3D156 CDC Vol. 3
Questions and Answers
- 1.
(401) What facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?
- A.
The earth electrode subsystem.
- B.
The fault protection subsystem.
- C.
The signal reference subsystem.
- D.
The lightning protection subsystem.
Correct Answer
D. The lightning protection subsystem.Explanation
The lightning protection subsystem uses surge arrestors to protect against voltage surges caused by lightning strikes. Surge arrestors are devices that divert excess electrical energy to the ground, preventing it from damaging sensitive equipment or causing electrical fires. This subsystem is specifically designed to protect the facility from lightning-induced power surges, ensuring the safety and functionality of the electrical system.Rate this question:
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- 2.
(401) What facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?
- A.
The earth electrode subsystem.
- B.
The fault protection subsystem.
- C.
The signal reference subsystem.
- D.
The lightning protection subsystem.
Correct Answer
B. The fault protection subsystem.Explanation
The fault protection subsystem is also known as the safety ground because it is responsible for protecting against electrical faults and ensuring the safety of the facility. It helps to prevent electric shock, fires, and damage to equipment by providing a low-resistance path for electrical currents to flow to the ground. This subsystem is essential in maintaining a safe electrical environment and preventing potential hazards.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(402) What term is used for the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?
- A.
Bonding.
- B.
Shielding.
- C.
Annealing.
- D.
Grounding.
Correct Answer
A. Bonding.Explanation
Bonding is the term used for the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces. This process ensures a strong connection between the surfaces, allowing for the efficient flow of electrical current and preventing the buildup of static electricity. Bonding is commonly used in various industries, including electronics, telecommunications, and construction, to ensure safety and proper functioning of equipment and structures. Shielding, annealing, and grounding are related concepts but refer to different processes or purposes, making them incorrect answers in this context.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(402) Bonds in the earth electrode subsystem normally are direct permanent bonds and do not exceed a resistance of
- A.
1 milliohm.
- B.
2 milliohms.
- C.
5 milliohms.
- D.
10 milliohms.
Correct Answer
A. 1 milliohm.Explanation
The bonds in the earth electrode subsystem are direct permanent bonds, which means they are designed to provide a low resistance path for electrical current. The resistance of these bonds should not exceed 1 milliohm, ensuring efficient grounding and minimizing electrical hazards.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(402) What bonds are normally applied to signal reference bonds?
- A.
None.
- B.
Brazing.
- C.
Welding.
- D.
Mechanical.
Correct Answer
D. Mechanical.Explanation
Mechanical bonds are normally applied to signal reference bonds. This means that the bonds are created through physical means, such as clamping or fastening, rather than through any chemical or thermal processes like brazing or welding. The use of mechanical bonds ensures a secure and reliable connection between the signal reference bonds, which is essential for proper signal transmission and accuracy.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(403) What are two basic functions of shielding?
- A.
Prevent interference between multiple emanating systems and minimize compromising emanations.
- B.
Prevent interference between multiple emanating systems and block all emanations from exiting a secure facility.
- C.
To equalize all electronic systems to the same potential and minimize compromising emanations.
- D.
To equalize all electronic systems to the same potential and block all emanations from exiting a secure facility.
Correct Answer
A. Prevent interference between multiple emanating systems and minimize compromising emanations.Explanation
The two basic functions of shielding are to prevent interference between multiple emanating systems and to minimize compromising emanations. Shielding acts as a barrier that blocks or absorbs electromagnetic waves, preventing them from interfering with other systems and reducing the risk of compromising sensitive information.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(404) The thin plastic colored tape spirals around a specific number of pairs that replicate in a cable is a
- A.
Marker.
- B.
Bundle.
- C.
Casing.
- D.
Binder.
Correct Answer
D. Binder.Explanation
The given statement describes the thin plastic colored tape spiraling around a specific number of pairs in a cable, which suggests that it is used to bind or hold the pairs together. Therefore, the correct answer is binder.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(404) In telecommunications cable, the "tip" or "primary" color group order is
- A.
Blue, orange, green, brown, and slate.
- B.
Blue, green, yellow, red, and orange.
- C.
White, red, black, yellow, and violet.
- D.
White, blue, green, yellow, and violet.
Correct Answer
C. White, red, black, yellow, and violet.Explanation
The correct answer is white, red, black, yellow, and violet. In telecommunications cable, the "tip" or "primary" color group order is used to identify the individual wires within the cable. The order of the colors helps technicians easily distinguish and connect the wires correctly. The given answer follows the standard color coding for telecommunications cables.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(404) What is the "ring" or "secondary" color code for telecommunications cable?
- A.
Blue, orange, green, brown, and slate.
- B.
Blue, green, yellow, red, and orange.
- C.
White, red, black, yellow, and violet.
- D.
White, blue, green, yellow, and violet.
Correct Answer
A. Blue, orange, green, brown, and slate.Explanation
The correct answer is blue, orange, green, brown, and slate. This is the "ring" or "secondary" color code for telecommunications cable. Each color represents a specific function or purpose in the cable, allowing for easy identification and troubleshooting. Blue typically represents the first pair, orange represents the second pair, green represents the third pair, brown represents the fourth pair, and slate represents the fifth pair. This color code is widely used in the telecommunications industry to ensure consistency and standardization.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(404) In telecommunications cable, the binder color for pair count 26-50 is
- A.
Yellow-orange.
- B.
Violet-orange.
- C.
White-orange.
- D.
White-slate.
Correct Answer
C. White-orange.Explanation
In telecommunications cable, the binder color for pair count 26-50 is white-orange. This means that the wires within the cable that correspond to pairs 26-50 are bound together using a white-orange binder. This color coding system helps in identifying and organizing the different pairs within a cable, making it easier to install and troubleshoot the telecommunications network.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(404) Most newly installed network cables follow what standard?
- A.
N586B.
- B.
N568C.
- C.
T586C.
- D.
T568B.
Correct Answer
D. T568B.Explanation
The correct answer is T568B. This is a standard for network cables that specifies the arrangement of the wires within the cable. It is commonly used for Ethernet connections and ensures compatibility and proper functioning of the network.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(404) Two types of network cables are
- A.
Straight through and crossover.
- B.
Straight through and flip/flop.
- C.
High and low baud.
- D.
"n" and "g".
Correct Answer
A. Straight through and crossover.Explanation
The correct answer is straight through and crossover. Straight through cables are used to connect different types of devices, such as a computer to a switch or a router to a modem. The wiring of the cable is the same on both ends. On the other hand, crossover cables are used to connect similar devices, such as a computer to another computer or a switch to another switch. The wiring of the cable is crossed over, meaning that the transmit and receive lines are swapped on one end of the cable.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(405) How are Air Force communications quality control checksheet (AFCQCC) organized?
- A.
Alphabetically.
- B.
By unit type code.
- C.
By numbered and titled series designator groups.
- D.
By equipment short title and national stock class.
Correct Answer
C. By numbered and titled series designator groups.Explanation
The Air Force communications quality control checksheet (AFCQCC) is organized by numbered and titled series designator groups. This means that the checksheet is categorized and arranged based on a specific numbering and titling system, allowing for easier identification and location of information. This organization method ensures that the checksheet is structured in a logical and systematic manner, facilitating efficient communication quality control processes within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(405) Which is a function of Air Force Communications Special Instructions?
- A.
Permanently change technical order procedures.
- B.
Means to issue optional equipment modifications.
- C.
Provide significant system repair history for equipment transfers.
- D.
Paraphrases technical order procedures via quick reference index cards.
Correct Answer
B. Means to issue optional equipment modifications.Explanation
Air Force Communications Special Instructions serve as a means to issue optional equipment modifications. These instructions provide guidelines and procedures for making changes to the equipment used by the Air Force. By issuing these instructions, the Air Force can ensure that any modifications made to the equipment are done in a standardized and controlled manner, allowing for improved performance and functionality.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(406) How many parameters are associated with temperature/dewpoint measurement?
- A.
2.
- B.
3.
- C.
4.
- D.
5.
Correct Answer
C. 4.Explanation
There are four parameters associated with temperature/dewpoint measurement.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(406) What is the degree of accuracy and scale used to measure temperature/dewpoint readings?
- A.
Tenth, Celsius.
- B.
Tenth, Fahrenheit.
- C.
Hundredth, Celsius.
- D.
Hundredth, Fahrenheit.
Correct Answer
A. Tenth, Celsius.Explanation
The degree of accuracy and scale used to measure temperature/dewpoint readings is a tenth of a degree Celsius. This means that the measurements are precise to the nearest tenth of a degree Celsius.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(406) For stations utilizing Coordinated Universal Time, what are the standard time designations for observing maximum and minimum temperatures?
- A.
0000 and 1200.
- B.
0000, 0800, and 1600.
- C.
0000, 0600, 1200, and 1800.
- D.
0000, 0400, 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000.
Correct Answer
C. 0000, 0600, 1200, and 1800. -
- 18.
(407) Wind direction is determined by averaging the direction over how many minutes?
- A.
1.
- B.
2.
- C.
5.
- D.
10.
Correct Answer
B. 2.Explanation
Wind direction is determined by averaging the direction over 2 minutes. This means that meteorologists observe the direction of the wind for a period of 2 minutes and calculate the average direction during that time. This helps to provide a more accurate representation of the wind direction, as wind can often change direction frequently. By averaging the direction over a short period of time, meteorologists can better understand the overall wind patterns and make more informed weather predictions.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(407) How many degrees of direction change must occur to be classified as a wind shift?
- A.
10.
- B.
45.
- C.
90.
- D.
180.
Correct Answer
B. 45.Explanation
A wind shift refers to a change in the direction of the wind. In order to be classified as a wind shift, there must be a certain degree of direction change. The correct answer, 45 degrees, suggests that a wind shift occurs when there is a change in wind direction of 45 degrees or more. This means that the wind has shifted significantly from its previous direction, indicating a change in weather patterns or atmospheric conditions.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(408) The four visibility parameters are
- A.
Prevailing, sector, surface, and tower.
- B.
Approach, clearance, surface, and tower.
- C.
Approach, prevailing, surface, and tower.
- D.
Approach, clearance, prevailing, and surface.
Correct Answer
A. Prevailing, sector, surface, and tower.Explanation
The correct answer is "prevailing, sector, surface, and tower." These four parameters are used to determine the visibility conditions at an airport. The prevailing visibility refers to the horizontal distance that can be seen and is measured in statute miles. The sector visibility refers to the visibility within a specific sector of the airport, such as the approach or departure path. Surface visibility refers to the visibility conditions on the ground, while tower visibility refers to the visibility conditions from the control tower. These parameters are important for pilots and air traffic controllers to ensure safe operations at the airport.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(408) What standard must automated visibility sensor use?
- A.
International Standard Algorithms for Automated Weather Observing Systems Used for Aviation Purposes.
- B.
Federal Standard Algorithms for Automated Weather Observing Systems Used for Aviation Purposes.
- C.
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) Standard Weather Algorithms.
- D.
FAA Algorithms for Aviation Weather Observations.
Correct Answer
B. Federal Standard Algorithms for Automated Weather Observing Systems Used for Aviation Purposes.Explanation
Automated visibility sensors are used for aviation purposes to measure visibility conditions. In order to ensure consistency and accuracy, these sensors must adhere to a standard set of algorithms. The correct answer, "Federal Standard Algorithms for Automated Weather Observing Systems Used for Aviation Purposes," implies that there is a specific set of algorithms established by the federal government to govern the operation and calculations of these sensors. This standard ensures that the data collected by automated visibility sensors is reliable and can be used for aviation purposes.Rate this question:
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- 22.
(409) Altimeter setting refers to the altitude above mean sea level of an aircraft located where?
- A.
500' above the weather station.
- B.
1000' above the weather station.
- C.
Anywhere in the local flight pattern.
- D.
On the ground at the measurement location.
Correct Answer
D. On the ground at the measurement location.Explanation
The altimeter setting refers to the altitude above mean sea level of an aircraft, and it is measured on the ground at the location where the measurement is taken. This allows pilots to accurately determine their altitude above sea level during flight. The other options, such as being above the weather station or anywhere in the local flight pattern, do not accurately describe where the altimeter setting is measured.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(410) Cloud height is one part of a more complex forecasting fundamental called
- A.
Sky condition.
- B.
Visibility.
- C.
Structure.
- D.
Horizon.
Correct Answer
A. Sky condition.Explanation
Cloud height is one part of a more complex forecasting fundamental called sky condition. This means that when predicting the weather, it is important to consider the height of the clouds in the sky. Sky condition refers to the overall state of the sky, including the presence and type of clouds. By understanding the sky condition, forecasters can make more accurate predictions about the weather and its potential impact on visibility, structure, and the horizon. Therefore, sky condition is the correct answer in this context.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(410) What piece of meteorological equipment is used to measure cloud height?
- A.
Barometer.
- B.
Ceilometer.
- C.
Cloudometer.
- D.
Laser measure.
Correct Answer
B. Ceilometer.Explanation
A ceilometer is a piece of meteorological equipment specifically designed to measure cloud height. It uses laser or other optical technology to determine the distance between the instrument and the cloud base. This information is then used to calculate the height of the cloud layer. A barometer, on the other hand, is used to measure atmospheric pressure, not cloud height. Cloudometer and laser measure are not commonly used terms in meteorology and are not specifically designed for measuring cloud height.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(411) What four major subassemblies make up the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-19?
- A.
Sensors, field data collection unit (FDCU), terminal data acquisition unit (TDAU), and data multiplexer.
- B.
FDCU, remote control display unit (RC/DU), TDAU, and data multiplexer.
- C.
Sensors, FDCU, TDAU, and operator interface display (OID).
- D.
FDCU, data multiplexer, TDAU, and OIDs.
Correct Answer
C. Sensors, FDCU, TDAU, and operator interface display (OID).Explanation
The automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-19, is made up of four major subassemblies: sensors, field data collection unit (FDCU), terminal data acquisition unit (TDAU), and operator interface display (OID). These components work together to collect and process meteorological data. The sensors gather information from the environment, which is then transmitted to the FDCU. The FDCU collects and organizes the data before sending it to the TDAU. The TDAU further processes the data and displays it on the operator interface display (OID) for easy monitoring and analysis.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(411) The automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-19, does not measure which atmospheric element?
- A.
Wind speed and direction.
- B.
Precipitation identification.
- C.
Air temperature and moisture.
- D.
Air temperature and relative humidity.
Correct Answer
C. Air temperature and moisture.Explanation
The AN/FMQ-19 automated meteorological station is capable of measuring various atmospheric elements such as wind speed and direction, precipitation identification, and air temperature and relative humidity. However, it does not measure air temperature and moisture. This means that while it can provide information on the temperature and humidity of the air, it does not specifically measure the moisture content or the specific temperature of the air.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(411) What is the range of wind speeds that can be measured by the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-19, wind sensor?
- A.
0-130 miles per hour (mph).
- B.
0-100 mph.
- C.
10-130 mph.
- D.
10-100 mph.
Correct Answer
A. 0-130 miles per hour (mph).Explanation
The range of wind speeds that can be measured by the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-19, wind sensor is from 0 to 130 miles per hour (mph).Rate this question:
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- 28.
(411) What is the maximum number of cloud bases the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-019, ceilometer can detect?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
C. Three.Explanation
The automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-019, ceilometer can detect a maximum of three cloud bases. Ceilometers are instruments used to measure the height of cloud bases, and the AN/FMQ-019 model is specifically designed to detect multiple cloud layers. Therefore, it is capable of detecting up to three cloud bases.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(411) What is the purpose of the blower located in the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-19, relative humidity/air temperature sensor?
- A.
Stop snow from accumulating around trhe indicator probe.
- B.
Maintain a steady air temperature for accurate measurements.
- C.
Prevent damage to electronic components during extremely hot weather.
- D.
Provide fresh air to the dewpoint indicator probe for accurate measurement.
Correct Answer
D. Provide fresh air to the dewpoint indicator probe for accurate measurement.Explanation
The purpose of the blower located in the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-19, relative humidity/air temperature sensor is to provide fresh air to the dewpoint indicator probe for accurate measurement. This is necessary because the dewpoint indicator probe requires a constant flow of fresh air to accurately measure the dewpoint. The blower ensures that the air around the probe is constantly refreshed, allowing for precise measurements to be taken.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(411) How do the three barometer outputs provide barometric pressure data in the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-19?
- A.
The output with the highest value is used to determine station pressure.
- B.
The output with the lowest value is used to determine station pressure.
- C.
The three barometer output values are averaged in order to determine station pressure.
- D.
The three output values are added together in order to determine station pressure.
Correct Answer
C. The three barometer output values are averaged in order to determine station pressure.Explanation
The correct answer is that the three barometer output values are averaged in order to determine station pressure. This means that the values from all three barometers are combined and divided by three to calculate the average pressure. This method helps to ensure accuracy by taking into account variations between the three barometers and providing a more reliable measurement of station pressure.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(411) In the automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-19, which sensor group normally contains a complete set of sensors?
- A.
Primary sensor group.
- B.
Midfield sensor group.
- C.
Secondary sensor group.
- D.
Mid-infrared pathogen sensor group.
Correct Answer
A. Primary sensor group.Explanation
In the automated meteorological station, the primary sensor group normally contains a complete set of sensors. This group is responsible for measuring and monitoring essential meteorological parameters such as temperature, humidity, pressure, wind speed, and wind direction. These sensors provide crucial data for accurate weather forecasting and analysis. The midfield sensor group, secondary sensor group, and mid-infrared pathogen sensor group are not specifically related to meteorological measurements and may focus on different types of sensors or data collection.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(411) An automated meteorological station, AN/FMQ-19, midfield sensor group is installed when an airfield location must meet
- A.
Category I criteria.
- B.
Category II criteria.
- C.
Category III criteria.
- D.
Category IV criteria.
Correct Answer
B. Category II criteria.Explanation
The AN/FMQ-19 midfield sensor group is installed when an airfield location must meet Category II criteria. This suggests that the sensor group is specifically designed to meet the requirements and standards for Category II operations, which involve lower visibility and higher approach minimums compared to Category I operations. The installation of this sensor group indicates that the airfield is equipped to handle aircraft operations in more challenging weather conditions.Rate this question:
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- 33.
(412) A typical enhanced terminal voice switch air traffic control (ATC) tower console is made up of how many operator positions?
- A.
Three.
- B.
Four.
- C.
Five.
- D.
Six.
Correct Answer
C. Five.Explanation
A typical enhanced terminal voice switch air traffic control (ATC) tower console is made up of five operator positions. This means that there are five workstations or stations where air traffic controllers can operate and communicate with pilots. Each position is equipped with the necessary tools and technology to efficiently manage and control air traffic in the terminal area.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(412) Which communication console operator position is ultimately responsible for everything that happens in the air traffic control (ATC) tower?
- A.
Local supervisor position.
- B.
Watch supervisor position.
- C.
Ground supervisor position.
- D.
Supervisor of flying position.
Correct Answer
B. Watch supervisor position.Explanation
The watch supervisor position is ultimately responsible for everything that happens in the air traffic control (ATC) tower. They oversee and coordinate the activities of all other console operators, ensuring the smooth and safe operation of air traffic control. They are responsible for maintaining situational awareness, making critical decisions, and resolving any issues or emergencies that may arise. This position plays a vital role in ensuring the efficient and effective functioning of the ATC tower.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(412) Where is the enhanced terminal voice switch maintenance position located?
- A.
In the bottom floor of the air traffic control (ATC) tower.
- B.
In the central equipment racks.
- C.
At the transmit/receive site.
- D.
In the ATC tower cab.
Correct Answer
B. In the central equipment racks.Explanation
The enhanced terminal voice switch maintenance position is located in the central equipment racks.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(412) What capabilities can be provided at the enhanced terminal voice switch maintenance position?
- A.
System monitor capability only.
- B.
The same as at any operator position.
- C.
All functions accept operator position monitor.
- D.
All functions accept active tower-to-aircraft channels.
Correct Answer
B. The same as at any operator position.Explanation
The correct answer is "The same as at any operator position." This means that the enhanced terminal voice switch maintenance position has the same capabilities as any other operator position. It can perform all functions except for the operator position monitor and the active tower-to-aircraft channels.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(413) What piece of equipment is the primary means of communications control and interface between the operator and central equipment in the enhanced terminal voice switch?
- A.
Operator communications unit.
- B.
Tower electronic device.
- C.
Operator control unit.
- D.
Touch entry display.
Correct Answer
D. Touch entry display.Explanation
The primary means of communications control and interface between the operator and central equipment in the enhanced terminal voice switch is the touch entry display. This device allows the operator to input commands and control the communication system through a touch screen interface. It provides a user-friendly and efficient way for the operator to interact with the central equipment and manage communications effectively.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(413) The touch entry display of the enhanced terminal voice switch in broken into sections called
- A.
Grids.
- B.
Pages.
- C.
Columns.
- D.
Specials.
Correct Answer
B. Pages.Explanation
The touch entry display of the enhanced terminal voice switch is divided into sections called "pages". Each page represents a different set of options or functions that can be accessed by the user. This division allows for easier navigation and organization of the terminal's features.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(413) What operating system does the supervisor configuration terminal of the enhanced terminal voice switch use?
- A.
DOS.
- B.
Linxus.
- C.
Windows 98.
- D.
Windows XP.
Correct Answer
A. DOS.Explanation
The correct answer is DOS. The supervisor configuration terminal of the enhanced terminal voice switch uses the DOS operating system. DOS, which stands for Disk Operating System, was one of the earliest operating systems used on personal computers. It provided a command-line interface for users to interact with the computer and perform various tasks. In this case, the supervisor configuration terminal uses DOS to manage and configure the enhanced terminal voice switch.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(413) Which enhanced terminal voice switch assembly is capable of changing system passwords and displaying system fault location?
- A.
Local position.
- B.
Flight data position.
- C.
Supervisory configuration terminal.
- D.
Configuration and control subsystem.
Correct Answer
C. Supervisory configuration terminal.Explanation
The supervisory configuration terminal is capable of changing system passwords and displaying system fault location. This terminal provides enhanced functionality for managing and configuring the terminal voice switch assembly. It allows for password changes to ensure system security and provides fault location information to assist in troubleshooting and maintenance. The other options, such as local position and flight data position, do not have the capability to perform these specific tasks. The configuration and control subsystem may have some control capabilities but may not have the same level of functionality as the supervisory configuration terminal.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(413) Redundancy is accomplished in the enhanced terminal voice switch radio subsystem by allowing how many radio processor cards to be associated with each frequency?
- A.
Four.
- B.
Three.
- C.
Two.
- D.
One.
Correct Answer
C. Two.Explanation
In the enhanced terminal voice switch radio subsystem, redundancy is achieved by allowing two radio processor cards to be associated with each frequency. This means that if one card fails, the other card can continue to handle the communication on that frequency, ensuring uninterrupted service. Having two cards provides a backup and increases the system's reliability.Rate this question:
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- 42.
(413) Which is not a component of the enhanced terminal voice switch telephone subsystem?
- A.
Ring generator.
- B.
Radio conferencers.
- C.
Digital subscriber line modems.
- D.
Timing multiplexer/cluster multiplexer units.
Correct Answer
C. Digital subscriber line modems.Explanation
The correct answer is digital subscriber line modems. The enhanced terminal voice switch telephone subsystem consists of various components that facilitate voice communication. These components include a ring generator, radio conferencers, and timing multiplexer/cluster multiplexer units. However, digital subscriber line modems are not part of this subsystem as they are primarily used for high-speed internet access rather than voice communication.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(413) Which enhanced terminal voice assembly is responsible for interfacing between the demarcation panel and radio processor cards?
- A.
Radio distribution panel.
- B.
Radio conferencer panel.
- C.
Supervisory configuration terminal.
- D.
Radio Subsystem configuration panel.
Correct Answer
A. Radio distribution panel.Explanation
The radio distribution panel is responsible for interfacing between the demarcation panel and radio processor cards. It allows for the distribution of radio signals to multiple radio processor cards, ensuring efficient communication between the demarcation panel and the radio subsystem. This panel plays a crucial role in managing and controlling the flow of voice signals within the terminal assembly.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(414) How many telephone lines are provided by each telephone processor in the enhanced terminal voice switch?
- A.
Four.
- B.
Three.
- C.
Two.
- D.
One.
Correct Answer
D. One.Explanation
Each telephone processor in the enhanced terminal voice switch provides only one telephone line.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(414) In the enhanced terminal voice switch during radio communications, in what form does microphone audio travel from the operator position to the central equipment?
- A.
Encrypted.
- B.
Digital.
- C.
Analog.
- D.
Cipher.
Correct Answer
B. Digital.Explanation
In the enhanced terminal voice switch during radio communications, the microphone audio travels from the operator position to the central equipment in digital form. This means that the audio signals are converted into a digital format, consisting of discrete binary values, before being transmitted. This allows for more efficient and reliable transmission of the audio signals, as digital signals are less susceptible to noise and interference compared to analog signals. Additionally, digital signals can be easily encrypted for secure communication.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(414) What communications service links the positions to the central equipment in the enhanced terminal voice switch?
- A.
Integrated services digital network.
- B.
Digital subscriber line.
- C.
Dial up connection.
- D.
Wireless fidelity.
Correct Answer
A. Integrated services digital network.Explanation
The correct answer is Integrated services digital network. Integrated services digital network (ISDN) is a communications service that links the positions to the central equipment in the enhanced terminal voice switch. ISDN allows for the transmission of voice, video, and data over digital lines, providing faster and more reliable communication compared to analog systems. It is commonly used in telecommunications networks to connect various devices and enable efficient communication between them.Rate this question:
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- 47.
(415) In the digital voice recording system (DVRS), what controls operation of the digital recording unit?
- A.
Touch entry display.
- B.
Supervisor configuration terminal.
- C.
DVRS workstation.
- D.
Gateway interface cards.
Correct Answer
C. DVRS workstation.Explanation
The DVRS workstation controls the operation of the digital recording unit in the digital voice recording system. This means that it is responsible for managing and overseeing the recording process, as well as any other functions and features of the system. The touch entry display, supervisor configuration terminal, and gateway interface cards may have their own roles and functions within the DVRS, but they do not specifically control the operation of the digital recording unit.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(416) In the digital voice recording system, how many channel hours can be recorded on a single digital audiotape?
- A.
100.
- B.
500.
- C.
750.
- D.
1,000.
Correct Answer
B. 500.Explanation
A single digital audiotape in the digital voice recording system can record up to 500 channel hours.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
(416) In the digital voice recording system, how many satellites need to be acquired by the global positioning system receiver for an accurate time stamp?
- A.
One.
- B.
Two.
- C.
Three.
- D.
Four.
Correct Answer
C. Three.Explanation
In order to obtain an accurate time stamp in a digital voice recording system, the global positioning system receiver needs to acquire signals from three satellites. This is because the receiver uses the signals from multiple satellites to triangulate its position and calculate the precise time. By receiving signals from three satellites, the receiver can accurately determine its location and synchronize its time with the global positioning system.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
(416) The alarm on the digital voice recording system alerts users when channels are
- A.
Inactive.
- B.
Shifting.
- C.
Off-key.
- D.
Active.
Correct Answer
A. Inactive.Explanation
The correct answer is "inactive" because the alarm on the digital voice recording system is designed to alert users when the channels are not being used or are idle. This helps users to be aware of any inactive channels and take necessary actions such as reassigning or reactivating them.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Mar 15, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 18, 2014Quiz Created by
Rale123
Only a few can pass this basic computer science quiz
Only a few can pass this basic computer science quiz
Computer Quiz: Choose The Correct Word To Complete Sentences
Computer Quiz: Choose The Correct Word To Complete Sentences
Want A Computer Related Job? Start By Taking This Quiz!
Want A Computer Related Job? Start By Taking This Quiz!
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