CCNA Certification Practice #3

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CCNA Certification Practice #3 - Quiz


Getting a CCNA certification validates one's specific technical skills, considerably increasing the possessor's professional credibility. Persons who have obtained the CCNA certification have more to bring to the table than those that don’t. Take this CCNA certification practice exam and see how prepared for the exam that is coming up. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem? 

    • A.

      Application

    • B.

      Transport

    • C.

      Network

    • D.

      Data link

    • E.

      Physical

    Correct Answer
    D. Data link
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is the data link layer. The data link layer is responsible for the physical transmission of data between network devices, such as routers. If the routers are unable to ping from serial interface to serial interface, it suggests that there may be an issue with the data link layer, such as a faulty cable or misconfigured network interface cards.

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  • 2. 

    Which network device is commonly used to allow multiple VPN connections into a corporate network?

    • A.

      ACL

    • B.

      IDS

    • C.

      FIREWALL

    • D.

      CONCENTRATOR

    Correct Answer
    D. CONCENTRATOR
    Explanation
    A concentrator is a network device commonly used to allow multiple VPN connections into a corporate network. It acts as a central point for managing and processing VPN connections, allowing remote users to securely access the corporate network. The concentrator authenticates and encrypts the incoming VPN connections, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the data transmitted between the remote users and the corporate network. By using a concentrator, the corporate network can efficiently handle multiple VPN connections from different remote locations.

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  • 3. 

    Refer to the exhibit. R3 has the following configuration: R3# show running-config --some output text omitted-- interface serial0 bandwidth 128 ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0 encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what is the problem?

    • A.

      No clock rate has been configured on interface s0.

    • B.

      There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.

    • C.

      An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.

    • D.

      The encapsulation frame-relay command is missing the broadcast keyword.

    Correct Answer
    C. An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
    Explanation
    The debug output shows that the frame-relay packet is being sent to the IP address 192.168.11.1, which is the IP address of R1. However, in the frame-relay map statement, the IP address specified is 192.168.11.2, which is the IP address of R3 itself. Therefore, the problem is that there is an incorrect IP address in the map statement.

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  • 4. 

    Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

    • A.

      R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.

    • B.

      R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.

    • C.

      The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.

    • D.

      R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.

    • E.

      R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.

    Correct Answer
    D. R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.
    Explanation
    The most likely problem is that R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network. This is indicated by the fact that when the "show ip ospf neighbor" command is given, no output is shown. This suggests that OSPF neighbors have not been established, which can occur if the network statement is missing for the specific network.

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  • 5. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The XYZ Company hosts web pages for small companies. Based on the exhibited information, what would be an appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network? 

    • A.

      ISP# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1

    • B.

      ISP# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s/0/0/0

    • C.

      ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/1

    • D.

      ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0

    • E.

      ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.240 s0/0/1

    • F.

      ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1

    Correct Answer
    F. ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1". This is the appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network because it specifies the destination network 192.135.250.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248, which indicates a /29 subnet. This route is configured on the s0/0/1 interface, which is the interface connected to the XYZ network. This route will allow the ISP to forward traffic destined for the XYZ network to the correct interface.

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  • 6. 

    What are three Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      BECN

    • B.

      DLCI

    • C.

      DE

    • D.

      FECN

    • E.

      LMI

    • F.

      Invers ARP

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. BECN
    C. DE
    Explanation
    BECN and DE are two of the three Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms. BECN stands for Backward Explicit Congestion Notification, which is used by the network to notify the sending device about congestion in the network. DE stands for Discard Eligibility, which is a bit in the Frame Relay header that indicates if a frame can be discarded during congestion. The third mechanism is not mentioned in the given options.

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  • 7. 

    What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?

    • A.

      They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.

    • B.

      They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.

    • C.

      They should be placed on the fastest interface available.

    • D.

      They should be placed on the destination WAN link.

    Correct Answer
    A. They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.
    Explanation
    Extended access control lists (ACLs) should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied. This is because ACLs are used to filter network traffic based on specific criteria, such as source and destination IP addresses, protocol types, and port numbers. By placing the ACLs closer to the source of the traffic, they can be applied earlier in the network path, allowing for more efficient and effective filtering. This helps to reduce unnecessary network traffic and potential security risks.

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  • 8. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to the Records Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements: deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0 Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?

    • A.

      Hera(config)# interface fa0/0

    • B.

      Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0

    • C.

      Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0

    • D.

      Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1

    • E.

      Athena(config)# interface s0/0/1

    • F.

      Athena(config)# interface fa0/0

    Correct Answer
    F. Athena(config)# interface fa0/0
    Explanation
    The access list should be applied to the interface that connects to the Records Server. In this case, it is the interface fa0/0 on the Athena device.

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  • 9. 

    What is the default Layer 2 encapsulation protocol for a synchronous serial interface on a Cisco router? 

    • A.

      PPP

    • B.

      HDLC

    • C.

      Frame Relay

    • D.

      CHAP

    • E.

      IEEE 802.1Q

    Correct Answer
    B. HDLC
    Explanation
    HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is the default Layer 2 encapsulation protocol for a synchronous serial interface on a Cisco router. HDLC is a bit-oriented protocol that provides both connection-oriented and connectionless service. It is widely used in synchronous serial communication and is the default encapsulation protocol for Cisco routers. HDLC is simple, efficient, and reliable, making it suitable for various network environments.

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  • 10. 

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. A
    B. B
  • 11. 

    Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?

    • A.

      Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.

    • B.

      The number of usable addresses that is assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.

    • C.

      A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.

    • D.

      The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured.

    Correct Answer
    A. Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
    Explanation
    NAT overloading, also known as Port Address Translation (PAT), is a process in which multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address. This allows multiple devices within a private network to share a single public IP address when communicating with devices on the internet. The router keeps track of the source port numbers to differentiate between the different private IP addresses. This technique helps conserve the limited pool of public IP addresses and provides a level of security by hiding the internal IP addresses from external networks.

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  • 12. 

    Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Destination address and wildcard mask

    • B.

      Source address and wildcard mask

    • C.

      Subnet mask and wildcard mask

    • D.

      Access list number between 100 and 199

    • E.

      Access list number between 1 and 99

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Source address and wildcard mask
    E. Access list number between 1 and 99
    Explanation
    When creating a standard access control list, two pieces of information are required. The first is the source address and wildcard mask, which specify the source of the traffic that will be filtered by the access control list. The second is the access list number between 1 and 99, which is used to identify and apply the access control list to an interface or a specific traffic flow. These two pieces of information are necessary to properly configure and implement a standard access control list.

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  • 13. 

    Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Most

    • B.

      Host

    • C.

      All

    • D.

      Any

    • E.

      Some

    • F.

      Gt

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Host
    D. Any
    Explanation
    The keywords "host" and "any" can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair. The keyword "host" is used to specify a single host or IP address, while the keyword "any" is used to represent all IP addresses or any source/destination. These keywords provide flexibility in defining access control rules by allowing specific or generic addressing options.

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  • 14. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An initial configuration is being performed on a new router. The network administrator encounters the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What is the problem?

    • A.

      The enable secret command has not been issued yet.

    • B.

      The enable password command has not been issued yet.

    • C.

      The password command has not been set for the console port.

    • D.

      The service password-encryption command has not been issued yet.

    Correct Answer
    C. The password command has not been set for the console port.
    Explanation
    The error message in the exhibit suggests that there is an issue with the password command for the console port. This means that the password for accessing the console port has not been set. As a result, the router is unable to proceed with the initial configuration. To resolve this problem, the network administrator needs to set a password for the console port using the password command.

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  • 15. 

    What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

    • A.

      They use hop count as their only metric.

    • B.

      They only send out updates when a new network is added.

    • C.

      They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

    • D.

      They flood the entire network with routing updates.

    Correct Answer
    C. They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
    Explanation
    Distance vector routing protocols, such as RIP (Routing Information Protocol), operate by sending their routing tables to directly connected neighbors. These protocols periodically exchange information with their neighbors, sharing the entire routing table. Each router then uses this information to calculate the best path to reach a destination network. The routing updates are sent only to the directly connected neighbors, minimizing the amount of network traffic. This allows routers to efficiently update their routing tables and make informed forwarding decisions based on the received information.

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  • 16. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands will configure router A for OSPF?

    • A.

      Router ospf 0

    • B.

      Router ospf 0

    • C.

      Router ospf 1

    • D.

      Router ospf 1

    • E.

      Router ospf 1

    Correct Answer
    C. Router ospf 1
  • 17. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Router B should not send routing updates to router A. Which command can be used on router B to prevent RIP from sending these updates?

    • A.

      Passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

    • B.

      Passive-interface serial 0/0/0

    • C.

      Access-class 12 out

    • D.

      Access-class 12 in

    Correct Answer
    B. Passive-interface serial 0/0/0
    Explanation
    The "passive-interface serial 0/0/0" command can be used on router B to prevent RIP from sending updates to router A. This command puts the specified interface into passive mode, which means that it will not send any routing updates. In this case, by using the command on the serial 0/0/0 interface, router B will stop sending RIP updates to router A.

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  • 18. 

    A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?

    • A.

      D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0

    • B.

      O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, FastEthernet0/0

    • C.

      R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, FastEthernet0/0

    • D.

      S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

    Correct Answer
    D. S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
    Explanation
    The route that will appear in the routing table for network 192.168.168.0 is "S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1". This is because the "S" indicates that the route was learned through a static routing process, and it has the lowest administrative distance of 1. The other routes have higher administrative distances, indicating that they were learned through dynamic routing processes.

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  • 19. 

    Refer to the exhibit. An administrator who is connected to the console of the Peanut router is able to ping the Serial0 and Ethernet0 ports of the Popcorn router but unable to ping its Ethernet1 interface. What are two possible causes for this problem? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      The serial interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.

    • B.

      The Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.

    • C.

      The Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration.

    • D.

      The Popcorn router is not forwarding RIP updates.

    • E.

      The clock rate is missing from the configuration of one of the routers.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. The Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
    C. The Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration.
    Explanation
    Two possible causes for the problem could be that the Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown or that the Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration.

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  • 20. 

    Which wireless standard works only in the 2.4 GHz range and provides speeds up to 54 Mb/s?

    • A.

      802.11a

    • B.

      802.11b

    • C.

      802.11g

    • D.

      802.11i

    • E.

      802.11n

    Correct Answer
    C. 802.11g
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 802.11g. This wireless standard operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency range and can provide speeds of up to 54 Mb/s. It is an improvement over the previous 802.11b standard, offering faster data transfer rates.

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  • 21. 

    When is a WLAN a better solution than a LAN?

    • A.

      When security is an issue

    • B.

      When user mobility is needed

    • C.

      When more than one laptop is used in a cubicle

    • D.

      When electrical interference from surrounding machinery is an issue

    Correct Answer
    B. When user mobility is needed
    Explanation
    A WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network) is a better solution than a LAN (Local Area Network) when user mobility is needed. WLAN allows users to connect to the network and access resources without being physically connected through cables, providing flexibility and freedom of movement. This is particularly advantageous in environments where users need to move around and stay connected to the network at the same time, such as in large office spaces, airports, or public places. By using WLAN, users can maintain connectivity and access network resources from different locations within the coverage area.

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  • 22. 

    A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.) 

    • A.

      RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

    • B.

      RouterA(config)# router ospf 1

    • C.

      RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0

    • D.

      RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

    • E.

      RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
    D. RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
    Explanation
    To configure a router to route within OSPF area 0, two commands are required. The first command is "RouterA(config)# router ospf 1" which enables OSPF routing process with an OSPF process ID of 1. The second command is "RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0" which specifies the network address and subnet mask to be included in OSPF routing and assigns it to area 0. These two commands together enable OSPF routing and add the specified network to area 0 for routing.

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  • 23. 

    Wdwd

    • A.

      W

    • B.

      D

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. W
    B. D
  • 24. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Two switches have been connected with ports that are configured as trunks. After the connection was made, SW2 displayed the status message as shown in the exhibit. What will solve this problem?

    • A.

      SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

    • B.

      SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

    • C.

      SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

    • D.

      SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1

    Correct Answer
    C. SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
  • 25. 

    A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID?

    • A.

      The IP address of the interface that is configured with priority 0

    • B.

      The OSPF area ID that is configured on the interface with the highest IP address

    • C.

      The loopback interface IP address

    • D.

      The highest IP address on the LAN interfaces

    • E.

      The highest IP address that is configured on the WAN interfaces

    Correct Answer
    C. The loopback interface IP address
    Explanation
    The OSPF process on the router assigns the router ID based on the IP address of the loopback interface. The loopback interface is a logical interface that is always up and reachable, making it a stable and reliable choice for the router ID. The IP address of the loopback interface is typically chosen to be a unique and static address, ensuring consistency in the router ID across reboots or interface changes.

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  • 26. 

    What two measures are used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two)

    • A.

      Link-state advertisements (LSA)

    • B.

      Spanning Tree Protocol

    • C.

      Shortest path first tree

    • D.

      Split horizon

    • E.

      Hold-down timers

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. Split horizon
    E. Hold-down timers
    Explanation
    Split horizon and hold-down timers are two measures used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols. Split horizon is a technique where a router does not advertise routes back out of the interface from which it learned them, preventing loops from occurring. Hold-down timers are used to temporarily ignore route updates after a route has been invalidated, allowing time for the network to stabilize and prevent incorrect route information from being propagated. These measures help to ensure the stability and efficiency of the network's routing system.

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  • 27. 

    What table does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm use to calculate the best route to each destination router?

    • A.

      Routing table

    • B.

      Topology table

    • C.

      DUAL table

    • D.

      CAM table

    • E.

      ARP table

    Correct Answer
    B. Topology table
    Explanation
    The EIGRP DUAL algorithm uses the topology table to calculate the best route to each destination router. The topology table contains information about the network topology, including the metrics and costs associated with each route. By analyzing this information, the algorithm determines the most efficient path to reach each destination router.

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  • 28. 

    Which address is a valid IPv6 global unicast address?

    • A.

      FE90::1::FFFF

    • B.

      FD80::1::1234

    • C.

      FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1

    • D.

      FEA0::100::7788:998F

    • E.

      FC90::::5678:4251:FFFF

    Correct Answer
    C. FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1
  • 29. 

    A network administrator needs to configure three local networks. The networks have these requirements: Network 1 - 500 hosts Network 2 - 100 hosts Network 3 - 1000 hosts Which three subnet masks will be needed to fulfill these requirements? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      255.255.0.0

    • B.

      255.255.255.0

    • C.

      255.255.254.0

    • D.

      255.255.252.0

    • E.

      255.255.248.0

    • F.

      255.255.255.128

    • G.

      255.255.255.192

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. 255.255.254.0
    D. 255.255.252.0
    F. 255.255.255.128
    Explanation
    The subnet masks needed to fulfill the requirements of the three local networks are 255.255.254.0, 255.255.252.0, and 255.255.255.128.

    - Network 1 requires 500 hosts, so a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0 will provide enough host addresses.
    - Network 2 requires 100 hosts, so a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128 will provide enough host addresses.
    - Network 3 requires 1000 hosts, so a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0 will provide enough host addresses.

    These subnet masks ensure that each network has enough host addresses to accommodate the required number of hosts.

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  • 30. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      SW1 will become the root bridge.

    • B.

      SW2 will become the root bridge.

    • C.

      SW2 will get a port blocked.

    • D.

      SW4 will get a port blocked.

    • E.

      SW3 will become the root bridge.

    • F.

      SW4 will become the root bridge.

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. SW4 will get a port blocked.
    E. SW3 will become the root bridge.
    Explanation
    SW3 will become the root bridge because it has the lowest bridge ID. SW4 will have a port blocked because it is not the root bridge and it has the highest bridge ID among the remaining switches.

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  • 31. 

    What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

    • A.

      Prevents Layer 2 loops

    • B.

      Prevents routing loops on a router

    • C.

      Creates smaller collision domains

    • D.

      Creates smaller broadcast domains

    • E.

      Allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates

    Correct Answer
    A. Prevents Layer 2 loops
    Explanation
    The purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is to prevent Layer 2 loops. Layer 2 loops can occur in a network when there are redundant links between switches, causing broadcast storms and network congestion. STP identifies and blocks redundant paths in the network, allowing for a single active path while keeping the other paths in a standby mode. This ensures that there is no looping of Ethernet frames, maintaining network stability and preventing disruptions.

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  • 32. 

    Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?

    • A.

      Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.

    • B.

      Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.

    • C.

      Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.

    • D.

      It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding.

    Correct Answer
    B. Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
    Explanation
    Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state is a true statement regarding the states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol. In the Spanning Tree Protocol, ports initially start in the blocking state, where they do not forward any traffic. They then transition to the listening state, where they start to receive and process BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units) to determine the network topology. After that, they enter the learning state, where they populate their MAC address tables. Finally, they move to the forwarding state, where they actively forward data packets.

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  • 33. 

    Four bits have been borrowed to create subnets. Which three addresses are subnet addresses? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      192.168.14.8

    • B.

      192.168.14.16

    • C.

      192.168.14.24

    • D.

      192.168.14.32

    • E.

      192.168.14.148

    • F.

      192.168.14.208

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. 192.168.14.16
    D. 192.168.14.32
    F. 192.168.14.208
    Explanation
    When four bits are borrowed to create subnets, the subnet mask becomes 255.255.255.240. This means that the subnet addresses will have the last four bits of the host portion set to 0. Looking at the given addresses, 192.168.14.16, 192.168.14.32, and 192.168.14.208 have the last four bits of the host portion set to 0, making them subnet addresses.

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  • 34. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What type of header is shown?

    • A.

      IPv4

    • B.

      IPv6

    • C.

      TCP

    • D.

      UDP

    Correct Answer
    B. IPv6
  • 35. 

    • A.

      Ar

    • B.

      Er

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ar
    B. Er
  • 36. 

    Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0, which three addresses would be valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      10.78.103.0

    • B.

      10.67.32.0

    • C.

      10.78.160.0

    • D.

      10.178.48.0

    • E.

      172.55.96.0

    • F.

      172.2.11.100.0

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. 10.78.103.0
    D. 10.178.48.0
    F. 172.2.11.100.0
    Explanation
    In order to determine which addresses are valid host addresses, we need to consider the subnet mask.

    A subnet mask of 255.255.224.0 means that the first 19 bits of the IP address are the network address, and the remaining 13 bits are available for host addresses.

    Out of the given addresses, the three that have valid host addresses are:
    - 10.78.103.0 (within the same network range)
    - 10.178.48.0 (within the same network range)
    - 172.2.11.100.0 (within the same network range)

    The other addresses either fall outside of the network range or have an invalid format.

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  • 37. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which command needs to be used on router interface Fa 0/1 to complete the VLAN configuration? 

    • A.

      RT_1(config)# trunk encapsulation dot1q

    • B.

      RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10

    • C.

      RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation negotiate

    • D.

      RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation 802.1q

    • E.

      RT_1(config)# vlan encapsulation dot1q

    Correct Answer
    B. RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10". This command is used to configure the VLAN encapsulation on the router interface Fa 0/1. The "encapsulation dot1q" command is used to specify the VLAN encapsulation method, and the "10" parameter specifies the VLAN ID.

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  • 38. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Computer A is configured with an IP address of 192.168.20.5 and cannot ping RT_1. What is most likely the problem? 

    • A.

      SW_1 FastEthernet interface 0/24 is not a trunk port.

    • B.

      The RT_1 FastEthernet 0/1.10 is not configured for VLANs.

    • C.

      The FastEthernet port 0/1 on SW_1 is configured for VLAN 20.

    • D.

      The management VLAN does not have an IP address assigned to the same VLAN.

    • E.

      The IP address of computer A is incorrect.

    Correct Answer
    E. The IP address of computer A is incorrect.
    Explanation
    The most likely problem is that the IP address of computer A is incorrect. Since computer A cannot ping RT_1, it suggests that there is an issue with its IP configuration. The other options, such as the trunk port, VLAN configuration, and management VLAN, do not directly affect the ability to ping RT_1. Therefore, the incorrect IP address is the most probable cause of the problem.

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  • 39. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?  

    • A.

      Because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99

    • B.

      Because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN

    • C.

      Because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch

    • D.

      Because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface

    • E.

      Because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command

    Correct Answer
    E. Because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command
    Explanation
    The VLAN 99 is missing because it has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command. This means that the switch is not recognizing VLAN 99 as a valid VLAN and therefore it is not being displayed in the configuration and output.

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  • 40. 

    What type of IP address is 172.16.134.48/27?

    • A.

      A useable host address

    • B.

      A broadcast address

    • C.

      A network address

    • D.

      A multicast address

    • E.

      A public address

    Correct Answer
    A. A useable host address
    Explanation
    The IP address 172.16.134.48/27 is a usable host address because it falls within the range of IP addresses that can be assigned to devices on a network. The "/27" indicates that the first 27 bits of the IP address are used to identify the network, leaving 5 bits for host addresses. Since the host address in this case is 48, it falls within the range of usable host addresses on the network.

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  • 41. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      Host B

    • B.

      Host C

    • C.

      Host D

    • D.

      Host E

    • E.

      Host F

    • F.

      Host G

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Host C
    C. Host D
    E. Host F
    Explanation
    Host A will send ARP requests to hosts C, D, and F because they are connected to the same VLAN as host A. When host A needs to communicate with hosts on the same VLAN, it sends out an ARP request to discover their MAC addresses. Hosts B, E, and G are not on the same VLAN as host A, so they will not receive ARP requests from host A.

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  • 42. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output that is shown? 

    • A.

      The management VLAN is VLAN 99.

    • B.

      The only VLAN that can be applied to switch ports is VLAN 99.

    • C.

      The only VLANs that can be applied to switch ports are VLANs 1 and 99.

    • D.

      The switch will only be able to forward frames for hosts on the 10.99.0.0 network.

    Correct Answer
    A. The management VLAN is VLAN 99.
    Explanation
    From the given output, we can conclude that the management VLAN is VLAN 99.

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  • 43. 

    Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch fl-1 are in the Production VLAN and all ports on switch fl-2 are in the Development VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are in the network? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      One broadcast domain

    • B.

      Three broadcast domains

    • C.

      Three collision domains

    • D.

      Five broadcast domains

    • E.

      Nine collision domains

    • F.

      Ten collision domains

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Three broadcast domains
    E. Nine collision domains
    Explanation
    The network consists of two switches, fl-1 and fl-2, each with all ports in a separate VLAN. Each VLAN represents a separate broadcast domain, so there are three broadcast domains in total. Since each switch is considered a separate collision domain, and there are three switches in total, there are nine collision domains in the network.

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  • 44. 

    Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA switch. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type. Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message? 

    • A.

      The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on one switch.

    • B.

      The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on both switches.

    • C.

      The IEEE 802.1Q trunking port has a speed mismatch on one of the switches.

    • D.

      The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.

    • E.

      The SwA port has IEEE 802.1Q trunking enabled and the SwB port has ISL trunking enabled.

    Correct Answer
    D. The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.
    Explanation
    The error message indicates that a BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) was received on a non-trunk port (FastEthernet0/1) in VLAN1. This suggests that the SwA port is configured as a trunk port, which is expected to receive BPDU messages, while the SwB port is configured as an access port, which should not be receiving BPDU messages. This inconsistency in port configuration is causing the error message to be generated.

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  • 45. 

    Refer to the exhibit. VLAN10 and VLAN20 have been created on SW_1 and SW_2 and switch ports have been assigned to the appropriate VLAN. Workstations in VLAN 10 can ping workstations in VLAN 10 that connect to either switch, but workstations in VLAN 20 cannot ping workstations in VLAN 20 on the opposite switch. Based on the output, what is most likely the problem? 

    • A.

      FA 0/1 on SW_1 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20.

    • B.

      FA 0/1 on SW_2 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20

    • C.

      VTP is not working properly between SW_1 and SW_2.

    • D.

      Interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports.

    • E.

      Interfaces FA0/3 on both switches need to be configured as access ports.

    Correct Answer
    D. Interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports.
    Explanation
    The problem is most likely that interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports. Trunk ports are used to carry traffic for multiple VLANs, allowing VLAN 20 traffic to pass between the switches. Since workstations in VLAN 20 cannot ping workstations in VLAN 20 on the opposite switch, it suggests that the VLAN 20 traffic is not being properly forwarded between the switches. Configuring the interfaces as trunk ports will enable the switches to pass traffic for multiple VLANs.

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  • 46. 

    A Catalyst switch must be in which VTP mode in order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain?

    • A.

      Client

    • B.

      Server

    • C.

      Domain

    • D.

      Transparent

    • E.

      Designated

    Correct Answer
    B. Server
    Explanation
    In order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain in a Catalyst switch, it must be in the "server" VTP mode. The server mode allows the switch to create, modify, and delete VLAN information and propagate it to other switches in the same VTP domain. By being in server mode, the switch can actively participate in the VTP domain and make changes to the VLAN configuration.

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  • 47. 

    What creates a loop-free path through a switch network? 

    • A.

      Hold-down timers

    • B.

      Poison reverse

    • C.

      Spanning Tree Protocol

    • D.

      Time to Live

    • E.

      Split Horizon Protocol

    • F.

      Routing Information Protocol

    Correct Answer
    C. Spanning Tree Protocol
    Explanation
    Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) creates a loop-free path through a switch network. It is a network protocol that prevents loops in Ethernet networks by selectively blocking certain redundant links. STP calculates the shortest path to the root bridge and disables all other paths, ensuring that there is only one active path between any two network devices. This prevents broadcast storms and ensures a stable and efficient network topology.

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  • 48. 

    Which three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.) 

    • A.

      Improper placement of enterprise level servers

    • B.

      Addition of hosts to a physical segment

    • C.

      Replacement of hubs with workgroup switches

    • D.

      Increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications

    • E.

      Creation of new collision domains without first adding network hosts

    • F.

      Migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Improper placement of enterprise level servers
    B. Addition of hosts to a physical segment
    D. Increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
    Explanation
    The three factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN are improper placement of enterprise level servers, addition of hosts to a physical segment, and increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications. Improper placement of servers can lead to bottlenecks and congestion if they are not strategically positioned. Adding more hosts to a physical segment can increase the traffic and cause congestion. Similarly, as the use of bandwidth intensive network applications increases, it can consume more network resources and lead to congestion.

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  • 49. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Two VLANs have been configured on the switch and hosts have been assigned. Hosts in the Sales VLAN can ping all hosts in their own VLAN, but cannot ping the hosts in the HR VLAN. What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)  

    • A.

      All hosts are in one collision domain

    • B.

      All hosts are in one broadcast domain.

    • C.

      A router is required for communication between VLANs.

    • D.

      The hosts are in separate broadcast domains.

    • E.

      The management VLAN has not been assigned an IP address.

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. A router is required for communication between VLANs.
    D. The hosts are in separate broadcast domains.
    Explanation
    The first explanation for this problem is that a router is required for communication between VLANs. VLANs are logically separate networks, and without a router to connect them, communication between VLANs is not possible.

    The second explanation is that the hosts are in separate broadcast domains. Each VLAN has its own broadcast domain, and hosts within a VLAN can communicate with each other using broadcast messages. However, hosts in one VLAN cannot directly communicate with hosts in another VLAN using broadcast messages.

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  • 50. 

    . Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology? 

    • A.

      Vlsm

    • B.

      Pvst

    • C.

      802.1Q

    • D.

      Rstp

    • E.

      Vtp

    Correct Answer
    D. Rstp
    Explanation
    RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) is an industry-wide specification developed to decrease the time required for switch ports operating in a redundantly switched topology to transition to the forwarding state. RSTP improves the convergence time of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) by reducing the amount of time it takes for a switch port to transition from the blocking state to the forwarding state. This allows for faster network convergence and improved network performance in redundant switch topologies.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 29, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Albrenes
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