Certified Nurses Assistant Practice Exam 2011 (Part 1)

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  • 1/60 Questions

    The Nursing Assistant always works under the supervison of a _______________ .

    • Social Worker
    • Nurse
    • Dietician
    • Bookkeeper
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About This Quiz

This Certified Nurses Assistant Practice Exam 2011 (Part 1) tests knowledge on patient care, including managing orthostatic hypotension, understanding subjective vs objective symptoms, and assisting during falls. It is essential for those preparing for a CNA certification.

Certified Nurses Assistant Practice Exam 2011 (Part 1) - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is the most FREQUENT type of accident in the long-term facilities?.

    Explanation
    The most frequent type of accident in long-term facilities is falls. Falls are a common occurrence in these facilities due to factors such as older age, mobility issues, and the presence of hazards like slippery floors or uneven surfaces. Falls can result in serious injuries, such as fractures or head trauma, and can also lead to a decline in overall health and quality of life for the residents. It is important for long-term facilities to have proper safety measures in place to prevent falls and minimize the risk of accidents.

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  • 3. 

    When in Doubt, ALWAYS report to the Charge Nurse.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that whenever someone is unsure or hesitant about a situation, it is always best to inform and seek guidance from the Charge Nurse. This is because the Charge Nurse is responsible for overseeing the unit and has the expertise to handle any concerns or issues that may arise. By reporting to the Charge Nurse, it ensures that the appropriate actions are taken and the situation is addressed effectively. Therefore, the statement is true as it emphasizes the importance of seeking assistance when in doubt.

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  • 4. 

    The proper medical term for high blood pressure is __________ .

    • Diabetes

    • Hypotension

    • Hypertension

    • CVA

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypertension
    Explanation
    Hypertension is the correct answer because it is the proper medical term for high blood pressure. Hypertension refers to the condition where the force of blood against the walls of the arteries is consistently too high. It is a common condition that can lead to serious health issues if left untreated. Diabetes is a separate condition related to high blood sugar levels, hypotension refers to low blood pressure, and CVA stands for cerebrovascular accident or stroke.

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  • 5. 

    Which statement would be most helpful if a resident is crying?.

    • "Hush, it will be alright."

    • "I'd like to see a smile now."

    • "Would it help to talk about it?"

    • "Crying will only make you feel worse."

    Correct Answer
    A. "Would it help to talk about it?"
    Explanation
    This statement would be most helpful if a resident is crying because it shows empathy and concern for their well-being. It acknowledges their emotions and offers them an opportunity to express their feelings and potentially find comfort in sharing their thoughts. This response demonstrates a supportive and understanding approach, which can be beneficial in helping the resident cope with their emotions.

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  • 6. 

    When assisting a resident in learning to use a walker, it is important to ________________ .

    • Stand at an angle behind him & use a gait belt

    • Put padding around the top of the walker

    • Let him walk alone to gain confidence

    • Put tennis balls on the feet of the walker

    Correct Answer
    A. Stand at an angle behind him & use a gait belt
    Explanation
    When assisting a resident in learning to use a walker, it is important to stand at an angle behind him and use a gait belt. This positioning allows the caregiver to provide support and stability to the resident while they are using the walker. Standing at an angle behind the resident ensures that the caregiver can maintain a safe distance and prevent any potential falls or accidents. Additionally, using a gait belt provides an extra level of security by allowing the caregiver to hold onto the belt and assist the resident in maintaining their balance while using the walker.

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  • 7. 

    A Foley Bag needs to be kept at a level below the bladder so that ______________ .

    • Urine will not leak out

    • The resident will be more comfortable

    • Urine will not return to the bladder causing infection

    • The Bag is hidden as to not cause resident embarrassment

    Correct Answer
    A. Urine will not return to the bladder causing infection
    Explanation
    Keeping the Foley Bag at a level below the bladder ensures that urine will not flow back into the bladder, which can lead to urinary tract infections. This positioning allows for proper drainage and prevents the risk of bacteria entering the bladder.

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  • 8. 

    You Should wash your hands ONLY after you take them off.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that you should only wash your hands after taking them off, which implies that you don't need to wash them before taking them off. However, it is essential to wash your hands both before and after taking them off to maintain proper hygiene. Washing your hands before removing them helps to prevent any dirt or germs on your hands from transferring to the mask, while washing them afterward ensures that any potential contaminants on the mask are removed from your hands. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 9. 

    ADL means _______ ___ ________ __________ .

    Correct Answer
    Activities of Daily Living
    Explanation
    ADL stands for Activities of Daily Living, which refers to the basic self-care tasks that individuals perform on a daily basis to take care of themselves and maintain their independence. These activities include tasks such as bathing, dressing, eating, toileting, transferring, and continence management. ADLs are essential for individuals to meet their personal needs and carry out their daily routines. They are often used as a measure of an individual's functional abilities and can help healthcare professionals assess a person's level of independence and determine the appropriate level of care or support needed.

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  • 10. 

    PPE means __________ __________ _____________ .

    Correct Answer
    Personal Protective Equipment
    Explanation
    PPE stands for Personal Protective Equipment. It refers to any equipment or clothing worn by individuals to protect themselves from potential hazards or injuries in their workplace or during certain activities. This can include items such as helmets, gloves, masks, goggles, and safety shoes. PPE is essential in ensuring the safety and well-being of individuals in various industries, such as construction, healthcare, and manufacturing, where they may be exposed to risks or dangers.

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  • 11. 

    The Best way to provide restorative care is to ____________ . 

    • Allow the resident to do as much as possible

    • Doing everything for the resident

    • Completing the task on time

    • Work quickly & efficiently

    Correct Answer
    A. Allow the resident to do as much as possible
    Explanation
    The best way to provide restorative care is to allow the resident to do as much as possible. This approach promotes independence and self-esteem, allowing the resident to maintain their skills and abilities. By encouraging the resident to participate in their own care, it also helps to improve their physical and cognitive functioning. Additionally, it fosters a sense of empowerment and control over their own lives, which is essential for their overall well-being and quality of life.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is a correct measurement of urinary output?

    • 40 oz.

    • 300 cc

    • 2 cups

    • 1 quart

    Correct Answer
    A. 300 cc
    Explanation
    300 cc is a correct measurement of urinary output because cc stands for cubic centimeters, which is a unit commonly used to measure fluids. In the medical field, urinary output is often measured in cc to accurately track the amount of urine produced by a patient.

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  • 13. 

    A ___________ is a safety device used to assist a DEPENDENT resident from a bed to a chair.

    Correct Answer
    Transfer
    Gait Belt
    Explanation
    A gait belt is a safety device used to assist a dependent resident in transferring from a bed to a chair. It is a belt that is placed around the resident's waist, providing support and stability during the transfer process. The gait belt allows the caregiver to have a firm grip on the resident, helping to prevent falls and injuries during the transfer. It is an essential tool for ensuring the safety and well-being of dependent residents during transfers.

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  • 14. 

    What is the begining sign of a pressure sore?.

    • Swelling

    • Numbness

    • Discoloration

    • Coolness

    Correct Answer
    A. Discoloration
    Explanation
    Discoloration is the beginning sign of a pressure sore. This means that the affected area may appear red, purple, or darker than the surrounding skin. Discoloration occurs due to the lack of blood flow and oxygen to the area, which is caused by prolonged pressure on the skin. If left untreated, the pressure sore can worsen and progress to more severe stages, leading to tissue damage and infection. Therefore, recognizing and addressing the early sign of discoloration is crucial in preventing the development of pressure sores.

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  • 15. 

    To Ambulate is To __________ .

    Correct Answer
    Walk
    Explanation
    To ambulate means to walk.

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  • 16. 

    Why is it important to use circular-like motion when rubbing on lotion?

    • To Make the resident feel good

    • To promote circulation

    • To increase the lotions temperature

    Correct Answer
    A. To promote circulation
    Explanation
    Rubbing lotion in a circular-like motion helps to promote circulation. Circular motions create a gentle massage effect on the skin, stimulating blood flow to the area. This increased circulation can have several benefits, such as improving the delivery of nutrients and oxygen to the skin cells, aiding in the removal of waste products, and promoting overall skin health. By promoting circulation, the circular motion technique can enhance the effectiveness of the lotion and contribute to a healthier and more nourished skin.

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  • 17. 

    HS care is given before ________ .

    Correct Answer
    Bedtime
    Explanation
    HS care is given before bedtime. This implies that there is a specific routine or set of tasks that are carried out before going to sleep. These tasks may include brushing teeth, changing into pajamas, and preparing the sleeping environment. By providing HS care before bedtime, individuals can ensure that they are clean, comfortable, and ready to rest for the night.

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  • 18. 

    CNAs can choose what the residents MUST wear.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    CNAs do not have the authority to choose what residents must wear. The decision regarding what residents wear is typically made by the residents themselves or their family members, in consultation with healthcare professionals such as nurses or doctors. CNAs may assist residents with dressing or provide recommendations, but the final decision rests with the residents or their representatives. Therefore, the statement that CNAs can choose what the residents must wear is false.

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  • 19. 

    Proper use of a restraint requires that the nurse aide:

    • Release the restraint every 4 hours

    • Tie the restraints to the side rail

    • Watch for skin irritation or discoloration

    • Apply the restraints tightly

    Correct Answer
    A. Watch for skin irritation or discoloration
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to watch for skin irritation or discoloration. This is because the proper use of a restraint involves monitoring the patient's skin for any signs of irritation or discoloration, which could indicate that the restraint is causing harm or discomfort. It is important for the nurse aide to regularly check the patient's skin to ensure their safety and well-being.

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  • 20. 

    You must wait ____ minutes after a resident has eaten, drank something, or just finished smoking to take their temperature.

    Correct Answer
    15
    20
    Explanation
    It is important to wait for a certain amount of time after a resident has eaten, drank something, or finished smoking to take their temperature because these activities can temporarily affect the body's temperature. Waiting for 15 to 20 minutes allows the body to return to its baseline temperature and provides a more accurate reading.

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  • 21. 

    Normal Pulse Range is ___ - ____ beats per minute (Low to High)

    Correct Answer
    60-100
    60 100
    60/100
    60100
    Explanation
    The normal pulse range is typically between 60 to 100 beats per minute. This can be represented as either "60-100" or "60 100" or "60/100" or "60100". All of these formats indicate the same range of beats per minute for a normal pulse.

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  • 22. 

    Orthostatic  Hypotension is Blood pressure lowered due to change of ____________ .

    Correct Answer
    Position
    Explanation
    Orthostatic hypotension refers to a drop in blood pressure that occurs when a person changes their position, such as standing up from a sitting or lying down position. This change in position causes a temporary decrease in blood flow to the brain, leading to symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. Therefore, the correct answer is "Position" because it accurately describes the cause of orthostatic hypotension.

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  • 23. 

    When assisting with giving a resident an enema, you should remember what 3 points?  (Check All That Apply)

    • Gloves

    • Lubrication

    • Left Side

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Gloves
    A. Lubrication
    A. Left Side
    Explanation
    When assisting with giving a resident an enema, there are three important points to remember. Firstly, gloves should be worn to maintain hygiene and prevent the spread of infection. Secondly, lubrication should be used to make the process more comfortable for the resident and to ease the insertion of the enema. Lastly, the resident should be positioned on their left side, as this helps facilitate the flow of the enema solution.

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  • 24. 

    Q2H means ______ . 

    • Per every 2 hours

    • Per every 4 hours

    • Quarter til 2

    • Quarter til next hour

    Correct Answer
    A. Per every 2 hours
    Explanation
    The abbreviation "Q2H" stands for "Per every 2 hours". This means that something occurs or is done once every two hours.

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  • 25. 

    DNR means ________ __________ __________ .

    Correct Answer
    Do Not Resuscitate
    Explanation
    DNR stands for "Do Not Resuscitate," which is a medical order that instructs healthcare providers not to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) in the event of cardiac or respiratory arrest. This decision is typically made by a patient or their designated healthcare proxy and indicates that the patient does not wish to receive life-saving measures such as chest compressions, artificial ventilation, or defibrillation. The purpose of a DNR order is to respect the patient's autonomy and ensure that their end-of-life wishes are honored.

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  • 26. 

    Health Insurance Portability & Accountabilty Act of 1996 is also known as ____________. 

    Correct Answer
    HIPPA
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HIPAA. HIPAA stands for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996. It is a federal law in the United States that provides data privacy and security provisions for safeguarding medical information. The law aims to ensure the portability of health insurance coverage for individuals when they change or lose their jobs and to establish national standards for electronic health care transactions and privacy of personal health information.

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  • 27. 

    Least accurate temperature under the armpit is ___________.

    Correct Answer
    Axillary
    Explanation
    The least accurate temperature measurement under the armpit is known as axillary. This method involves placing a thermometer in the armpit to measure body temperature. However, it is considered to be less accurate compared to other methods such as oral or rectal temperature measurements. This is because the armpit temperature can be influenced by external factors such as clothing, sweating, or improper placement of the thermometer. Therefore, it is important to use more accurate methods for obtaining precise temperature readings.

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  • 28. 

    The nurse aide gets the fire extinguisher and is attempting to put out a small fire. Which part of the fire does he extinguish first?.

    • The yellow color

    • Middle of the fire

    • Top of the Fire

    • The Base of the fire

    Correct Answer
    A. The Base of the fire
    Explanation
    The base of the fire is the correct answer because when using a fire extinguisher, it is important to aim at the base of the fire. This is because the base of the fire is where the fuel source is located, and by extinguishing the base, the oxygen supply is cut off, effectively putting out the fire. Aiming at the top or middle of the fire would not be as effective as it does not target the source of the fire. The yellow color is not relevant to extinguishing the fire.

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  • 29. 

    Normal Respiration Range is ___ - ___ breaths per minute. 

    Correct Answer
    12-20
    12 20
    12/20
    1220
    Explanation
    The normal respiration range is typically between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. This means that a healthy individual will take an average of 12 to 20 breaths in one minute. The answer options provided all represent the same range of 12 to 20 breaths per minute, just in different formats.

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  • 30. 

    CNAs must respond to emergencies with P A S S which means to_______, _______, _______, _______. (In Order)

    Correct Answer
    Pull Aim Squeeze Sweep
    Pull,Aim,Squeeze,Sweep
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pull Aim Squeeze Sweep". This is the correct order in which CNAs must respond to emergencies. First, they need to pull the pin on the fire extinguisher. Then, they aim the nozzle at the base of the fire. Next, they squeeze the handle to release the extinguishing agent. Finally, they sweep the nozzle from side to side to fully extinguish the fire.

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  • 31. 

    Temperature by light probe in ear is called _____________.

    Correct Answer
    Tympanic
    Explanation
    Temperature by light probe in the ear is called tympanic temperature. The tympanic membrane, also known as the eardrum, is located in the ear canal and is easily accessible for temperature measurements using a light probe. The tympanic temperature is considered an accurate reflection of the body's core temperature and is commonly used in medical settings for quick and non-invasive temperature monitoring.

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  • 32. 

    It is not possible to obtain the height of a resident lying in bed. They would have to stand up.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that it is not possible to measure the height of a resident who is lying in bed and they would have to stand up for accurate measurement. However, this is not true. There are various methods and tools available that can be used to measure the height of a person while they are lying in bed, such as using a measuring tape or a height measurement device specifically designed for bedridden individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 33. 

    CNAs are not allowed to clip toenails.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    CNAs, or Certified Nursing Assistants, are healthcare professionals who provide basic patient care under the supervision of registered nurses or licensed practical nurses. While they are trained to assist with various tasks such as bathing, feeding, and grooming, clipping toenails is typically considered outside the scope of their practice. This is because toenail clipping requires specialized knowledge and skills to prevent injury or infection, which is usually performed by trained professionals such as podiatrists or nurses. Therefore, it is true that CNAs are not allowed to clip toenails.

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  • 34. 

    HOB means _____ ____ _______ .

    Correct Answer
    Head Of Bed
    Explanation
    The acronym "HOB" stands for "Head Of Bed." This term is commonly used in medical settings to indicate the position of a patient's bed where the head is elevated higher than the feet. This position is often recommended for various medical conditions, such as respiratory distress or to prevent aspiration. It helps improve breathing, reduce swelling, and promote better blood circulation.

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  • 35. 

    When assisting a patient with dentures, which of the following actions should a nursing assistant AVOID?

    • Lining the sink with a towel to prevent damage if the dentures are dropped. 

    • Using hot water to rinse the dentures.

    Correct Answer
    A. Using hot water to rinse the dentures.
    Explanation
    Hot water can warp or damage dentures. Dentures should be cleaned with cool or lukewarm water to prevent any alteration to their shape or structure, which could affect their fit and the patient's comfort.

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  • 36. 

    Vital Signs are _____? (Check all that apply)

    • Blood Pressure

    • Temperature

    • Pulse

    • Respirations

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Blood Pressure
    A. Temperature
    A. Pulse
    A. Respirations
    Explanation
    Vital signs are important indicators of a person's overall health and can provide valuable information about their body's functioning. Blood pressure, temperature, pulse, and respirations are all considered vital signs. Blood pressure measures the force of blood against the walls of the arteries, temperature indicates the body's internal heat level, pulse measures the heart rate, and respirations refer to the number of breaths taken per minute. Monitoring these vital signs can help healthcare professionals assess a person's condition and identify any abnormalities or changes that may require further attention or treatment.

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  • 37. 

    A breakdown of skin tissues that occurs when blood flow is interrupted is called a _________ .

    Correct Answer(s)
    Pressure Sore
    Pressure Sores
    Explanation
    When blood flow is interrupted, it can lead to a breakdown of skin tissues, which is commonly known as a pressure sore or pressure sores. This condition occurs when prolonged pressure is applied to a specific area of the skin, causing damage to the underlying tissues. Pressure sores are most commonly seen in individuals who are bedridden or have limited mobility, as they are unable to change positions frequently, leading to constant pressure on certain areas of the body. Proper care and prevention techniques, such as regular repositioning and maintaining good hygiene, are essential to avoid the development of pressure sores.

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  • 38. 

    When Lifting a heavy object, the correct method would be to bend at the ___________.

    • Waist, keeping shoulders straight

    • Waist, rounding your shoulders

    • Knees and waist

    • Knees, keeping your back straight

    Correct Answer
    A. Knees, keeping your back straight
    Explanation
    The correct method for lifting a heavy object is to bend at the knees and keep your back straight. This helps to distribute the weight evenly and reduces the strain on your back. Bending at the waist or rounding your shoulders can put excessive pressure on your lower back and increase the risk of injury. By bending at the knees and maintaining a straight back, you engage the larger muscles in your legs and minimize the strain on your back.

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  • 39. 

    How often should a restraint be removed?

    • Every hour

    • Every 2 hours

    • Every 3 hours

    • Every 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 2 hours
    Explanation
    A restraint should be removed every 2 hours to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual. This allows for regular checks on their comfort, circulation, and skin integrity. Leaving a restraint on for longer periods of time can increase the risk of injury, pressure sores, and restricted blood flow. Regular removal and repositioning also promote mobility and prevent muscle stiffness or contractures.

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  • 40. 

    The most important principle of infection control is _________________ . 

    • The Resident

    • Universal Precautions

    • PPE

    • Handwashing

    Correct Answer
    A. Handwashing
    Explanation
    Handwashing is the most important principle of infection control because it is a simple yet effective way to prevent the spread of infections. Proper hand hygiene, including washing hands with soap and water or using hand sanitizer, helps to remove and kill germs that may be present on the hands. This is crucial in healthcare settings, as well as in everyday life, to prevent the transmission of harmful bacteria and viruses. Handwashing is considered a universal precaution and should be practiced by everyone to maintain good hygiene and prevent the spread of infections.

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  • 41. 

    Clean Bed linen placed in a residents room but NOT used should be returned to the linen closet.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that clean bed linen that has been placed in a resident's room but not used should be returned to the linen closet. However, this is incorrect. Clean bed linen that has been placed in a resident's room should not be returned to the linen closet, as it may have been exposed to potential contaminants in the resident's room. Instead, it should be discarded or properly laundered before reuse.

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  • 42. 

    A Resident who has difficulty swallowing or chewing will need what type of diet?.

    • Clear Liquid

    • Mechanical Soft

    • Low Residue

    • Bland

    Correct Answer
    A. Mechanical Soft
    Explanation
    A resident who has difficulty swallowing or chewing will need a mechanical soft diet. This type of diet consists of foods that are soft and easy to chew, but do not require a lot of effort to swallow. It includes foods that are mashed, pureed, or ground into a smooth texture. This helps to prevent choking or discomfort while eating, and ensures that the resident is able to consume enough nutrients and maintain their health.

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  • 43. 

    Something Measurable would be __________

    • Objective

    • Subjective

    Correct Answer
    A. Objective
    Explanation
    Something measurable refers to a characteristic or attribute that can be quantified or observed using objective criteria or standards. It can be evaluated or assessed based on facts, evidence, or data without personal opinions or biases. Therefore, the correct answer is "Objective," as it aligns with the concept of measurability.

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  • 44. 

    Encouraging a resident to talk about their loss is the most effective.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Encouraging a resident to talk about their loss is the most effective approach because it allows them to express their emotions and feelings, which can be therapeutic and help them cope with their grief. By providing a safe and supportive environment for them to share their experiences, they may feel validated and understood, leading to better emotional well-being and potential healing. This approach also promotes communication and connection, which can be beneficial in the grieving process.

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  • 45. 

    Residents should always transfer in the direction of their _________ side.

    • Weak

    • Strong

    • Left

    • Right

    Correct Answer
    A. Strong
    Explanation
    Residents should always transfer in the direction of their strong side. This means that individuals should transfer using the side of their body that is stronger and more stable. By doing so, they can ensure a safer and more secure transfer, minimizing the risk of falls or injuries. Transferring on the strong side allows individuals to rely on their stronger muscles and better balance, making the transfer process easier and more efficient.

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  • 46. 

    When washing your hands, what part of the procedure removes the most germs?

    • Using Friction

    • Warm Water

    • Drying Hands Thoroughly

    • Shaking water off your hands

    Correct Answer
    A. Using Friction
    Explanation
    Using friction is the part of the hand washing procedure that removes the most germs. Friction helps to physically dislodge and remove dirt, bacteria, and viruses from the hands. By vigorously rubbing the hands together, especially focusing on the areas between the fingers and around the nails, friction helps to break down the biofilm that can harbor germs. It also helps to create a lather with soap, which further aids in the removal of germs. Therefore, using friction is an essential step in effective hand hygiene.

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  • 47. 

    The Most Accurate Route for Temperature is _________?

    • Tympanic

    • Rectal

    • Oral

    • Axillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectal
    Explanation
    Rectal temperature measurement is considered the most accurate route for obtaining body temperature. This is because the rectum is close to the core of the body, providing a more accurate reflection of internal temperature. Tympanic (ear) temperature measurements can be influenced by external factors such as earwax or ear infections. Oral temperature measurements can be affected by drinking, eating, or breathing through the mouth. Axillary (armpit) temperature measurements are less accurate as they can be influenced by external temperature and clothing. Therefore, rectal temperature measurement is the most reliable method for accurately determining body temperature.

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  • 48. 

    Residents Advocate is also known as an _________ .

    Correct Answer
    Ombudsman
    Explanation
    An Ombudsman is a person who acts as a neutral third party to investigate and resolve complaints or disputes between individuals and organizations. They are responsible for ensuring that the rights and interests of residents are protected and that any issues or concerns they have are addressed fairly. Therefore, the term "Ombudsman" is synonymous with a Residents Advocate, as both roles involve advocating for the rights and well-being of residents.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is required to mantain a nursing assistant certificate in Florida?

    • Work at least 7 hrs. for pay, every 2 years providing direct patient care

    • Complete 12 in-service hours each year

    • Provide Change of address notification to Board of Nursing

    • All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the Above
    Explanation
    To maintain a nursing assistant certificate in Florida, it is necessary to fulfill all of the mentioned requirements. This includes working at least 7 hours for pay every 2 years, providing direct patient care, completing 12 in-service hours each year, and notifying the Board of Nursing about any change of address. These requirements ensure that nursing assistants stay updated and engaged in their profession, maintain their skills, and keep the board informed about their contact information for effective communication.

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  • Oct 17, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Oct 20, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Myzeria904
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