Ccna3 Final All April 2013

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Ccna3 Final All April 2013 - Quiz

Ccna3 final all april 2013


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a “password required, but none set” message when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem?

    • A.

      The enable secret password was not set.

    • B.

      S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines.

    • C.

      S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.

    • D.

      The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords.

    • E.

      The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.

    Correct Answer
    C. S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines.
    Explanation
    The problem is that S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines. This means that there is no password set for remote connections to the device, which is why the administrator receives a "password required, but none set" message when attempting to connect to S1.

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  • 2. 

    Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting?

    • A.

      User EXEC mode

    • B.

      Privileged EXEC mode

    • C.

      Global configuration mode

    • D.

      Interface configuration mode

    Correct Answer
    B. Privileged EXEC mode
    Explanation
    The privileged EXEC mode is the CLI mode that allows users to access all device commands, including those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting. In this mode, users have elevated privileges and can perform advanced tasks such as configuring interfaces, managing routing protocols, and troubleshooting network issues. This mode provides full control and access to all device commands and is typically accessed after entering the user EXEC mode with the necessary credentials.

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  • 3. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which Spanning Tree Protocol version is in effect?

    • A.

      Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)

    • B.

      Per VLAN Spanning Tree + (PVST+)

    • C.

      Common Spanning Tree (CST)

    • D.

      Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)

    • E.

      Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)

    Correct Answer
    D. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP). This is because RSTP is an IEEE standard protocol that provides rapid convergence of the spanning tree in a network. It improves upon the original Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) by reducing the convergence time and allowing for faster network recovery in the event of link failures. RSTP also supports VLANs, making it suitable for modern networks with multiple VLANs.

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  • 4. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

    • A.

      Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.

    • B.

      Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.

    • C.

      No routing protocol is configured on Router1.

    • D.

      One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.

    Correct Answer
    A. Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is that the switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking. Trunking is used to carry traffic for multiple VLANs over a single link, allowing hosts on different VLANs to communicate with each other. If the switch port is not configured as a trunk port, it will only allow traffic for a single VLAN, which would explain why hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN.

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  • 5. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?

    • A.

      Only hosts A and B

    • B.

      Only hosts A, B, and C

    • C.

      Only hosts A, B, C, and D

    • D.

      Only hosts A, B, C, and E

    Correct Answer
    B. Only hosts A, B, and C
    Explanation
    When a collision occurs in a network, all hosts that are involved in the collision will receive a collision jamming signal. In this scenario, hosts A and B are the ones attempting to transmit a frame at the same time, resulting in a collision. Therefore, only hosts A, B, and C will receive the collision jamming signal.

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  • 6. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)

    • A.

      Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.

    • B.

      A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.

    • C.

      The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.

    • D.

      A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.

    • E.

      Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.

    • F.

      An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
    B. A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
    C. The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
    Explanation
    The output indicates that Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced, which means it has been divided into multiple logical interfaces. This is supported by the presence of Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3, which suggests that VLAN tagging is being used. The output also mentions that a non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use, indicating that a standard protocol like IEEE 802.1Q is being used for VLAN trunking. Lastly, the configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design, which is evident from the presence of subinterfaces and VLAN mapping.

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  • 7. 

    Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?

    • A.

      Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.

    • B.

      Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.

    • C.

      From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.

    • D.

      Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

    Correct Answer
    C. From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
    Explanation
    To establish an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point, the method suggested is to enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser from a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point. This allows the user to access the configuration interface of the access point and make the necessary changes or settings. By being on the same IP subnet, the computer and access point can communicate with each other effectively, enabling the configuration process.

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  • 8. 

    Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?

    • A.

      SSID

    • B.

      OFDM

    • C.

      WEP

    • D.

      DSSS

    Correct Answer
    A. SSID
    Explanation
    The parameter used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another is the SSID (Service Set Identifier). The SSID is a case-sensitive alphanumeric string that is assigned to a wireless network. When devices search for available networks, they can identify and connect to the correct network by matching the SSID. Each wireless network has its own unique SSID, allowing multiple networks to coexist in the same area without interference.

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  • 9. 

    Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?

    • A.

      Lowest bridge ID

    • B.

      Highest revision number

    • C.

      Lowest numeric IP address

    • D.

      Highest numeric MAC address

    Correct Answer
    A. Lowest bridge ID
    Explanation
    The value that determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology is the lowest bridge ID. The bridge ID is a combination of the switch's priority and MAC address. During the spanning tree algorithm, switches compare their bridge IDs, and the switch with the lowest bridge ID becomes the root bridge, which is the central point of reference for the spanning tree topology.

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  • 10. 

    An administrator is troubleshooting a PC on the network which is suffering from slow and intermittent connectivity. The PC has a ping success rate to the default gateway of less than half the ping attempts. Other PCs on the switch can consistently ping the default gateway. The switch port is configured for auto duplex and the PC is configured for full duplex. What will commonly cause this problem?

    • A.

      The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.

    • B.

      The switch traffic is exceeding available frame buffers. The result is that frames are being dropped.

    • C.

      The PC and the default gateway have different bandwidth Ethernet ports.

    • D.

      The default gateway is not on the same switch that the PC is.

    Correct Answer
    A. The PC is set to full duplex. The switch port fails to autonegotiate the duplex setting and defaults to half duplex, which causes a duplex mismatch.
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the slow and intermittent connectivity issue is a duplex mismatch between the PC and the switch port. The PC is configured for full duplex, but the switch port fails to autonegotiate and defaults to half duplex. This mismatch in duplex settings can result in packet loss and reduced performance, leading to the connectivity problems experienced by the PC.

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  • 11. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?

    • A.

      AS1 and AS2

    • B.

      DS1 and DS2

    • C.

      DS1, DS2, and CS1

    • D.

      AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2

    Correct Answer
    A. AS1 and AS2
    Explanation
    The IP phones should connect to AS1 and AS2.

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  • 12. 

    What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?

    • A.

      Only the management VLAN

    • B.

      All VLANs except the extended range VLANs

    • C.

      All VLANs except 1 and 1002-1005

    • D.

      All VLANs

    Correct Answer
    D. All VLANs
    Explanation
    When the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value, all VLANs are allowed across a trunk. This means that all VLAN traffic can pass through the trunk link, allowing for communication between devices in different VLANs. The default value for the allowed VLAN range includes all VLANs, so there are no restrictions on which VLANs can pass through the trunk.

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  • 13. 

    Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic originating from host A on switch ST-C?

    • A.

      It will be dropped.

    • B.

      It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only.

    • C.

      It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10.

    • D.

      It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15.

    Correct Answer
    B. It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only.
    Explanation
    Switch ST-1 will handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic originating from host A on switch ST-C by forwarding it out port Fa0/5 only. This is because VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain, which means that broadcast traffic will only be forwarded to the switches that have active receivers for that traffic. Since switch ST-1 does not have any active receivers for the broadcast traffic originating from host A, it will only forward it out port Fa0/5 and not to any other ports.

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  • 14. 

    What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm?

    • A.

      It propagates VLAN configurations to other switches.

    • B.

      It restricts broadcast packets to a single VLAN.

    • C.

      It segments a network into multiple broadcast domains.

    • D.

      It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.

    Correct Answer
    D. It prevents loops in a switched network with redundant paths.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Spanning Tree algorithm is to prevent loops in a switched network with redundant paths. This algorithm ensures that there is only one active path between any two network devices, thus preventing the formation of loops that could lead to broadcast storms and network congestion. By selecting a single path and blocking redundant paths, the Spanning Tree algorithm improves network stability and ensures efficient data transmission.

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  • 15. 

    In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it does not allow for the creation of local VLANs but it does accept VLAN updates from other switches in the same domain?

    • A.

      Client

    • B.

      Root

    • C.

      Server

    • D.

      Transparent

    Correct Answer
    A. Client
    Explanation
    A VTP switch operating in client mode does not allow for the creation of local VLANs but it does accept VLAN updates from other switches in the same domain. In client mode, the switch receives VTP advertisements from the VTP server and updates its VLAN database accordingly. However, it cannot create or modify VLANs locally. This mode is typically used in larger networks where the VLAN configuration is centrally managed by a VTP server, and the client switches simply receive and apply the updates.

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  • 16. 

    Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      It is configured in VTP server mode.

    • B.

      STP is automatically enabled.

    • C.

      The first VTY line is automatically configured to allow remote connections.

    • D.

      VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.

    • E.

      All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.

    • F.

      The enable password is configured as cisco.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. It is configured in VTP server mode.
    B. STP is automatically enabled.
    E. All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
    Explanation
    The default configuration of a new switch includes being configured in VTP server mode, having STP automatically enabled, and having all switch ports assigned to VLAN1.

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  • 17. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?

    • A.

      192.168.1.11 /28

    • B.

      192.168.1.22 /28

    • C.

      192.168.1.33 /28

    • D.

      192.168.1.44 /28

    • E.

      192.168.1.55 /28

    Correct Answer
    B. 192.168.1.22 /28
    Explanation
    The new host should be assigned the IP address 192.168.1.22 /28 because it falls within the range of the subnet 192.168.1.16/28. The subnet mask /28 indicates that the network can accommodate 16 hosts, with valid IP addresses ranging from 192.168.1.17 to 192.168.1.30. Therefore, 192.168.1.22 is a valid IP address within this range and can be assigned to the new host.

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  • 18. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

    • A.

      Discard the frame

    • B.

      Forward the frame out port 2

    • C.

      Forward the frame out port 3

    • D.

      Forward the frame out all ports

    • E.

      Forward the frame out all ports except port 3

    • F.

      Add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table

    Correct Answer
    E. Forward the frame out all ports except port 3
    Explanation
    The CAM table shows that the MAC address 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 is associated with port 2. Therefore, when the switch receives the frame with this MAC address, it will forward the frame out all ports except port 3, as indicated in the answer.

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  • 19. 

    When port security is used on a switch, which violation mode will cause an SNMP trap to be sent and traffic to be dropped when the number of secure MAC addresses for a port is reached?

    • A.

      Sticky

    • B.

      Protect

    • C.

      Restrict

    • D.

      Shutdown

    Correct Answer
    C. Restrict
    Explanation
    When port security is used on a switch, the restrict violation mode will cause an SNMP trap to be sent and traffic to be dropped when the number of secure MAC addresses for a port is reached. This means that if a device with a MAC address not in the secure list tries to connect to the port, an SNMP trap will be sent to alert the network administrator, and the traffic from that device will be dropped, preventing unauthorized access to the network.

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  • 20. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured?

    • A.

      Zero

    • B.

      Four

    • C.

      Five

    • D.

      Eight

    • E.

      Nine

    Correct Answer
    B. Four
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the question is asking for the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the configured switch. The correct answer is "four". This implies that there are currently at least four VLANs configured on the switch, and it is possible to delete up to that number of VLANs.

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  • 21. 

    Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?

    • A.

      Configuring trunk links on the VTP server

    • B.

      Configuring or changing the VTP password

    • C.

      Configuring or changing the VTP domain name

    • D.

      Configuring or changing the VTP version number

    • E.

      Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name

    Correct Answer
    E. Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
    Explanation
    Configuring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server. This is because any changes made to the VLAN configuration, such as adding or removing VLANs or modifying their names, will require the VTP server to update its configuration. The configuration revision number is used to track and synchronize changes between VTP servers and clients in a VTP domain. Therefore, any modifications to the VLAN configuration will trigger an increment in the revision number to ensure consistency across the network.

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  • 22. 

    Using the command copy tftp:backup.cfg startup-config, an administrator downloaded a saved configuration from a TFTP server to a switch. Why does the administrator not detect any changes in the switch configuration after the download completes?

    • A.

      The command should have been copy startup-config tftp:backup.cfg.

    • B.

      A backup configuration from a TFTP server cannot be copied directly into the startup-config.

    • C.

      The command copy running-config startup-config should be used to save the changes on the switch.

    • D.

      Downloading to the startup-config requires the switch to be reloaded in order for the configuration to take effect.

    Correct Answer
    D. Downloading to the startup-config requires the switch to be reloaded in order for the configuration to take effect.
  • 23. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is configured to participate in STP for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30. Which switch will become the root for VLAN 20?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      C

    • D.

      D

    Correct Answer
    D. D
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the switch that will become the root for VLAN 20 is switch D. This is because the root bridge in STP is determined by the lowest bridge ID, which consists of the priority value and the MAC address. Since switch D has the lowest priority value or the lowest MAC address compared to the other switches, it will become the root for VLAN 20.

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  • 24. 

    Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?

    • A.

      Available bandwidth is reduced

    • B.

      MAC addresses are easily spoofed.

    • C.

      APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks.

    • D.

      The payload encryption is easily broken.

    Correct Answer
    B. MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
    Explanation
    MAC address filtering is considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN because MAC addresses can be easily spoofed. This means that an attacker can impersonate a legitimate device by changing their MAC address to match that of an authorized device. This bypasses the filtering mechanism and allows unauthorized access to the network. As a result, relying solely on MAC address filtering for security can be ineffective and leave the WLAN vulnerable to unauthorized users.

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  • 25. 

    Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces?

    • A.

      0

    • B.

      1

    • C.

      2

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 1
    Explanation
    To configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces, the router needs one physical interface. Each VLAN will be assigned a subinterface on the router, allowing communication between the VLANs. Therefore, only one physical interface on router R1 is required for this configuration.

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  • 26. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the configuration of this wireless device?

    • A.

      This configuration is commonly found in an ad hoc network.

    • B.

      All wireless devices that are connected to this access point must have the SSID of Academy.

    • C.

      Any wireless clients that are attached to this access point would have the same IP address and SSID.

    • D.

      Any wireless clients that are attached to this access point must be connected using the 802.11n WAN protocol.

    Correct Answer
    B. All wireless devices that are connected to this access point must have the SSID of Academy.
    Explanation
    The configuration of this wireless device indicates that all wireless devices connected to this access point must have the SSID of Academy. This means that any device attempting to connect to this access point must be configured with the correct SSID in order to establish a connection.

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  • 27. 

    Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?

    • A.

      BPDU frames

    • B.

      Multicast frames

    • C.

      Broadcast frames

    • D.

      Layer 3 packets

    Correct Answer
    A. BPDU frames
    Explanation
    When a switch interface is in STP blocking mode, it still allows BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) frames to be received. BPDU frames are used by switches to exchange information about the network topology and to prevent loops. By allowing BPDU frames, the switch can continue to participate in the STP protocol and maintain the loop-free network. However, other types of traffic such as multicast frames, broadcast frames, and Layer 3 packets are not allowed in STP blocking mode.

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  • 28. 

    What is the purpose of configuring a switch port as a trunk port?

    • A.

      To control the broadcast domain size

    • B.

      to eliminate the collisions that result from multiple VLANs

    • C.

      to transmit data from multiple VLANs through a single port

    • D.

      To increase the bandwidth between the switch and its upstream device

    Correct Answer
    C. to transmit data from multiple VLANs through a single port
    Explanation
    Configuring a switch port as a trunk port allows for the transmission of data from multiple VLANs through a single port. This is useful in situations where there are multiple VLANs in a network and data needs to be exchanged between them. Trunk ports tag the frames with VLAN information, allowing the receiving switch to correctly identify and forward the frames to the appropriate VLAN. By using trunk ports, it is possible to effectively manage and control traffic between VLANs without the need for separate physical connections for each VLAN.

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  • 29. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the status of interface Fa0/1?

    • A.

      The interface is not configured to transmit data.

    • B.

      The interface is configured to transmit data at 10 Mb/s speed.

    • C.

      The interface is configured to transmit data in half-duplex mode.

    • D.

      The interface is configured to use HDLC encapsulation to transmit data.

    Correct Answer
    C. The interface is configured to transmit data in half-duplex mode.
  • 30. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Switch SWB is not responding to VTP updates from switch SWA. What is a possible cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The VTP revision numbers are different.

    • B.

      The number of existing VLANs is different.

    • C.

      There is a password set on one of the switches.

    • D.

      The enable passwords are not set on the switches.

    Correct Answer
    C. There is a password set on one of the switches.
    Explanation
    One possible cause of the problem is that there is a password set on one of the switches. This can prevent VTP updates from being received by SWB, causing it to not respond to the updates from SWA.

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  • 31. 

    Which wireless topology supports roaming from one access point to another?

    • A.

      ESS

    • B.

      BSS

    • C.

      IBSS

    • D.

      Ad hoc

    Correct Answer
    A. ESS
    Explanation
    ESS stands for Extended Service Set, which is a wireless networking term that refers to a group of interconnected access points. In an ESS, multiple access points are connected to a distribution system, allowing users to roam seamlessly from one access point to another without losing connectivity. This makes ESS the correct answer as it supports roaming from one access point to another. BSS (Basic Service Set) refers to a single access point, IBSS (Independent Basic Service Set) is a network without an access point, and ad hoc refers to a temporary network formed between devices without the need for an access point.

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  • 32. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?

    • A.

      Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?

    • B.

      WEP allows the access point to inform clients of its presence.

    • C.

      WEP translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names.

    • D.

      WEP encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.

    • E.

      WEP translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.

    Correct Answer
    D. WEP encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.
    Explanation
    Setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router will encrypt the data transmitted between the wireless client and the access point. This means that any data sent over the wireless network will be protected and cannot be easily intercepted or accessed by unauthorized users. WEP stands for Wired Equivalent Privacy and is an older wireless security protocol that provides basic encryption for wireless networks.

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  • 33. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which two switch interfaces would be RSTP edge ports? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Switch S1, Fa0/1

    • B.

      switch S3, Fa0/5

    • C.

      switch S4, Fa0/1

    • D.

      switch S2, Fa0/3

    • E.

      switch S4, Fa0/2

    • F.

      switch S3, Fa0/2

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. switch S3, Fa0/5
    E. switch S4, Fa0/2
    Explanation
    The two switch interfaces that would be RSTP edge ports are switch S3, Fa0/5 and switch S4, Fa0/2. RSTP edge ports are ports that connect to end devices and do not participate in the STP/RSTP protocol. These ports are assumed to be connected to devices that do not support STP, such as hosts or IP phones. Therefore, switch interfaces S3, Fa0/5 and S4, Fa0/2 are the correct answers as they are connected to end devices.

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  • 34. 

    A network technician is attempting to configure 802.1q trunking on switch ports Fa0/5 through Fa0/10. Which set of commands will accomplish this task? Correct answer is image two.

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
  • 35. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Switch SWA is not processing VTP advertisments from switch SWB. What can done to correct the error?

    • A.

      Change the hostname of SWC to SWA

    • B.

      Change the hostname of switch SWA to SWC.

    • C.

      Change the domain name on switch SWA to cisco.

    • D.

      Change the enable password on both switches to Cisco.

    Correct Answer
    C. Change the domain name on switch SWA to cisco.
  • 36. 

    A network administrator is planning the upgrade of an enterprise LAN to feature Layer 3 support for the application of data security policies, aggregated links, and redundant devices and links. Which switches in the hierarchical three-layer design model support these network requirements?

    • A.

      Core switches

    • B.

      Access switches

    • C.

      Backbone switches

    • D.

      Distribution switches

    Correct Answer
    D. Distribution switches
    Explanation
    Distribution switches in the hierarchical three-layer design model support these network requirements. Distribution switches are responsible for connecting access switches to the core switches. They provide aggregation of multiple access switches, allowing for the implementation of data security policies, aggregated links, and redundant devices and links. Core switches, on the other hand, are responsible for high-speed backbone connectivity and do not typically handle these requirements. Access switches are responsible for connecting end-user devices and do not provide the necessary features for the given network requirements.

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  • 37. 

    The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1  is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

    • A.

      The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1.

    • B.

      The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.

    • C.

      The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network.

    • D.

      The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.

    Correct Answer
    B. The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network.
    Explanation
    The global configuration command "ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1" allows the switch to have a default gateway, which is the IP address of a router or gateway device that connects the switch to other networks. This enables the switch to communicate with hosts on other networks, including being remotely managed from a host on another network.

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  • 38. 

    Which type of VLAN would accommodate untagged traffic on a 802.1q trunk port?

    • A.

      Data VLAN

    • B.

      Native VLAN

    • C.

      Untagged VLAN

    • D.

      Management VLAN

    Correct Answer
    B. Native VLAN
    Explanation
    A native VLAN is a type of VLAN that is configured on a trunk port to carry untagged traffic. Untagged traffic refers to data packets that do not have VLAN tags attached to them. By designating a VLAN as the native VLAN, any untagged traffic received on the trunk port will be associated with that VLAN. This allows for seamless communication between devices that do not support VLAN tagging and devices on the native VLAN.

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  • 39. 

    Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history sizeat the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem?

    • A.

      The command contained a syntax error.

    • B.

      The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.

    • C.

      The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.

    • D.

      The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.

    Correct Answer
    D. The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.
    Explanation
    The problem is that the size parameter in the command "terminal no history size" only reset the default buffer size, but it did not actually disable access to the buffer. This means that even though the buffer size may have been changed, the administrator can still access and view the command history.

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  • 40. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What does “LEARNING” mean as it relates to the Spanning Tree Protocol?

    • A.

      The switch is sending and receiving data frames.

    • B.

      The switch is not receiving BPDUs, but is sending and receiving data.

    • C.

      The switch is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.

    • D.

      The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

    Correct Answer
    D. The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
  • 41. 

    Refer to the exhibit. All trunk links are operational and all VLANs are allowed on all trunk links. An ARP request is sent by computer 5. Which device or devices will receive this message?

    • A.

      Only computer 4

    • B.

      Computer 3 and RTR-A

    • C.

      computer 4 and RTR-A

    • D.

      computer 1, computer 2, computer 4, and RTR-A

    • E.

      computer 1, computer 2, computer 3, computer 4, and RTR-A

    • F.

      all of the computers and the router

    Correct Answer
    B. Computer 3 and RTR-A
    Explanation
    The ARP request sent by computer 5 will be received by computer 3 and RTR-A. This is because computer 3 and RTR-A are connected to the same VLAN as computer 5 and are part of the same broadcast domain. Trunk links allow all VLANs, so the ARP request will be forwarded to all devices in the VLAN, including computer 3 and RTR-A.

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  • 42. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is connected to a switch through a trunk. What two ways are indicative of how the router handles incoming VLAN traffic? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Data from VLAN 20 is not being routed.

    • B.

      Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 1 is processed by interface Fa0/0.

    • C.

      Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 10 is processed by subinterface Fa0/0.1.

    • D.

      VLAN traffic is processed on the subinterfaces even if Fa0/0 line protocol goes down.

    • E.

      The router uses a unique MAC address on VLAN 10 and 20 by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.

    • F.

      Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 10 is processed by subinterface Fa0/0.1.
    F. Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.
    Explanation
    The first way indicative of how the router handles incoming VLAN traffic is that incoming traffic with VLAN ID 10 is processed by subinterface Fa0/0.1. This suggests that the router is configured with subinterfaces to handle traffic from different VLANs separately. The second way is that traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated. This indicates that the router is using subinterfaces to route traffic based on the VLAN tags, allowing for separate handling of traffic from different VLANs.

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  • 43. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Users complain that they do not have connectivity to the web server that is connected to SW1. What should be done to remedy the problem?

    • A.

      Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.

    • B.

      Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.

    • C.

      Configure the trunk port in trunk mode on SW1.

    • D.

      Attach the web server to a router and configure inter-VLAN routing.

    Correct Answer
    B. Configure VLAN 100 as the native VLAN for SW1.
    Explanation
    To remedy the connectivity issue to the web server connected to SW1, VLAN 100 should be configured as the native VLAN for SW1. This means that untagged traffic will be sent through VLAN 100, allowing for proper communication between the web server and other devices connected to SW1. By configuring VLAN 100 as the native VLAN, any untagged traffic will be associated with this VLAN and be able to communicate with the web server.

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  • 44. 

    Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 20 was recently added on the network. Users on VLAN 20 on SW1 start complaining that they do not have connectivity to the users on the same VLAN on switch SW2. What should be done to remedy the problem?

    • A.

      Configure the trunk port in a desirable mode on SW2.

    • B.

      Include VLAN 20 in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk link on SW2.

    • C.

      Configure VLAN 1 to be the native VLAN for both networks on SW1 and SW2.

    • D.

      Remove VLAN 20 from the allowed VLANs on the trunk link on SW2, an action that will enable all VLANs on the trunk link.

    Correct Answer
    B. Include VLAN 20 in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk link on SW2.
    Explanation
    To resolve the issue of VLAN 20 users on SW1 not having connectivity to VLAN 20 users on SW2, VLAN 20 needs to be added to the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk link of SW2. By including VLAN 20 in the allowed VLANs, the trunk link will be able to carry traffic for VLAN 20 between the two switches, allowing the users to communicate with each other.

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  • 45. 

    Which statement correctly describes an IBSS?

    • A.

      Wireless stations communicate with a single access point.

    • B.

      Wireless stations communicate directly with each other, without an access point.

    • C.

      Wireless stations communicate with multiple access points, each with the same SSID.

    • D.

      Wireless stations communicate with multiple access points, each with a different SSID.

    Correct Answer
    B. Wireless stations communicate directly with each other, without an access point.
    Explanation
    An IBSS (Independent Basic Service Set) is a type of wireless network in which wireless stations communicate directly with each other, without the need for an access point. In this type of network, each wireless station acts as both a client and an access point, allowing for direct peer-to-peer communication between devices. This is different from other types of wireless networks where stations communicate with a single access point or multiple access points with the same or different SSIDs.

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  • 46. 

    Which two operations can be performed from the boot loader command line of a Cisco Catalyst switch? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Change hostname

    • B.

      view active VLANs

    • C.

      reinstall IOS image

    • D.

      format flash file system

    • E.

      Show MAC address table

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. reinstall IOS image
    D. format flash file system
    Explanation
    From the boot loader command line of a Cisco Catalyst switch, two operations that can be performed are reinstalling the IOS image and formatting the flash file system. The boot loader is a software program that is responsible for loading the operating system and allows for basic configuration and troubleshooting tasks. Reinstalling the IOS image can be done to upgrade or restore the operating system, while formatting the flash file system erases all files and configurations stored in the flash memory.

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  • 47. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.65 and a destination address of 192.168.1.161. What will the router do with this packet?

    • A.

      The router will drop the packet.

    • B.

      The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.

    • C.

      The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.

    • D.

      The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

    • E.

      The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.

    Correct Answer
    A. The router will drop the packet.
    Explanation
    The router will drop the packet because the source and destination addresses are in the same subnet (192.168.1.0/24). Since the packet is destined for a host within the same subnet, the router does not need to forward it to another interface. Instead, the router will drop the packet as it does not need to be routed.

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  • 48. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator enters the displayed commands to configure VLAN 30. What is the result of running these commands?

    • A.

      VLAN 30 will be added to S1, S2, and S3, but not to S4.

    • B.

      VLAN 30 will be pruned from the VLAN database of S3.

    • C.

      VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4, S2 or S1.

    • D.

      VLAN 30 will not be added to the VLAN database of S3 and an error message will be displayed.

    Correct Answer
    C. VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4, S2 or S1.
    Explanation
    The given commands configure VLAN 30 on the switches S1, S2, and S3. However, the "switchport trunk allowed vlan" command is missing the "add" keyword, which means that only VLAN 30 will be allowed on the trunk links of S3. Therefore, VLAN 30 will be added to the VLAN database of S3 but will not be propagated to S4, S2, or S1.

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  • 49. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show interfaces fastEthernet 0/8 switchport command to check the status of the port. What can be concluded from the output?

    • A.

      Port Fa0/8 is configured as a trunk with 802.1q encapsulation.

    • B.

      Port Fa0/8 is configured as a trunk in VLAN 1.

    • C.

      Port Fa0/8 is configured in access mode and associated with VLAN 1.

    • D.

      Port Fa0/8 is configured as a trunk and VLAN 1 is a native VLAN for the trunk.

    Correct Answer
    C. Port Fa0/8 is configured in access mode and associated with VLAN 1.
    Explanation
    The output of the "show interfaces fastEthernet 0/8 switchport" command indicates that Port Fa0/8 is configured in access mode and associated with VLAN 1.

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  • 50. 

    What information in an Ethernet frame is used by a Layer 2 switch to build its address table?

    • A.

      Source IP address

    • B.

      source MAC address

    • C.

      destination IP address

    • D.

      destination MAC address

    Correct Answer
    B. source MAC address
    Explanation
    Layer 2 switches use the source MAC address in an Ethernet frame to build their address table. The source MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to the network interface card (NIC) of the device sending the frame. By examining the source MAC address of incoming frames, the switch can determine which devices are connected to each of its ports. This information is then used to forward frames to the correct destination device based on its MAC address, improving network efficiency and reducing unnecessary traffic.

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