1.
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2.
Where should you begin troubleshooting after reviewing the aircraft/engine forms?
Correct Answer
D. Observe gauge indications.
Explanation
After reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, the next step in troubleshooting should be to observe gauge indications. This is because gauge indications can provide valuable information about the performance and condition of various systems in the aircraft or engine. By carefully observing the gauge indications, any abnormal readings or fluctuations can be identified, which can then help in narrowing down the potential issues and determining the appropriate course of action for troubleshooting.
3.
Which of the following is not a proper troubleshooting practice?
Correct Answer
C. Inspecting other areas after isolating trouble between points.
Explanation
Inspecting other areas after isolating trouble between points is not a proper troubleshooting practice. When troubleshooting, it is important to systematically check each possible cause of the problem before moving on to other areas. By isolating the trouble between points and then inspecting other areas, it can lead to overlooking potential causes and prolong the troubleshooting process. It is more effective to thoroughly inspect each possible trouble area before moving on to the next.
4.
The troubleshooting information contained in aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance TO is presented in the form of
Correct Answer
D. Troubleshooting charts.
Explanation
The troubleshooting information in aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance TO is presented in the form of troubleshooting charts. These charts provide a systematic approach to identify and solve problems that may occur in the power plant and engine systems. By following the steps and instructions in these charts, maintenance personnel can diagnose and resolve issues effectively. Fix-it diagrams, power plant charts, and mechanical drawings may provide other types of information, but for troubleshooting purposes, the TO relies on troubleshooting charts.
5.
To become an expert troubleshooter, you must
Correct Answer
D. Understand the function of each unit within each system.
Explanation
To become an expert troubleshooter, it is essential to understand the function of each unit within each system. This knowledge allows the troubleshooter to identify and diagnose problems accurately. Without a thorough understanding of how each unit works within a system, it would be challenging to effectively troubleshoot and resolve issues. The other options mentioned, such as being a 7-level, having experience, and completing college courses, can certainly contribute to becoming an expert troubleshooter, but understanding the function of each unit is the most crucial factor.
6.
What F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component acquires fault data from the DEEC and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence?
Correct Answer
D. EDU.
Explanation
The EDU (Engine Data Unit) is the component of the F100-PW-220 engine monitoring system that acquires fault data from the DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence.
7.
Which F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component transfers information from the EDU to the GSU?
Correct Answer
A. DCU.
Explanation
The correct answer is DCU. The DCU, or Digital Control Unit, is responsible for transferring information from the Engine Data Unit (EDU) to the Generator Control Unit (GSU). The DCU acts as an interface between these two components, allowing for the monitoring and control of the engine. It plays a crucial role in ensuring the proper functioning of the engine monitoring system.
8.
To be considered effective tools for aviators, aircraft instruments must be light weight, easy to read, and
Correct Answer
A. Be small in size.
Explanation
The question is asking for the characteristic that aircraft instruments must have in order to be considered effective tools for aviators. Out of the given options, the only characteristic that is mentioned as a requirement is that the instruments should be small in size. This suggests that size is an important factor in determining the effectiveness of aircraft instruments, possibly due to limited space in the cockpit or the need for easy maneuverability. Therefore, the correct answer is "be small in size."
9.
Understanding the operating principles of engine instruments help you decide
Correct Answer
C. The meaning of the instrument readings.
Explanation
Understanding the operating principles of engine instruments is important because it enables you to interpret the readings displayed by these instruments. By knowing the meaning of the instrument readings, you can assess the performance and condition of the engine. This knowledge helps you make informed decisions about whether the engine should be removed from the aircraft for further inspection or maintenance, or if it can be sent to the test cell for further testing. It also allows you to identify any potential issues or abnormalities with the engine, which can aid in troubleshooting and determining the appropriate course of action.
10.
Most engine-monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of
Correct Answer
D. Transmitter and indicator.
Explanation
Most engine-monitoring gauges and instruments require both a transmitter and an indicator. The transmitter is responsible for converting the physical measurement (such as temperature or pressure) into an electrical signal, which is then transmitted to the indicator. The indicator, on the other hand, receives the electrical signal and displays the corresponding measurement to the operator. Therefore, both components are necessary for the proper functioning of the engine-monitoring system.
11.
Which jet engine temperature is not measured?
Correct Answer
A. Combustion inlet.
Explanation
The question asks which jet engine temperature is not measured. The correct answer is "Combustion inlet." In a jet engine, various temperatures are measured to monitor the performance and ensure safety. The fan turbine inlet temperature, turbine inlet temperature, and exhaust gas temperature are all critical measurements. However, the combustion inlet temperature is not typically measured directly, as it is difficult to access and monitor accurately. Therefore, the combustion inlet temperature is the correct answer.
12.
A typical jet engine EGT indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and
Correct Answer
A. A resistor.
Explanation
A typical jet engine EGT indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and a resistor. The resistor is included in the system to provide a reference temperature for the indicator. It helps in calibrating the system and ensuring accurate temperature readings. The thermocouples measure the exhaust gas temperature, the leads transmit the temperature signals to the indicator, and the indicator displays the temperature readings. The turbine inlet, control valve, and exhaust duct are not directly related to the EGT indicating system and are not necessary components for its functioning.
13.
Which metals are used in the EGT indicating system thermocouples?
Correct Answer
D. Alumel and chromel.
Explanation
The EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicating system thermocouples use alumel and chromel metals. Alumel is an alloy of nickel, aluminum, manganese, and silicon, while chromel is an alloy of nickel and chromium. These metals are chosen for their high temperature resistance and ability to accurately measure exhaust gas temperatures. Steel and iron, on the other hand, may not be suitable for such high temperature applications.
14.
Most jet-powered aircraft engine fuel-flow indicating systems contain a fuel-flow
Correct Answer
C. Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.
Explanation
Most jet-powered aircraft engine fuel-flow indicating systems contain a fuel-flow transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator. The fuel-flow transmitter measures the rate at which fuel is flowing through the engine, while the fuel-flow indicator displays this information to the pilot. This allows the pilot to monitor the fuel consumption of the aircraft and make necessary adjustments to ensure efficient operation. The float valve and control valve options are not correct because they do not accurately describe the components typically found in a fuel-flow indicating system.
15.
The fuel-flow indicator indicates the rate of fuel flow as
Correct Answer
A. Pounds per hour.
Explanation
The fuel-flow indicator measures the rate at which fuel is flowing, and it does so in terms of pounds per hour. This measurement is commonly used in aviation to determine the fuel consumption of an aircraft and to calculate various performance parameters. By displaying the fuel flow in pounds per hour, pilots can accurately monitor their fuel usage and make informed decisions regarding fuel management during flight.
16.
The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the
Correct Answer
B. Transmitter.
Explanation
The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the transmitter. A transmitter is a device that converts a physical quantity, in this case, the oil pressure, into an electrical signal that can be easily measured and displayed on the indicator. The transmitter is responsible for sending the accurate oil pressure information to the indicator, allowing the operator to monitor the oil pressure level in the system.
17.
The tachometer indicating system’s two primary units are the tachometer generator and tachometer
Correct Answer
A. Indicator.
Explanation
The tachometer indicating system consists of two primary units, the tachometer generator and the tachometer indicator. The tachometer generator is responsible for converting the rotational speed of the engine into an electrical signal, while the tachometer indicator displays this information to the operator. The other options mentioned, such as fuse panel, transformer, and thermocouple, are not directly related to the tachometer indicating system and therefore are not the correct answer.
18.
The N2 tachometer generator is usually driven from the tachometer drive located on the
Correct Answer
D. Engine accessory section.
Explanation
The N2 tachometer generator is typically driven from the engine accessory section. This section of the engine includes various components such as the fuel pump, oil pump, and generator. Since the N2 tachometer generator is responsible for measuring the rotational speed of the engine's high-pressure compressor, it makes sense for it to be driven from the engine accessory section where other important engine systems are located.
19.
The tachometer generator’s frequency is proportional to the
Correct Answer
A. Engine speed.
Explanation
The tachometer generator is a device that measures the rotational speed of an engine. It generates an electrical signal whose frequency is directly proportional to the engine speed. This means that as the engine speed increases, the frequency of the signal generated by the tachometer generator also increases. Therefore, the correct answer is engine speed.
20.
What converts the exhaust nozzle’s position on engines with afterburners into an electrical signal?
Correct Answer
C. Transducer.
Explanation
A transducer is a device that converts one form of energy into another. In this case, the transducer converts the physical position of the exhaust nozzle on engines with afterburners into an electrical signal. This allows the engine control system to monitor and adjust the position of the nozzle as needed. A rheostat is a variable resistor used to control current, a rectifier is a device that converts alternating current to direct current, and a transformer is used to transfer electrical energy between circuits. None of these options would be suitable for converting the exhaust nozzle's position into an electrical signal.
21.
One type of overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stainless-steel tube that covers
Correct Answer
B. Two silver contacts.
Explanation
The correct answer is two silver contacts. This type of overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stainless-steel tube that covers two silver contacts. These contacts are designed to detect excessive heat and trigger an alarm or warning system if the temperature exceeds a certain threshold. The use of silver contacts ensures good conductivity and reliability in detecting overheating conditions in the engine.
22.
For an operational check of the fire warning system, you press
Correct Answer
A. Only the TEST switch.
Explanation
To perform an operational check of the fire warning system, you only need to press the TEST switch. This switch is specifically designed to initiate a test of the system, ensuring that all components are functioning properly. Pressing both the TEST and NORMAL switches or only the TEST WARNING ON switch would not provide a comprehensive check of the system. Additionally, pressing both the TEST ON and TEST OFF switches is not necessary as they serve different functions and are not relevant to the operational check of the fire warning system.
23.
What indicates the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing?
Correct Answer
A. EPR.
Explanation
EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio) is a measure of the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing. It is calculated by dividing the total pressure at the engine inlet by the total pressure at the engine exhaust. EPR provides an indication of the engine's efficiency and the amount of pressure being generated, which directly relates to the thrust produced. RPM (Revolutions Per Minute) measures the speed of the engine, EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicates the temperature of the exhaust gases, and TIT (Turbine Inlet Temperature) measures the temperature at the turbine inlet. None of these directly indicate the amount of thrust being produced.
24.
The term Pt2 means the
Correct Answer
B. Total (t) pressure (P) at station 2 (2).
Explanation
The term Pt2 refers to the total pressure (P) at station 2 (2).
25.
How is inlet Pt2 transmitted from its sensing point?
Correct Answer
D. Through tubing.
Explanation
The correct answer is "Through tubing." This means that the inlet Pt2 is transmitted from its sensing point using tubing. This suggests that there is a physical connection between the sensing point and the location where the inlet Pt2 is being transmitted. This method allows for the transfer of the inlet Pt2 information in a reliable and efficient manner.
26.
When connected to an engine oil pressure line the direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell indicates oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or
Correct Answer
C. Aircraft transmitter.
Explanation
The correct answer is aircraft transmitter. When connected to an engine oil pressure line, the direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell indicates oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or aircraft transformer. Instead, it uses an aircraft transmitter to transmit the oil pressure readings.
27.
The test cell’s EGT selector allows selecting
Correct Answer
D. Individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.
Explanation
The test cell's EGT selector allows the user to choose between individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs. This means that the user can either monitor the EGT parameter for each individual thermocouple separately or view an average value of all the thermocouples. The selector provides flexibility in monitoring and analyzing the EGT parameter based on the user's preference or specific requirements.
28.
The test cell fuel-flow rate indicator automatically controls the fuel module’s solenoid valves in order to divert fuel flow through the
Correct Answer
B. Flow turbines.
Explanation
The test cell fuel-flow rate indicator controls the solenoid valves of the fuel module to redirect the fuel flow through the flow turbines. This indicates that the flow turbines are an integral part of the fuel control system and are used to regulate the fuel flow.
29.
The display range of the test cell IC temperature indicator is
Correct Answer
C. –50 to +1,600 °F.
Explanation
The correct answer is –50 to +1,600 °F. This is because the test cell IC temperature indicator has a display range that starts from -50 °F and goes up to +1,600 °F. This means that it can accurately measure and display temperatures within this range.
30.
What engine vibration usually causes the most concern?
Correct Answer
A. Forced.
Explanation
Forced engine vibration usually causes the most concern because it is induced by external factors or components within the engine, such as misalignment, loose parts, or worn bearings. Unlike transient vibration, which occurs temporarily and then stops, forced vibration persists and can lead to more severe damage if not addressed. Unbalanced vibration, on the other hand, is caused by uneven distribution of mass within the engine and may cause discomfort but is generally not as concerning as forced vibration. Externally excited vibration is caused by external sources, such as aerodynamic forces or ground disturbances, and can also be a cause for concern.
31.
What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?
Correct Answer
D. Externally excited.
Explanation
Externally excited vibrations refer to vibrations that are caused by external factors, such as nearby machinery or equipment. These vibrations can lead to unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs because they can cause additional stress and strain on the engine components, leading to premature wear and damage. Unlike forced, transient, or unbalanced vibrations which are typically caused by internal factors within the engine, externally excited vibrations are caused by external factors outside the engine system.
32.
What engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?
Correct Answer
B. Transient.
Explanation
Transient engine vibration refers to vibrations that occur for a short duration and then disappear. These vibrations are not continuous or persistent but rather intermittent, coming and going at irregular intervals. This can be caused by various factors such as changes in load, speed, or operating conditions. Unlike resonance or externally excited vibrations which are continuous, transient vibrations are temporary and do not persist.
33.
In vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in
Correct Answer
C. Cycles per second.
Explanation
In vibration analysis, frequency is a measure of how many cycles per second an object or system completes. It is commonly measured in cycles per second, which is also known as Hertz (Hz). This unit of measurement helps to quantify the rate at which the vibration is occurring, providing valuable information for analyzing and understanding the behavior of the system.
34.
Which type of vibration transducer is made of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals?
Correct Answer
D. Piezoelectric accelerometer.
Explanation
A piezoelectric accelerometer is made of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals. These materials have the property of generating an electric charge when subjected to mechanical stress or vibration. This type of transducer is commonly used to measure acceleration and vibration in various applications, such as structural health monitoring, automotive testing, and aerospace engineering.
35.
Where do you find the instructions for installing vibration pickups at the test cell?
Correct Answer
B. Intermediate maintenance manual.
Explanation
The intermediate maintenance manual is the correct source for finding the instructions for installing vibration pickups at the test cell. This manual provides detailed guidance and procedures for maintenance tasks that are more complex than those covered in the organizational maintenance manual. It is a comprehensive resource that technicians can refer to for step-by-step instructions on how to install vibration pickups correctly.
36.
When using a vibration analyzer how are you notified when a preset signal has been exceeded?
Correct Answer
D. A flashing channel indicator LED.
Explanation
When using a vibration analyzer, a flashing channel indicator LED is used to notify the user when a preset signal has been exceeded. This LED serves as a visual indicator, alerting the user to the exceeded signal. It is a convenient and effective way to quickly identify when the vibration levels have surpassed the predetermined threshold.
37.
What supports the fan and low-pressure turbine?
Correct Answer
C. Bearings.
Explanation
Bearings support the fan and low-pressure turbine. Bearings are mechanical components that reduce friction between moving parts, allowing them to rotate smoothly. In this context, bearings help to support and facilitate the rotation of the fan and low-pressure turbine, ensuring their efficient operation. Bushings, brackets, and bulkheads are not specifically designed for this purpose, making bearings the correct answer.
38.
What procedure ensures that the fan and low-pressure turbine are correctly balanced?
Correct Answer
B. Fan rotor trim balance
Explanation
The procedure that ensures that the fan and low-pressure turbine are correctly balanced is fan rotor trim balance. This involves adjusting the fan rotor to ensure that it is properly aligned and balanced, which helps to optimize the performance and efficiency of the engine. By balancing the fan rotor, any vibrations or uneven forces can be minimized, resulting in smoother operation and improved overall performance of the engine.
39.
You can find written instructions for safe flight-line vehicle operations in
Correct Answer
D. AFOSH STD 91-100.
Explanation
The correct answer is AFOSH STD 91-100. This is because AFOSH STD 91-100 provides written instructions for safe flight-line vehicle operations. AFI 36-2903 is the Air Force Instruction for Dress and Personal Appearance of Air Force Personnel, which is not directly related to flight-line vehicle operations. The intermediate maintenance TO (Technical Order) would provide instructions for maintenance procedures, not specifically for safe vehicle operations on the flight-line.
40.
Trim means to adjust the engine systems for optimum performance according to the TO’s limits. The two methods used to trim an engine are
Correct Answer
D. Manual and electronic.
Explanation
The correct answer is manual and electronic. Trimming an engine involves adjusting its systems for optimal performance within the limits specified in the TO (Technical Order). This can be done using two methods: manual and electronic. Manual trimming refers to adjusting the engine systems manually, while electronic trimming involves using electronic controls to make the necessary adjustments. Both methods are used to ensure that the engine operates at its best performance levels.
41.
The pressure gauges used for an oil system pressure checks are connected at the
Correct Answer
B. Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system.
Explanation
The correct answer is the output side of the main oil pump and the vent system. This is because pressure gauges are used to measure the pressure of the oil system, and connecting them at the output side of the main oil pump allows for accurate measurement of the pressure being generated by the pump. Additionally, connecting the gauges at the vent system provides information about the pressure in the system after it has been used, allowing for monitoring and troubleshooting of any potential issues.
42.
When checking the turbine section, you do not measure
Correct Answer
D. IGT.
Explanation
When checking the turbine section, you do not measure IGT. IGT stands for Inlet Guide Vane Temperature, which is a measurement taken in the compressor section of a gas turbine engine. The turbine section is responsible for extracting energy from the combustion gases and converting it into mechanical energy to drive the compressor and other components. Therefore, it is not necessary to measure IGT in the turbine section.
43.
When doing an anti-ice valve operational check on an F-16C/D before starting the engine you place the anti-ice engine switch to
Correct Answer
B. OFF.
Explanation
Before starting the engine on an F-16C/D, the anti-ice engine switch should be placed in the OFF position. This is because the anti-ice system is used to prevent ice formation on critical components of the aircraft, such as the engine inlet and the wings. By placing the switch in the OFF position, it ensures that the anti-ice system is not activated during the engine start, which could potentially cause damage to the system.
44.
Aircraft noise suppressors have how many primary air silencers to help reduce turbine whine?
Correct Answer
A. 2.
Explanation
Aircraft noise suppressors have two primary air silencers to help reduce turbine whine. These silencers are designed to absorb and dissipate the noise generated by the turbine, reducing the overall noise level produced by the aircraft. By having two primary air silencers, the aircraft can effectively suppress the turbine whine and minimize the impact of noise pollution on the surrounding environment and communities.
45.
The aircraft noise suppressor shutdown procedure is important because it
Correct Answer
C. Ensures the noise suppressor will be operational for the next aircraft.
Explanation
The correct answer is "ensures the noise suppressor will be operational for the next aircraft." This is because the shutdown procedure is necessary to ensure that the noise suppressor is properly turned off and can be used again for the next aircraft. By following the correct shutdown procedure, any potential damage to the noise suppressor can be prevented, and it can continue to function effectively for future use.
46.
The sidewalls of the hush house test bay is constructed of
Correct Answer
A. Air inlet modules.
Explanation
The correct answer is air inlet modules. The sidewalls of the hush house test bay are constructed of air inlet modules. This implies that these modules are responsible for allowing air to enter the test bay. The other options, such as observation ports, air exhaust modules, and high-grade steel panels, do not specifically relate to the function of allowing air to enter the test bay.
47.
The hush house exhaust deflector is constructed of
Correct Answer
C. Small panel modules filled with noise reduction material.
Explanation
The correct answer is small panel modules filled with noise reduction material. This answer suggests that the hush house exhaust deflector is made up of small panel modules that are filled with a material specifically designed to reduce noise. This construction method allows for flexibility and adaptability, as the small panel modules can be easily adjusted or replaced as needed. Additionally, the use of noise reduction material further enhances the effectiveness of the exhaust deflector in reducing noise levels.
48.
Before moving an aircraft into the hush house, you must inspect the aircraft
Correct Answer
B. And its forms.
Explanation
Before moving an aircraft into the hush house, it is necessary to inspect the aircraft and its forms. This means that not only the physical condition of the aircraft should be checked, but also any necessary paperwork or documentation related to the aircraft should be reviewed. This ensures that all necessary inspections and maintenance procedures have been completed and documented correctly before the aircraft is moved into the hush house.
49.
What hush house feature allows flexibility when running an engine that has been removed from the airframe?
Correct Answer
C. The thrust stand slides into position on tracks.
Explanation
The thrust stand sliding into position on tracks allows flexibility when running an engine that has been removed from the airframe. This feature enables the engine to be securely positioned and adjusted as needed during testing or maintenance. It ensures stability and precision while the engine is being operated outside of the aircraft, providing a safe and controlled environment for engine testing.
50.
When inspecting the hush house, you are not required to check the
Correct Answer
A. Engine being tested.
Explanation
When inspecting the hush house, the focus is on examining various aspects related to the engine testing process. This includes checking for concrete deterioration, ensuring the functionality of the fire suppression system, and inspecting the engine tie-down assemblies to ensure they are secure. However, the engine being tested itself does not need to be checked as it is the central component of the testing process and is already being monitored and evaluated during the testing procedure.