CDC 3C051 Vol 1-3 Combined Vre Test

Reviewed by Editorial Team
The ProProfs editorial team is comprised of experienced subject matter experts. They've collectively created over 10,000 quizzes and lessons, serving over 100 million users. Our team includes in-house content moderators and subject matter experts, as well as a global network of rigorously trained contributors. All adhere to our comprehensive editorial guidelines, ensuring the delivery of high-quality content.
Learn about Our Editorial Process
| By Becky11
B
Becky11
Community Contributor
Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 732
| Attempts: 50 | Questions: 200
Please wait...
Question 1 / 200
0 %
0/100
Score 0/100
1. (001) Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as 

Explanation

Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client program is known as polling. Polling involves the client program regularly checking the status of the external device to determine if any changes or updates have occurred. This method allows the client program to actively monitor the device and respond accordingly based on its status. Signaling, processing, and multitasking are not accurate descriptions for actively sampling the status of an external device.

Submit
Please wait...
About This Quiz
CDC 3C051 Vol 1-3 Combined Vre Test - Quiz


Comprehensive test consisting of all 3 volumes of CDC 3C051 VRE questions.

2. (002) Which term describes that data is whole or complete? a. Driver. b. Parity bit. c. Data integrity. d. Error correction. 

Explanation

Data integrity refers to the accuracy and consistency of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that the data is complete, whole, and free from any errors or inconsistencies. Therefore, data integrity is the term that describes that data is whole or complete.

Submit
3. (002) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity? 

Explanation

A parity bit is a technique used to check the integrity of data. It is an extra bit added to a binary code to make the total number of 1s either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the data can be detected. If the number of 1s in the data does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred during transmission or storage. Therefore, the parity bit is considered a technique or method of checking data integrity.

Submit
4. (002) What component initializes communication with all hardware devices and sends a message if a keyboard or mouse is not found?  

Explanation

The correct answer is BIOS. The BIOS is responsible for initializing communication with all hardware devices during the boot process. It also performs a power-on self-test (POST) to check if all hardware components are functioning properly. If a keyboard or mouse is not found, the BIOS will send an error message to the user.

Submit
5. (203) What is one of the most important communication skills you can develop as a help desk operator?

Explanation

Listening is one of the most important communication skills that a help desk operator can develop. As a help desk operator, it is crucial to actively listen to the concerns and issues raised by the customers. By listening attentively, the operator can fully understand the problem and provide appropriate solutions. Effective listening also helps in building rapport with the customers and making them feel heard and valued. It enables the operator to ask relevant questions and gather all the necessary information to provide accurate assistance. Overall, listening plays a vital role in effective communication and problem-solving in the help desk role.

Submit
6. (003) What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows between two objects at different electrical potentials?  

Explanation

Electrostatic discharge refers to the sudden and momentary electric current that occurs when there is a difference in electrical potentials between two objects. This discharge can happen when there is a buildup of static electricity on one object and it is discharged to another object with a lower electrical potential. It is commonly experienced as a static shock when touching a metal object after walking on a carpeted floor.

Submit
7. (222) What network performance criteria is the most significant statistic to be collected and calculated?

Explanation

The most significant statistic to be collected and calculated in network performance is network availability. Network availability refers to the amount of time that a network is operational and accessible to users. It is crucial because it directly impacts the reliability and uptime of the network. By monitoring network availability, organizations can ensure that their network is consistently accessible to users and minimize any potential downtime or disruptions. This statistic helps in assessing the overall performance and efficiency of the network infrastructure.

Submit
8. (003) Static electricity remains intact until it is 

Explanation

Static electricity refers to the accumulation of electric charges on an object. These charges remain intact until they are discharged, meaning they are released or transferred to another object or the surrounding environment. Discharging static electricity can occur through various means, such as through contact with a conductor or through a spark. Once discharged, the object no longer carries a static charge.

Submit
9. (221) What is a set of keys, subkeys, and values from the registry stored in its own file location called?

Explanation

A set of keys, subkeys, and values from the registry stored in its own file location is called a hive.

Submit
10.   (003) Electrostatic discharge (ESD) items sensitive to more than 4,000 but less than 15,000 volts fall into category  

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
11. (221) What two types of environments are network operating systems implemented upon?

Explanation

Network operating systems are implemented upon two types of environments: peer-to-peer and client-server. In a peer-to-peer network, all computers have equal status and can act as both clients and servers. This allows for easy sharing of resources and information between computers. On the other hand, in a client-server network, there is a dedicated server that manages and controls the network resources, while the clients request and utilize these resources. This type of network offers centralized management and control, making it suitable for larger networks.

Submit
12. (003) What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static electricity? 

Explanation

To prevent the build-up of static electricity, grounding the electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device is necessary. Grounding helps to dissipate any accumulated static charge and prevents it from damaging the device or causing a discharge. This measure ensures that the device remains safe and protected from any potential harm caused by static electricity. Checking the relative humidity level, disconnecting the circuit from the device, and turning off the power switch may not directly address the issue of static electricity build-up.

Submit
13. (220) What type of server is a bundle of software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

Explanation

A network management system is a type of server that is designed to improve network efficiency and productivity. It is a bundle of software that helps in monitoring and managing network devices, tracking performance, detecting and resolving network issues, and optimizing network resources. By providing centralized control and visibility over the network, a network management system enables administrators to effectively manage and maintain the network infrastructure, ensuring smooth operations and enhanced productivity.

Submit
14.   (003) What is the first step you must take when either installing or removing an electrostatic discharge sensitive (ESDS) device?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
15. (220) What is required due to the differences between the physical speed of the print device and the processing speed of the workstation generating the print job?

Explanation

Print queues are required due to the differences between the physical speed of the print device and the processing speed of the workstation generating the print job. Print queues allow for the print jobs to be stored and processed in an orderly manner, ensuring that the print device is not overwhelmed with multiple print jobs at once. This helps to maintain a smooth and efficient printing process, allowing the workstation to continue generating print jobs without being hindered by the slower physical speed of the print device.

Submit
16. (004) The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the cause of an operational failure and how to prevent it from recurring is called

Explanation

Fault isolation refers to the process of identifying and analyzing the root cause of an operational failure. It involves collecting and analyzing data to understand what went wrong and how to prevent it from happening again. This process helps in identifying the specific component or system that caused the failure and enables the implementation of corrective actions to prevent its recurrence. Therefore, fault isolation is the correct answer for the given question.

Submit
17. (219) What is the range of numbers that represent standard access lists?

Explanation

Standard access lists use numbers ranging from 1 to 99 to represent the range of numbers. These access lists are used to filter traffic based on the source IP address. By using a standard access list, network administrators can control which traffic is allowed or denied based on the source IP address.

Submit
18. (004) In which troubleshooting step would you determine which conditions are present? 

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, the first step is to define the problem. This involves identifying and understanding the specific issue or condition that needs to be resolved. By defining the problem, you can gather relevant information, analyze the symptoms, and determine the underlying causes. This step is crucial as it sets the foundation for the rest of the troubleshooting process, including isolating the problem, resolving it, and confirming the resolution.

Submit
19. (004) In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma exists?     

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, isolating the problem is the step where you narrow down the issue and determine its root cause. This involves gathering information, analyzing symptoms, and conducting tests to identify the specific problem. Once the problem is isolated, you can move on to resolving it. Confirming the resolution comes after the problem has been resolved and involves verifying that the issue has been successfully addressed. Therefore, the correct answer is "Isolate the problem."

Submit
20. (219) What do all access lists end with?

Explanation

Access lists are used in networking to control the flow of traffic. They are a set of rules that determine what traffic is allowed or denied to pass through a router. At the end of every access list, there is an implicit deny statement. This statement acts as a default rule that denies any traffic that does not match any of the preceding rules. In other words, if a packet does not meet the criteria specified in the access list, it will be denied by default. Therefore, all access lists end with an implicit deny.

Submit
21. (218) What command is used to change the bootup values within ROM monitor mode?

Explanation

The command "confreg" is used to change the bootup values within ROM monitor mode. This command allows users to configure various settings related to the system's boot process, such as the default boot image, boot order, and other boot-related parameters. By using the "confreg" command, users can modify these settings to customize the boot behavior of the system.

Submit
22.   (004) In which troubleshooting step would you identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes? 

Explanation

In the troubleshooting step of resolving the problem, you would identify likely causes and eliminate unlikely causes. This involves analyzing the situation, gathering information, and using deductive reasoning to narrow down the possible causes of the problem. By eliminating unlikely causes, you can focus on the most probable causes and work towards finding a solution.

Submit
23. (218) What command is used to restrict access to the privileged exec mode?

Explanation

The "enable password" command is used to restrict access to the privileged exec mode. This command sets a password that is required to enter the privileged mode, which allows users to access and configure sensitive system settings and commands. By setting an enable password, only authorized individuals who know the password can gain access to the privileged mode, ensuring security and preventing unauthorized changes to the system.

Submit
24.   (004) In which troubleshooting step would you review the case history and assure no steps were missed? 

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, after resolving the problem, it is important to confirm the resolution. This step involves reviewing the case history and ensuring that no steps were missed during the troubleshooting process. It helps to ensure that the problem has been fully resolved and there are no remaining issues or steps that need to be addressed.

Submit
25. (217) What acts as a translator between two workstations or networks that use different operating systems, communication protocols, and data format structures?

Explanation

A gateway acts as a translator between two workstations or networks that use different operating systems, communication protocols, and data format structures. It allows for seamless communication and data exchange between these systems by converting the data from one format to another, ensuring compatibility and smooth communication between the different networks or workstations.

Submit
26. (218) What are the network connections through which network traffic enters and exits a router called?

Explanation

The network connections through which network traffic enters and exits a router are called interfaces. These interfaces allow the router to connect to other devices and networks, enabling the transmission of data. Serial interfaces are used for connecting to WAN (Wide Area Network) connections, while switching ports are used for connecting to local devices within a LAN (Local Area Network). Console and auxiliary ports are used for management and configuration purposes. However, the most general and inclusive term for all these connections is "interfaces".

Submit
27. (004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after initial power is applied? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
28. (004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the basic input output system (BIOS) message appears on the monitor? 

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
29. (217) What prevents a router from sending route information back to the router from which it came? 

Explanation

Split horizons is a technique used in routing protocols to prevent a router from sending route information back to the router from which it came. It works by prohibiting a router from advertising a route back to the same router that sent it the route information in the first place. This helps to avoid routing loops and ensures that the network operates efficiently. By implementing split horizons, routers can effectively control the flow of route information and prevent unnecessary traffic.

Submit
30. (005) What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware problem exist? a. Event evaluation. b. Power-on-self-test (POST). c. Process investigation. d. Analytical consideration. 

Explanation

The correct answer is Power-on-self-test (POST). The POST is a diagnostic program that runs automatically when a computer is turned on. It checks the hardware components of the computer, including the CPU, to ensure that they are functioning properly. If a hardware problem exists with the CPU, the POST will detect it and provide an error message or beep code to indicate the issue. Event evaluation, process investigation, and analytical consideration are not specifically designed to detect CPU hardware problems.

Submit
31. (005) When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying cables is to 

Explanation

Placing masking tape to the cables and connection points is a simple method of identifying cables when troubleshooting hardware. This allows for easy identification and organization of the cables, making it easier to trace and troubleshoot any issues. It also helps prevent confusion and misconnection of cables during the troubleshooting process.

Submit
32. (006) What rank must primary communications security responsible officers (CRO) hold? 

Explanation

Primary Communications Security Responsible Officers (CRO) must hold the rank of SSgt. This rank indicates that they have the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience to effectively fulfill their responsibilities in managing communications security. It is likely that this rank is considered appropriate for this role based on the level of authority and decision-making required.

Submit
33. (217) At what level of the OSI model does a router work?

Explanation

A router works at the network level of the OSI model. This is because a router is responsible for routing packets between different networks, making decisions based on network layer information such as IP addresses. The network layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing of data packets across different networks, which aligns with the role of a router in directing traffic between networks.

Submit
34. (006) After receiving their initial educations in communications security (COMSEC) account management, how often must communications security responsible officer's (CRO) be trained to remain qualified to manage their account?

Explanation

Communications security responsible officers (CRO) must be trained annually to remain qualified to manage their account. This means that they need to undergo training and refresh their knowledge and skills in communications security (COMSEC) account management on a yearly basis. This ensures that they stay up to date with the latest practices and procedures in order to effectively manage their account and maintain the security of communications.

Submit
35. (006) To ensure communications security responsible officers (CRO) are complying with applicable directives and accounting for the communications security (COMSEC) material under their control, the COMSEC manager is required to inspect their accounts at least  

Explanation

The correct answer is semi-annually. The question asks how often the COMSEC manager is required to inspect the accounts of responsible officers to ensure communications security. The answer "semi-annually" means that the inspections should be conducted twice a year. This ensures that the responsible officers are complying with directives and properly accounting for the COMSEC material under their control. Monthly, quarterly, and annually would not provide as frequent and regular oversight as semi-annually.

Submit
36. (215) The bridge in a network with the highest priority (the lowest number) is called the

Explanation

In a network, the bridge with the highest priority, which is indicated by the lowest number, is referred to as the "root" bridge. The root bridge is responsible for initiating the spanning tree algorithm and determining the shortest path for data transmission within the network. It serves as the central point of reference for all other bridges and switches in the network.

Submit
37. (006) Who is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government?  

Explanation

The correct answer is Director National Security Agency (DIRNSA). The National Security Agency (NSA) is responsible for the production and management of cryptographic material within the US government. As the director of the NSA, the DIRNSA has the authority and oversight to ensure the proper production and management of cryptographic material to support national security objectives.

Submit
38. (215) What is a local area network connection device with two or more ports that forwards frames from one LAN segement to another?

Explanation

A bridge is a local area network connection device with two or more ports that forwards frames from one LAN segment to another. It operates at the data link layer of the OSI model and uses MAC addresses to determine where to forward the frames. Unlike a hub, a bridge is able to filter and selectively forward frames to specific ports based on their destination MAC addresses, which improves network efficiency. A bridge also helps to isolate network traffic and reduce collisions, making it a more intelligent and efficient option for connecting LAN segments.

Submit
39. (006) What is the classification of the combination to any security container? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Always classified to the highest classification of material within the container." This means that the combination to any security container is always classified at the same level as the highest classified material stored inside the container. This ensures that the container is adequately protected and secured based on the sensitivity of the materials it contains.

Submit
40. (215) Bridging loops are created when

Explanation

Bridging loops are created when there is more than one path to the destination. This means that there are multiple routes that can be taken to reach the destination, which can result in loops or circular paths. These loops can cause issues in network communication as packets may continuously circulate between the different paths, leading to congestion and inefficiency. It is important to implement mechanisms such as Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to prevent and manage these bridging loops in order to maintain a stable and reliable network.

Submit
41. (006) The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by  

Explanation

The operational use and control of communications security (COMSEC) material is overseen and managed by a controlling authority. This authority is responsible for ensuring that proper protocols and procedures are followed in the handling and distribution of COMSEC material to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of sensitive information. They have the authority to grant access, monitor usage, and enforce security measures to protect against unauthorized access or compromise of COMSEC material.

Submit
42. (215) What is used to logically eliminate loops within a network?

Explanation

The spanning tree algorithm is used to logically eliminate loops within a network. It works by creating a tree-like structure that connects all the devices in the network without forming any loops. This ensures that there is only one path between any two devices, preventing the possibility of data packets getting stuck in endless loops and causing network congestion. By eliminating loops, the spanning tree algorithm helps to improve network efficiency and stability.

Submit
43. (214) What network component serves as a central connecting point and is used to extend the physical media by repeating the signal it receives in one port out to all the other ports indiscriminately?

Explanation

A hub is a network component that serves as a central connecting point and is used to extend the physical media by repeating the signal it receives in one port out to all the other ports indiscriminately. Hubs operate at the physical layer of the OSI model and are commonly used in Ethernet networks to connect multiple devices together. They do not perform any intelligent routing or filtering of network traffic, simply broadcasting all incoming signals to all connected devices.

Submit
44. (214) What is a group of devices connected to the same physical media such that if two devices access the media at the same time, the result is a collision of the two signals?

Explanation

A collision domain refers to a group of devices that are connected to the same physical media, such as an Ethernet network. In this domain, if two devices attempt to access the media simultaneously, their signals will collide and result in data loss or corruption. This collision occurs because the devices share the same transmission medium and cannot transmit data at the same time without interference. To avoid collisions, collision domains are often divided into smaller segments using techniques like switches or bridges.

Submit
45. (214) What network condition usually begins slowly and (if not stopped) gradually grows in severity until all traffic flow on the network is effectively stopped?

Explanation

A broadcast storm is a network condition where there is a high volume of broadcast or multicast traffic that floods the network, causing congestion and effectively stopping all traffic flow. This condition usually starts slowly and then worsens over time if not resolved. It can occur when there is a network loop or when a device continuously sends out broadcast messages, overwhelming the network and causing severe performance issues.

Submit
46. (007) This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for your environment. 

Explanation

The correct answer is SF701 because SF701 is the form used for a daily physical security inventory. The other forms listed (SF700, SF702, SF703) are not specifically designed for this purpose.

Submit
47. (213) What network interface card module drives the signal onto and from the physical medium?

Explanation

The network interface card module that drives the signal onto and from the physical medium is the transmit/receive module. This module is responsible for transmitting data from the computer onto the network and receiving data from the network onto the computer. It handles the conversion of digital signals into analog signals for transmission and vice versa for reception.

Submit
48. (213) What network interface card module converts information into a coded data stream? 

Explanation

The network interface card module that converts information into a coded data stream is the encode/decode module. This module is responsible for taking the raw data and converting it into a format that can be transmitted over the network. It encodes the data into a coded data stream before transmitting it and decodes the received data stream back into its original format.

Submit
49. (007) At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock combination? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Monthly" because changing the cipher lock combination frequently enhances security by reducing the chances of unauthorized access. Monthly changes ensure that even if someone manages to obtain the current combination, it will become invalid before they can exploit it. This practice also aligns with industry standards and best practices for maintaining a secure environment.

Submit
50. (008) What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16?  

Explanation

The preferred method for listing material on the AFCOMSEC Form 16 is alphabetically by short title. This means that the materials should be organized in alphabetical order based on their abbreviated or short title. This method allows for easy and efficient reference and retrieval of the materials listed on the form.

Submit
51. (212) How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

Explanation

The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. An octet is a unit of digital information that consists of 8 bits. In the context of the internet protocol, each octet represents a segment of the IP address. The IP address is a numerical label assigned to each device connected to a computer network that uses the internet protocol for communication. By breaking down the IP address into 4 octets, it allows for a more efficient and organized way of identifying and routing data packets across the internet.

Submit
52. (213) What communications device converts binary electrical signals into acoustic signals for transmission over telephone lines?

Explanation

A modem is a communications device that converts binary electrical signals into acoustic signals for transmission over telephone lines. It enables digital devices to connect to the internet or communicate with other devices through analog telephone lines. By converting the digital signals into analog signals that can be transmitted over telephone lines, modems facilitate the transmission of data between computers and other devices over long distances.

Submit
53. (212) What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

Explanation

A media access control address (MAC address) is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. It is a unique identifier assigned to the network interface card (NIC) of a device. The MAC address is used at the data link layer of the OSI model and is essential for communication between devices on the same network segment. It allows devices to send and receive data packets to the correct destination.

Submit
54. (211) What is the only layer in the OSI model that simply transmits the completed frame?

Explanation

The physical layer is responsible for transmitting the completed frame in the OSI model. This layer deals with the physical transmission of data over the network, including the actual electrical or optical signals that represent the data. It is responsible for converting the digital data into a format that can be transmitted over the physical medium, such as cables or wireless signals. The physical layer does not perform any error checking or routing of data, it simply transmits the frame from one device to another.

Submit
55. (008) If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager  

Explanation

If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user because of distance, the communications security (COMSEC) manager asks the user to verify his or her holding by letter or message. This is the most practical solution in a situation where conducting an inventory in person is not feasible. By requesting the user to verify their holding through written communication, the COMSEC manager can still ensure that the inventory is conducted accurately and securely.

Submit
56. (220) What type of server is set aside to perform a specific task or function all the time?

Explanation

A dedicated server is a type of server that is specifically allocated to perform a particular task or function continuously. Unlike other servers that may be shared or used for multiple purposes, a dedicated server is exclusively dedicated to one specific task. This ensures that the server's resources and processing power are fully focused on that task, resulting in improved performance and reliability.

Submit
57. (209) What does a station specifically send when it sends a general request through the network asking any station to respond to receive the token?

Explanation

When a station sends a general request through the network asking any station to respond to receive the token, it specifically sends a "solicit successor frame". This frame is used to solicit or request the next station in the network to respond and receive the token.

Submit
58. (209) Why can a token ring network cover a greater distance than a token bus network without loss of signal?

Explanation

In a token ring network, each workstation repeats the signal as it passes through, which helps to boost the signal strength and maintain its integrity over a longer distance. This allows the network to cover a greater distance without experiencing signal loss. On the other hand, in a token bus network, there is no signal repetition by each workstation, which can lead to signal degradation and loss over longer distances. Therefore, the ability of each workstation to repeat the signal is the reason why a token ring network can cover a greater distance without loss of signal.

Submit
59. (009) The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the

Explanation

The individual who is required to use and safeguard communications security (COMSEC) aids while performing official duties is the user. This means that they are responsible for properly using and protecting the COMSEC aids, such as encryption devices or secure communication systems, to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of communications. The user is expected to follow established procedures and protocols to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive information.

Submit
60. (208) What layer of the OSI model prevents a fast computer from overwhelming a slow terminal?

Explanation

The transport layer of the OSI model is responsible for providing reliable and efficient communication between end systems. It ensures that data is delivered accurately and in the correct order, regardless of the speed of the computers involved. Therefore, the transport layer prevents a fast computer from overwhelming a slow terminal by regulating the flow of data and implementing mechanisms such as flow control and congestion control.

Submit
61. (208) What is the major Department of Defense contribution to networking?

Explanation

The major Department of Defense contribution to networking is the transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) suite. TCP/IP is a set of protocols that allows computers to communicate with each other over a network. It provides the foundation for the internet and is widely used in both military and civilian networks. TCP/IP ensures reliable and secure transmission of data packets across different networks, enabling seamless communication between devices and systems.

Submit
62. (208) What layer of the OSI reference model is really a set of rules regarding the hardware used to transmit data?

Explanation

The physical layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for the actual transmission of data over the physical medium. It defines the electrical, mechanical, and procedural aspects of the hardware used to transmit data. This layer establishes the physical connection between devices and ensures that the data is properly transmitted and received. It deals with characteristics such as voltage levels, cable types, connectors, and signaling methods.

Submit
63. (207) What is the greatest risk to a bus network?

Explanation

The greatest risk to a bus network is the bus itself becoming inoperable. If the bus malfunctions or breaks down, it can disrupt the entire network and cause a halt in communication between connected devices. This can result in loss of data, delays in operations, and affect the overall efficiency of the network. Therefore, ensuring the proper functioning and maintenance of the bus is crucial to prevent any potential disruptions.

Submit
64. (207) What network topology consists of a single central cable to which all computers and other devices connect?

Explanation

A bus network topology consists of a single central cable, known as the bus, to which all computers and other devices connect. In this topology, data is transmitted from one device to another through the central cable. Each device on the network listens to the bus and receives the data if it is addressed to them. This type of network is relatively simple and cost-effective to set up, making it commonly used in small to medium-sized networks.

Submit
65. (009) Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used on transfer reports?

Explanation

The next unused voucher number that is used on transfer reports comes from the Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 14.

Submit
66. (206) What are the principal advantages of fiber optics with present day transmission technology?

Explanation

Fiber optics have two principal advantages with present day transmission technology: sturdiness and security. Fiber optic cables are made of glass or plastic and are highly resistant to physical damage, making them durable and reliable for long-term use. Additionally, fiber optic signals are transmitted using light, which makes it difficult to intercept or tap into the signal, providing a high level of security for data transmission.

Submit
67. (206) What type of fiber optic is used to span extremely long distances?

Explanation

Single mode fiber optic is used to span extremely long distances. This type of fiber optic has a smaller core size and allows for only one mode of light to travel through it. This results in less signal loss and dispersion, making it ideal for long-distance transmission. In contrast, multi mode fiber optic has a larger core size and allows for multiple modes of light to travel through it, which can cause signal degradation over long distances. Therefore, single mode fiber optic is the correct choice for spanning extremely long distances.

Submit
68. (206) Light signals in fiber optic cables can travel distances in excess of how many miles before they need to be boosted?

Explanation

Light signals in fiber optic cables can travel distances in excess of 100 miles before they need to be boosted. This is because fiber optic cables use total internal reflection to transmit light signals, which allows the signals to travel long distances without significant loss of signal strength. Boosting the signals becomes necessary when the distance exceeds the limit of 100 miles, as the signal strength may weaken due to attenuation.

Submit
69. (206) A fiber optic network uses a laser or light-emitting diode to send a signal through what portion of the cable?

Explanation

A fiber optic network uses a laser or light-emitting diode to send a signal through the core of the cable. The core is the central part of the cable where the light signal travels. The cladding, buffer, and kevlar are other components of the fiber optic cable but they do not play a direct role in transmitting the signal.

Submit
70. (205) What is a measurement of data transferred through the medium between network connections?

Explanation

Throughput refers to the measurement of data transferred through the medium between network connections. It represents the amount of data that can be transmitted over a network in a given period of time. It is an important metric to evaluate the performance and efficiency of a network connection.

Submit
71. (205) What is a form of communication that transmits information as a serial stream of bits or bytes?

Explanation

Asynchronous communication is a form of communication that transmits information as a serial stream of bits or bytes. In this type of communication, data is sent in an unsynchronized manner, meaning that the sender and receiver do not need to be in sync with each other. This allows for more flexibility and efficiency in transmitting data, as the sender can continue sending data without waiting for a response from the receiver. It is commonly used in computer networks and telecommunications systems.

Submit
72. (205) What is the distorting and/or weakening of a signal as it traverses the media called? 

Explanation

Attenuation refers to the distortion and weakening of a signal as it travels through a medium. This can be caused by various factors such as distance, interference, or the characteristics of the medium itself. Attenuation can result in a loss of signal strength and quality, leading to a decrease in the reliability and effectiveness of the communication.

Submit
73. (204) How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?

Explanation

A multi-server high-speed backbone network is designed to handle a large number of users and provide fast and reliable connectivity. The range of 250 to 1000 users indicates that this network can support a significant number of users, making it suitable for medium to large-scale organizations or institutions. This range ensures that the network can handle a substantial amount of traffic and provide adequate resources and bandwidth to meet the needs of the users connected to it.

Submit
74. (204) What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. Unlike a local area network (LAN) or a metropolitan area network (MAN), which are limited to a specific area, a WAN allows for long-distance connectivity and enables organizations to share resources, exchange data, and communicate across different locations. An enterprise network, on the other hand, refers to the overall network infrastructure of an organization, which may include both LANs and WANs.

Submit
75. (204) How many users are in a peer-to-peer network?

Explanation

A peer-to-peer network typically consists of a small number of users who directly connect and share resources with each other. This decentralized network structure allows for efficient sharing and collaboration between the users. Therefore, the range of 2 to 10 users is a suitable estimate for the number of users in a peer-to-peer network.

Submit
76. (010) What should each communications security responsible officer (CRO) do before signing the communications security (COMSEC) hand receipt?

Explanation

Before signing the communications security (COMSEC) hand receipt, the communications security responsible officer (CRO) should ensure that the required COMSEC material is listed on the Standard Form (SF) 153 and ready for issue. This means that all the necessary COMSEC material is accounted for and available for use. Checking the COMSEC manager's clearance status, verifying the effective dates of material, and ensuring the user's clearance are authorized are not mentioned as necessary steps before signing the hand receipt.

Submit
77. (204) What type of communications network serves users within a confined geographical area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a type of communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It typically covers a small area such as a home, office, or building, and allows for the sharing of resources and information among connected devices. LANs are commonly used in homes and businesses to facilitate communication and data transfer between computers, printers, and other devices within the same area.

Submit
78. (202) What does network security work to ensure about a network?

Explanation

Network security works to ensure the availability, confidentiality, and data integrity of a network. Availability refers to the network being accessible and operational for authorized users. Confidentiality ensures that sensitive information is only accessed by authorized individuals. Data integrity ensures that the data remains accurate, complete, and unaltered during transmission and storage.

Submit
79. (202) What Air Force Instruction sets the policies that unit client support administrators must comply with? 

Explanation

Air Force Instruction 33-115 sets the policies that unit client support administrators must comply with.

Submit
80. (204) What is a set of systems/nodes on a local segment that can be off of a switch or router?

Explanation

An intranetwork refers to a set of systems or nodes that are connected within a local segment, typically within a single organization or company. It can include devices such as computers, printers, servers, and other network-enabled devices. Unlike an internetwork, which connects multiple networks together, an intranetwork is confined to a specific local area and does not extend beyond the boundaries of the organization. Intranetworks are commonly used to facilitate communication, file sharing, and resource sharing among employees within an organization.

Submit
81. (203) What software is used to open trouble tickets for customer trouble calls?

Explanation

Remedy is the software used to open trouble tickets for customer trouble calls. It is a widely used and popular ticketing system that allows organizations to track and manage customer issues efficiently. Remedy provides a centralized platform for logging and tracking customer complaints, assigning them to the appropriate teams or individuals, and ensuring timely resolution. It streamlines the troubleshooting process and helps in maintaining a record of customer issues for future reference and analysis.

Submit
82. (202) What organization does communication and information services entering and exiting the base or site fall under the operational control of?

Explanation

The correct answer is Base network control center. The Base network control center is responsible for managing and controlling the communication and information services entering and exiting the base or site. They ensure the security and integrity of the network and monitor and control the flow of information.

Submit
83. (203) Within the NCC, what function is initially responsible for taking trouble calls, deciding what type of problem has occurred, and what to do about the problem?

Explanation

The help desk is initially responsible for taking trouble calls, determining the type of problem that has occurred, and deciding what actions should be taken to resolve the problem. The help desk serves as the first point of contact for users who are experiencing issues or have questions about the network or system. They gather information about the problem, troubleshoot the issue if possible, and escalate it to the appropriate team or department if needed. The help desk plays a crucial role in providing support and ensuring that problems are addressed in a timely manner.

Submit
84. (201) What Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

Explanation

Air Force instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

Submit
85. (010) Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to

Explanation

Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required for material that has been issued to transient aircrews. This means that when material is issued to transient aircrews, there is no need to keep records or reports of its disposition or destruction.

Submit
86. (203) Which of the following jobs are performed by a help desk technician on a daily basis?

Explanation

A help desk technician performs network monitoring on a daily basis to ensure the smooth functioning of the network and identify any issues or anomalies. They also handle account unlocks, which involves assisting users in regaining access to their accounts after being locked out due to various reasons such as password issues. Additionally, they are responsible for account creations, which involves setting up new user accounts and granting appropriate access privileges.

Submit
87. (011) What term suggests movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material?  

Explanation

Transport is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of material from one place to another by someone with an active interest in that material. It implies the involvement of a person or entity responsible for the transportation process. Carrier refers to the entity that physically carries the material, transfer refers to the act of moving something from one place to another, and shipment refers to a quantity of goods being transported together.

Submit
88. (204) What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

Explanation

A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and software in the network are designed to work seamlessly together, providing a consistent and integrated experience. This type of network simplifies management and troubleshooting processes as there is a uniformity in the hardware and software used.

Submit
89. (204) What is a set of subnets that are connected with routers?

Explanation

An internetwork is a set of subnets that are connected with routers. Routers are used to connect different subnets and enable communication between them. This allows for the creation of a larger network that spans multiple locations or networks. An internetwork can be made up of both homogeneous and heterogeneous networks, as long as they are interconnected using routers.

Submit
90. (011) What is the maximum number of different actions that can be accomplished on a single Standard Form (SF) 153?  

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
91. (202) What function within the network control center provides technical assistance to the unit functional system administrators and workgroup managers?

Explanation

The function within the network control center that provides technical assistance to the unit functional system administrators and workgroup managers is network administration. Network administration involves managing and maintaining the network infrastructure, including troubleshooting network issues, configuring network devices, and providing support to users. This function ensures that the network operates smoothly and efficiently, addressing any technical problems that may arise and assisting the administrators and managers in their day-to-day tasks.

Submit
92. (012) What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of communications security (COMSEC) 

Explanation

Standard Form (SF) 153 is commonly used as a destruction certificate of communications security (COMSEC). This form is a standardized document that is used to record the destruction of COMSEC material. It provides a record of the date, time, and method of destruction, as well as the name and signature of the individual responsible for the destruction. Using SF 153 helps ensure proper accountability and documentation of the destruction process, which is crucial for maintaining the security of communications systems.

Submit
93. (012) In which folder of the communications security (COMSEC) account 6-part folder are destruction certificates filed?  

Explanation

In the 6-part folder of the communications security (COMSEC) account, destruction certificates are filed.

Submit
94. (013) Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute in what kind of violation?

Explanation

Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could constitute a cryptographic incident violation. This means that if someone fails to comply with the urgent message, it could lead to a breach or compromise in the security of cryptographic systems or information. It is important to promptly respond and take necessary actions to prevent any potential cryptographic incidents.

Submit
95. (014) Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency actions plans (EAP) on base? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Communications security manager (CM)." The CM is ultimately responsible for all emergency action plans (EAP) on base. They are in charge of ensuring that the plans are properly developed, implemented, and maintained. They work closely with other personnel, such as the unit commander and the communications security responsible officer (CRO), to ensure that the EAPs are effective and up to date. The CM plays a critical role in emergency preparedness and response on base.

Submit
96. What are network attacks that bypass the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling and application-based attacks are network attacks that can bypass the firewall. Tunneling involves encapsulating one network protocol within another, allowing the attacker to send malicious traffic through the firewall undetected. Application-based attacks target vulnerabilities in specific applications, exploiting them to gain unauthorized access or cause harm to the network. Both of these attack methods can bypass the firewall's security measures, making them effective ways for attackers to infiltrate a network.

Submit
97. What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message (that would be rejected by the firewall) inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the attacker to bypass the firewall's security measures by disguising the rejected message within a legitimate one. By using tunneling, the attacker can gain unauthorized access to the network or transfer malicious data without being detected by the firewall.

Submit
98. What is at the very core of the barrier reef process?

Explanation

The base network security policy is at the core of the barrier reef process. This policy outlines the fundamental guidelines and rules for network security within an organization. It serves as a foundation for implementing access control lists, firewall configurations, and providing network security training and education. Without a well-defined and enforced network security policy, the effectiveness of other security measures would be compromised.

Submit
99. In what step of the barrier reef process do you map both the physical and logical topology of your network?

Explanation

In the given question, the correct answer is "Step 1 know thyself". This step involves mapping both the physical and logical topology of the network. By doing so, you gain a comprehensive understanding of your network, including its physical components (such as routers, switches, and cables) and its logical structure (such as IP addressing and network protocols). This mapping helps in identifying potential vulnerabilities, optimizing network performance, and planning for future expansions or upgrades.

Submit
100. What is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves over the internet?

Explanation

A token is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves over the internet. It is a form of two-factor authentication, where the user not only needs to provide their username and password but also needs to possess the physical token. This adds an extra layer of security, as even if someone steals the user's login credentials, they would still need the physical token to gain access. Tokens can come in various forms, such as key fobs, smart cards, or mobile apps, and generate one-time passwords or other unique codes for authentication purposes.

Submit
101. What is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used to authenticate users over the internet?

Explanation

A smart card is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used to authenticate users over the internet. It is a portable device that can store and process information securely, allowing users to securely access online services and authenticate their identity. Smart cards are commonly used in various applications, such as banking, healthcare, and government services, to provide secure and reliable authentication for users.

Submit
102. What is the measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?

Explanation

Authentication is the measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and their ability to access certain information. It involves the process of confirming the identity of an individual or entity attempting to access a system or resource. This is typically done through the use of credentials such as passwords, biometrics, or security tokens. By authenticating users, organizations can ensure that only authorized individuals are granted access to sensitive information and resources.

Submit
103. How is a personal identification number categorized?

Explanation

A personal identification number (PIN) is categorized as "something you know" because it is a secret code or password that is known only to the individual. It is used to authenticate and verify the identity of the person accessing a system or account. Unlike "something you have" (like a physical card or token), "something you need" (like a fingerprint or biometric data), or "something you read" (which is not a recognized category), a PIN relies on the knowledge and memory of the individual.

Submit
104. What is the process of analyzing threats against and the vulnerabilities of an information system?

Explanation

Risk analysis is the process of assessing and evaluating potential threats and vulnerabilities that can impact an information system. It involves identifying and analyzing potential risks, determining their likelihood and potential impact, and developing strategies to mitigate or manage those risks. This process helps organizations understand the potential risks they face and make informed decisions about implementing appropriate security measures to protect their information systems.

Submit
105. In which phase of the department of Defense I.T. Security certification and accreditation process is data gathered for system analysis?

Explanation

In Phase 1 Definition of the Department of Defense I.T. Security certification and accreditation process, data is gathered for system analysis. This phase involves defining the system's security requirements, identifying potential risks and vulnerabilities, and determining the appropriate security controls. It is the initial stage where the system is thoroughly analyzed to understand its security needs and lay the foundation for the subsequent phases of the certification and accreditation process.

Submit
106. Waht is the maximum number of years an automated information system with no changes to the baseline must be recertified or accredited?

Explanation

An automated information system with no changes to the baseline must be recertified or accredited every 3 years. This ensures that the system remains up-to-date and meets the necessary security standards. Recertification and accreditation processes help to identify any potential vulnerabilities or risks in the system and ensure that appropriate measures are taken to mitigate them. By conducting these processes every 3 years, organizations can maintain the integrity and security of their automated information systems.

Submit
107. How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

Explanation

The performance monitor provides 21 different categories of information about your network. This means that it offers a wide range of data and metrics to analyze and monitor the performance of your network. With such a comprehensive set of categories, you can gather detailed insights and make informed decisions regarding the network's performance and optimization.

Submit
108. What color on the system management automated report tracking system alarm log indicates one or more events?

Explanation

Purple on the system management automated report tracking system alarm log indicates one or more events.

Submit
109. Waht are the 3 main components of the system management automated report tracking system?

Explanation

The correct answer is domain managers, broker, and client. In a system management automated report tracking system, domain managers are responsible for managing and controlling the system. The broker acts as a communication intermediary between the domain managers and the clients, allowing them to exchange information and requests. The client is the end-user or consumer of the system, who interacts with the domain managers through the broker to access and receive reports.

Submit
110. What diagnostics command is run exclusively on Windows based machines?

Explanation

IPCONFIG is the correct answer because it is a diagnostics command that is exclusively run on Windows based machines. It is used to display the IP configuration settings of the network interfaces on the computer, including the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. WINIPCFG is a similar command but is specifically used on older versions of Windows, while TCPCONFIG and TRACERT are not exclusive to Windows and can be run on other operating systems as well.

Submit
111. (015) Which Air Force form do communications security managers (CM) use when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security (COMSEC) account?  

Explanation

Communications security managers (CM) use Air Force form 4160 when conducting an inspection of a sub communications security (COMSEC) account.

Submit
112. What type of network problem is caused by collisions on the domain?

Explanation

Collisions on the domain can cause both high utilization and jabbers. High utilization occurs when there is a lot of network traffic, leading to congestion and slower performance. Jabbers refer to devices that continuously transmit data, causing disruptions and collisions on the network. Therefore, the correct answer is high utilization or jabbers, as collisions can result in both of these network problems.

Submit
113. Ideally, the average network utilization value should be less than

Explanation

Ideally, the average network utilization value should be less than 30%. This is because network utilization refers to the percentage of the network's capacity that is being used at a given time. Keeping the average utilization below 30% ensures that there is sufficient bandwidth available for smooth and efficient network operations. It allows for better performance, reduces the risk of congestion, and ensures that there is room for future growth and increased demand without compromising the network's performance.

Submit
114. What type of network errors do jabbers usually cause?

Explanation

Jabbers usually cause high utilization and collisions in a network. High utilization refers to excessive traffic on the network, which can slow down the overall performance. Collisions occur when two or more devices try to transmit data at the same time, resulting in data loss and retransmissions. Therefore, jabbers can lead to both high utilization and collisions, affecting the efficiency and reliability of the network.

Submit
115. (015) What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises at communications security responsible officers (CRO)accounts?  

Explanation

The maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP) exercises at communications security responsible officers (CRO) accounts is 6 months. This means that CRO accounts should conduct EAP exercises at least once every 6 months to ensure preparedness and effectiveness in case of emergencies.

Submit
116. What utilities are used to find the round trip delay between a source and target node?

Explanation

Ping is a utility used to send a small packet of data from a source node to a target node and measure the time it takes for the packet to be sent and received back. This round trip delay can be used to determine the network latency between the two nodes. Tracert, on the other hand, is a utility that traces the route taken by packets from the source node to the target node, showing the IP addresses of the intermediate nodes along the way. While tracert does not directly measure round trip delay, it can provide valuable information about the network path and potential bottlenecks. Therefore, using ping and tracert together can help find the round trip delay between a source and target node.

Submit
117. Over 60% of all network problems occur at what layers of the OSI model?

Explanation

Over 60% of all network problems occur at the data link and physical layers of the OSI model. These layers are responsible for the physical transmission of data over the network and the establishment of a reliable connection. Issues at the data link layer can include problems with framing, error detection, and flow control. Physical layer problems can involve issues with cables, connectors, and network devices. Therefore, it is crucial to address and resolve problems at these layers to ensure smooth network operation.

Submit
118. What is the maximum packet size for the internet protocol?

Explanation

The maximum packet size for the Internet Protocol is 65535. This is because the maximum size of an IP packet is determined by the 16-bit field in the IP header called the Total Length field, which can hold values up to 65535. This value includes both the header and data sections of the packet. Therefore, any IP packet larger than 65535 would be considered invalid and would be fragmented or discarded.

Submit
119. What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that are transmitted continuosly on the network?

Explanation

Jabbers are frames that consist of garbled bits of data that are transmitted continuously on the network. These frames are typically caused by malfunctioning network devices or faulty network connections. Jabbers can disrupt network communication and cause performance issues by consuming network bandwidth and preventing other devices from transmitting data effectively.

Submit
120. Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface card sense a collision and stop transmitting?

Explanation

A network interface card (NIC) should sense a collision and stop transmitting within 64 bytes of transmission. This is because in Ethernet networks, collisions can occur when two devices attempt to transmit data at the same time. To avoid data corruption, the NIC needs to detect collisions and stop transmitting to allow for retransmission. The 64-byte threshold ensures that collisions are detected early enough to minimize data loss and maintain network efficiency.

Submit
121. What function of fault management identifies options for minimizing the effects of detected or predicted faults?

Explanation

Fault correction is the function of fault management that identifies options for minimizing the effects of detected or predicted faults. This involves finding ways to fix or resolve the faults that have been identified, in order to prevent or reduce their negative impact on the system or process. Fault correction may include implementing software patches or updates, replacing faulty hardware components, reconfiguring settings, or making other adjustments to address the identified faults.

Submit
122. What is an indication that a noteworthy event has occured on the network?

Explanation

An alarm is an indication that a noteworthy event has occurred on the network. When an alarm is triggered, it typically signifies that there is a problem or an abnormal situation that requires attention. Alarms are often used in network monitoring systems to alert administrators about critical events such as network failures, security breaches, or performance issues. By receiving an alarm, network administrators can quickly identify and address the problem, ensuring the smooth operation of the network.

Submit
123. What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem?

Explanation

One of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work together to troubleshoot a network problem is their failure to accurately observe and thoroughly document the results of their individual efforts. This can lead to a lack of clarity and understanding of the troubleshooting process, making it difficult to track progress and identify potential solutions. Without accurate observation and documentation, team members may struggle to effectively communicate and collaborate, hindering their ability to resolve the network problem efficiently.

Submit
124. (001) What is the first job the basic input output system (BIOS) does at start-up?    

Explanation

At start-up, the basic input output system (BIOS) runs the power-on self-test (POST). This is the first job of the BIOS and it is responsible for checking the hardware components of the computer to ensure they are functioning properly. The POST tests the CPU, memory, storage devices, and other hardware components for any errors or issues. It provides a diagnostic report that helps identify any problems before the operating system is loaded.

Submit
125. What are the 2 basic ways network faults can be detected?

Explanation

Network faults can be detected in two basic ways: reactively and proactively. Reactive detection involves identifying and addressing faults after they have occurred, usually in response to user complaints or system failures. Proactive detection, on the other hand, involves actively monitoring the network for potential faults and taking preventive measures to avoid them. This approach helps in identifying and resolving issues before they cause any significant disruptions or impact the network's performance.

Submit
126. Why should only one possibility of a network problem be troubleshot at a time?

Explanation

When troubleshooting a network problem, it is important to focus on one possibility at a time in order to isolate a definite cause if the action fixes the problem. By troubleshooting one possibility at a time, it becomes easier to identify the specific cause of the issue and determine if the action taken to fix it was successful. This approach allows for a more efficient and systematic troubleshooting process, leading to quicker resolution of network problems.

Submit
127. What is the first of 7 logical steps used to troubleshoot a network problem?

Explanation

The first logical step used to troubleshoot a network problem is to define the main problems. This involves identifying and clearly understanding the specific issues or symptoms that are occurring in the network. By defining the main problems, it becomes easier to focus on finding solutions and determining the root cause of the network problem.

Submit
128. What is the name for the core set of software instructions contained in operating systems (OS) on which the higher-level functions are based? 

Explanation

The system kernel is the core set of software instructions contained in operating systems (OS) on which the higher-level functions are based. It is responsible for managing the system's resources, such as memory and hardware devices, and it provides the foundation for the OS to run applications and execute tasks. The other options, BOOT.IOS, ROOT.SYS, and Boot Kernel, are not commonly used terms to refer to the core set of software instructions in operating systems.

Submit
129. What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time users are given on a file server?

Explanation

The job position of a user usually has the most significance when determining the amount of space and access time they are given on a file server. This is because different job positions may require different levels of access and storage space based on their roles and responsibilities within the organization. For example, higher-level positions may require more space and access time for important files and documents, while lower-level positions may have more limited access and storage capabilities.

Submit
130. When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?

Explanation

When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system partition, the automatically assigned permissions are everyone group permissions. This means that by default, all users on the system will have access to the newly created folder or file. This can be useful for sharing files or folders with a large number of users without having to manually assign permissions to each individual user.

Submit
131. What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?

Explanation

The "no access" permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group. This means that even if a user or group has been granted other permissions such as full control, change, or write, the "no access" permission will take precedence and deny them access to the resource.

Submit
132. (001) Which original component was very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

Explanation

The correct answer is CMOS. CMOS is a type of semiconductor used in computer chips, including BIOS and EEPROM. CMOS is highly susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge (ESD) because it operates at low voltage levels and is sensitive to voltage spikes. ESD can cause permanent damage to the CMOS component, leading to malfunction or failure of the device. Therefore, it is important to handle CMOS components with proper ESD precautions to prevent damage.

Submit
133. What file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of file on a new technology file system volumes?

Explanation

Full control file permission provides a user with the ability to change file permissions and take ownership of files on new technology file system volumes. This means that the user has complete control over the file, including the ability to modify its permissions, make changes to its content, and take ownership of it.

Submit
134. (018) What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure? 

Explanation

The correct answer is Theater deployable communications (TDC). This term refers to a ground-to-ground communications infrastructure that is considered to be state-of-the-art. It implies that the communications system is designed to be easily deployable and capable of supporting operations in a theater of operations. This suggests that TDC is a modern and advanced solution for establishing and maintaining communication links in a military or operational environment.

Submit
135. Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest?

Explanation

Universal group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any domain or forest. This means that users or groups within a universal group can have access to resources across different domains or forests. Universal groups are used for managing permissions in a broader scope, making them suitable for scenarios where access needs to be granted across multiple domains or forests.

Submit
136. (018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic reflects module architecture which comply with established international or commercial communication standards?  

Explanation

The characteristic of open system standards reflects the module architecture's compliance with established international or commercial communication standards. This means that the modules are designed to be compatible and interoperable with other systems and technologies, allowing for seamless communication and integration. Open system standards promote flexibility, scalability, and the ability to easily adapt and incorporate new technologies and advancements.

Submit
137. For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client support administrator, what are the correct number and type of characters needed for the account password?

Explanation

The correct answer is the minimum of 15 characters consisting of at least 2 upper and lowercase letters and 2 special characters. This answer provides a higher level of security by requiring a longer password with a combination of different character types. The inclusion of special characters adds an extra layer of complexity, making the password harder to guess or crack.

Submit
138.   (018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic requires equipment setup times are kept to an absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?

Explanation

The characteristic of theater deployable communications (TDC) that requires equipment setup times to be kept to a minimum is mobility. This means that the equipment used for communications in a deployed environment needs to be easily transportable and quickly deployable to support the mobility requirements of military operations.

Submit
139. What type of simple network management protocol node is resposible to authenticate logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database?

Explanation

Domain controllers are responsible for authenticating logons for clients by validating the supplied user name and password against the account in the database. They are a type of simple network management protocol node that manages and controls access to the network resources within a domain. They store user accounts and security policies, allowing users to log in and access resources securely.

Submit
140. What SNMP operational message retrieves the value of one instance of management information?

Explanation

The SNMP operational message "Get" is used to retrieve the value of one instance of management information. This message is sent by the SNMP manager to the SNMP agent to request the value of a specific variable or object in the managed device. The agent then responds with the requested value, allowing the manager to monitor and manage the network devices effectively.

Submit
141.   (018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic requires equipment be capable of operation/maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear?

Explanation

Survivability is the characteristic that requires equipment to be capable of operation and maintenance by personnel wearing nuclear, biological, and chemical protective gear. This means that the equipment must be able to withstand and function in hazardous and potentially life-threatening environments, ensuring the safety and effectiveness of communication systems in such conditions.

Submit
142. Which category of simple network management protocol node is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting managementdata to the management system?

Explanation

An agent is a category of simple network management protocol (SNMP) node that is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. Agents are installed on network devices and are tasked with gathering information about the device's performance, status, and configuration. They then transmit this data to the management system, which can use it for monitoring, troubleshooting, and making informed decisions about the network. Agents play a crucial role in SNMP-based network management by providing real-time data about network devices.

Submit
143. (001) Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed? 

Explanation

The CMOS component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer settings when power is removed. This is because CMOS is responsible for storing the BIOS settings and other configuration data that need to be retained even when the computer is turned off. The lithium battery provides a constant power supply to the CMOS chip, ensuring that the settings are not lost.

Submit
144. Network  management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the OSI model?

Explanation

Network management protocols are designed to reside above the session layer of the OSI model. The session layer is responsible for establishing, managing, and terminating sessions between applications. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), are used to monitor and control network devices and services. These protocols operate at a higher layer than the session layer, typically at the application layer or above, allowing them to access and manage network resources effectively.

Submit
145. What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

Explanation

Security management is the network management area concerned with controlling access points to information. It focuses on implementing measures to protect the network and its resources from unauthorized access, ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data. By managing access points, such as firewalls, authentication systems, and encryption protocols, security management aims to prevent unauthorized users from gaining entry to sensitive information and resources.

Submit
146. What are the two functional categories of performance management?

Explanation

The two functional categories of performance management are monitoring and tuning. Monitoring involves continuously tracking and measuring the performance of a system or process to identify any deviations or issues. It helps in identifying bottlenecks, inefficiencies, or areas of improvement. Tuning, on the other hand, refers to making adjustments or optimizations to improve the performance of the system. It involves analyzing the data collected during monitoring and implementing changes to enhance efficiency, reduce response time, or increase throughput. By combining monitoring and tuning, organizations can ensure that their systems are performing at their best and meet the desired performance objectives.

Submit
147. (001) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?    

Explanation

ROM is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. It is a type of memory that is pre-programmed during manufacturing and cannot be altered or erased by normal computer operations. ROM is commonly used to store firmware, operating system instructions, and other permanent data that needs to be accessed quickly during the booting process. Unlike volatile memory such as RAM, ROM does not require constant power to maintain its data, making it a reliable and long-lasting storage solution.

Submit
148. Which functional category of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on a network?

Explanation

Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on a network and collecting historical data. Monitoring is a key aspect of performance management as it allows organizations to analyze network performance, identify bottlenecks or issues, and make informed decisions to optimize performance. By continuously monitoring the network, organizations can track the performance of various activities and processes, ensuring that they meet the desired standards and objectives.

Submit
149. (019) Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units, in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?  

Explanation

Sustained communications support teams provide uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field units and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency. They are responsible for maintaining communication systems and ensuring that vital information is continuously transmitted and received. Open system standards teams, combat integrated system teams, and initial communications support teams may also play a role in providing communication support, but the sustained communications support teams specifically focus on maintaining uninterrupted communication throughout the contingency.

Submit
150. (001) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?    

Explanation

The correct answer is "Basic input output system (BIOS)." BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system, and providing a basic interface between the hardware and software of a computer system.

Submit
151. (020) Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment shortfalls?  

Explanation

The correct answer is Unit deployment manager and commander. The unit deployment manager and commander should be notified immediately of any predeployment shortfalls. They are responsible for overseeing the deployment process and ensuring that all necessary manpower and equipment are in place. They have the authority to address any issues and make any necessary adjustments to ensure a successful deployment.

Submit
152. (020) What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are familiar with the deployment process and with your equipment?  

Explanation

Predeployment is the correct answer because it refers to the phase that involves exercises to ensure familiarity with the deployment process and equipment. This phase occurs before the actual deployment and is crucial in preparing individuals and equipment for the tasks ahead. The other options, such as deployment, re-deployment, and reconstitution, do not specifically mention exercises or the preparation process.

Submit
153. What are the 3 most common network management architectures?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Centralized, Hierarchical, and distributed." These three network management architectures are commonly used in different network environments. In a centralized architecture, all network management functions are performed by a central entity or server. In a hierarchical architecture, network management functions are divided into different levels or layers, with each level responsible for specific tasks. In a distributed architecture, network management functions are distributed across multiple entities or servers, allowing for better scalability and fault tolerance.

Submit
154. What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

Explanation

A network management server is a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It helps in monitoring and controlling network devices, analyzing network performance, identifying and resolving network issues, and managing network configurations. By providing centralized management and control, a network management server ensures that the network operates smoothly, optimizing its efficiency and enhancing overall productivity.

Submit
155. What is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop messages with inappropriate network addresses?

Explanation

Packet filtering is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop messages with inappropriate network addresses. It examines the source and destination IP addresses of packets and compares them to a set of predefined rules. If a packet's address does not match the allowed criteria, it is blocked. This method is effective in preventing unauthorized access to a network and can be implemented using basic hardware and software configurations. Proxy servers, bastion hosts, and intrusion detection systems are more complex and expensive firewall solutions.

Submit
156. What type of firewall is used to seperate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?

Explanation

Bastion hosts are a type of firewall that is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas. These hosts act as a fortified gateway between the secure and less secure areas, providing an additional layer of protection. They are specifically designed and configured to withstand attacks and unauthorized access attempts, making them an effective solution for securing sensitive information and resources.

Submit
157. What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow a security violation?

Explanation

Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform thorough examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that could potentially be exploited for a security violation. These devices scan networks, systems, and applications to detect any vulnerabilities or weaknesses that may exist, such as outdated software, misconfigurations, or insecure settings. By identifying these weaknesses, vulnerability scanners help organizations proactively address and mitigate potential security risks, ensuring the overall security and integrity of their systems.

Submit
158. What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the disk so that it is unrecoverable?

Explanation

Wipeinfo is the correct answer because it is a software program that protects classified data by erasing it from the disk in a way that makes it unrecoverable. This program ensures that the data is completely wiped and cannot be retrieved or reconstructed, thus providing a high level of security for classified information.

Submit
159. What is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes?

Explanation

Degaussing is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes. Degaussing involves using a strong magnetic field to erase the data on the tape. This process completely removes all traces of the previous data, ensuring that it cannot be recovered. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting are not as effective as degaussing in completely clearing the magnetic tapes.

Submit
160. What web based process incorporates identification and evaluation of new vulnerablilities, disseminates technical responses, and tracks compliance within the department of defense community?

Explanation

IAVA stands for Information Assurance Vulnerability Alert. It is a web-based process that involves the identification and evaluation of new vulnerabilities, dissemination of technical responses, and tracking of compliance within the Department of Defense (DOD) community. This process helps to ensure that the DOD community stays informed about the latest vulnerabilities and takes appropriate actions to mitigate them. AFCERT, DOD Cert, and TCNO are not directly related to the identification and evaluation of vulnerabilities, making IAVA the correct answer.

Submit
161. Who is the IAVA process manager?

Explanation

The IAVA process manager is DISA.

Submit
162. Within the DOD computer emergency response team three tiered "vulnerability hierarchy" for notification, what tier documents a new vulnerability that poses an immediate, potentially severe threat to DOD systems?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Vulnerability Alert (IAVA) is the tier in the DOD computer emergency response team's vulnerability hierarchy that documents a new vulnerability that poses an immediate, potentially severe threat to DOD systems. This alert is issued to notify and provide guidance to DOD personnel on how to mitigate the vulnerability and protect the systems. It is an urgent notification that requires immediate attention and action to ensure the security of DOD systems.

Submit
163. Within the DOD computer emergency response team three tiered "vulnerability hierarchy" for notification, what tier addresses new vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate threat to DOD systems but are significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could escalate the threat?

Explanation

The Information Assurance Vulnerability Bulletin (IAVB) is the tier within the DOD computer emergency response team's vulnerability hierarchy that addresses new vulnerabilities that do not pose an immediate threat to DOD systems but are significant enough that noncompliance with the corrective action could escalate the threat. The IAVB serves as a notification and provides information on the vulnerability, potential impact, and recommended actions to mitigate the risk. It allows organizations to prioritize and address these vulnerabilities in a timely manner to prevent any potential escalation of threats.

Submit
164. What standard utilized by the defense messaging system for messaging services?

Explanation

The defense messaging system utilizes the x.400 standard for messaging services. This standard is specifically designed for email communication and is widely used in military and defense organizations. It provides a structured and reliable framework for exchanging messages, ensuring secure and efficient communication within the defense system. TCP/IP and SMTP are also commonly used protocols for messaging services, but in this context, the x.400 standard is the preferred choice.

Submit
165. (016) Who is the final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions?  

Explanation

The final approval authority for a person going into two-person control (TPC) positions is the commander of the unit holding TPC material. This means that the commander has the authority to approve and authorize individuals to access and handle TPC material. This ensures that there is proper oversight and accountability in place for the handling of sensitive material.

Submit
166. (213) What network interface card module temporarily holds holds data for processing to or from the network?

Explanation

Frame buffering refers to the temporary storage of data that is being transmitted or received over a network. This allows for efficient processing of the data by the network interface card (NIC). The NIC module temporarily holds the data in a buffer before it is processed and forwarded to the appropriate destination. This buffering helps to smooth out any variations in the data transmission rate and ensures that the data is processed in a timely manner. It also helps to prevent data loss or corruption during transmission.

Submit
167. (009) What is the term used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment?  

Explanation

The term used when referring to specific communications security (COMSEC) material other than equipment is "aids." Aids are additional materials or resources that support the use and implementation of COMSEC equipment and systems. These aids can include things like manuals, guides, reference materials, or software programs that assist in the secure handling and transmission of sensitive information.

Submit
168. (217) The function performed by a router to move information from one router to another according to decided path determinations is

Explanation

A router performs the function of routing, which involves moving information from one router to another based on predetermined path determinations. Routing involves determining the most efficient path for data packets to travel through a network, ensuring that they reach their intended destination. This process is crucial for enabling communication between different networks and ensuring that data is delivered accurately and efficiently.

Submit
169. What are the most common, immediate and service-affecting types of faults?

Explanation

The most common, immediate, and service-affecting types of faults are devices that have lost power and have broken network connections. When devices lose power, they are unable to function properly, resulting in service disruptions. Additionally, broken network connections further impact the ability of these devices to communicate and provide services. Therefore, the combination of power loss and broken network connections is the most likely cause of immediate and service-affecting faults.

Submit
170. (001) What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?    

Explanation

Cache is a type of static RAM (SRAM) that is used in special applications in a CPU. Cache memory is a high-speed memory that stores frequently accessed data and instructions, allowing the CPU to access them quickly. By keeping this data closer to the CPU, cache memory helps to reduce the time it takes for the CPU to retrieve data from the main memory, improving overall system performance. Therefore, cache is the correct answer in this case.

Submit
171. (002) What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller? 

Explanation

IRQ line 6 is normally used for the floppy disk controller. The IRQ lines are used by devices to request the attention of the CPU. Each device is assigned a specific IRQ line, and in the case of the floppy disk controller, it is typically assigned to IRQ line 6. This allows the controller to interrupt the CPU when it needs to transfer data to or from the floppy disk.

Submit
172. (217) What is the primary device used for connecting these networks, both within and between networks?

Explanation

A router is the primary device used for connecting networks, both within and between networks. It is responsible for directing network traffic to its intended destination by analyzing the data packets and determining the most efficient path for transmission. Routers operate at the network layer of the OSI model and can connect networks of different types, such as Ethernet, Wi-Fi, or WAN. They provide the necessary functionality for interconnecting networks and enabling communication between devices on different networks.

Submit
173. (216) What is a logical grouping of end stations, independent of physical location, with a common set of requirements called?

Explanation

A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a logical grouping of end stations that are independent of physical location but have a common set of requirements. VLANs allow for the segmentation of a network into smaller, more manageable groups, providing security, flexibility, and improved network performance. By creating virtual networks within a physical network infrastructure, VLANs enable different groups of devices to communicate as if they were on separate networks, even though they may physically be connected to the same network switch.

Submit
174. (006) This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number.  

Explanation

This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most strenuous accounting practices by using an accounting control number. The correct answer, Accounting legend code (ALC)-1, indicates that the material requires the highest level of accounting control. ALC-1 ensures that strict accounting practices are followed to prevent unauthorized access or loss of the COMSEC material.

Submit
175. (210) Which protocol of TCP/IP provides a connectionless datagram "network access" layer?

Explanation

The correct answer is Internet protocol (IP). IP is a protocol in the TCP/IP suite that provides a connectionless datagram "network access" layer. It is responsible for routing packets across different networks and does not guarantee the delivery or order of packets. TCP, on the other hand, is a protocol that provides reliable, connection-oriented communication between devices. UDP is also a protocol in the TCP/IP suite but it provides connectionless communication similar to IP. Network File System (NFS) is a protocol used for sharing files over a network.

Submit
176. (209) What Xseries protocol is a message handling system (MHS) standard, that defines the syructure of a store-and-forward e-mail message handling system?

Explanation

X.400 is the correct answer because it is a protocol that defines the structure of a store-and-forward e-mail message handling system. X.400 is a widely used standard for email communication in large organizations and provides features such as message routing, addressing, and delivery status notifications. X.25, X.50, and X.500 are not relevant to email message handling systems.

Submit
177. (010) In which phase does the communications security (COMSEC) manager determine which materials the communications security responsible (CRO) officer needs? 

Explanation

In the preparation phase, the communications security (COMSEC) manager assesses the specific materials required by the communications security responsible (CRO) officer. This involves identifying the necessary equipment, tools, and resources that will be needed to ensure secure communications. The preparation phase is crucial in ensuring that the CRO officer has access to the appropriate materials to effectively carry out their responsibilities in safeguarding communications.

Submit
178. (202) What network control center function responds to detected security incidents, network faults(errors), and user reported outages at the timeof help desk referral?

Explanation

Network management is the correct answer because it involves the monitoring and control of a network's performance, security, and availability. This includes responding to security incidents, network faults, and user-reported outages. Network management ensures that the network is functioning properly and addresses any issues that may arise. It also involves coordinating with the help desk to resolve any network-related problems.

Submit
179. (013) Whenever communications security (COMSEC) material needs to be replaced or amended immediately, who develops the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message?  

Explanation

The Cryptologic Systems Group (CSGP) is responsible for developing the original messages for COMSEC accounts by urgent electronic message when there is an immediate need to replace or amend communications security (COMSEC) material. This suggests that the CSGP has the expertise and authority to handle urgent situations related to COMSEC accounts and ensure the security of communications. The National Security Agency (NSA) may also be involved in COMSEC matters, but the question specifically asks about the development of original messages, which falls under the responsibility of the CSGP.

Submit
180. (014) How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan (EAP) exercises?  

Explanation

The correct answer is 24 months. This means that the written documentation of the semiannual emergency action plan (EAP) exercises should be maintained for a period of 24 months. This is important for record-keeping and compliance purposes, as it allows for the documentation to be reviewed and audited if necessary. Keeping the documentation for this period ensures that there is a sufficient record of the exercises and any actions taken during them.

Submit
181. What is the minimum packet size for the Internet protocol?

Explanation

The minimum packet size for the Internet protocol is 28 bytes. This refers to the minimum amount of data that can be transmitted over the internet in a single packet. It is important to note that this is the minimum size and packets can be larger depending on the amount of data being transmitted.

Submit
182. (204) What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

Explanation

A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. In such an environment, there is a mix of hardware and software components from various manufacturers, making it diverse and complex. This type of network requires careful integration and compatibility management to ensure smooth communication and interoperability between different systems.

Submit
183. What is one of the most common types of hardware devices used for network troubleshooting?

Explanation

A loopback plug is a common type of hardware device used for network troubleshooting. It is a small connector that is inserted into a network port, creating a loop in the network. This allows the network administrator to test the port and verify its functionality. By sending data from the port and receiving it back, the loopback plug can help identify any issues with the port or the network connection. It is a simple and effective tool for diagnosing network problems.

Submit
184. What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit cyclic redundancy check value of the recieved frame and comparing it to the recieved 32 bit CRC value in the frame check sequence field?

Explanation

The Media Access Control (MAC) frame is the correct answer because it is responsible for checking for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit cyclic redundancy check (CRC) value of the received frame and comparing it to the received 32-bit CRC value in the frame check sequence field. The MAC frame is a component of the data link layer in the OSI model and is responsible for controlling access to the physical network medium.

Submit
185. What is the first question "network experts" ask when beginning to troubleshoot a serious network problem?

Explanation

When troubleshooting a serious network problem, network experts would first ask "Where is the network map?" This is because a network map provides a visual representation of the network infrastructure, including devices, connections, and configurations. By knowing where the network map is, experts can quickly identify the physical layout, understand the network topology, and locate potential points of failure. This information is crucial for effective troubleshooting and determining the root cause of the network problem.

Submit
186. When a volume is formatted with new technology file system, what group is automatically assigned full control permission to the volume?

Explanation

When a volume is formatted with the new technology file system, the "everyone group" is automatically assigned full control permission to the volume. This means that every user, regardless of their group or individual permissions, will have full control over the volume. This can be beneficial in certain scenarios where widespread access is required, such as in public or shared drives. However, it also means that there is a higher risk of unauthorized access or modifications to the volume's contents.

Submit
187. In the event that a domain controller is no longer functioning, what action is taken to make another DC take over responsibility?

Explanation

When a domain controller is no longer functioning, another domain controller automatically takes over its responsibilities without any manual intervention. This is because domain controllers in a network are designed to be redundant and work together to ensure continuous operation. Therefore, no action is required from the administrator's end to make another domain controller take over the responsibilities of the non-functioning one.

Submit
188. (008) Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus how many previous months of inventory?  

Explanation

AFCOMSEC Form 16 inventories are retained for the current inventory plus the previous six months of inventory. This means that the records are kept for a total of seven months. This allows for a sufficient amount of historical data to be maintained for reference and analysis purposes.

Submit
189. What is one way to increase file server efficiency?

Explanation

Limiting the access time of typical users can increase file server efficiency by reducing the amount of time that users spend accessing and modifying files. By setting specific time limits for users' access, the server can prioritize and allocate resources more effectively, ensuring that other users can access the server and its files without delays or bottlenecks. This helps to optimize server performance and improves overall efficiency by preventing excessive usage and ensuring fair access for all users.

Submit
190. (002) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indicating the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?  

Explanation

An interrupt is a signal from a hardware device to the CPU indicating that it requires attention. It can be asynchronous, meaning it can occur at any time, or synchronous, meaning it occurs at specific intervals or events. The interrupt allows the CPU to pause its current task and handle the request from the hardware device, ensuring efficient communication and coordination between the CPU and the device.

Submit
191. (002) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?    

Explanation

A parity bit is a simple error detecting code that is commonly used in computer systems. It involves adding an extra bit to a set of binary data to ensure that the total number of ones in the data is either even (even parity) or odd (odd parity). When the data is received, the parity bit is checked to see if the number of ones is consistent with the chosen parity. If not, an error is detected. This makes the parity bit a very simple and effective way to detect errors in data transmission.

Submit
192. (006) Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Communications security (COMSEC) manager." The COMSEC manager is responsible for ensuring the security of communications within an organization. They have the authority to approve waivers that are mission justified, meaning they can grant exceptions to certain security protocols or requirements if it is necessary for the successful completion of a mission. This authority is specific to the COMSEC manager and not the unit commander or wing commander.

Submit
193. (212) What type of mask is used within a network that uses the same amount of bits for masking for all subnetworks?

Explanation

A standard mask is used within a network that uses the same amount of bits for masking for all subnetworks. This means that all subnetworks within the network will have the same subnet mask, allowing for consistent and uniform addressing.

Submit
194. (205) Which of the following categories of twisted-pair cable has the highest throughput?

Explanation

Cat 5 twisted-pair cable has the highest throughput among the given options. This is because Cat 5 cable has a higher bandwidth and can support faster data transmission compared to Cat 2, Cat 3, and Cat 4 cables. Cat 5 cable is capable of transmitting data at speeds up to 1000 Mbps, making it suitable for high-speed internet connections and network applications that require fast data transfer rates.

Submit
195. (204) How many users are in a single-server network?

Explanation

A single-server network typically refers to a network setup where all users are connected to a single server. The given answer range of 10 to 50 suggests that in such a network, there can be anywhere between 10 to 50 users. This range indicates that the network is relatively small to medium-sized, accommodating a moderate number of users.

Submit
196. What diagnostic test is usually run on a nic to ensure it is functional?

Explanation

The self test diagnostic is usually run on a NIC (Network Interface Card) to ensure its functionality. This test allows the NIC to check its own components and functions, such as the connection to the network, data transmission, and overall performance. By running this test, any potential issues or malfunctions can be identified and addressed, ensuring that the NIC is in proper working condition.

Submit
197. What standard utilized by the defense messaging system for directory services?

Explanation

The correct answer is x.500. X.500 is a standard utilized by the defense messaging system for directory services. X.500 is a directory service protocol that provides a hierarchical structure for storing and organizing information in a directory. It allows for the efficient retrieval and management of data in a distributed network environment. X.500 is commonly used in large organizations and government agencies for managing user accounts, email addresses, and other directory information.

Submit
198. (214) What type of hub has special capabilities for configurations and or management?

Explanation

An intelligent hub is a type of hub that has special capabilities for configurations and management. Unlike passive hubs, which simply pass along data signals without any processing, intelligent hubs have built-in intelligence and can perform tasks such as monitoring network traffic, managing network connections, and even making decisions based on network conditions. This makes them more advanced and versatile compared to other types of hubs.

Submit
199. (211) What layer in the OSI model adds a trailer to the packet?

Explanation

The data link layer in the OSI model adds a trailer to the packet. This layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between two directly connected nodes on a network. It encapsulates the data received from the network layer into frames and adds a trailer, which contains error detection and correction information, to ensure the integrity of the data during transmission.

Submit
200. (202) Performance management can be broken into which two separate functional categories?

Explanation

Performance management involves the process of monitoring and optimizing the performance of a system or process. This includes tracking and analyzing performance metrics, identifying areas for improvement, and making necessary adjustments to enhance performance. The functional categories of monitoring and tuning are both essential components of performance management. Monitoring involves continuously observing and measuring performance metrics to identify any deviations or issues. Tuning, on the other hand, involves making adjustments and optimizations based on the insights gained from monitoring to improve overall performance. Therefore, monitoring and tuning are the two separate functional categories of performance management.

Submit
View My Results

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): May 9, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • May 09, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 27, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Becky11
Cancel
  • All
    All (200)
  • Unanswered
    Unanswered ()
  • Answered
    Answered ()
(001) Actively sampling the status of an external device by a client...
(002) Which term describes that data is whole or complete? a. Driver. ...
(002) What is considered as a technique or method of checking data...
(002) What component initializes communication with all hardware...
(203) What is one of the most important communication skills you can...
(003) What is the sudden and momentary electric current that flows...
(222) What network performance criteria is the most significant...
(003) Static electricity remains intact until it is 
(221) What is a set of keys, subkeys, and values from the registry...
  ...
(221) What two types of environments are network operating systems...
(003) What measure would you take to prevent the build up of static...
(220) What type of server is a bundle of software designed to...
  ...
(220) What is required due to the differences between the physical...
(004) The process of collecting and analyzing data to determine the...
(219) What is the range of numbers that represent standard access...
(004) In which troubleshooting step would you determine which...
(004) In which troubleshooting step would you confirm a dilemma...
(219) What do all access lists end with?
(218) What command is used to change the bootup values within ROM...
  ...
(218) What command is used to restrict access to the privileged exec...
  ...
(217) What acts as a translator between two workstations or networks...
(218) What are the network connections through which network traffic...
(004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after...
(004) What is normally the next step in the boot up process after the...
(217) What prevents a router from sending route information back to...
(005) What can detect if central processing unit (CPU) hardware...
(005) When troubleshooting hardware, one simple method of identifying...
(006) What rank must primary communications security responsible...
(217) At what level of the OSI model does a router work?
(006) After receiving their initial educations in communications...
(006) To ensure communications security responsible officers (CRO) are...
(215) The bridge in a network with the highest priority (the lowest...
(006) Who is responsible for the production and management of...
(215) What is a local area network connection device with two or more...
(006) What is the classification of the combination to any security...
(215) Bridging loops are created when
(006) The operational use and control of communications security...
(215) What is used to logically eliminate loops within a network?
(214) What network component serves as a central connecting point and...
(214) What is a group of devices connected to the same physical media...
(214) What network condition usually begins slowly and (if not...
(007) This form is considered a daily physical security inventory for...
(213) What network interface card module drives the signal onto and...
(213) What network interface card module converts information into a...
(007) At a minimum, how often do you change a cipher lock...
(008) What is the preferred method for listing material on the Air...
(212) How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down...
(213) What communications device converts binary electrical signals...
(212) What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected...
(211) What is the only layer in the OSI model that simply transmits...
(008) If it is physically impossible to conduct an inventory of a user...
(220) What type of server is set aside to perform a specific task or...
(209) What does a station specifically send when it sends a general...
(209) Why can a token ring network cover a greater distance than a...
(009) The individual who is required to use and safeguard...
(208) What layer of the OSI model prevents a fast computer from...
(208) What is the major Department of Defense contribution to...
(208) What layer of the OSI reference model is really a set of rules...
(207) What is the greatest risk to a bus network?
(207) What network topology consists of a single central cable to...
(009) Where does the next unused voucher number come from that is used...
(206) What are the principal advantages of fiber optics with present...
(206) What type of fiber optic is used to span extremely long...
(206) Light signals in fiber optic cables can travel distances in...
(206) A fiber optic network uses a laser or light-emitting diode to...
(205) What is a measurement of data transferred through the medium...
(205) What is a form of communication that transmits information as a...
(205) What is the distorting and/or weakening of a signal as it...
(204) How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone...
(204) What type of communications network links geographically...
(204) How many users are in a peer-to-peer network?
(010) What should each communications security responsible officer...
(204) What type of communications network serves users within a...
(202) What does network security work to ensure about a network?
(202) What Air Force Instruction sets the policies that unit client...
(204) What is a set of systems/nodes on a local segment that can be...
(203) What software is used to open trouble tickets for customer...
(202) What organization does communication and information services...
(203) Within the NCC, what function is initially responsible for...
(201) What Air Force instruction series covers communications and...
(010) Disposition records and/or destruction reports are not required...
(203) Which of the following jobs are performed by a help desk...
(011) What term suggests movement of material from one place to...
(204) What type of network is made up of components from the same...
(204) What is a set of subnets that are connected with...
(011) What is the maximum number of different actions that can be...
(202) What function within the network control center provides...
(012) What form is commonly used as a destruction certificate of...
(012) In which folder of the communications security (COMSEC) account...
(013) Failure to comply with an urgent dissemination message could...
(014) Who is ultimately responsible for all emergency actions plans...
What are network attacks that bypass the firewall?
What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message (that would...
What is at the very core of the barrier reef process?
In what step of the barrier reef process do you map both the physical...
What is a physical device that users carry to authenticate themselves...
What is a plastic/magnetic device that contains a microprocessor used...
What is the measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and...
How is a personal identification number categorized?
What is the process of analyzing threats against and the...
In which phase of the department of Defense I.T. Security...
Waht is the maximum number of years an automated information system...
How many different categories of information does the performance...
What color on the system management automated report tracking system...
Waht are the 3 main components of the system management automated...
What diagnostics command is run exclusively on Windows based machines?
(015) Which Air Force form do communications security managers (CM)...
What type of network problem is caused by collisions on the domain?
Ideally, the average network utilization value should be less than
What type of network errors do jabbers usually cause?
(015) What is the maximum time between emergency action plan (EAP)...
What utilities are used to find the round trip delay between a source...
Over 60% of all network problems occur at what layers of the OSI...
What is the maximum packet size for the internet protocol?
What are frames called that consist of garbled bits of data that are...
Within how many bytes of transmission should a network interface card...
What function of fault management identifies options for minimizing...
What is an indication that a noteworthy event has occured on the...
What is one of the greatest downfalls of personnel who must work...
(001) What is the first job the basic input output system (BIOS) does...
What are the 2 basic ways network faults can be detected?
Why should only one possibility of a network problem be troubleshot at...
What is the first of 7 logical steps used to troubleshoot a network...
What is the name for the core set of software instructions contained...
What usually has the most significance when determining the amount of...
When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system...
What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a...
(001) Which original component was very susceptible to damage from...
What file permission provides a user with the ability to change file...
(018) What is known as a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground...
Which group scope allows member permissions to be assigned in any...
(018) What theater deployable communications (TDC) characteristic...
For user accounts with elevated privileges, such as a client support...
  ...
What type of simple network management protocol node is resposible to...
What SNMP operational message retrieves the value of one instance of...
  ...
Which category of simple network management protocol node is...
(001) Which component uses a lithium battery to maintain computer...
Network  management protocols are designed (in most cases) to...
What network management area is concerned with controlling access...
What are the two functional categories of performance management?
(001) What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?  ...
Which functional category of performance management tracks historical...
(019) Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information...
(001) What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup...
(020) Who should you notify immediately of any predeployment...
(020) What phase is concerned with exercises to ensure you are...
What are the 3 most common network management architectures?
What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to...
What is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall to stop...
What type of firewall is used to seperate secure sites, networks, or...
What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to...
What software program protects classified data by erasing it from the...
What is the preferred method of clearing magnetic tapes?
What web based process incorporates identification and evaluation of...
Who is the IAVA process manager?
Within the DOD computer emergency response team three tiered...
Within the DOD computer emergency response team three tiered...
What standard utilized by the defense messaging system for messaging...
(016) Who is the final approval authority for a person going into...
(213) What network interface card module temporarily holds holds data...
(009) What is the term used when referring to specific communications...
(217) The function performed by a router to move information from one...
What are the most common, immediate and service-affecting types of...
(001) What static RAM (SRAM) uses special applications in a CPU?...
(002) What interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for...
(217) What is the primary device used for connecting these networks,...
(216) What is a logical grouping of end stations, independent of...
(006) This communications security (COMSEC) material requires the most...
(210) Which protocol of TCP/IP provides a connectionless datagram...
(209) What Xseries protocol is a message handling system (MHS)...
(010) In which phase does the communications security (COMSEC) manager...
(202) What network control center function responds to detected...
(013) Whenever communications security (COMSEC) material needs to be...
(014) How long do you need to maintain the written documentation of...
What is the minimum packet size for the Internet protocol?
(204) What type of network environments consist of computer systems...
What is one of the most common types of hardware devices used for...
What function checks for damaged frames by recalculating the 32-bit...
What is the first question "network experts" ask when beginning to...
When a volume is formatted with new technology file system, what group...
In the event that a domain controller is no longer functioning, what...
(008) Air Force communications security (AFCOMSEC) Form 16 inventories...
What is one way to increase file server efficiency?
(002) What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer...
(002) Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?...
(006) Who has the authority to approve waivers that are mission...
(212) What type of mask is used within a network that uses the same...
(205) Which of the following categories of twisted-pair cable has the...
(204) How many users are in a single-server network?
What diagnostic test is usually run on a nic to ensure it is...
What standard utilized by the defense messaging system...
(214) What type of hub has special capabilities for configurations and...
(211) What layer in the OSI model adds a trailer to the packet?
(202) Performance management can be broken into which two separate...
Alert!

Advertisement