CDC 3d1x5x Vol. 1

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Cyber Support Journeyman. (All URE Questions)
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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    (001) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 362201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)?

    • A.

      Core task.

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    D. Duty position task
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Duty position task." According to AFI 36-2201, the duty position task is assigned by the supervisor to enlisted personnel. This task refers to the specific responsibilities and duties that are associated with a particular position within the military. It is important for supervisors to assign duty position tasks in order to ensure that enlisted personnel are aware of and trained in the specific tasks required for their assigned positions.

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  • 2. 

    Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?

    • A.

      Core task

    • B.

      Duty competency

    • C.

      Core competency

    • D.

      Duty position task

    Correct Answer
    C. Core competency
    Explanation
    A core competency is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field. It represents the essential skills and expertise that individuals in a specific field must possess in order to perform their job effectively. Core competencies are the foundation of a career field and are required for successful performance in that field.

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  • 3. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    D. Cyber Systems Operations
    Explanation
    Cyber Systems Operations is the correct answer because this Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses on the administration of servers and server farms across Air Force installations worldwide. This specialty is responsible for managing and maintaining the server infrastructure, ensuring its availability, security, and performance. They handle tasks such as server configuration, software installation, troubleshooting, and monitoring. Their role is crucial in ensuring the smooth operation of server systems, which are vital for various Air Force operations and communication networks.

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  • 4. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and “hands-on” maintenance actions?

    • A.

      Cyber Surety

    • B.

      Client Systems

    • C.

      Cyber Transport

    • D.

      Cyber Systems Operations

    Correct Answer
    B. Client Systems
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Client Systems. Client Systems AFS responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions. This means that individuals in this specialty are responsible for providing technical support to users on the base, assisting with any issues they may have with their computer systems, and performing maintenance tasks on the client systems.

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  • 5. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    D. Radio Frequency Transmission
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. They work with RF technology to ensure proper communication and transmission of signals.

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  • 6. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    B. Ground Radar Systems
    Explanation
    Ground Radar Systems is the correct answer because this specialty involves the installation, maintenance, and repair of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems. This includes ensuring that the radar systems are functioning properly and accurately detecting and tracking aircraft, as well as troubleshooting and resolving any issues that may arise. Ground Radar Systems specialists play a critical role in ensuring the safety and efficiency of air traffic control operations.

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  • 7. 

    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

    • A.

      Spectrum Operations

    • B.

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C.

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D.

      Radio Frequency Transmission

    Correct Answer
    C. Cable and Antenna Systems
    Explanation
    Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this specialty is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring, which is crucial for supporting both fixed and deployed operations. This includes ensuring that the cables and antennas are properly installed and functioning to facilitate effective communication and data transmission within the Air Force's network infrastructure.

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  • 8. 

    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals within the career field, ensuring that they have the necessary resources and opportunities for career development and advancement. The AFCFM plays a crucial role in shaping the career paths and opportunities for individuals within the Air Force career field, making them the go-to person for any career-related matters.

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  • 9. 

    Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This individual has the ultimate decision-making power and can grant exemptions or waivers based on various factors and circumstances. The AFCFM is responsible for overseeing and managing the career field and has the expertise and knowledge to make informed decisions regarding training requirements.

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  • 10. 

    Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    C. Major command functional manager (MFM).
    Explanation
    The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of the specialty knowledge test (SKT) and career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the functional needs and requirements of a specific major command within the Air Force. They have the knowledge and expertise to identify individuals who possess the necessary skills and knowledge to contribute to the development of the SKT and CDC.

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  • 11. 

    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

    • A.

      Unit training manger (UTM).

    • B.

      Base functional manager (BFM).

    • C.

      Major command functional manager (MFM).

    • D.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    Correct Answer
    B. Base functional manager (BFM).
    Explanation
    The title normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO) is Base functional manager (BFM).

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  • 12. 

    What is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

    • A.

      Modify training

    • B.

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • C.

      Conduct climate training surveys

    • D.

      Review the occupational analysis report

    Correct Answer
    B. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
    Explanation
    The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan for the education and training of individuals in a specific career field. The CFETP will outline the necessary training programs, courses, and resources needed to develop the skills and knowledge required for success in that career field. By establishing a CFETP, organizations can ensure that their workforce is properly trained and equipped to perform their job duties effectively.

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  • 13. 

    Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on “Material Handling and Storage Equipment?”

    • A.

      AFOSH 91–46

    • B.

      AFOSH 91–50

    • C.

      AFOSH 91–64

    • D.

      AFOSH 91–68

    Correct Answer
    A. AFOSH 91–46
    Explanation
    AFOSH 91-46 is the correct answer because this standard specifically addresses safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment." The other options, AFOSH 91-50, AFOSH 91-64, and AFOSH 91-68, do not pertain to this topic.

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  • 14. 

    Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on “Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?”

    • A.

      AFOSH 91–46

    • B.

      AFOSH 91–50

    • C.

      AFOSH 91–64

    • D.

      AFOSH 91–68

    Correct Answer
    B. AFOSH 91–50
    Explanation
    AFOSH 91-50 is the correct answer because it covers safety information specifically related to "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems." This document would provide the necessary guidelines and standards for ensuring the safety of personnel working with these systems in the Air Force.

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  • 15. 

    The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard

    • A.

      AFOSH 91–46

    • B.

      AFOSH 91–50

    • C.

      AFOSH 91–64

    • D.

      AFOSH 91–68

    Correct Answer
    C. AFOSH 91–64
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFOSH 91–64. This standard specifically pertains to the safety and health requirements for data processing facilities in the Air Force. It provides guidelines and regulations to ensure the proper safety measures are in place to protect personnel and equipment in these facilities.

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  • 16. 

    From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?

    • A.

      Sunlight

    • B.

      Microwaves

    • C.

      Ionizing radiation

    • D.

      Nonionizing radiation

    Correct Answer
    D. Nonionizing radiation
    Explanation
    Nonionizing radiation refers to a type of radiation that does not have enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms or molecules, thus not causing ionization. Unlike ionizing radiation, which can cause severe damage to deep tissue and organs, nonionizing radiation does not have enough energy to penetrate deeply into the body and cause harm. This explains why a person can selectively absorb damaging amounts of radiation from nonionizing sources without experiencing any sensation of skin heating.

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  • 17. 

    Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Accept no unnecessary risk
    Explanation
    The principle "Accept no unnecessary risk" states that the most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk. This means that any risks taken should be necessary for the mission and not excessive or avoidable. The principle emphasizes the importance of minimizing risk to the extent possible while still achieving the mission's objectives.

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  • 18. 

    Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    C. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
    Explanation
    This principle of occupational risk management (ORM) suggests that it is acceptable to take on risk if the benefits of doing so outweigh the costs. In other words, when the potential gains or advantages of a particular action or decision outweigh the potential negative consequences or drawbacks, it may be deemed acceptable to proceed despite the inherent risks involved. This principle emphasizes the need to carefully evaluate and balance the potential risks and rewards in order to maximize the overall capability and effectiveness of the unit.

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  • 19. 

    Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?

    • A.

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B.

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

    • C.

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs

    • D.

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels

    Correct Answer
    D. Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels
    Explanation
    Integrating ORM into operations and planning at all levels means that risk assessments are conducted as a normal part of the mission process, rather than being treated as an additional step. This principle emphasizes the importance of considering and managing risks throughout all stages of a mission, ensuring that risk assessment becomes ingrained in the decision-making process. By integrating ORM into operations and planning, organizations can proactively identify and address potential risks, leading to safer and more efficient mission execution.

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  • 20. 

    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by

    • A.

      Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems

    • B.

      Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data

    • C.

      Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace

    • D.

      Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domain so we can document the country they’re from

    Correct Answer
    C. Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary’s ability to use cyberspace
    Explanation
    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. This means that the objective is to hinder or prevent the adversary from effectively utilizing cyberspace for their own purposes. By doing so, the United States aims to gain an advantage in cyberspace and protect its own sensitive data and systems from potential threats and attacks.

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  • 21. 

    Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?

    • A.

      Joint Operability network

    • B.

      Tactical data links network

    • C.

      Strategic data control network

    • D.

      Supervisory control and data acquisition

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisory control and data acquisition
    Explanation
    Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites or complexes spread out over large areas. SCADA systems are commonly used in industries such as energy, water, and transportation to gather and analyze real-time data, control processes, and perform remote operations. These systems provide a centralized platform for monitoring and controlling various devices, sensors, and equipment, allowing operators to efficiently manage and optimize industrial operations.

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  • 22. 

    Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
    Explanation
    The Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC) is the correct answer because it is the center that serves as the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. It is responsible for monitoring and managing the Air Force's network infrastructure, ensuring its availability, integrity, and security. The AFNOC coordinates network operations, provides technical support, and implements security measures to protect against cyber threats. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the functionality and security of Air Force networks.

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  • 23. 

    Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?

    • A.

      Area Processing Center (APC).

    • B.

      Network Control Center (NCC).

    • C.

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC).

    • D.

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Network Control Center (NCC).
    Explanation
    The Network Control Center (NCC) is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, providing Tier 3 on-site support and implementing technical and physical network changes. The NCC is responsible for managing and maintaining the local level network operations, ensuring its functionality and security. They handle troubleshooting, network configuration, and monitoring of network performance. The NCC plays a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and connectivity within the base.

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  • 24. 

    Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    C. Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)
    Explanation
    The Combat Communications Squadron (CCS) is the correct answer because their mission varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages. This implies that they are responsible for both portable communication solutions and larger, more permanent communication setups for expeditionary operations. The other options, such as the Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), Enterprise Service Desk (ESD), and Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS), do not explicitly mention this range of capabilities in their mission statements.

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  • 25. 

    Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    D. Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)
    Explanation
    The Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS) was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF). This organization is responsible for providing communication support and services to the AETF during deployments and operations. They ensure that the AETF has reliable and secure communication capabilities to effectively carry out their missions.

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  • 26. 

    Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?

    • A.

      Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)

    • B.

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C.

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D.

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
    Explanation
    The Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) is the correct answer for this question because it is responsible for managing AF core services within the AFNetOps community. The ESU's goal is to reduce training and maintenance costs while increasing operational flexibility and capacity for the warfighter. This means that the ESU focuses on optimizing the efficiency and effectiveness of essential services, ensuring that they are readily available and meeting the needs of the warfighter while also minimizing costs and resource requirements.

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  • 27. 

    Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    A. Constitution
    Explanation
    The Constitution is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States. It is the supreme law of the land and outlines the structure of the government, the powers and limitations of each branch, and the rights and freedoms of the people. It provides a framework for creating laws and ensures that they are in line with the principles and values of the nation. The Constitution is the foundation of the legal system in the United States and serves as a guide for lawmakers and judges in interpreting and applying laws.

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  • 28. 

    Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      United States Title Code 10

    • D.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    Correct Answer
    C. United States Title Code 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is United States Title Code 10. United States Title Code 10 is a federal law that outlines the role and structure of the Department of Defense (DOD) and its subordinate agencies, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. It authorizes the creation of the DOD as the executive component of government and establishes the framework for the organization and operation of the military branches. The Constitution and the Bill of Rights are foundational documents that outline the structure and principles of the United States government, but they do not specifically authorize the creation of the DOD or its subordinate agencies. The Uniform Code of Military Justice is a separate law that governs the conduct of military personnel.

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  • 29. 

    Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?

    • A.

      Constitution

    • B.

      Bill of Rights

    • C.

      Uniform Code of Military Justice

    • D.

      United States Title Code 10

    Correct Answer
    C. Uniform Code of Military Justice
    Explanation
    The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breaches in binding instruction and law. The UCMJ is a federal law that outlines the military justice system and provides a set of regulations and procedures for the discipline and conduct of members of the armed forces. It covers a wide range of offenses and violations, ensuring that military personnel are held accountable for their actions and maintaining discipline within the military.

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  • 30. 

    In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    B. 1995
    Explanation
    In 1995, the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD. This suggests that it was in this year that the two entities finalized and shared their initial versions of joint and Armed Services doctrine within the Department of Defense.

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  • 31. 

    In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine

    • A.

      1994

    • B.

      1995

    • C.

      1997

    • D.

      1998

    Correct Answer
    D. 1998
    Explanation
    The Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in 1998.

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  • 32. 

    Which publication type are directive policy statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, governs, or regulates actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?

    • A.

      Air Force Doctrines

    • B.

      Air Force Pamphlets

    • C.

      Air Force Instructions

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Force Policy Directives
    Explanation
    Air Force Policy Directives are the correct answer because they are directive policy statements issued by the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF. These directives are used to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct within their specified areas of responsibility. They serve as official guidance and provide instructions for Air Force personnel on how to carry out specific policies and procedures.

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  • 33. 

    Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents

    • A.

      Air Force Pamphlets

    • B.

      Air Force Instructions

    • C.

      Air Force Publications

    • D.

      Air Force Policy Directives

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Pamphlets
    Explanation
    Air Force Pamphlets are the correct answer because they are informational publications that provide guidance on "how to" do something. Pamphlets are typically shorter and more concise than other types of publications, making them suitable for providing step-by-step instructions or practical advice. Air Force Instructions, Air Force Publications, and Air Force Policy Directives may contain information and guidance, but they are not specifically categorized as "how to" documents like Air Force Pamphlets.

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  • 34. 

    What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?

    • A.

      Broadcasts

    • B.

      Transmissions

    • C.

      Telecommunications

    • D.

      Voice over Internet Protocol

    Correct Answer
    C. Telecommunications
    Explanation
    Telecommunications refers to the technology and systems used to transmit information over long distances. It encompasses both analog and digital transmission methods, allowing for the conveyance of data over significant geographical distances. This includes various forms of communication such as telephone networks, internet connections, and wireless communication systems. Telecommunications is essential for enabling long-distance communication and facilitating the transmission of both analog and digital bits of information.

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  • 35. 

    What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location

    • A.

      MyPay

    • B.

      E-publishing

    • C.

      Air Force Portal

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is the correct answer because it is a tool that provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. It serves as a centralized platform where Air Force personnel can access important information, documents, and services, making it a valuable resource for the Air Force community.

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  • 36. 

    What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces

    • A.

      MyPay

    • B.

      E-publishing

    • C.

      Air Force Portal

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force Portal
    Explanation
    The Air Force Portal is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces. This suggests that the Air Force Portal plays a crucial role in facilitating the use of technology and information within the Air Force. It serves as a central hub for accessing various resources, applications, and services, allowing personnel to efficiently carry out their tasks and collaborate with others.

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  • 37. 

    Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on

    • C.

      Community of practice

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    B. Single-sign-on
    Explanation
    Single-sign-on is a feature in the Air Force Portal that allows authorized users to enter their passwords once and gain access to all applications without the need for further log-in requirements. This feature enhances convenience and efficiency by eliminating the need to remember multiple passwords for different applications. Users can seamlessly navigate through various applications within the portal without the hassle of repeated log-ins, saving time and effort.

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  • 38. 

    Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on

    • C.

      Community of practice

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    D. Virtual Military Personnel Flight
    Explanation
    The virtual Military Personnel Flight is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal because it allows Air Force personnel to access and manage their personnel records and information online. This feature eliminates the need for individuals to physically visit a Military Personnel Flight office, saving time and reducing administrative burden. It provides a convenient and efficient way for personnel to handle tasks such as updating personal information, submitting leave requests, and accessing important documents and forms.

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  • 39. 

    Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems

    • A.

      My base

    • B.

      Single-sign-on

    • C.

      Community of practice

    • D.

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight

    Correct Answer
    C. Community of practice
    Explanation
    A community of practice is a feature in the Air Force Portal that provides a secure, web-based collaborative environment for a specific task or topic. It allows members of a group to share information and tools, enabling them to conduct business, manage projects, and solve group problems together. This feature promotes collaboration and knowledge sharing among members, enhancing their ability to work together effectively.

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  • 40. 

    Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use

    • A.

      AFI 33-118

    • B.

      AFI 33-119

    • C.

      AFI 33-127

    • D.

      AFI 33-129

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 33-129
  • 41. 

    Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites

    • A.

      AFI 33-127

    • B.

      AFI 33-129

    • C.

      AFI 35-101

    • D.

      AFI 35-108

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 35-101
    Explanation
    AFI 35-101 is the correct document to reference prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page. This document provides guidance and procedures for compliance with local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet and public websites. It outlines the necessary steps and requirements to ensure that the content meets the necessary standards and regulations set by the Air Force.

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  • 42. 

    When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette

    • A.

      Keep emails brief and to the point

    • B.

      Read your email out loud to yourself

    • C.

      Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature

    • D.

      Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message

    Correct Answer
    C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature
    Explanation
    Consistently using the "Reply-to-All" feature would not follow proper email etiquette. This feature should only be used when it is necessary for everyone in the email thread to receive the response. Using "Reply-to-All" unnecessarily can clutter inboxes and create confusion, especially if the email thread involves a large number of recipients. It is important to consider whether all recipients need to be included in the response or if a direct reply to the sender or a select few would be more appropriate.

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  • 43. 

    Which document is not considered an official government record

    • A.

      Published doctrines

    • B.

      Geographical base maps

    • C.

      Photographs of a retreat ceremony

    • D.

      Library reference or museum exhibitions

    Correct Answer
    D. Library reference or museum exhibitions
    Explanation
    Library reference or museum exhibitions are not considered official government records because they are not created or maintained by government agencies for official purposes. They are instead sources of information or displays curated by libraries or museums for educational or entertainment purposes. While they may contain valuable information, they do not hold the same legal or administrative significance as official government records.

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  • 44. 

    Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • A.

      Can be altered and are not officially released

    • B.

      Can’t be altered, but are officially released

    • C.

      Can’t be altered and are officially signed

    • D.

      Officially signed and officially released

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that these records are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released to the public or other authorized individuals. As they are not yet finalized, they can be modified or edited as necessary. However, once they are officially released, they become official and cannot be altered.

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  • 45. 

    Records that are considered to be in draft format

    • A.

      Can be altered and are not officially released

    • B.

      Can’t be altered, but are officially released

    • C.

      Can’t be altered and are officially signed

    • D.

      Officially signed and officially released

    Correct Answer
    A. Can be altered and are not officially released
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in draft format can be altered and are not officially released. This means that they are still in the process of being finalized and may undergo changes before they are officially released. As they are not officially released, they may not be considered as the final version and can be modified or edited.

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  • 46. 

    Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic

    • A.

      Officially signed and not released

    • B.

      Officially signed and officially released

    • C.

      Can be altered and are not officially released

    • D.

      Can’t be altered, but are not officially released

    Correct Answer
    B. Officially signed and officially released
    Explanation
    Records that are considered to be in final format are officially signed and officially released. This means that they have gone through the necessary approvals and have been authorized by the relevant authority. Being officially signed ensures that the records have been verified and authenticated, while being officially released means that they are made available to the intended audience or users. This ensures the integrity and reliability of the records, as they cannot be altered and are made accessible to those who need them.

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  • 47. 

    Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    C. Command records manager
    Explanation
    The command records manager is responsible for establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers. This role is specifically tasked with ensuring that base records managers are properly trained and equipped to handle their duties and responsibilities in managing records within their respective commands. They are responsible for developing and implementing training initiatives to ensure that base records managers have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively carry out their roles and contribute to the overall management of records within the organization.

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  • 48. 

    Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    A. Base records manager
    Explanation
    The duties mentioned in the question, such as providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training, are typically performed by a Base records manager. This individual is responsible for managing and organizing records at a specific base or location. They provide support to other staff members, oversee the organization of staging areas, and ensure that proper training is provided for records management.

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  • 49. 

    Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    D. Functional area records manager
    Explanation
    The functional area records manager is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization, or contractor to perform records management. This individual is responsible for managing and maintaining records within their specific functional area, ensuring compliance with regulations and policies regarding recordkeeping. They work closely with other records managers and staff to ensure the proper organization, storage, and retrieval of records, as well as the implementation of best practices for records management.

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  • 50. 

    Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?

    • A.

      Base records manager

    • B.

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C.

      Command records manager

    • D.

      Functional area records manager

    Correct Answer
    B. Chief of Office of Records
    Explanation
    The Chief of Office of Records has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of records within the office, including the appointment of custodians who are responsible for the day-to-day handling and storage of records.

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