological signals during sleep. It typically includes an EEG to measure brain activity, an EOG to measure eye movements, and an EMG to measure muscle activity. However, it does not include an ECG, which is used to measure heart activity.

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  • 4. 

    What statement made by the patient would suggest that they are in Stage two of sleep?

    • A.

      "I'm so tired"

    • B.

      "I wasn't sleeping"

    • C.

      "i was just daydreaming"

    Correct Answer
    C. "i was just daydreaming"
    Explanation
    The statement "i was just daydreaming" suggests that the patient was not fully asleep but rather in a state of wakefulness or light sleep. This implies that they are not in the deeper stages of sleep, such as Stage two.

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  • 5. 

    A patient comes in saying they are experiencing vivid unrealistic dreams, and they feel like they can't move, this patient is describing what stage of sleep?

    • A.

      Stage 3

    • B.

      Stage 5

    • C.

      Stage 4

    • D.

      NREM

    Correct Answer
    B. Stage 5
    Explanation
    The patient is describing the characteristics of REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep, which is also known as Stage 5 sleep. During REM sleep, vivid and unrealistic dreams occur, and the body experiences temporary paralysis or inability to move. This stage is characterized by rapid eye movements and increased brain activity, similar to wakefulness.

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  • 6. 

    A nursing student is getting ready to change the linen of a patient's bed. The student remembers that in the patient's chart it notes the patient has "enuresis." What would be the appropriate action for the student to take.

    • A.

      Ask another student for assistance, this patient is immobile

    • B.

      Don on gloves, the patient is bladder incontenent at night

    • C.

      Wear gloves, the patient is bowel incontenent

    • D.

      Put on full PPE, the patient is on contact precaution

    Correct Answer
    B. Don on gloves, the patient is bladder incontenent at night
    Explanation
    The appropriate action for the nursing student to take is to don gloves because the patient is bladder incontinent at night. This is necessary to maintain proper hygiene and prevent the spread of infection.

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  • 7. 

    A patient's spouse reports having to wake up her husband every time he experiences somnambulism and enuresis, what stage is the patient being awakened from?

    • A.

      Stages 3

    • B.

      Stage 4

    • C.

      Stages 3 or 4

    • D.

      Stage 5

    • E.

      Stage 8

    Correct Answer
    C. Stages 3 or 4
    Explanation
    The patient is being awakened from stages 3 or 4. Stages 3 and 4 are both part of the deep sleep stage, also known as slow-wave sleep. Somnambulism and enuresis are both sleep disorders that can occur during this stage. Somnambulism refers to sleepwalking, while enuresis refers to bedwetting. Both of these conditions are more likely to occur during deep sleep, which is why the patient's spouse needs to wake him up when they happen.

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  • 8. 

    In stages 3 and 4 dreams are

    • A.

      Realistic

    • B.

      Unrealistic

    • C.

      Daydreams

    Correct Answer
    A. Realistic
    Explanation
    In stages 3 and 4 of sleep, dreams are typically more realistic. During these stages, known as deep sleep or slow-wave sleep, the brain activity slows down, and dreams tend to be less fantastical or bizarre compared to dreams during REM sleep. Instead, they often reflect real-life situations, experiences, and memories in a more logical and coherent manner. This is why dreams in stages 3 and 4 are considered to be more realistic.

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  • 9. 

    Which stage of sleep resembles wakefulness in polysonograms?

    • A.

      Stage 1-Light sleep

    • B.

      Stage 3-Deep sleep

    • C.

      Stage 5-REM

    Correct Answer
    C. Stage 5-REM
    Explanation
    During stage 5-REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep, the brain activity is similar to wakefulness. This is the stage where most dreaming occurs and the body experiences muscle paralysis. The brain waves during REM sleep resemble those of an awake state, with high-frequency, low-amplitude waves. This stage is important for memory consolidation and emotional processing.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following statements is not true about REM

    • A.

      Blood Pressure and pulse fluctuate rapidly

    • B.

      Respirations are irregular

    • C.

      O2 consumption is increased

    • D.

      Thermoregulation is lost

    • E.

      Presence of bursts of sleep spindles

    Correct Answer
    E. Presence of bursts of sleep spindles
    Explanation
    During REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep, blood pressure and pulse fluctuate rapidly, respirations are irregular, O2 consumption is increased, and thermoregulation is lost. However, the presence of bursts of sleep spindles is not a characteristic of REM sleep. Sleep spindles are actually a characteristic of stage 2 non-REM sleep, which occurs before REM sleep.

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  • 11. 

    A nurse is teaching a client about sleep, she explains that the following are neurotransmitters responsible for sleep, except

    • A.

      Serotonin

    • B.

      Acetylcholine

    • C.

      Adrenaline

    • D.

      Norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    C. Adrenaline
    Explanation
    The nurse is teaching the client about neurotransmitters responsible for sleep. Serotonin, acetylcholine, and norepinephrine are all neurotransmitters that play a role in sleep regulation. However, adrenaline is not directly involved in sleep regulation. It is a hormone that is released during times of stress or arousal, and it is responsible for the "fight or flight" response. Therefore, adrenaline is the correct answer as it is not a neurotransmitter responsible for sleep.

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  • 12. 

    Who is at the greatest need for REM

    • A.

      Someone who is sick

    • B.

      Someone who is worried or stressed

    • C.

      Someone with who has trouble falling asleep

    Correct Answer
    B. Someone who is worried or stressed
    Explanation
    REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep is a stage of sleep that is associated with dreaming and plays a crucial role in emotional regulation and processing. During REM sleep, the brain consolidates and processes emotions, helping individuals cope with stress and anxiety. Therefore, someone who is worried or stressed would be at the greatest need for REM sleep as it helps in reducing their emotional distress and promoting overall well-being.

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  • 13. 

    All of the following are psychological functions of sleep, except

    • A.

      To sort and discard data

    • B.

      Promotes cell growth

    • C.

      Character reinforcement and adaptation

    Correct Answer
    B. Promotes cell growth
    Explanation
    psychological*

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  • 14. 

    A patient tells the nurse that her sleep latency is of about 30 minutes to 1 hour, the nurse should conclude

    • A.

      That this is normal, sleep latency is 30 to 60 minutes for an average person

    • B.

      This is of concern, sleep latency is 10 to 30 minutes for an average person

    • C.

      This is of no concern, because sleep latency has no "normal" zone

    Correct Answer
    B. This is of concern, sleep latency is 10 to 30 minutes for an average person
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "this is of concern, sleep latency is 10 to 30 minutes for an average person." Sleep latency refers to the amount of time it takes for a person to fall asleep after getting into bed. The average sleep latency for a healthy person is typically between 10 to 30 minutes. Therefore, if a patient reports a sleep latency of 30 minutes to 1 hour, it is longer than the normal range and may indicate a sleep problem or underlying issue that needs to be addressed.

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  • 15. 

    If an elderly patient awakens 2 to 3 times during the night, what action is expected from the nurse regarding the patient's sleep

    • A.

      The nurse should notify the doctor

    • B.

      The nurse should intervene immediately to prevent worse alterations

    • C.

      No action, 1 to 2 awakenings is common, and it increases with age

    Correct Answer
    C. No action, 1 to 2 awakenings is common, and it increases with age
    Explanation
    As people age, it is common for them to experience disruptions in their sleep patterns, including waking up multiple times during the night. This is a normal part of the aging process and does not necessarily indicate a problem or require medical intervention. Therefore, the nurse should not take any action and reassure the patient that 1 to 2 awakenings during the night is common and expected as they age.

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  • 16. 

    A nurse is caring for a REM deficient patient who awakens during the night, the nurse should

    • A.

      Encourage the patient to go back to sleep

    • B.

      Encourage the patient to watch tv until they feel tired

    • C.

      Encourage the patient to take naps later

    Correct Answer
    A. Encourage the patient to go back to sleep
    Explanation
    Encouraging the patient to go back to sleep is the correct answer because REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep is an essential stage of sleep for restorative processes in the body. It is during REM sleep that dreaming occurs, and it is believed to play a crucial role in memory consolidation and emotional regulation. By encouraging the patient to go back to sleep, the nurse is promoting the patient's overall sleep quality and allowing them to complete their sleep cycles, which is important for their physical and mental well-being.

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  • 17. 

    Which neurotransmitter is responsible for decreasing RAS activity

    • A.

      Norephinephrine

    • B.

      Acetycholine

    • C.

      Serotonin

    Correct Answer
    C. Serotonin
    Explanation
    Serotonin is the correct answer because it is a neurotransmitter that is known to decrease the activity of the RAS (Reticular Activating System). The RAS is responsible for regulating wakefulness and arousal in the brain. Serotonin has an inhibitory effect on the RAS, leading to a decrease in its activity and promoting relaxation and sleep. Norepinephrine and acetylcholine, on the other hand, are neurotransmitters that have excitatory effects on the RAS, increasing its activity and promoting alertness and wakefulness.

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  • 18. 

    Which best describes sleepiness

    • A.

      Lack of adequate sensory stimulation

    • B.

      Intense or rapid tiring

    • C.

      Need to conserve energy

    Correct Answer
    A. Lack of adequate sensory stimulation
    Explanation
    intense or rapid tiring and need to conserve energy are characteristics of fatigue.

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  • 19. 

    An elderly patient suffering from Sundowner's syndrome most likely

    • A.

      Feels awake at night and therefore agitated

    • B.

      Feels tired when the "sun goes down"

    • C.

      Sleeps through the night

    Correct Answer
    A. Feels awake at night and therefore agitated
    Explanation
    Sundowner's syndrome is a condition commonly seen in elderly patients, where they experience increased confusion, restlessness, and agitation during the evening and night. This is believed to be caused by disruptions in the patient's internal body clock, leading to a reversal of their sleep-wake cycle. As a result, the patient may feel awake at night and therefore become agitated.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following would help someone with impaired mobility move at night?

    • A.

      Cotton sheets

    • B.

      Satin sheets

    • C.

      Extra blankets

    Correct Answer
    B. Satin sheets
    Explanation
    Satin sheets would help someone with impaired mobility move at night because they have a smooth and slippery surface. This makes it easier for the person to shift and reposition themselves in bed without exerting too much effort or causing discomfort. The satin material reduces friction and allows for smoother movements, providing greater comfort and ease for individuals with impaired mobility during nighttime.

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  • 21. 

    All of the following are part of the 3 waking stages of newborn and infants except

    • A.

      Passive awake

    • B.

      Crying

    • C.

      Active awake

    • D.

      Quiet awake

    Correct Answer
    A. Passive awake
    Explanation
    Passive awake is not part of the three waking stages of newborns and infants. The three waking stages include crying, active awake, and quiet awake. Passive awake is not a recognized stage and therefore is not included in the list of waking stages for newborns and infants.

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  • 22. 

    During thanksgiving, due to increased L-tryptophan levels, patients will most likely

    • A.

      Have a longer stage 4

    • B.

      Experience prolonged REM

    • C.

      Stay up late

    Correct Answer
    A. Have a longer stage 4
    Explanation
    L-tryptophan is an amino acid found in turkey and other protein-rich foods. It is known to increase the production of serotonin, a neurotransmitter that promotes sleep. Stage 4 is the deepest stage of sleep, also known as slow-wave sleep. Therefore, with increased L-tryptophan levels, it is likely that patients will have a longer duration of stage 4 sleep.

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  • 23. 

    For a patient beginning a new exercise routine, the nurse should advise them

    • A.

      Not to exercise after 7 pm

    • B.

      To exercise at least 30 minutes before bed

    • C.

      To exercise right before going to bed

    Correct Answer
    A. Not to exercise after 7 pm
    Explanation
    Exercising after 7 pm can disrupt the patient's sleep cycle as it increases alertness and raises body temperature, making it harder for them to fall asleep. It is recommended to avoid vigorous exercise close to bedtime to allow the body to wind down and prepare for sleep.

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  • 24. 

    A rape victim might experience difficulty sleeping due to which sleep factor affecting sleep

    • A.

      Illness

    • B.

      Vigilance

    • C.

      Medications

    • D.

      Mood states

    Correct Answer
    B. Vigilance
    Explanation
    A rape victim might experience difficulty sleeping due to increased vigilance. After experiencing such a traumatic event, the victim may constantly feel on edge and hyperaware of their surroundings, making it difficult for them to relax and fall asleep. This heightened state of vigilance is a common response to trauma and can greatly impact their ability to get a good night's sleep.

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  • 25. 

    A nurse should expect a patient on antidepressants or morphine to

    • A.

      Have a prolonged stage 1

    • B.

      Have a decrease in REM

    • C.

      Have a decrease in stage 3 and 4

    Correct Answer
    B. Have a decrease in REM
    Explanation
    Patients who are on antidepressants or morphine may experience a decrease in REM sleep. This is because these medications can suppress the REM sleep cycle, leading to a reduction in the amount of time spent in this stage of sleep. REM sleep is important for various physiological and cognitive functions, including memory consolidation and emotional regulation. Therefore, a decrease in REM sleep can have implications for the patient's overall sleep quality and well-being.

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  • 26. 

    When on the floor, a nurse should schedule runs to ensure patients

    • A.

      Get at leaset 4 hours of udisturbed sleep

    • B.

      Get at least 6 hours of undisturbed sleep

    • C.

      Get at least 90 to 120 minutes of undisturbed sleep

    Correct Answer
    C. Get at least 90 to 120 minutes of undisturbed sleep
    Explanation
    When on the floor, a nurse should schedule runs to ensure patients get at least 90 to 120 minutes of undisturbed sleep. This answer suggests that the nurse should prioritize providing a specific duration of uninterrupted sleep for the patients. It implies that the patients may not be able to get a full night's sleep, but the nurse should aim to give them a significant period of rest without disturbances.

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  • 27. 

    An obese patient shows excessive daytime sleepiness, heavy snoring and restless sleep, the nurse should suspect

    • A.

      Obstructive Sleep Apnea

    • B.

      Insomnia

    • C.

      Narcolepsy

    Correct Answer
    A. Obstructive Sleep Apnea
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, such as excessive daytime sleepiness, heavy snoring, and restless sleep, the nurse should suspect obstructive sleep apnea. Obstructive sleep apnea is a condition where the muscles in the throat relax and block the airway during sleep, causing pauses in breathing. This can lead to disrupted sleep, snoring, and excessive daytime sleepiness. Insomnia is characterized by difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep, which is not mentioned in the symptoms. Narcolepsy, on the other hand, is a neurological disorder that causes excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, but it does not typically involve heavy snoring or restless sleep.

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  • 28. 

    A patient on CPAP (continuous positvie airway pressure) is being treated for

    • A.

      Restless leg syndrome

    • B.

      Parasomnias

    • C.

      Sleep apnea

    Correct Answer
    C. Sleep apnea
    Explanation
    The patient on CPAP (continuous positive airway pressure) is being treated for sleep apnea. Sleep apnea is a sleep disorder characterized by pauses in breathing or shallow breaths during sleep. CPAP is a common treatment for sleep apnea, as it helps to keep the airway open and maintain a continuous flow of air, preventing interruptions in breathing. Restless leg syndrome and parasomnias are unrelated sleep disorders and would not typically be treated with CPAP.

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  • 29. 

    If  a patient suffers from sleep apnea, the nurse should ensure that the head of bed is

    • A.

      Elevated

    • B.

      Flat

    • C.

      Doesn't matter

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevated
    Explanation
    In patients with sleep apnea, elevating the head of the bed can help improve their breathing and reduce the symptoms of the condition. By raising the head of the bed, gravity assists in keeping the airway open, allowing for better airflow and preventing episodes of apnea during sleep. This position helps to alleviate the obstruction or blockage that occurs in the airway, allowing the patient to breathe more easily and have a more restful sleep. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to ensure that the head of the bed is elevated for patients with sleep apnea.

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  • 30. 

    Which type of insomnia is characterized by prolonged sleep latency

    • A.

      Maintenance insomnia

    • B.

      Onset insomnia

    • C.

      Early-awakening insomnia

    Correct Answer
    B. Onset insomnia
    Explanation
    maintenance insomnia = multiple awakenings

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following patients are most likely to suffer from narcolepsy

    • A.

      Older adults

    • B.

      Newborns

    • C.

      Adolescents

    Correct Answer
    C. Adolescents
    Explanation
    Adolescents are most likely to suffer from narcolepsy. Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep. It commonly begins during adolescence or early adulthood. While older adults may experience sleep-related issues, narcolepsy is more prevalent in adolescents. Newborns, on the other hand, have different sleep patterns and are not typically associated with narcolepsy.

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  • 32. 

    Untreated sleep apnea has been linked to

    • A.

      Decreased blood pressure

    • B.

      Heart attacks

    • C.

      Increased cholesterol

    Correct Answer
    B. Heart attacks
    Explanation
    if untreated = increased blood pressure, heart attack, stroke, and increased risk for diabetes

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  • 33. 

    During a sleep assessment the most important information is

    • A.

      The pt's statement, history is the most important data

    • B.

      Lab results of arterial blood gas

    • C.

      The spouse's observations of the pt's sleep

    Correct Answer
    A. The pt's statement, history is the most important data
    Explanation
    The most important information during a sleep assessment is the patient's statement and history. This is because the patient's subjective experiences and reported symptoms provide valuable insights into their sleep patterns, quality, and any potential sleep disorders. The patient's statement and history help healthcare professionals understand the specific sleep-related issues the patient is facing, their duration, and any associated factors. This information is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment planning. Lab results of arterial blood gas may provide additional information about the patient's respiratory function, but they do not capture the comprehensive picture of the patient's sleep-related concerns. The spouse's observations of the patient's sleep can be helpful, but they may not always be reliable or provide a complete understanding of the patient's sleep experiences.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following is the most important nursing intervention for altered sleep

    • A.

      Rest

    • B.

      Consistent routine

    • C.

      Cognitive measures - relaxation techniques

    • D.

      Use of medication

    Correct Answer
    B. Consistent routine
    Explanation
    "consistency, consistency, consistency." - Joyce

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  • 35. 

    During client teaching, it is important to include the following about sleep drugs

    • A.

      They treat chronic, not situational cases

    • B.

      REM is not affected

    • C.

      Psychomotor impairement is expected

    • D.

      The effectiveness increases after 4 weeks

    • E.

      Most affective for patients with compromised pulmonary function

    Correct Answer
    C. Psychomotor impairement is expected
    Explanation
    Use of meds =for situational cases, REM is most vulnerable, effectiveness decreases after 4 weeks, DO NOT use when pulmonary function is compromised

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  • 36. 

    A patient suffering from severe hepatic disease, and glaucomas should not be administered which hypnotic

    • A.

      Klonipin

    • B.

      Restoril

    • C.

      Ambien

    Correct Answer
    A. Klonipin
    Explanation
    Patients suffering from severe hepatic disease and glaucomas should not be administered Klonipin because it can worsen their condition. Klonipin is a benzodiazepine medication that is primarily metabolized by the liver. In patients with severe hepatic disease, the liver's ability to metabolize drugs is impaired, leading to a buildup of the medication in the body. This can increase the risk of adverse effects and toxicity. Additionally, Klonipin can also increase intraocular pressure, which is harmful to patients with glaucomas as it can further damage the optic nerve. Therefore, it is contraindicated in these patients.

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  • 37. 

    A nurse is looking at the MD orders for a patient, she notices the patient is on Restoril prn, the nurse can conclude that

    • A.

      The patient suffers from insomnia

    • B.

      The paitent suffers from seizures

    • C.

      The patient is bipolar

    Correct Answer
    A. The patient suffers from insomnia
    Explanation
    Ambien and Restoril = short term insomnia
    Klonipin = seizures, bipolar, nuraglias (numbness, tingling), parkinsonian dysarthria, RLS, schizo, and sleep disorders

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 21, 2010
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