CDC 2a651s Master Test By CDCmaster

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1. To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the

Explanation

To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, one should look at the top half on the right panel of the container.

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About This Quiz
CDC 2a651s Master Test By CDCmaster - Quiz

The CDC 2A651s Master test by CDCmaster evaluates knowledge critical for Air Force maintenance roles. It covers maintenance group functions, engine management, and career progression within Air Force specialty codes, emphasizing operational readiness and skill application.

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2. During the "over 180 days" preservation period, the fuel system is maintained full of

Explanation

During the "over 180 days" preservation period, the fuel system is maintained full of MIL-L-6081 (grade 1010). This indicates that MIL-L-6081 (grade 1010) is the appropriate fluid to keep the fuel system in optimal condition during long-term storage.

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3. Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?

Explanation

Engines that have been inactive for over 180 days need to undergo a preservation run and fuel system preservation. This is necessary to prevent any damage or deterioration to the engine and fuel system due to prolonged inactivity. The preservation run involves running the engine for a certain period of time to circulate the oil and ensure proper lubrication. Fuel system preservation involves taking measures to prevent the fuel system from getting contaminated or degraded during the inactive period. Both these steps are crucial to maintain the engine's functionality and prevent any issues when it is put back into operation.

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4. When can you consider a depreserved engine ready for service?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Only after a ground check run of the engine has been performed." This means that before considering a depreserved engine ready for service, it is necessary to conduct a ground check run of the engine. This ensures that the engine is in proper working condition and ready to be used. Motoring the engine, changing the filters, and visually inspecting the compressor and turbine for signs of corrosion may be important steps in the overall process, but they are not sufficient on their own to determine if the engine is ready for service.

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5. What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?

Explanation

Desiccants are used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored. Desiccants are substances that have a high affinity for water molecules and are able to absorb and hold moisture from the surrounding environment. By placing desiccants in the area where engines are stored, they can effectively reduce the moisture content in the air, preventing corrosion and damage to the engines. This makes desiccants an effective solution for maintaining the quality and longevity of engines in storage.

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6. On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to

Explanation

The purpose of the platform safety lockpins on personnel maintenance platforms is to prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use. This safety feature ensures that the platform remains in a stable position and prevents any accidental lowering that could potentially cause harm to the users or disrupt their work. The lockpins act as a mechanism to secure the platform in place, providing stability and preventing any unwanted movement.

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7. What information is found in Part I of an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record?

Explanation

Part I of an Air Force technical order (AFTO) Form 244, Industrial/Support Equipment Record, contains information related to item identification. This section of the form provides details about the specific equipment or item being recorded, such as its name, model number, serial number, and other identifying information. This helps in accurately tracking and maintaining records of the equipment throughout its lifecycle.

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8. What does fuel for an engine represent?

Explanation

Fuel for an engine represents potential energy. Potential energy is the stored energy within a system, in this case, the fuel. When the fuel is burned, it releases this potential energy, which is then converted into mechanical energy to power the engine. Therefore, fuel serves as a source of potential energy for the engine to operate.

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9. How many British thermal units (Btu) does the heat content per pound of kerosene produce? 

Explanation

Kerosene produces a heat content of 18500 British thermal units (Btu) per pound.

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10. To measure barometric pressure, you would use a

Explanation

A barometer is the correct instrument to measure barometric pressure. Barometric pressure refers to the pressure exerted by the atmosphere on a given area. A potentiometer is a device used to measure electrical potential difference, not pressure. A psychrometer is used to measure relative humidity and dew point, not barometric pressure. A pyrometer is used to measure high temperatures, not pressure. Therefore, a barometer is the most suitable instrument for measuring barometric pressure.

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11. What is the general flow of gases from the combustion chamber?

Explanation

The general flow of gases from the combustion chamber is parallel to the axis of the rotor shaft. This means that the gases are flowing in the same direction as the rotor shaft, creating a linear flow. This flow pattern allows for efficient transfer of energy from the combustion process to the rotor, which is essential for the proper functioning of the system.

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12. Gases enter the jet-engine's first-stage turbine wheel blades from the

Explanation

The gases enter the jet engine's first-stage turbine wheel blades from the turbine stator.

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13. A jet engine derives its name from its design in that it uses

Explanation

A jet engine is named after its design because it utilizes an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor. This turbine wheel is responsible for compressing the incoming air, which is then mixed with fuel and ignited to create propulsion. The exhaust gases produced from this combustion process are expelled at high speeds, generating thrust and propelling the aircraft forward. Therefore, the use of an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to power the compressor is a defining characteristic of a jet engine.

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14. The two forces that air is subjected to after it is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor are

Explanation

After air is drawn into the guide vanes of a centrifugal compressor, it is subjected to two forces: rotational and centrifugal. The rotational force is caused by the spinning motion of the compressor impeller, which imparts a swirling motion to the air. The centrifugal force is a result of the curved shape of the compressor's volute casing, which causes the air to be pushed outward in a radial direction. These two forces work together to compress the air and increase its pressure.

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15. What is the most common type of fuel nozzle system

Explanation

The most common type of fuel nozzle system is pressure-atomizing. This system uses pressure to atomize the fuel, breaking it up into small particles for efficient combustion. It is widely used in various applications, including automotive engines and industrial burners. Pressure-atomizing fuel nozzles provide better fuel-air mixing, resulting in improved combustion efficiency and reduced emissions.

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16. Before inspecting new jet engine bearings, you should

Explanation

Before inspecting new jet engine bearings, it is necessary to remove the preservative. This is because the preservative is typically applied to protect the bearings during storage and transportation. However, it can interfere with the inspection process and potentially contaminate the engine if not removed. Therefore, removing the preservative ensures that the bearings are clean and ready for inspection.

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17. Before you install separable bearings, you must ensure the

Explanation

In order to install separable bearings, it is important to ensure that the bearings are a matched set. This means that the bearings should be of the same size, type, and design, and they should have similar load-carrying capacities. Using mismatched bearings can lead to uneven distribution of loads and premature failure of the bearings. Therefore, it is crucial to check and confirm that the bearings being installed are a matched set before proceeding with the installation.

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18. One advantage of the modular design concept is that it eliminates the need to

Explanation

The advantage of the modular design concept is that it eliminates the need to return whole engines to the depot for overhaul. This means that instead of taking out the entire engine for maintenance or repair, only the specific module that requires attention can be easily removed and replaced. This reduces downtime and costs associated with engine overhaul, as well as simplifies the maintenance process.

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19. When discussing a jet engine and the location of its parts, you must always do so as if you were standing at the

Explanation

When discussing the location of parts in a jet engine, it is important to refer to them from the perspective of standing at the rear of the engine. This means that when describing the position of different components, you would be referring to them as if you were looking towards the front of the engine.

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20. External flanges on the F100 engine are referred to by

Explanation

The external flanges on the F100 engine are referred to by letter designations. This means that each flange is identified and labeled using a specific letter, which helps in distinguishing and locating them easily. This method of using letter designations is likely chosen because it provides a simple and organized way to refer to the various flanges on the engine. Number designations, directional references, and accessories references are not mentioned as the correct method of identifying the external flanges on the F100 engine.

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21. On an F100-PW-220 engine, the total temperature (Tt2) sensor sends electronic signals to the

Explanation

The total temperature (Tt2) sensor on an F100-PW-220 engine sends electronic signals to the Digital electronic engine control (DEEC). The DEEC is responsible for monitoring and controlling various engine parameters, including the fuel flow rate, which directly affects the engine's performance. By receiving signals from the Tt2 sensor, the DEEC can accurately measure the temperature of the air entering the engine and adjust the fuel flow accordingly to maintain optimal combustion conditions. This ensures efficient operation and prevents any potential damage to the engine.

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22. On an F100-PW-220 engine, which stage of compression provides anti-icing air for the engine inlet?

Explanation

The thirteenth stage of compression provides anti-icing air for the engine inlet on an F100-PW-220 engine. Anti-icing air is necessary to prevent ice formation on the engine inlet, which can disrupt airflow and potentially damage the engine.

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23. Where is the No.2 Bearing located in the F119-PW-100?

Explanation

The No.2 Bearing is located in the Intermediate case of the F119-PW-100.

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24. What is the composition of JP-8 fuel?

Explanation

JP-8 fuel is a type of jet fuel used by the military. It is a mixture of kerosene and gasoline. This combination provides the necessary properties for jet engines to function efficiently. Kerosene provides high energy content and stability at high temperatures, while gasoline improves cold weather performance. This composition allows JP-8 fuel to be used in a wide range of military aircraft and ground vehicles, making it a versatile fuel option for the military.

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25. When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine?

Explanation

The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) controls the operation of the F100-PW-220 engine when in the primary mode. DEEC is responsible for monitoring and adjusting various engine parameters such as fuel flow, temperature, and thrust. It ensures optimal engine performance, efficiency, and safety by making real-time adjustments based on inputs from sensors and pilot commands. MEC (Main Engine Control), PMG (Permanent Magnet Generator), and TSFC (Thrust Specific Fuel Consumption) are not directly involved in controlling the operation of the engine in the primary mode.

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26. On an F100-PW-220 engine, the DEEC is cooled by

Explanation

The correct answer is fuel. On an F100-PW-220 engine, the DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) is cooled by fuel. The DEEC is responsible for controlling and monitoring the engine's performance, and it generates a significant amount of heat during operation. To prevent overheating, fuel is used as a cooling medium, circulating through the DEEC and absorbing the excess heat. This helps maintain the DEEC at an optimal temperature and ensures its proper functioning.

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27. Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW-220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the

Explanation

The correct answer is MFC, fuel/oil cooler, P&D, and fuel nozzles. This sequence indicates the flow of fuel in the core engine of an F100-PW-220 engine. The fuel starts at the main fuel control (MFC), then passes through the fuel/oil cooler, the primary and drain (P&D) system, and finally reaches the fuel nozzles. This sequence ensures that the fuel is properly cooled and filtered before reaching the combustion chamber for efficient and safe engine operation.

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28. Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?

Explanation

An air/oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile. Just like a radiator cools the engine coolant by passing it through a network of fins and allowing air to flow over them, an air/oil cooler cools the oil by passing it through a similar network of fins and allowing air to flow over them. This helps in dissipating the heat from the oil, keeping it at an optimal temperature and preventing it from overheating.

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29. Carbon seals should be cleaned by soaking them in clean, warm

Explanation

The correct answer is engine lubricating oil for 30 minutes. Engine lubricating oil is specifically designed to lubricate and protect the moving parts of an engine. Soaking carbon seals in engine lubricating oil helps to remove carbon deposits and other contaminants, ensuring proper functioning of the seals. The 30-minute duration allows enough time for the oil to penetrate and dissolve the carbon buildup, resulting in clean and well-maintained carbon seals.

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30. On an F100-PW-220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Filter assembly bypass valve. During cold weather starts, the oil filter may become clogged or have increased resistance, which can cause a drop in oil pressure. The filter assembly bypass valve allows oil to bypass the oil filter and flow directly to the engine, ensuring that the engine receives an adequate oil supply for lubrication and protection even if the filter is not functioning optimally.

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31. On an F100-PW-220 engine, which bearing compartments drain into the gearbox by the tower shaft cavity?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 and 3. On an F100-PW-220 engine, bearing compartments 2 and 3 drain into the gearbox by the tower shaft cavity.

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32. Which action concerning open oil containers is correct?

Explanation

The correct action concerning open oil containers is to dispose of any portion not immediately used. This is the correct answer because open oil containers can easily become contaminated or spoiled if left open for too long. It is important to dispose of any unused portion to prevent any potential health hazards or damage to the environment. Storing the remaining portion immediately after use or in clearly marked containers may also be good practices, but the priority is to dispose of any unused portion.

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33. Increased friction between moving parts in the oil system

Explanation

When there is increased friction between moving parts in the oil system, it leads to more wear and tear on those parts. This increased wear accelerates the rate at which the parts degrade, resulting in more production of wear metal particles. Therefore, the correct answer is "accelerates the rate of wear, increasing the production of wear metal particles."

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34. What is the term for the process of producing voltage in a conductor when it passes through a magnetic field?

Explanation

Electromagnetic induction is the term used to describe the process of producing voltage in a conductor when it passes through a magnetic field. This phenomenon was first discovered by Michael Faraday in the early 19th century. When a conductor moves through a magnetic field or when the magnetic field around a conductor changes, it induces an electric current in the conductor. This principle is the basis for the functioning of generators, transformers, and many other electrical devices.

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35. To which flight is the engine management section assigned?

Explanation

The engine management section is assigned to the Maintenance Operations department. This department is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all maintenance activities, including the management of engines. They ensure that the engines are properly maintained, repaired, and serviced to ensure safe and efficient operation of the aircraft.

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36. What will be your title once you obtain the 7-skill level?

Explanation

The title "Craftsman" is appropriate for someone who has obtained the 7-skill level. This title suggests a high level of expertise and mastery in a particular craft or trade. It implies that the individual has gained significant experience and skill through years of practice and training. The term "Craftsman" also conveys a sense of professionalism and dedication to their craft. Overall, this title accurately reflects the achievement and proficiency of someone at the 7-skill level.

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37. What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge portion of your job?

Explanation

A career development course is a type of training that helps individuals learn the knowledge portion of their job. This type of training is specifically designed to enhance the skills and knowledge required for career advancement and growth. It is usually offered to employees who want to develop their careers further and gain a deeper understanding of their job responsibilities. This training may cover various topics such as leadership, technical skills, communication, and problem-solving, among others. Participating in a career development course can provide individuals with the necessary tools and knowledge to excel in their current job and prepare them for future career opportunities.

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38. How many months must you have in the Air Force before you may attend the Airman Leadership Scholl (ALS)?

Explanation

In order to attend the Airman Leadership School (ALS), one must have completed 48 months in the Air Force. This indicates that a certain level of experience and time in service is required before being eligible for this leadership training program.

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39. What does the EGT/T5.6 thermocouple consist of?

Explanation

The EGT/T5.6 thermocouple consists of both Alumel and Chromel.

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40. Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?

Explanation

Air Force instruction 21-101 defines quality maintenance and mandates that maintenance personnel demonstrate integrity and adhere to all written guidance.

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41. Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?

Explanation

To ensure the safety of proceeding with maintenance on the aircraft, it is important to check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft. This is because they may have valuable information or observations regarding the condition of the aircraft or any potential hazards that need to be addressed before starting maintenance. Collaborating with other personnel helps to ensure that all necessary precautions are taken and that the maintenance can be carried out safely.

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42. Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by

Explanation

Foreign object damage (FOD) is typically caused by people. This refers to any damage or impairment to an object, such as an aircraft or engine, caused by foreign objects. These objects can be anything from tools and equipment left behind by maintenance personnel to debris and litter on runways or taxiways. Human error, negligence, or lack of proper maintenance procedures can lead to the presence of foreign objects, which can in turn cause damage to equipment. Therefore, people are the most common cause of FOD incidents.

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43. The JFS is basically a

Explanation

The given correct answer, "small gas turbine engine," suggests that the JFS (Jet Fuel Starter) is a type of engine that operates using gas turbine technology. This engine is likely smaller in size compared to other gas turbine engines and is used for starting larger engines or providing auxiliary power. It is not a piston-type starter or a pneumatic type starter, which indicates that it does not rely on piston or pneumatic mechanisms for its operation. Additionally, it is not a cartridge-pneumatic starter, which implies that it does not use a cartridge-based system for generating the necessary power.

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44. Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of

Explanation

Gases are the easiest form of toxic materials to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions because they can be easily inhaled. Unlike solids, liquids, or aerosols, gases can quickly enter the respiratory system and be absorbed into the bloodstream, allowing them to reach various organs and tissues rapidly. This fast absorption and distribution increase the likelihood of toxic reactions occurring quickly.

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45. Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for providing training on how to wear, use, and maintain personal protective equipment. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and expertise to ensure that employees are properly trained in the correct procedures. The supervisor is also responsible for enforcing safety protocols and ensuring that employees are following them correctly. Therefore, it is the supervisor's responsibility to provide training on personal protective equipment.

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46. What would you normally use to clean and sanitize respirators?

Explanation

Mild soap is commonly used to clean and sanitize respirators. It is a gentle and effective cleaning agent that can remove dirt, oils, and other contaminants from the respirator's surface. Mild soap is also safe to use on most types of respirators without causing damage or compromising their functionality. It is important to clean and sanitize respirators regularly to maintain their effectiveness and prevent the buildup of bacteria or viruses. Alcohol and pine oil may be too harsh for certain respirator materials, while fleur-de-lis is not a cleaning agent and therefore not suitable for this purpose.

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47. Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and

Explanation

Containers holding hazardous waste must be clearly marked to show the contents and the date the waste began to accumulate. This is important for proper management and disposal of the waste. The date of accumulation helps in determining the age of the waste, which is crucial for compliance with regulations regarding storage and disposal time limits. It also helps in tracking the waste and ensuring that it is properly managed and disposed of in a timely manner to prevent any potential hazards or environmental contamination.

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48. A specialized function of the supply mission is

Explanation

The specialized function of the supply mission that is being described here is disposal. This means that one of the main tasks of the supply mission is to properly get rid of or dispose of certain items or materials. This could involve safely discarding waste, disposing of hazardous materials, or managing the proper disposal of unwanted or expired supplies.

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49. Which supply document provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS)?

Explanation

The Daily Document Register (D04) provides a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed during the day by the Standard Base Supply System (SBSS). This register allows organizations to keep track of all the documents processed, ensuring that no document numbers are missed or overlooked. It serves as a comprehensive record of all the documents processed and can be used for auditing and accountability purposes. The other options mentioned, such as the Priority Monitor Report (D18), Due-out Validation Listing (M30), and Repair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23), do not specifically provide a means to review all document numbers processed during the day.

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50. Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a priority basis because of the differences in each organization's 

Explanation

Base Supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a priority basis because of the differences in each organization's mission. The mission of an organization determines the specific requirements and needs of that organization, including the types of parts and supplies needed. Therefore, delivering parts based on the mission ensures that each organization receives the necessary resources to carry out their specific tasks and objectives effectively.

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51. What does a completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serve to identify?

Explanation

A completed Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 350 serves to identify the origin of an item. This form is used to document and track the history of an item, including its source or manufacturer. It helps in maintaining a record of the item's origin, which can be useful for various purposes such as quality control, warranty claims, or identifying potential issues related to specific suppliers or manufacturers.

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52. A Category I deficiency report (DR) is used to report a deficiency

Explanation

A Category I deficiency report is used to report a deficiency that, if left uncorrected, has the potential to cause significant loss or damage to equipment or a system. This report is specifically for critical or major defects identified during an initial acceptance inspection. It is important to track and address these deficiencies to prevent any major consequences or harm to the equipment or system.

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53. Within how many hours must Category I deficiency reports (DR) be forwarded to the originating point?

Explanation

Category I deficiency reports (DR) must be forwarded to the originating point within 24 hours. This means that any major issues or deficiencies that are classified as Category I must be reported and addressed within a 24-hour timeframe. This allows for prompt action to be taken in order to rectify the deficiency and ensure the safety and efficiency of operations.

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54. When should new equipment account custodians receive training?

Explanation

New equipment account custodians should receive training before signing for the account to ensure that they are familiar with the equipment and its proper use. This training will help them understand their responsibilities as custodians and ensure that they can effectively manage and maintain the equipment. It is important for custodians to have this training before taking on the responsibility of caring for the equipment to minimize the risk of damage or misuse.

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55. Which technical order (TO) describes the Air Force TO system?

Explanation

The technical order (TO) that describes the Air Force TO system is 00-5-1.

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56. Which type of technical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?

Explanation

A Job Guide is a type of technical manual that is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action. It provides step-by-step instructions and guidance on how to perform specific maintenance tasks on a piece of equipment or system. This manual is designed to assist technicians in carrying out their maintenance duties effectively and efficiently. It helps them understand the sequence of tasks required to complete a specific maintenance action and ensures that they follow the correct procedures.

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57. What component in the F100 monitoring system provides the operator information concerning how much (in percentage) the augmentor nozzle is opened or closed?

Explanation

The Augmentor Nozzle positioning indicator is the component in the F100 monitoring system that provides the operator information about the percentage of opening or closing of the augmentor nozzle. This indicator helps the operator monitor and control the position of the nozzle, which is crucial for the performance and efficiency of the system.

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58. Who originates technical orders?

Explanation

The equipment manufacturer is responsible for originating technical orders. They have the knowledge and expertise to create detailed instructions and procedures for the proper use and maintenance of their equipment. These technical orders provide essential guidance to users and maintenance personnel, ensuring that the equipment is operated safely and efficiently. The manufacturer's involvement in creating technical orders also allows them to address any updates or modifications to the equipment, ensuring that users have the most up-to-date information.

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59. The F100 engine augmentor's primary nozzle actuator is driven by cables from the

Explanation

The correct answer is CENC. The CENC (Combined Engine Nozzle Control) system is responsible for controlling the position of the primary nozzle in the F100 engine augmentor. It receives input signals from various sources, including the T5 amplifier and the afterburner control, and uses these signals to drive the actuator that controls the nozzle position. The CENC system ensures that the nozzle is positioned correctly to optimize engine performance and thrust output.

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60. Depot level support includes depot field teams (DFT) and

Explanation

Depot level support refers to the maintenance and repair activities carried out at a depot or central facility. This support includes various teams such as depot field teams (DFT), contract field teams (CFT), base jet engine run crews, oil analysis teams, and slide engineers. Among these options, contract field teams (CFT) are specifically mentioned as part of depot level support. These teams are likely hired through contractual agreements to provide additional maintenance and repair services at the depot level.

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61. What component in the electronic/mechanical controls is a fuel cooled digital computer that provides signals to the MFC for control of the front compressor speed (N1), rear compressor speed (N2), engine airflow, combustion chamber pressure (Pb4) and FTIT?

Explanation

The correct answer is DEEC. DEEC stands for Digital Electronic Engine Control, which is a fuel cooled digital computer that provides signals to the MFC (Main Fuel Control) for control of various parameters such as front compressor speed (N1), rear compressor speed (N2), engine airflow, combustion chamber pressure (Pb4), and FTIT (Fan Turbine Inlet Temperature). DEEC plays a crucial role in regulating and optimizing the performance of the engine by continuously monitoring and adjusting these parameters.

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62. You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on the following Air Force technical order (AFTO) Forms

Explanation

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63. Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?

Explanation

The Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objectives include accurately updating scheduled maintenance requirements, evaluating engine controls and accessories, and detecting unique durability problems. However, reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets is not specifically mentioned as an objective of the program.

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64. Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause

Explanation

Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause injury to you. This is because having a tool in your pocket increases the risk of accidental contact with the tool, leading to cuts, punctures, or other injuries. Additionally, the weight and shape of the tool can cause discomfort or restrict movement, increasing the likelihood of accidents or falls. Therefore, it is important to always carry hand tools in a proper tool belt or bag to ensure safety.

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65. What would you use to hold your tools when you tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach?

Explanation

A tool bag would be the most suitable option to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach. A tool bag is specifically designed to carry and organize tools, making it convenient to have all necessary tools in one place. It allows for easy transportation and ensures that the tools are protected and easily accessible when needed.

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66. If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,

Explanation

When torquing a sequence of three or more bolts, it is recommended to use a staggered sequence. This means that instead of tightening the bolts in a consecutive or linear manner, they should be tightened in a crisscross or alternating pattern. This helps to ensure even distribution of torque and prevents uneven stress or strain on the bolts and the object being fastened. Using a staggered sequence helps to maintain the integrity and stability of the connection.

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67. What type of rule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?

Explanation

A slide caliper is the correct tool to use for measuring an inside diameter. Slide calipers have two jaws, one of which can be inserted into the inside diameter of an object to measure its width accurately. The other options mentioned, such as 6-inch steel, narrow, and hook, are not suitable for measuring inside diameter.

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68. If you were tasked to measure the clearance between two surfaces, what type of gauge would you use?

Explanation

A thickness gauge is the most appropriate tool for measuring the clearance between two surfaces. This type of gauge is specifically designed to measure the thickness of materials and can provide accurate measurements for small gaps or clearances. The other options, such as a steel-rule, micrometer, and dial indicator, are not specifically designed for measuring clearances and may not provide the same level of accuracy or precision as a thickness gauge.

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69. What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an assembled engine?

Explanation

A borescope inspection on an assembled engine is conducted to visually inspect the internal sections of the engine. This allows for a thorough examination of the engine's components and helps to identify any potential issues or damage that may not be visible from the outside. By using a borescope, technicians can assess the condition of the engine without the need for disassembly, saving time and resources. This inspection helps to ensure the engine's performance and reliability by detecting any hidden problems that may require maintenance or repairs.

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70. Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by

Explanation

The correct answer is "the fiber optics" because fiber optics is a technology that uses thin strands of glass or plastic to transmit light signals. In the context of a borescope, which is a flexible tube used to view hard-to-reach areas, fiber optics is commonly used to transmit light from a source to the tip of the borescope. This allows the user to illuminate the area being viewed and obtain a clear image.

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71. When operating a borescope, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you're inspecting?

Explanation

The distal tip light guides of a borescope are responsible for illuminating the interior of the area being inspected. These light guides are located at the tip of the borescope and emit light to provide visibility in dark or hard-to-reach areas. By directing the light towards the inspection area, the distal tip light guides allow the operator to clearly see and assess the condition of the object or space being examined.

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72. Which factor is not considered for borescope operation certification?

Explanation

Age is not considered for borescope operation certification because the ability to operate a borescope effectively is not necessarily dependent on a person's age. Instead, factors such as experience, maturity, and rank are more relevant in determining the certification for borescope operation. Age alone does not guarantee the necessary skills and knowledge required for this certification.

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73. Which type of borescope misuse causes a poor field of view (black spots)?

Explanation

Applying lateral pressure to the fiber bundle can cause the fibers to become misaligned or damaged, resulting in a poor field of view with black spots.

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74. The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to

Explanation

The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to avoid bottoming out the nut. This means that the bolt should not extend too far into the material, as it could cause the nut to reach the end of the bolt before it is fully tightened. By having a slightly shorter grip length, it ensures that the nut will have enough threads to securely fasten onto the bolt without the risk of bottoming out, which could result in a loose connection.

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75. When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be

Explanation

When installing a self-tapping screw, the hole must be slightly smaller than the screw. This is because the screw needs to grip the material tightly in order to create a secure connection. If the hole is the same size as the screw or slightly larger, the screw may not have enough grip and could become loose over time. Additionally, if the hole is slightly deeper than the length of the shank or slightly shallower than the length of the screw, it may not provide enough support for the screw and could result in a weak connection.

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76. To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces where a lock washer is required, what should you use?

Explanation

To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces, a plain washer should be used underneath the lock washer. This is because the plain washer provides a flat surface that distributes the pressure evenly, preventing the lock washer from digging into the soft metal and causing damage. By using a plain washer underneath the lock washer, the soft metal surfaces are protected and the lock washer can effectively perform its function of preventing loosening of the fastener.

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77. When lock wiring, how  many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness

Explanation

When lock wiring, the proper stiffness is achieved by twisting the wire a certain number of times per inch. In this case, the correct answer is 8 to 10 twists per inch. This range ensures that the wire is securely tightened and provides the necessary stiffness to prevent loosening or movement of the locked components.

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78. Why is it necessary to carefully remove support clamps when disconnecting tubes?

Explanation

It is necessary to carefully remove support clamps when disconnecting tubes because doing so prevents nicking and scratching. If the clamps are not removed carefully, they can cause damage to the tubes, leading to leaks or other issues. By taking the time to remove the clamps properly, the tubes can be safely disconnected without any damage or harm.

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79. Why should dust caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside them?

Explanation

Installing dust caps over tube ends instead of inside them avoids the possibility of leaving the caps installed. If the caps are installed inside the tube ends, there is a chance that they may not be removed before the tube is used, which can lead to issues such as restricted flow or damage to the inner tube surface. By installing the caps over the tube ends, it ensures that they are easily visible and can be removed before the tube is put into use.

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80. When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then

Explanation

Upon receiving an engine in the shop, it is important to check the applicable forms first to ensure that all necessary documentation and procedures are followed. After that, one should proceed to inspect the compressor inlet. This step is crucial as it allows for the identification of any potential issues or damage that may affect the engine's performance. By checking the compressor inlet, one can ensure that the engine is in proper working condition and address any leaks or missing parts that may be present.

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81. When disassembling the oil filter, why should you always use a clean container?

Explanation

Using a clean container when disassembling the oil filter prevents false contaminant indications. If the container is not clean, any contaminants present in the container could mix with the oil from the filter, giving the false impression that the oil is contaminated. By using a clean container, the integrity of the oil sample is maintained, ensuring accurate analysis and preventing false readings.

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82. Where is the highest point of temperature reached in an engine?

Explanation

The highest point of temperature is reached in the combustion section of an engine. This is where the fuel and air mixture is ignited and combustion occurs. The combustion process generates a significant amount of heat, resulting in high temperatures in this section of the engine.

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83. Which type of hose assemblies are exempt from shelf-life storage?

Explanation

Teflon hose assemblies are exempt from shelf-life storage because Teflon is a highly durable material that is resistant to corrosion, chemicals, and extreme temperatures. Unlike rubber or synthetic rubber hoses, Teflon hoses do not degrade or deteriorate over time, making them suitable for long-term storage without any impact on their performance or safety. Additionally, Teflon hoses have a longer lifespan compared to other types of hoses, further justifying their exemption from shelf-life storage requirements.

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84. Which section of a jet engine introduces and burns fuel?

Explanation

The section of a jet engine that introduces and burns fuel is the combustion section. In this section, fuel is mixed with compressed air and ignited, producing a high-temperature, high-pressure gas. This gas then expands and flows through the turbine, where it drives the engine's compressor and generates thrust. The combustion section is crucial for the overall operation of the jet engine as it is responsible for converting the chemical energy of the fuel into mechanical energy and propulsive force.

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85. Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?

Explanation

Before removing a shipping container lid, it is important to release all pressure. This is necessary to ensure the safety of the person opening the container and to prevent any potential accidents or injuries. By releasing the pressure, the risk of sudden bursts or explosions is minimized, making it safer to remove the lid.

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86. The product of thermal efficiency and propulsive efficiency is

Explanation

The product of thermal efficiency and propulsive efficiency is the overall efficiency. Overall efficiency is a measure of how effectively an engine converts the energy from fuel into useful work. It takes into account both the efficiency of the combustion process (thermal efficiency) and the efficiency of converting the generated power into useful thrust (propulsive efficiency). By multiplying these two efficiencies together, we get the overall efficiency, which represents the total efficiency of the engine in converting fuel energy into useful work.

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87. Who monitors flying and maintenance schedules and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?

Explanation

The Maintenance Operations Center is responsible for monitoring flying and maintenance schedules and maintaining visibility of fleet health indicators. They oversee the operational and maintenance activities of the fleet, ensuring that all aircraft are properly maintained and available for missions. This includes coordinating with various units and personnel involved in the maintenance process to ensure efficient operations and timely repairs. By closely monitoring schedules and fleet health indicators, the Maintenance Operations Center plays a crucial role in ensuring the readiness and effectiveness of the fleet.

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88. Who has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program?

Explanation

The Vice Wing commander has overall responsibility for the foreign object damage (FOD) program. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that proper procedures are in place to prevent foreign objects from causing damage to equipment, aircraft, or personnel. They are responsible for implementing and enforcing FOD prevention measures, conducting inspections, and addressing any issues or incidents related to FOD. As the second-in-command of the Wing, the Vice Wing commander has the authority and accountability to oversee the FOD program and ensure its effectiveness.

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89. Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent

Explanation

Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent unauthorized entry to ensure the safety of individuals and the environment. Unauthorized entry can lead to accidents, theft, or intentional harm, which can result in the release of hazardous materials and pose a risk to human health and the surrounding ecosystem. Therefore, implementing measures to restrict access to these areas is crucial in maintaining a secure and controlled environment for the storage and handling of hazardous waste.

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90. Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require

Explanation

Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require overhaul. This means that these specific equipment items are designed in a way that they will inevitably need to undergo a thorough inspection, repair, and maintenance process in order to restore them to their optimal working condition. Overhaul is necessary to ensure that the equipment is functioning properly and to extend its lifespan.

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91. Which type of items must be reflected on the Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)?

Explanation

The Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL) must reflect the equipment authorization inventory data. This means that any items that have been authorized for custody and are part of the inventory must be included in the listing. This ensures that there is a record of all authorized equipment and helps in tracking and managing the inventory effectively.

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92. What feature is common to all dial indicators?

Explanation

All dial indicators have the ability to amplify movement greatly. This means that even a small movement or change in the measured quantity can be easily detected and displayed on the dial of the indicator. This feature is important in precision measurement applications where even the slightest change needs to be accurately measured and recorded. By amplifying the movement, dial indicators provide a clear and magnified indication of the measured quantity, allowing for precise measurements to be taken.

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93. Operating procedures and practices that if not strictly observed may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of

Explanation

Maintenance manuals often contain operating procedures and practices that need to be strictly followed to avoid any damage to equipment. These procedures are typically highlighted in the form of "cautions." Cautions serve as a warning or reminder to the user about potential risks or hazards associated with certain actions or steps. They indicate that failure to adhere to the specified instructions may result in equipment damage. Therefore, cautions are crucial in ensuring the safe and proper operation of equipment and preventing any potential harm.

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94. What should you use to check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container?

Explanation

To check for pressure leaks on an engine/module shipping container, a soap-water solution should be used. This solution is commonly used in leak testing as it helps to identify any leaks by creating visible bubbles when applied to the surface. By applying the soap-water solution to the container, any escaping air or pressure will cause bubbles to form, indicating the presence of a leak. This method is cost-effective and easy to use, making it a practical choice for checking for pressure leaks.

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95. To dry an engine after water-washing a compressor, run the engine for at least

Explanation

To ensure proper drying of an engine after water-washing a compressor, it is recommended to run the engine for at least 2 minutes. This duration allows sufficient time for the engine to generate enough heat to evaporate any residual water, preventing potential damage caused by water accumulation. Running the engine for a shorter duration may not effectively dry the engine, while running it for a longer duration may be unnecessary and consume more fuel. Therefore, running the engine for 2 minutes strikes a balance between effective drying and efficiency.

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96. The parts on a can-annular combustion chamber section must be removed in a specific order because of the

Explanation

The combustion chamber crossover tubes must be removed in a specific order because they connect the different sections of the can-annular combustion chamber. Removing them in the wrong order could disrupt the flow of fuel and air through the chamber, leading to inefficient combustion or even engine failure. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the correct sequence to ensure proper functioning and safety of the combustion chamber.

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97. If the safety seals on a fuel system component are broken or removed, and you suspect the factory adjustment was altered, you should

Explanation

If the safety seals on a fuel system component are broken or removed and there is suspicion that the factory adjustment was altered, the appropriate action would be to forward the component to the authorized depot for reflow and resealing. This ensures that the component is properly inspected, adjusted, and sealed by authorized personnel to maintain its safety and functionality.

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98. Through the use of spectrometric oil analysis, aircraft will have a higher in-commission rate because there will be

Explanation

The use of spectrometric oil analysis allows for more accurate monitoring of the oil condition in aircraft engines. This helps in identifying potential issues at an early stage, leading to less unnecessary maintenance. By detecting wear metals in the oil, maintenance can be targeted to specific areas, reducing the need for extensive and costly repairs. This ultimately results in a higher in-commission rate for the aircraft as it can remain operational for longer periods without the need for frequent maintenance.

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99. When a bench stock item has a type I shelf-life it means the item

Explanation

A bench stock item with a type I shelf-life has a definite nonextendible period of shelf-life. This means that the item has a specific period of time in which it can be used or stored before it expires. This expiration date cannot be extended, and once the item reaches its shelf-life limit, it should no longer be used or stored.

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100. The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is

Explanation

The longest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is 1 inch. This means that the micrometer can measure objects up to 1 inch in length accurately. The spindle and anvil are the two components of the micrometer that come together to measure the length of an object. By adjusting the position of the spindle, the micrometer can measure different lengths with precision. In this case, the micrometer has a maximum calibrated movement of 1 inch, indicating its ability to measure objects up to that length accurately.

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101. Foot-pounds and inch-pounds are units of measure for

Explanation

Foot-pounds and inch-pounds are units of measure commonly used to quantify work. Work is defined as the transfer of energy that occurs when a force is applied to an object and it is displaced in the direction of that force. In this context, work is calculated by multiplying the force applied to an object by the distance it is moved. Foot-pounds and inch-pounds are both units that express the amount of work done, with foot-pounds typically used in larger-scale applications and inch-pounds used in smaller-scale applications. Therefore, the correct answer is work.

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102. The percentage of combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between

Explanation

The percentage of combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between 95 and 100. This range indicates that the turbine is highly efficient in converting fuel into usable energy. A combustion efficiency of 95-100% means that almost all of the fuel is being burned completely, resulting in minimal waste and maximum energy output. This high level of efficiency is desirable in gas turbines as it leads to lower fuel consumption and reduced emissions.

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103. The most commonly used bearing removal tools include

Explanation

Arbor presses and bearing pullers are the most commonly used bearing removal tools. Arbor presses are used to apply pressure and force to remove bearings, while bearing pullers are used to grip and pull out bearings from their housing. These tools work together effectively to safely and efficiently remove bearings without causing damage to the surrounding components. Drift pipes and hammers may be used in some cases, but arbor presses and bearing pullers are generally preferred due to their precision and ease of use.

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104. The difference between DC and AC is that DC

Explanation

DC stands for direct current, which means that the flow of electric charge is in one direction only. It has a constant polarity, meaning that the positive and negative terminals of the power source remain the same. On the other hand, AC stands for alternating current, which constantly changes direction at regular intervals. The flow of electric charge in AC fluctuates from negative to positive values, creating a wave-like pattern. Therefore, the correct answer is that DC has a constant polarity, while AC changes direction at regular intervals.

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105. The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the

Explanation

The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the broached opening. The broached opening is the part of the torque extension that fits onto the fastener, allowing torque to be applied. The distance between the square drive and the broached opening affects the leverage and torque applied to the fastener. Therefore, the length of the torque extension is determined by the distance between these two points.

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106. If the input into the Fluke 8025A meter is over the range being used, what will the digital display show?

Explanation

When the input into the Fluke 8025A meter exceeds the range being used, the digital display will show "OL". This is an abbreviation for "Overload" and indicates that the input signal is beyond the meter's measurement capabilities.

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107. Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees F?

Explanation

Nonmetallic self-locking nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees F because they are made of materials that cannot withstand high temperatures. These nuts are typically made of plastic or nylon, which have low melting points and can degrade or melt at high temperatures. Therefore, using nonmetallic self-locking nuts in such conditions could lead to failure or malfunction, compromising the integrity and safety of the structure or equipment they are used in.

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108. How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4 because the question asks how many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support. This indicates that the adapters are being attached to the support using pins. Therefore, there are 4 pins used to secure the adapters.

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109. The temperature of compressed air in a jet engine must be raised to

Explanation

In a jet engine, the temperature of compressed air needs to be raised in order to increase its energy. This is because the energy in the compressed air is used to generate thrust and propel the aircraft forward. By increasing the temperature, the air molecules gain more kinetic energy, resulting in a higher velocity when expelled from the engine. This increased velocity creates a greater thrust force, allowing the aircraft to move faster and more efficiently.

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110. The excess airflow that is not burned in the combustion section is used to

Explanation

The excess airflow that is not burned in the combustion section is used to mix with and cool the burned gases. This is done to lower the temperature of the gases before they are expelled from the engine as exhaust. By mixing the excess airflow with the burned gases, the overall temperature is reduced, which helps to prevent overheating and potential damage to the engine components. Additionally, cooling the burned gases also helps to improve fuel efficiency and reduce emissions.

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111. Fuel that accumulates after a failed start is

Explanation

After a failed start, the fuel that accumulates needs to be removed from the system. This is done by draining it overboard using a drain system. This ensures that any excess fuel or contaminants are removed from the system, preventing any potential issues during the next start attempt.

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112. How many different types of loads can be imposed on a jet engine bearing?

Explanation

There are three different types of loads that can be imposed on a jet engine bearing. The bearing can experience radial loads, which are forces acting perpendicular to the axis of rotation. It can also experience axial loads, which are forces acting parallel to the axis of rotation. Additionally, the bearing can experience moment loads, which are forces that cause a twisting or bending effect. These three types of loads are important to consider in the design and operation of a jet engine bearing.

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113. What drives the inlet fan module (IFM) in the F119-PW-100 engine?

Explanation

The low-pressure turbine (LPT) module drives the inlet fan module (IFM) in the F119-PW-100 engine. The LPT module is responsible for extracting energy from the exhaust gases and using it to drive the fan, which in turn draws in air for combustion. This arrangement allows for efficient and effective operation of the engine, providing the necessary power for propulsion.

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114. Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their

Explanation

Labyrinth seals are made of soft metal construction, which makes them vulnerable to damage. Due to their delicate nature, they can be easily damaged during handling or installation. This is why extreme care is necessary when working with labyrinth seals to prevent any harm or impairment to their structure.

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115. What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air?

Explanation

Aeration is the term used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air. This process can occur when there is excessive turbulence or foaming in the oil, leading to reduced lubrication efficiency and potential damage to the equipment. Aeration can be caused by factors such as high oil level, faulty seals, or improper oil viscosity. It is important to address aeration issues promptly to ensure proper lubrication and prevent equipment failure.

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116. On a simple AC generator, which item takes the current from the slip rings to operate the electrical device?

Explanation

Brushes are used in an AC generator to transfer the current from the slip rings to the electrical device. They make contact with the slip rings and provide a path for the current to flow into the device. The brushes are typically made of carbon or graphite, which have good electrical conductivity and can withstand the friction and heat generated during operation. The brushes play a crucial role in ensuring a continuous and reliable transfer of current from the generator to the electrical device.

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117. Discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-critical areas is taken from which engine area?

Explanation

The discharge air used for aircraft engine anti-icing to heat-critical areas is taken from the compressor. The compressor is responsible for compressing the incoming air and supplying it to the combustion chamber. By taking the discharge air from the compressor, it ensures that the air is at a high enough temperature to effectively heat the critical areas and prevent ice formation.

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118. Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for whom?

Explanation

Centralized repair facilities (CRF) provide support for war fighters. These facilities are designed to offer repair and maintenance services to military personnel who are actively engaged in combat or war-related operations. By providing centralized support, CRFs ensure that war fighters have access to the necessary equipment and resources to carry out their missions effectively. This support can include repairing and maintaining weapons, vehicles, and other essential equipment, as well as providing technical assistance and logistical support.

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119. Who maintains accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reports their status?

Explanation

The production supervisor is responsible for maintaining accountability of centralized repair facility (CRF) assets and reporting their status. They oversee the repair and maintenance operations, ensuring that all assets are properly accounted for and their status is accurately reported. This includes tracking inventory, monitoring equipment usage, and coordinating with other departments to ensure efficient asset management. The production supervisor plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning of the CRF and optimizing asset utilization.

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120. Three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines are impulse, reaction, and

Explanation

The correct answer is "reaction-impulse". In jet engines, turbines and vane assemblies are used to convert the high-pressure gases into mechanical energy. Impulse turbines work on the principle of Newton's third law of motion, where the fluid's momentum changes as it passes through the turbine blades. Reaction turbines, on the other hand, work on the principle of Newton's second law of motion, where the fluid's pressure changes as it passes through the turbine blades. The term "reaction-impulse" suggests that the turbine and vane assemblies in jet engines can utilize both the principles of impulse and reaction to generate mechanical energy.

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121. Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of bearing parts striking together?

Explanation

Nicks are a type of defect that appear on bearings as a result of bearing parts striking together. When the bearing parts collide or come into contact with each other, small chips or nicks can be formed on the surface. These nicks can cause damage to the bearing and affect its performance. Therefore, nicks are a common type of defect that can occur on bearings due to the striking of bearing parts.

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122. Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of small particles of foreign material becoming lodged between the rollers?

Explanation

When small particles of foreign material become lodged between the rollers of bearings, it can cause grooves to appear. These grooves are a type of defect that can affect the performance and durability of the bearings. The presence of grooves can lead to increased friction, uneven load distribution, and potential failure of the bearings over time. Therefore, it is important to regularly inspect and maintain bearings to prevent the accumulation of foreign particles and the formation of grooves.

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123. On which module of an F100-PW-220 engine is the stator generator mounted?

Explanation

The stator generator of an F100-PW-220 engine is mounted on the gearbox. The gearbox is a crucial component in an engine that helps transmit power from the core to other parts of the engine. Mounting the stator generator on the gearbox allows it to efficiently generate electricity while being connected to the core and other modules of the engine.

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124. On an F100-PW-220 engine, the leading edge vanes are hollow

Explanation

The leading edge vanes on an F100-PW-220 engine are hollow so that anti-icing air can flow through them. This is important because during flight, ice can accumulate on the engine's surfaces, including the leading edge vanes. By allowing anti-icing air to flow through the vanes, it helps prevent ice formation and ensures the engine operates efficiently. This feature is crucial for safe and reliable engine performance, particularly in cold weather conditions.

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125. Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?

Explanation

A gerotor oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing. The gear and rotor mesh together to create chambers that move the oil from the inlet to the outlet. This design allows for efficient and consistent oil flow, making gerotor pumps commonly used in automotive engines.

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126. Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of check?

Explanation

Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making a continuity check. This means that they are designed to detect whether there is a continuous electrical path between two points. By checking for continuity, chip detectors can determine whether there is a break or interruption in the electrical circuit, which could indicate a fault or malfunction. This is an important feature for detecting any potential issues with the chip or the system it is monitoring.

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127. What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?

Explanation

Microscopic metallic particles that are present in the oil system and result from the normal wear and tear of engine components are called wear metals. These particles are often used as indicators of the condition and health of the engine, as their presence can indicate excessive wear or damage to the components.

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128. In order to avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft?

Explanation

The minimum distance to the rear of the aircraft to avoid the engine exhaust blast is 200 feet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and equipment from the high temperatures and strong force of the exhaust gases. Being closer than 200 feet can pose a risk of injury or damage due to the intense heat and pressure generated by the aircraft's engines.

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129. From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manage supply?

Explanation

The Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC) manages supply from the perspective of the weapons system. This means that the GLSC focuses on the logistics and support needed for the weapons systems, ensuring that they are properly supplied, maintained, and operational. This perspective allows for efficient management and coordination of the supply chain specifically tailored to the unique requirements of weapons systems.

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130. To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the

Explanation

To become an equipment custodian, one must be appointed by the commander. The commander holds the highest authority in the organization and is responsible for making important decisions regarding personnel appointments. As an equipment custodian, one would be entrusted with the responsibility of managing and maintaining equipment, ensuring its proper use and storage. Therefore, it is crucial for the commander to appoint someone who is reliable, trustworthy, and capable of fulfilling this role effectively.

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131. What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke *8025A multimeter?

Explanation

The maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter is 32. This is because the range button indicates the maximum value that the multimeter can measure, and in this case, it is set at 30. However, the actual maximum voltage that can be measured is slightly higher, at 32.

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132. What is one method of eliminating hose chafing?

Explanation

Using suitable bulkhead-type grommets is one method of eliminating hose chafing. These grommets provide a protective barrier between the hose and any sharp or rough edges, preventing friction and abrasion that can lead to chafing. By using these grommets, the hose is securely held in place without direct contact with any potential chafing points, ensuring its longevity and functionality.

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133. "The combination of decreased pressure above an airfoil, and the increased pressure below the airfoil produces lift" is best described by

Explanation

The explanation for the correct answer, Bernoulli's principle, is that it states that as the speed of a fluid (in this case, air) increases, its pressure decreases. When an airfoil (such as an airplane wing) moves through the air, the shape of the wing causes the air above it to move faster, creating lower pressure. At the same time, the air below the wing moves slower, creating higher pressure. This pressure difference results in lift, allowing the airfoil to generate upward force and stay aloft.

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134. Which section of a jet engine continually supplies air and maintains pressure?

Explanation

The compressor section of a jet engine continually supplies air and maintains pressure. This is because the compressor is responsible for compressing the incoming air before it enters the combustion chamber. By compressing the air, the compressor increases its density and pressure, which is crucial for efficient combustion and power generation in the engine. Therefore, the compressor plays a vital role in maintaining the necessary airflow and pressure throughout the operation of the jet engine.

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135. What is the most probable cause of a flameout of a jet engine flying at 40,00 feet with a constant engine revolutions per minute (rpm) of 50 percent?

Explanation

The most probable cause of a flameout of a jet engine flying at 40,000 feet with a constant engine rpm of 50 percent is that the rpm is too low. When the engine rpm is too low, it can result in insufficient fuel-air mixture and inadequate combustion, leading to a flameout.

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136. When you handle jet engine bearings, you must change cotton gloves frequently because they

Explanation

When handling jet engine bearings, it is important to change cotton gloves frequently because they get soaked with sweat. Sweat can make the gloves damp, which can lead to discomfort and reduced dexterity. Additionally, damp gloves can increase the risk of slippage, potentially causing accidents or damage to the bearings. Therefore, changing gloves regularly helps maintain a dry and secure grip, ensuring optimal safety and performance while handling jet engine bearings.

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137. Of the following, the recommended method of expanding a bearing race before installation is to use a

Explanation

The recommended method of expanding a bearing race before installation is to use a hot-oil bath. This method involves heating the bearing race in a bath of hot oil, which causes the metal to expand. This expansion allows for easier installation of the bearing race onto the shaft or housing. Using a hot-oil bath ensures that the expansion is uniform and controlled, reducing the risk of damage to the race or other components.

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138. What is the function of the fan bypass ducts on the F119-PW-100 engine?

Explanation

The fan bypass ducts on the F119-PW-100 engine are responsible for directing fan bypass air into the turbine exhaust case and augmenter duct for cooling. This helps to regulate the temperature and prevent overheating of the engine components.

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139. For bases that do not have an OAP laboratory, who designates the facility to which oil samples are sent?

Explanation

The program manager is responsible for designating the facility to which oil samples are sent in bases that do not have an OAP laboratory. They have the authority and knowledge to make this decision and ensure that the samples are sent to the appropriate facility for analysis. The base commander may have overall authority, but they may not have the specific knowledge or expertise in determining the designated facility for oil samples. The unit commander and unit safety officer may also have their own responsibilities, but they may not have the specific role of designating the facility for oil samples.

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140. During an OAP sample collection, using your mouth to draw oil up into the plastic tube could result in

Explanation

Using your mouth to draw oil up into the plastic tube during an OAP sample collection could result in paralysis or death. This is because oil may contain toxic substances that can be harmful if ingested. Inhaling or swallowing these substances can lead to severe health complications, including paralysis or even fatal consequences. It is important to follow proper safety protocols and use the appropriate equipment to avoid such risks during sample collection.

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141. Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects?

Explanation

Safety-toed boots are required to avoid potential hazards when lifting heavy objects because they provide protection to the feet from falling objects, sharp objects, and heavy objects that may accidentally be dropped. They have a reinforced toe cap that prevents injuries such as crushed or broken toes. These boots also provide stability and support to the feet, reducing the risk of slips, trips, and falls while lifting heavy objects. Therefore, wearing safety-toed boots is essential to ensure the safety and well-being of individuals when handling heavy loads.

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142. How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?

Explanation

A propeller's axis of rotation extends 10 feet to the front and 5 feet from the rear. This means that the propeller rotates within a space that is 10 feet in front of it and 5 feet behind it.

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143. In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?

Explanation

In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, the preventative maintenance task that involves a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition is known as "On condition." This means that the inspection is conducted based on the condition of the equipment or system, rather than a fixed schedule. By regularly assessing the condition of the equipment, potential failure conditions can be detected early, allowing for timely repairs or replacements to prevent major breakdowns or disruptions.

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144. Within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program, to whom do flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis?

Explanation

Flight-line personnel transfer collected data for analysis to the Base engine maintenance shop.

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145. You should wear eye protection when you work

Explanation

It is important to wear eye protection when working with tools that may cause flying particles because these particles can pose a risk to the eyes and cause injury. Wearing eye protection, such as safety glasses or goggles, can help prevent these particles from entering the eyes and causing harm.

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146. How is a screw length measured?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads." This is because the measurement of a screw length includes the entire length of the screw, starting from the top of the head and ending at the bottom of the screw threads. The other options mentioned, such as the thread length, base of the head to the bottom of the threads, and length of the shank plus the threaded portion, do not encompass the entire length of the screw.

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147. Due to the divergent design of a diffuser, air pressure

Explanation

The correct answer is "increases". A diffuser is designed to gradually increase the cross-sectional area of a fluid flow, which leads to a decrease in velocity and an increase in pressure. This is achieved by converting kinetic energy into pressure energy. As the fluid passes through the divergent section of the diffuser, the area increases, causing the velocity to decrease and the pressure to increase.

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148. The air temperature of a jet engine gradually rises across the compressor to the diffuser outlet as a result of

Explanation

The correct answer is compression. In a jet engine, the compressor is responsible for compressing the incoming air, which increases its pressure and temperature. As the air passes through the compressor stages, it gets progressively compressed, leading to a gradual rise in temperature. Therefore, the air temperature of a jet engine rises across the compressor due to the process of compression.

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149. Which engine component meters fuel for combustion?

Explanation

The fuel control component is responsible for metering the fuel for combustion in the engine. It regulates the flow of fuel based on various factors such as engine speed, load, and temperature. By controlling the amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber, the fuel control ensures efficient and optimal combustion, leading to better engine performance and fuel efficiency.

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150. The purpose of an augmentor (afterburner) in a jet engine is to

Explanation

The purpose of an augmentor (afterburner) in a jet engine is to increase the maximum thrust capability of the basic engine. The augmentor achieves this by injecting additional fuel into the exhaust stream and igniting it, creating a high-velocity jet of hot gases that further accelerates the exhaust gases and increases thrust. This allows the jet engine to produce more power and thrust, enhancing the overall performance of the aircraft.

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151. Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component?

Explanation

A jet engine fuel metering device that is really two fuel controls in one component is described as "unified." This means that the device combines two separate fuel controls into a single component, allowing for more efficient and streamlined fuel management in the jet engine.

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152. The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in that the SEM/EDX

Explanation

The SEM/EDX analysis process requires that particles being analyzed must be free of oil. This is because the presence of oil can interfere with the analysis and affect the accuracy of the results. Therefore, before conducting SEM/EDX analysis, the particles need to be cleaned and oil-free to ensure reliable and precise analysis.

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153. What law does the C-D supersonic inlet use to slow down the airflow?

Explanation

The C-D supersonic inlet uses Bernoulli's law to slow down the airflow. Bernoulli's law states that as the speed of a fluid increases, its pressure decreases. In the case of the C-D supersonic inlet, the high-speed airflow is slowed down by increasing its pressure, allowing it to enter the engine at a manageable speed. This principle is crucial for supersonic aircraft to efficiently capture and utilize the incoming air for propulsion.

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154. The requirements for storing engines in a metal container is to maintain

Explanation

The correct answer is "nitrogen pressure." This is because engines need to be stored in a metal container with nitrogen pressure to prevent oxidation and corrosion. Nitrogen is an inert gas that helps to create an oxygen-free environment, which is essential for preserving the integrity of the engine components. By maintaining nitrogen pressure, the risk of moisture and contaminants entering the container is minimized, ensuring the engines remain in good condition during storage.

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155. Newton's third law of motion explains why an operating jet engine produces

Explanation

Newton's third law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. In the case of an operating jet engine, the action is the expulsion of high-speed exhaust gases from the rear of the engine. As a result of this action, there is an equal and opposite reaction, which is the forward thrust produced by the engine. This forward thrust propels the jet engine and the aircraft forward, allowing it to accelerate in the forward direction. Therefore, the correct answer is forward thrust.

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156. The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of

Explanation

The main fuel control in a jet engine is responsible for regulating the fuel flow to the combustion chamber. This ensures that the engine operates within safe limits and prevents a flameout, which is the sudden extinguishing of the flame in the combustion chamber. A flameout can occur due to various reasons such as fuel starvation or excessive airflow. By controlling the fuel flow, the main fuel control reduces the possibility of a flameout and helps maintain a continuous and stable combustion process in the engine.

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157. Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?

Explanation

A dry sump oil system is designed to store the oil in a separate tank, typically located outside the engine, instead of a sump or oil pan. This allows for better oil circulation and lubrication as the oil is constantly pumped from the tank to the engine and then back to the tank. The oil tank is usually fitted to the side of the engine for easy access and maintenance. This type of system is commonly used in high-performance engines and racing cars to prevent oil starvation during high-speed cornering or acceleration.

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158. Which type of oil tank design do most fighter aircraft engines incorporate to help with weight savings?

Explanation

Most fighter aircraft engines incorporate a hot tank design to help with weight savings. A hot tank design allows the engine to use the fuel as a heat sink, which helps in cooling the engine components. This eliminates the need for additional cooling systems and reduces the overall weight of the aircraft. Additionally, the heat generated by the engine can be used to vaporize the fuel, improving its combustion efficiency.

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159. Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within Air Force publications series

Explanation

The correct answer is 91 because Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located within the Air Force publications series 91. This series specifically covers occupational safety and health standards for the Air Force.

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160. How many independent circuits are within an F100-PW-100 engine ignition system?

Explanation

The F100-PW-100 engine ignition system consists of three independent circuits. This means that there are three separate and distinct pathways for the flow of electrical current within the system. Each circuit serves a specific purpose in the ignition process, providing redundancy and ensuring that the engine can still operate even if one or two circuits fail. Having multiple independent circuits enhances the reliability and safety of the ignition system.

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161. What section of the illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB?

Explanation

The introduction section of the illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains definitions of the codes used in the IPB. This section provides an overview and explanation of the various codes and symbols used throughout the IPB, helping users understand and interpret the information presented in the breakdown. It serves as a guide to navigate the IPB effectively and accurately identify the parts and components listed.

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162. What is the required velocity for air and gases flowing through a jet engine?

Explanation

In a jet engine, the required velocity for air and gases is greater when exiting than when entering. This is because the engine works on the principle of thrust, which is generated by expelling a large volume of gas at high velocity. By increasing the velocity of the gases as they exit the engine, the engine can produce more thrust and propel the aircraft forward. Therefore, the correct answer is "Greater velocity exiting than entering."

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163. Excessive bearing wear can usually be detected by

Explanation

Excessive bearing wear can usually be detected by the roughness of the metal. When a bearing is worn, the smooth surface of the metal becomes rough due to friction and wear. This roughness can be felt or observed visually. It is an indication that the bearing is not functioning properly and may need to be replaced. Pits, bands, and misalignment can also be signs of bearing wear, but the roughness of the metal is a more reliable indicator as it directly reflects the condition of the bearing surface.

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164. What is one advantage of a modular engine?

Explanation

One advantage of a modular engine is that entire engines are not withheld from service. This means that if a specific module of the engine needs repairs or maintenance, it can be taken out and replaced without taking the entire engine out of service. This allows for quicker and more efficient maintenance, as well as reducing downtime and increasing overall operational availability of the engine.

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165. How many hollow inlet struts are contained within the inlet fan case of the F119 engine?

Explanation

The correct answer is 21. The F119 engine contains 21 hollow inlet struts within its inlet fan case. These struts are designed to provide structural support and stability to the engine, allowing for efficient airflow and optimal performance.

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166. Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?

Explanation

The project monitor is responsible for ensuring that the OAP (Operational Availability Plan) operates properly. They oversee the project and monitor its progress, making sure that all aspects are functioning as intended. This includes monitoring the performance, efficiency, and effectiveness of the OAP to ensure that it meets the desired objectives and goals. The project monitor also identifies any issues or challenges that may arise and takes necessary actions to address them, ensuring the smooth operation of the OAP.

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167. The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the

Explanation

The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the model and series for equipment type. This means that the TO number provides specific information about the model and series of the equipment being referenced. This is important for identifying and distinguishing different versions or variations of the same type of equipment.

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168. The F110-GE-129 engine controls airflow through the engine with the

Explanation

The correct answer is IGVs and VSVs. The F110-GE-129 engine controls airflow through the engine using both Inlet Guide Vanes (IGVs) and Variable Stator Vanes (VSVs). IGVs are located at the engine inlet and help to guide the airflow into the engine. VSVs, on the other hand, are located within the engine and can be adjusted to control the airflow and optimize engine performance. Together, these two components play a crucial role in regulating and directing the airflow through the engine.

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169. What is the function of the flexible feedback cable on the F110-GE-129 engine variable vane system?

Explanation

The function of the flexible feedback cable on the F110-GE-129 engine variable vane system is to transmit a mechanical feedback signal to the main engine control.

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170. What component heats augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and combustion?

Explanation

The fuel/oil cooler heats the augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and combustion. By cooling the fuel and oil, it helps to maintain the optimal temperature for combustion, ensuring that the fuel is efficiently vaporized and burned. This improves the overall performance of the system and enhances the combustion process.

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171. Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an engine trim procedure must be 

Explanation

During an engine trim procedure, calibration and/or adjustment screws may need to be set. To ensure that these screws remain in their correct positions and prevent any unauthorized tampering or accidental movement, they must be safety sealed and/or lockwired. Safety sealing involves placing a seal or marker on the screws to indicate if they have been tampered with. Lockwiring refers to the process of securing the screws with wire to prevent them from loosening or adjusting unintentionally. These measures help to maintain the accuracy and reliability of the engine trim procedure.

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172. Preservation of a component being shipped is require when it is being returned to depot or stored for more than how many days?

Explanation

When a component is being shipped and is expected to be returned to the depot or stored for more than 30 days, it is necessary to ensure its preservation. This is because components that are not properly preserved can deteriorate or get damaged over time, leading to potential issues or malfunctions when they are used again. Therefore, a time frame of 30 days is considered the threshold for when preservation measures should be taken to maintain the component's condition.

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173. What happens to the energy that is absorbed by the turbine wheel?

Explanation

The energy absorbed by the turbine wheel is returned to the compressor. In a turbine engine, the compressor compresses incoming air, which is then mixed with fuel and ignited in the combustion chamber. The resulting hot gases expand and flow through the turbine, causing the turbine wheel to rotate. This rotation powers the compressor and other engine accessories. After the energy is extracted from the hot gases by the turbine, it is redirected back to the compressor to continue the cycle and maintain engine operation.

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174. A constructional feature of the centrifugal compressor is that the impeller

Explanation

The impeller of a centrifugal compressor is forged as a single unit. This means that it is manufactured as a single piece, rather than being assembled from multiple parts. This constructional feature ensures that the impeller is strong and durable, as there are no weak points or joints that could potentially fail under high-speed rotation. By being forged as a single unit, the impeller can also be designed and balanced more precisely, leading to improved performance and efficiency of the centrifugal compressor.

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175. Which bearing is located in the low-pressure turbine (LPT) module of the F119-PW-100 engine?

Explanation

The correct answer is No.5 bearing. This bearing is located in the low-pressure turbine (LPT) module of the F119-PW-100 engine.

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176. How does the AFTLA obtain oil samples for analysis?

Explanation

The AFTLA obtains oil samples for analysis automatically from the manufacturer. This means that the manufacturer has a system in place to automatically provide oil samples to the AFTLA without the need for a specific request. This could be a regular process where the manufacturer sends samples at predetermined intervals or when certain conditions are met. This automated process ensures a consistent supply of oil samples for analysis by the AFTLA.

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177. The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be aware of is

Explanation

The correct answer is corrosiveness. The journeyman needs to be aware of the corrosive nature of modern jet engine oil. This means that the oil has the potential to cause damage or deterioration to the materials it comes into contact with, such as metal surfaces. It is important for the journeyman to take precautions and handle the oil carefully to prevent any harmful effects on the engine or other components.

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178. Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine section, where does it go?

Explanation

After the cooling airflow has cooled the turbine section, it is directed into the gas stream to exit the engine. This is because the purpose of the cooling airflow is to cool down the turbine section and prevent it from overheating. Once the cooling process is complete, the airflow is no longer needed and is therefore directed into the gas stream to be expelled from the engine.

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179. The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) is the

Explanation

The function selector rotary switch is the correct answer because it is used to set the meter to check for alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC). This switch allows the user to select the desired function, such as voltage or resistance, and then the meter will measure the corresponding type of current. It is a rotary switch because it can be turned to different positions to select different functions.

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180. What is one common type of variable-area orifice that is used on augmentors?

Explanation

A segmented-flap is a common type of variable-area orifice used on augmentors. This type of orifice consists of multiple segments that can be adjusted to vary the area of the orifice opening. By adjusting the position of these segments, the flow rate of the fluid passing through the orifice can be controlled. This allows for precise regulation of the augmentor's performance, making it an effective choice for this application.

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181. In addition to the augmenter, what is the other major assembly on the F119-PW-100 engine

Explanation

The other major assembly on the F119-PW-100 engine, in addition to the augmenter, is the gearbox. A gearbox is an essential component in an engine as it helps to transmit power from the engine to various parts, such as the propeller or the rotor. In this case, the gearbox plays a crucial role in the functioning of the F119-PW-100 engine by transferring power to different components and ensuring smooth operation.

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182. Which actuators position nozzle flaps to establish thrust vectoring angle on the F119-PW-100 engine?

Explanation

Divergent actuators position nozzle flaps to establish thrust vectoring angle on the F119-PW-100 engine. These actuators are responsible for adjusting the position of the exhaust nozzle flaps, which in turn control the direction of the engine's thrust. By adjusting the angle of the nozzle flaps, the engine can direct its thrust in different directions, allowing for improved maneuverability and control of the aircraft.

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183. During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?

Explanation

When a fuel filter is clogged, a differential pressure indicator is actuated. This means that a device within the filter detects a difference in pressure between the inlet and outlet of the filter. This indicator is designed to alert the user when the filter is becoming clogged and needs to be replaced. By monitoring this pressure difference, it provides a clear indication that the fuel filter is no longer allowing fuel to flow freely and is in need of maintenance.

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184. The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air/oil coolers is to

Explanation

The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air/oil coolers is to direct oil around or through the cooler. This valve helps regulate the temperature of the oil by either allowing it to flow directly through the cooler or bypassing it if the oil temperature is already within the desired range. By directing the oil around or through the cooler, the valve ensures that the oil is properly cooled to prevent overheating and maintain optimal performance of the system.

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185. When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by

Explanation

The correct answer is spring pressure. When an engine is not operating, the static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by spring pressure. This means that the spring exerts a force on the seal, ensuring that it remains in contact with the shaft and prevents oil leakage. Spring pressure is commonly used in mechanical systems to maintain a desired level of contact or tension between components.

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186. Which functions form a maintenance group?

Explanation

The functions that form a maintenance group are maintenance operations, maintenance, and aircraft maintenance. These functions are directly related to the maintenance and upkeep of aircraft, ensuring that they are in optimal working condition. Maintenance operations involve the planning and coordination of maintenance activities, while maintenance itself involves the actual repair and servicing of aircraft. Aircraft maintenance focuses specifically on the maintenance and inspection of aircraft systems and components. Together, these functions form a comprehensive maintenance group responsible for the proper functioning and safety of aircraft.

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187. What engine section houses the JFS combustion section?

Explanation

The turbine plenum is the engine section that houses the JFS (Jet Fuel Starter) combustion section. The JFS is a small auxiliary engine used to start the main engine of an aircraft. It provides the initial rotation needed to start the engine and also supplies compressed air for other systems. The turbine plenum is responsible for housing and protecting the JFS combustion section, ensuring its proper functioning and integration within the engine system.

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188. Which item on the JFS provides pads for mounting the fuel atomizer assembly?

Explanation

The turbine plenum is the correct answer because it provides pads for mounting the fuel atomizer assembly. The fuel atomizer assembly is an important component in the fuel system, and it needs to be securely mounted in order to function properly. The turbine plenum, which is a part of the jet engine, is designed to accommodate and support the fuel atomizer assembly, making it the appropriate item for this purpose. The stator ring, exhaust housing, and generator assembly do not have the specific function of providing pads for mounting the fuel atomizer assembly.

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189. Which component provides an electrical safety cutoff for the JFS if the power turbine accelerates to a 110 percent overspeed condition?

Explanation

The overspeed clutch provides an electrical safety cutoff for the JFS (Jet Fuel Starter) if the power turbine accelerates to a 110 percent overspeed condition. When the power turbine exceeds the safe operating speed, the overspeed clutch engages, disengaging the power turbine from the drive system and preventing further acceleration. This helps to protect the engine and ensure the safety of the aircraft by preventing damage from excessive speeds.

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190. The bleed air system is different from the variable vane system in that it

Explanation

The bleed air system is different from the variable vane system because it bleeds off air after it has entered the engine. This means that the bleed air system removes excess air from the engine, whereas the variable vane system adjusts the angle of the engine's turbine vanes to control airflow.

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191. What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach?

Explanation

In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, failures can be classified into two categories: potential and functional. Potential failures refer to those that have not yet occurred but have the potential to happen in the future. Functional failures, on the other hand, are failures that have already occurred and are affecting the performance or function of the system. This classification helps in identifying and addressing both existing and potential issues to ensure the reliability and efficiency of the maintenance process.

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192. Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program?

Explanation

Propulsion technicians are responsible for maintaining and servicing the engine, while nondestructive inspection technicians are responsible for inspecting and identifying any potential issues or defects in the engine. Both of these technicians play a crucial role in providing maintenance activity data to the engine trending and diagnostics program. They provide valuable information about the engine's condition, performance, and any necessary repairs or adjustments needed. This data helps in monitoring the engine's health, identifying trends, and diagnosing any potential problems, allowing for timely maintenance and ensuring optimal engine performance.

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193. The F100 engine augmentor's exhaust nozzle is variable to control engine

Explanation

The F100 engine augmentor's exhaust nozzle is variable to control both thrust and fan stall margin. By adjusting the exhaust nozzle, the engine can regulate the amount of thrust it produces, allowing for greater control over the aircraft's speed and acceleration. Additionally, the variable nozzle can also help prevent fan stall, which occurs when the airflow to the engine's fan is disrupted, by adjusting the exhaust flow and maintaining the necessary airflow for optimal engine performance. Therefore, the exhaust nozzle's variability is crucial in managing both thrust and fan stall margin.

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194. The key to making the comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) work is

Explanation

To make the comprehensive engine management system (CEMS) work effectively, accurate and timely data at the lowest level is crucial. This means that the system relies on receiving precise and up-to-date information from the individual components and sensors of the engines. This data is then used for analysis and decision-making processes to ensure optimal engine performance and maintenance. Without accurate and timely data at the lowest level, the CEMS would not be able to effectively monitor and manage the engines, leading to potential issues and inefficiencies.

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195. Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have an attached Department of Defense (DD) Form

Explanation

The correct answer is 1575 because it is the only option that is a valid Department of Defense (DD) Form. The other options (1574, 1577-2, and 1577-3) are not valid forms.

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196. The "fir tree" method of attaching turbine blades (buckets) to the turbine rotor disc is preferred because

Explanation

The "fir tree" method of attaching turbine blades to the turbine rotor disc is preferred because of the temperature differential between the turbine rotor disc and the blades. This method allows for expansion and contraction of the blades due to the temperature changes during engine operation. The fir tree shape of the attachment provides a secure and tight fit between the blades and the rotor disc, preventing any horizontal or axial movement of the blades. This ensures the stability and efficiency of the turbine system during operation.

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197. The F100-PW-220 core module proximate splitter, which divides airflow from the front compressor into the fan airflow and primary airflow, is contained in the

Explanation

The correct answer is compressor intermediate case. The F100-PW-220 core module proximate splitter is responsible for dividing airflow from the front compressor into the fan airflow and primary airflow. This component is contained within the compressor intermediate case, which suggests that this case houses the necessary components for dividing and directing the airflow. The diffuser case, rear turbine case, and fan drive turbine are not mentioned in relation to the proximate splitter, making them unlikely options.

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198. On an F100-PW-220 engine, the gearbox module is driven by the rear compressor through

Explanation

The correct answer is a gearbox drive shaft. The gearbox module in an F100-PW-220 engine is driven by a gearbox drive shaft. This drive shaft is responsible for transmitting power from the rear compressor to the gearbox module, allowing it to function properly. It is important for the gearbox drive shaft to be in good condition and properly aligned to ensure efficient power transfer and overall engine performance.

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199. Where is the gearbox mounted on the F119-PW-100 engine and what drives it?

Explanation

The gearbox on the F119-PW-100 engine is mounted at the 6 o'clock position on the intermediate case, which is part of the core module.

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200. On the F100-PW-220 engine, which component controls the augmenter fuel control?

Explanation

The DEEC (Digital Electronic Engine Control) component controls the augmenter fuel control on the F100-PW-220 engine. DEEC is responsible for monitoring and controlling various engine parameters, including fuel flow, temperature, and pressure. It ensures that the correct amount of fuel is delivered to the augmenter, which is the part of the engine that increases thrust during afterburner operation. By regulating the augmenter fuel control, the DEEC helps optimize engine performance and fuel efficiency.

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During the "over 180 days" preservation period, the fuel...
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Increased friction between moving parts in the oil system
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Foreign object damage (FOD) is normally caused by
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Operating procedures and practices that if not strictly observed may...
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Use extreme care when working with labyrinth seals because of their
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Three types of turbine and vane assemblies used in jet engines are...
Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of bearing parts...
Which type of defect appears on bearings as a result of small...
On which module of an F100-PW-220 engine is the stator generator...
On an F100-PW-220 engine, the leading edge vanes are hollow
Which type of oil pump consists of a gear and rotor within a housing?
Chip detectors have an electrical connection for making which type of...
What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?
In order to avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum...
From what perspective does the Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC)...
To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button...
What is one method of eliminating hose chafing?
"The combination of decreased pressure above an airfoil, and the...
Which section of a jet engine continually supplies air and maintains...
What is the most probable cause of a flameout of a jet engine flying...
When you handle jet engine bearings, you must change cotton gloves...
Of the following, the recommended method of expanding a bearing race...
What is the function of the fan bypass ducts on the F119-PW-100...
For bases that do not have an OAP laboratory, who designates the...
During an OAP sample collection, using your mouth to draw oil up into...
Which piece of personal protective equipment is required to avoid...
How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
In the reliability centered maintenance (RCM) approach, which...
Within the engine trending and diagnostics (ET&D) program, to whom...
You should wear eye protection when you work
How is a screw length measured?
Due to the divergent design of a diffuser, air pressure
The air temperature of a jet engine gradually rises across the...
Which engine component meters fuel for combustion?
The purpose of an augmentor (afterburner) in a jet engine is to
Which term describes a jet engine fuel metering device that is really...
The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in...
What law does the C-D supersonic inlet use to slow down the airflow?
The requirements for storing engines in a metal container is to...
Newton's third law of motion explains why an operating jet engine...
The main fuel control allows the jet engine to safely accelerate,...
Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side...
Which type of oil tank design do most fighter aircraft engines...
Air Force occupational safety and health (AFOSH) standards are located...
How many independent circuits are within an F100-PW-100 engine...
What section of the illustrated Parts Breakdown (IPB) contains...
What is the required velocity for air and gases flowing through a jet...
Excessive bearing wear can usually be detected by
What is one advantage of a modular engine?
How many hollow inlet struts are contained within the inlet fan case...
Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?
The second section of a technical order (TO) number gives the
The F110-GE-129 engine controls airflow through the engine with the
What is the function of the flexible feedback cable on the F110-GE-129...
What component heats augmentor fuel to provide better vaporization and...
Calibration and/or adjustment screws that require setting during an...
Preservation of a component being shipped is require when it is being...
What happens to the energy that is absorbed by the turbine wheel?
A constructional feature of the centrifugal compressor is that the...
Which bearing is located in the low-pressure turbine (LPT) module of...
How does the AFTLA obtain oil samples for analysis?
The hazardous property of modern jet engine oil the journeyman must be...
Once the cooling airflow has done its job of cooling the turbine...
The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to...
What is one common type of variable-area orifice that is used on...
In addition to the augmenter, what is the other major assembly on the...
Which actuators position nozzle flaps to establish thrust vectoring...
During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is...
The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air/oil...
When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal...
Which functions form a maintenance group?
What engine section houses the JFS combustion section?
Which item on the JFS provides pads for mounting the fuel atomizer...
Which component provides an electrical safety cutoff for the JFS if...
The bleed air system is different from the variable vane system in...
What are the two classifications of failures in the reliability...
Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the engine...
The F100 engine augmentor's exhaust nozzle is variable to control...
The key to making the comprehensive engine management system (CEMS)...
Items that are awaiting parts or maintenance are each required to have...
The "fir tree" method of attaching turbine blades (buckets)...
The F100-PW-220 core module proximate splitter, which divides airflow...
On an F100-PW-220 engine, the gearbox module is driven by the rear...
Where is the gearbox mounted on the F119-PW-100 engine and what drives...
On the F100-PW-220 engine, which component controls the augmenter fuel...
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