CDC 3C051 Vol 1-3 Combined Vre Test
-
(001) What is the first job the basic input output system (BIOS) does at start-up?
-
Run memory byte count.
-
Test for parity errors.
-
Load instructions to random access memory (RAM).
-
Run the power-on self-test.
-
Comprehensive test consisting of all 3 volumes of CDC 3C051 VRE questions.
(16).webp "CDC 3C051 Vol 1-3 Combined Vre Test - Quiz")
Quiz Preview
- 2.
(001) Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?
-
Read-only memory (ROM).
-
Basic input output system (BIOS).
-
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
-
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).Explanation
The correct answer is CMOS. CMOS is a type of semiconductor used in computer chips, including BIOS and EEPROM. CMOS is highly susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge (ESD) because it operates at low voltage levels and is sensitive to voltage spikes. ESD can cause permanent damage to the CMOS component, leading to malfunction or failure of the device. Therefore, it is important to handle CMOS components with proper ESD precautions to prevent damage.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
(001) Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed?
-
Read-only memory (ROM).
-
Basic input output system (BIOS).
-
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
-
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
A. Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).Explanation
The CMOS component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. This is because CMOS is responsible for storing the BIOS settings and other configuration data that need to be retained even when the computer is turned off. The lithium battery provides a constant power supply to the CMOS chip, ensuring that the settings are not lost.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
(001) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?
-
Read-only memory (ROM).
-
Basic input output system (BIOS).
-
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
-
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
A. Read-only memory (ROM).Explanation
ROM is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. It is a type of memory that is pre-programmed during manufacturing and cannot be altered or erased by normal computer operations. ROM is commonly used to store firmware, operating system instructions, and other permanent data that needs to be accessed quickly during the booting process. Unlike volatile memory such as RAM, ROM does not require constant power to maintain its data, making it a reliable and long-lasting storage solution.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
(001) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer’s startup instructions?
-
Cache
-
Basic input output system (BIOS).
-
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
-
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
A. Basic input output system (BIOS).Explanation
The correct answer is "Basic input output system (BIOS)." BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system, and providing a basic interface between the hardware and software of a computer system.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
(001) What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?
-
Cache
-
Basic input output system (BIOS).
-
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
-
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
A. CacheExplanation
Cache is a type of static RAM (SRAM) that is used in special applications in a CPU. Cache memory is a high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to access them quickly. By keeping this data closer to the CPU, cache memory helps to reduce the time it takes for the CPU to retrieve data from the main memory, improving overall system performance. Therefore, cache is the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
(001) On most modern computers, which has two or three levels of memory?
-
Cache
-
Double Data Random Access Memory (DDRAM).
-
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
-
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
A. CacheExplanation
On most modern computers, the correct answer is cache. Cache is a type of memory that is located closer to the CPU than main memory (RAM). It is used to store frequently accessed instructions and data, allowing for faster access and improving overall system performance. Having multiple levels of cache, typically L1, L2, and L3, allows for a hierarchy of storage with different speeds and capacities. This helps to optimize the transfer of data between the CPU and main memory, reducing latency and improving efficiency.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
(001) Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as
-
Polling.
-
Signaling.
-
Processing.
-
Multitasking.
Correct Answer
A. Polling.Explanation
Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as polling. Polling involves the client program regularly checking the status of the external device to determine if any changes or updates have occurred. This method allows the client program to actively monitor the device and respond accordingly based on its status. Signaling, processing, and multitasking are not accurate descriptions for actively sampling the status of an external device.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
(002) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?
-
Cache.
-
Buffer.
-
Interface.
-
Interrupt.
Correct Answer
A. Interrupt.Explanation
An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device to the CPU indicating that it requires attention. It can be asynchronous, meaning it can occur at any time, or synchronous, meaning it occurs at specific intervals or events. The interrupt allows the CPU to pause its current task and handle the request from the hardware device, ensuring efficient communication and coordination between the CPU and the device.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
(002) What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?
-
2
-
4
-
6
-
8
Correct Answer
A. 6Explanation
IRQ line 6 is normally used for the floppy disk controller. The IRQ lines are used by devices to request the attention of the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line, and in the case of the floppy disk controller, it is typically assigned to IRQ line 6. This allows the controller to interrupt the CPU when it needs to transfer data to or from the floppy disk.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
(002) Which term describes that data is whole or complete? a. Driver. b. Parity bit. c. Data integrity. d. Error correction.
-
Driver.
-
Parity bit.
-
Data integrity
-
Error correction.
Correct Answer
A. Data integrityExplanation
Data integrity refers to the accuracy and consistency of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that the data is complete, whole, and free from any errors or inconsistencies. Therefore, data integrity is the term that describes that data is whole or complete.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
(002) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?
-
Asynchronous.
-
Parity bit.
-
Interrupt.
-
Fault.
Correct Answer
A. Parity bit.Explanation
A parity bit is a technique used to check the integrity of data. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to make the total number of 1s either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the data can be detected. If the number of 1s in the data does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission or storage. Therefore, the parity bit is considered a technique or method of checking data integrity.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
(002) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?
-
Asynchronous.
-
Parity bit.
-
Interrupt.
-
Data integrity.
Correct Answer
A. Parity bit.Explanation
A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in computer systems. It involves adding an extra bit to a set of binary data to ensure that the total number of ones in the data is either even (even parity) or odd (odd parity). When the data is received, the parity bit is checked to see if the number of ones is consistent with the chosen parity. If not, an error is detected. This makes the parity bit a very simple and effective way to detect errors in data transmission.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
(002) What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?
-
Read-only memory (ROM).
-
Basic input output system (BIOS).
-
Complementary metal-oxide semiconductor (CMOS).
-
Electrically erasable programmable read-only memory (EEPROM).
Correct Answer
A. Basic input output system (BIOS).Explanation
The correct answer is BIOS. The BIOS is responsible for initializing communication with all hardware devices during the boot process. It also performs a power-on self-test (POST) to check if all hardware components are functioning properly. If a keyboard or mouse is not found, the BIOS will send an error message to the user.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
(002) Which is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices?
-
Basic input output system (BIOS).
-
Driver.
-
Parity.
-
Interrupt.
Correct Answer
A. Driver.Explanation
A driver is a small, low-level program used by the computer operating system to interact with hardware devices. It acts as a translator between the operating system and the hardware, allowing the operating system to send commands and receive data from the hardware. The driver ensures that the hardware devices are properly recognized and utilized by the operating system, enabling efficient communication and functionality.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
(003) What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?
-
Voltage
-
Amperage.
-
Conductivity.
-
Electrostatic discharge.
Correct Answer
A. Electrostatic discharge.Explanation
Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs when there is a difference in electrical potentials between two objects. This discharge can happen when there is a buildup of static electricity on one object and it is discharged to another object with a lower electrical potential. It is commonly experienced as a static shock when touching a metal object after walking on a carpeted floor.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
(003) Static electricity remains intact until it is
-
Absorbed.
-
Dissolved.
-
Discharged.
-
Neutralized.
Correct Answer
A. Discharged.Explanation
Static electricity refers to the accumulation of electric charges on an object. These charges remain intact until they are discharged, meaning they are released or transferred to another object or the surrounding environment. Discharging static electricity can occur through various means, such as through contact with a conductor or through a spark. Once discharged, the object no longer carries a static charge.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
(003) Under what class of electrostatic discharge (ESD) would an item fall if it was sensitive to 900 volts?
-
I.
-
II.
-
III.
-
IV.
Correct Answer
A. I. -
- 19.
(003) Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category
-
I.
-
II.
-
III.
-
IV.
Correct Answer
A. III. -
- 20.
(003) What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static electricity?
-
Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device.
-
Check the relative humidity level.
-
Disconnect the circuit from the device.
-
Turn the power switch to the off position.
Correct Answer
A. Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device.Explanation
To prevent the build-up of static electricity, grounding the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device is necessary. Grounding helps to dissipate any accumulated static charge and prevents it from damaging the device or causing a discharge. This measure ensures that the device remains safe and protected from any potential harm caused by static electricity. Checking the relative humidity level, disconnecting the circuit from the device, and turning off the power switch may not directly address the issue of static electricity build-up.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
(003) What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?
-
Ground the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device.
-
Check the relative humidity level.
-
Disconnect the circuit from the device.
-
Turn the power switch to the off position.
Correct Answer
A. Turn the power switch to the off position. -
- 22.
(004) The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called
-
Fault isolation.
-
Event evaluation.
-
Process investigation.
-
Analytical consideration.
Correct Answer
A. Fault isolation.Explanation
Fault isolation refers to the process of identifying and analyzing the root cause of an operational failure. It involves collecting and analyzing data to understand what went wrong and how to prevent it from happening again. This process helps in identifying the specific component or system that caused the failure and enables the implementation of corrective actions to prevent its recurrence. Therefore, fault isolation is the correct answer for the given question.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
(004) In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present?
-
Define the problem.
-
Isolate the problem.
-
Resolve the problem.
-
Confirm the resolution.
Correct Answer
A. Define the problem.Explanation
In the troubleshooting process, the first step is to define the problem. This involves identifying and understanding the specific issue or condition that needs to be resolved. By defining the problem, you can gather relevant information, analyze the symptoms, and determine the underlying causes. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the rest of the troubleshooting process, including isolating the problem, resolving it, and confirming the resolution.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
(004) In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?
-
Define the problem.
-
Isolate the problem.
-
Resolve the problem.
-
Confirm the resolution.
Correct Answer
A. Isolate the problem.Explanation
In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you narrow down the issue and determine its root cause. This involves gathering information, analyzing symptoms, and conducting tests to identify the specific problem. Once the problem is isolated, you can move on to resolving it. Confirming the resolution comes after the problem has been resolved and involves verifying that the issue has been successfully addressed. Therefore, the correct answer is "Isolate the problem."Rate this question:
-
- 25.
(004) In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes?
-
Define the problem.
-
Isolate the problem.
-
Resolve the problem.
-
Confirm the resolution.
Correct Answer
A. Resolve the problem.Explanation
In the troubleshooting step of resolving the problem, you would identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes. This involves analyzing the situation, gathering information, and using deductive reasoning to narrow down the possible causes of the problem. By eliminating unlikely causes, you can focus on the most probable causes and work towards finding a solution.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
(004) In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed?
-
Define the problem.
-
Isolate the problem.
-
Resolve the problem.
-
Confirm the resolution.
Correct Answer
A. Confirm the resolution.Explanation
In the troubleshooting process, after resolving the problem, it is important to confirm the resolution. This step involves reviewing the case history and ensuring that no steps were missed during the troubleshooting process. It helps to ensure that the problem has been fully resolved and there are no remaining issues or steps that need to be addressed.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
(004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is applied?
-
The keyboard lights should flash.
-
A memory test should be visible on the monitor.
-
The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly.
-
The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.
Correct Answer
A. The keyboard lights should flash. -
- 28.
(004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the basic input output system (BIOS) message appears on the monitor?
-
The keyboard lights should flash.
-
A memory test should be visible on the monitor.
-
The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly.
-
The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.
Correct Answer
A. A memory test should be visible on the monitor. -
- 29.
(004) Normally the last step in the boot up process is
-
The keyboard lights should flash.
-
A memory test should be visible on the monitor.
-
The hard disk drive access light should come on briefly.
-
The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.
Correct Answer
A. The operating system (OS) loads into memory and user interface appears.Explanation
The last step in the boot up process is when the operating system (OS) loads into memory and the user interface appears. This is the final stage where the computer is fully ready for the user to interact with it. The other options mentioned, such as the keyboard lights flashing or a memory test being visible on the monitor, may occur earlier in the boot up process but are not the final step.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
(005) What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist? a. Event evaluation. b. Power-on-self-test (POST). c. Process investigation. d. Analytical consideration.
-
Event evaluation.
-
Power-on-self-test (POST).
-
Process investigation.
-
Analytical consideration.
Correct Answer
A. Power-on-self-test (POST).Explanation
The correct answer is Power-on-self-test (POST). The POST is a diagnostic program that runs automatically when a computer is turned on. It checks the hardware components of the computer, including the CPU, to ensure that they are functioning properly. If a hardware problem exists with the CPU, the POST will detect it and provide an error message or beep code to indicate the issue. Event evaluation, process investigation, and analytical consideration are not specifically designed to detect CPU hardware problems.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
(005) When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to
-
Review the schematic diagram for errors.
-
Make a complete drawing of all the components.
-
Call the manufacture and speak to customer service.
-
Place masking tape to the cables and connection points.
Correct Answer
A. Place masking tape to the cables and connection points.Explanation
Placing masking tape to the cables and connection points is a simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware. This allows for easy identification and organization of the cables, making it easier to trace and troubleshoot any issues. It also helps prevent confusion and misconnection of cables during the troubleshooting process.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
(006) What rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) hold?
-
SSgt
-
TSgt
-
MSgt
-
Capt
Correct Answer
A. SSgtExplanation
Primary Communications Security Responsible Officers (CRO) must hold the rank of SSgt. This rank indicates that they have the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience to effectively fulfill their responsibilities in managing communications security. It is likely that this rank is considered appropriate for this role based on the level of authority and decision-making required.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
(006) Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified?
-
Communications security (COMSEC) manager.
-
Unit commander.
-
Wing commander.
-
Wing commanders with approval of COMSEC managers.
Correct Answer
A. Communications security (COMSEC) manager.Explanation
The correct answer is "Communications security (COMSEC) manager." The COMSEC manager is responsible for ensuring the security of communications within an organization. They have the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified, meaning they can grant exceptions to certain security protocols or requirements if it is necessary for the successful completion of a mission. This authority is specific to the COMSEC manager and not the unit commander or wing commander.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
(006) After receiving their initial educations in communications security (COMSEC) account management, how often must communications security responsible officer’s (CRO) be trained to remain qualified to manage their account?
-
Quarterly
-
Semi-annually.
-
Annually.
-
Biennially.
Correct Answer
A. Annually.Explanation
Communications security responsible officers (CRO) must be trained annually to remain qualified to manage their account. This means that they need to undergo training and refresh their knowledge and skills in communications security (COMSEC) account management on a yearly basis. This ensures that they stay up to date with the latest practices and procedures in order to effectively manage their account and maintain the security of communications.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
(006) To ensure communications security responsible officers (CRO) are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the communications security (COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least
-
Monthly.
-
Quarterly.
-
Semi-annually.
-
Annually.
Correct Answer
A. Semi-annually.Explanation
The correct answer is semi-annually. The question asks how often the COMSEC manager is required to inspect the accounts of responsible officers to ensure communications security. The answer "semi-annually" means that the inspections should be conducted twice a year. This ensures that the responsible officers are complying with directives and properly accounting for the COMSEC material under their control. Monthly, quarterly, and annually would not provide as frequent and regular oversight as semi-annually.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
(006) Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?
-
Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA).
-
HQ USAF/SCX.
-
Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA)
-
Cryptologic support group (CPSG).
Correct Answer
A. Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA).Explanation
The correct answer is Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA). The National Security Agency (NSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. As the director of the NSA, the DIRNSA has the authority and oversight to ensure the proper production and management of cryptographic material to support national security objectives.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
(006) What is the classification of the combination to any security container?
-
Not classified.
-
Always classified for official use only (FOUO).
-
Always classified confidential.
-
Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container.
Correct Answer
A. Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container.Explanation
The correct answer is "Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container." This means that the combination to any security container is always classified at the same level as the highest classified material stored inside the container. This ensures that the container is adequately protected and secured based on the sensitivity of the materials it contains.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
(006) The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by
-
A controlling authority.
-
A COMSEC manager.
-
An installation commander.
-
A cryptologic support group (CPSG).
Correct Answer
A. A controlling authority.Explanation
The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by a controlling authority. This authority is responsible for ensuring that proper protocols and procedures are followed in the handling and distribution of COMSEC material to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information. They have the authority to grant access, monitor usage, and enforce security measures to protect against unauthorized access or compromise of COMSEC material.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
(006) This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number.
-
Accounting legend code (ALC)–1.
-
ALC-2.
-
ALC-3.
-
ALC-4.
Correct Answer
A. Accounting legend code (ALC)–1.Explanation
This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number. The correct answer, Accounting legend code (ALC)-1, indicates that the material requires the highest level of accounting control. ALC-1 ensures that strict accounting practices are followed to prevent unauthorized access or loss of the COMSEC material.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
(006) This communications security (COMSEC) material is accounted for continuously by quantity.
-
Accounting legend code (ALC)–1.
-
ALC-2.
-
ALC-3.
-
ALC-4.
Correct Answer
A. ALC-2. -
- 41.
(006) This communications security (COMSEC) material is not required to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory.
-
Accounting legend code (ALC)–1.
-
ALC-2.
-
ALC-3.
-
ALC-4.
Correct Answer
A. ALC-4.Explanation
The correct answer is ALC-4. This suggests that the given communications security (COMSEC) material does not need to be tracked on the daily or shift inventory. The ALC-4 accounting legend code indicates that the material does not require tracking.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
(007) This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment.
-
Standard Form (SF) 700.
-
SF701.
-
SF702.
-
SF703.
Correct Answer
A. SF701.Explanation
The correct answer is SF701 because SF701 is the form used for a daily physical security inventory. The other forms listed (SF700, SF702, SF703) are not specifically designed for this purpose.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
(007) What form do you fill out and affix to the inside of the locking drawer when you change a safe combination?
-
Standard Form (SF) 700.
-
SF701.
-
SF702.
-
SF703.
Correct Answer
A. Standard Form (SF) 700.Explanation
The correct answer is Standard Form (SF) 700. This form is used to document the change of a safe combination. It is filled out and affixed to the inside of the locking drawer to provide a record of the new combination and ensure that it is securely stored. SF 701, SF 702, and SF 703 are not the correct forms for this purpose.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
(007) At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination?
-
Monthly.
-
Quarterly.
-
Annually.
-
Bi-annually.
Correct Answer
A. Monthly.Explanation
The correct answer is "Monthly" because changing the cipher lock combination frequently enhances security by reducing the chances of unauthorized access. Monthly changes ensure that even if someone manages to obtain the current combination, it will become invalid before they can exploit it. This practice also aligns with industry standards and best practices for maintaining a secure environment.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
(008) What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?
-
By shelf arrangement.
-
By drawer arrangement.
-
Alphabetically by edition.
-
Alphabetically buy short title.
Correct Answer
A. Alphabetically buy short title.Explanation
The preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials should be organized in alphabetical order based on their abbreviated or short title. This method allows for easy and efficient reference and retrieval of the materials listed on the form.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
(008) Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?
-
1.
-
3.
-
6.
-
12.
Correct Answer
A. 6.Explanation
AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous six months of inventory. This means that the records are kept for a total of seven months. This allows for a sufficient amount of historical data to be maintained for reference and analysis purposes.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
(008) If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager
-
Requests special temporary duty (TDY) orders from combat support group (CGSP).
-
Request special TDY orders from major command (MAJCOM).
-
Conducts the inventory with the user by telephone.
-
Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message.
Correct Answer
A. Asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message.Explanation
If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message. This is the most practical solution in a situation where conducting an inventory in person is not feasible. By requesting the user to verify their holding through written communication, the COMSEC manager can still ensure that the inventory is conducted accurately and securely.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
(008) Who establishes the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security (COMSEC) account number?
-
Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA).
-
HQ USAF/SCX.
-
Air Force Communications Agency (AFCA)
-
Cryptologic support group (CPSG).
Correct Answer
A. Cryptologic support group (CPSG).Explanation
The Cryptologic support group (CPSG) is responsible for establishing the semi-annual inventory date for each communications security (COMSEC) account number. This means that they determine when the inventory of COMSEC items should be conducted, which is important for ensuring the security and accountability of these items. The other options listed do not have the authority or responsibility to establish the inventory date.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
(009) The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the
-
User.
-
Manager.
-
Account manager.
-
Responsible officer.
Correct Answer
A. User.Explanation
The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the user. This means that they are responsible for properly using and protecting the COMSEC aids, such as encryption devices or secure communication systems, to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of communications. The user is expected to follow established procedures and protocols to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive information.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 9, 2023 +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
May 09, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Apr 27, 2012Quiz Created by
Becky11
Back to top