An Interesting Quiz On CCNA 4, Final Exam - A

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An Interesting Quiz On CCNA 4, Final Exam - A - Quiz

If you have been in doubt about how prepared you are for the exam, an interesting quiz on CCNA 4, final exam – a is just what you need to nail that exam that is creeping around the corner. Take it up and get to refresh your memory on what you may have forgotten.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which statement best describes a WAN?

    • A.

      A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.

    • B.

      A WAN is a public utility that enables access to the Internet.

    • C.

      WAN is another name for the Internet.

    • D.

      A WAN is a LAN that is extended to provide secure remote network access.

    Correct Answer
    A. A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.
    Explanation
    A WAN, or Wide Area Network, is a network that connects multiple Local Area Networks (LANs) over long distances. It allows for communication and data transfer between LANs that are geographically separated, such as connecting branch offices of a company located in different cities or countries. This enables organizations to have a unified network infrastructure and share resources across different locations. The other options are incorrect because a WAN is not necessarily a public utility or another name for the Internet, and it is not specifically extended to provide secure remote network access.

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  • 2. 

    Connecting offices at different locations using the Internet can be economical for a business. What are two important business policy issues that should be addressed when using the Internet for this purpose? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Addressing

    • B.

      Bandwidth

    • C.

      Privacy

    • D.

      Security

    • E.

      WAN Technology

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Privacy
    D. Security
    Explanation
    When connecting offices at different locations using the Internet, two important business policy issues that should be addressed are privacy and security. Privacy ensures that sensitive information and data are protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. This is crucial to maintain the confidentiality of business operations and customer information. Security is essential to safeguard the network infrastructure and prevent potential threats such as hacking, data breaches, or malware attacks. By addressing these two issues, businesses can ensure the integrity and protection of their data while utilizing the cost-effective benefits of Internet connectivity.

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  • 3. 

    What is a disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

    • A.

      Higher cost

    • B.

      Fixed capacity

    • C.

      Less flexibility

    • D.

      Higher latency

    Correct Answer
    D. Higher latency
    Explanation
    A disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network is higher latency. In a packet-switched network, data is broken down into packets and sent separately, which can result in delays as the packets are routed through different nodes. On the other hand, in a circuit-switched network, a dedicated communication path is established between the sender and receiver, ensuring a more direct and immediate transmission of data. Therefore, packet-switched networks tend to have higher latency, causing potential delays in data transmission.

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  • 4. 

    A company is considering updating the campus WAN connection. Which two WAN options are examples of the private WAN architecture? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Cable

    • B.

      Leased line

    • C.

      Ethernet WAN

    • D.

      Municipal Wi-Fi

    • E.

      Digital subscriber line

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Leased line
    C. Ethernet WAN
    Explanation
    A private WAN architecture refers to a network infrastructure that is owned and controlled by a single organization. Leased line is an example of a private WAN option where a dedicated physical connection is established between two locations. Ethernet WAN is another example, which utilizes Ethernet technology to connect multiple sites within an organization's network. Both options provide secure and reliable connections for the company's internal communication needs. Municipal Wi-Fi and cable are examples of public or shared WAN options, while digital subscriber line (DSL) is typically used for internet access rather than private network connections.

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  • 5. 

    Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?​

    • A.

      It supports the SONET standard, but not the SDH standard​.

    • B.

      It enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.

    • C.

      It can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.

    • D.

      It assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.

    Correct Answer
    C. It can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.
    Explanation
    DWDM is a technology that allows multiple optical signals to be transmitted simultaneously over a single fiber optic cable by assigning each signal to a specific wavelength. This characteristic of DWDM makes it ideal for long-range communications, such as connections between Internet Service Providers (ISPs), where large amounts of data need to be transmitted over long distances. Therefore, the statement "It can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs" accurately describes a characteristic of DWDM.

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  • 6. 

    Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?

    • A.

      ISDN

    • B.

      MPLS

    • C.

      Frame Relay

    • D.

      Ethernet WAN

    Correct Answer
    B. MPLS
    Explanation
    MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL. MPLS is a flexible and scalable WAN technology that uses labels to efficiently route data packets across a network. It can support different types of traffic by assigning labels to packets, allowing them to be forwarded based on their specific requirements. This makes MPLS a versatile choice for carrying various types of network traffic over a wide area network.

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  • 7. 

    Which two WAN technologies are more likely to be used by a business than by teleworkers or home users? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Cable

    • B.

      DSL

    • C.

      Frame Relay

    • D.

      MetroE

    • E.

      VPN

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Frame Relay
    D. MetroE
    Explanation
    Frame Relay and MetroE are more likely to be used by a business than by teleworkers or home users. This is because Frame Relay is a high-speed packet-switching technology that provides dedicated connections between multiple locations, making it ideal for connecting different branches of a business. MetroE, short for Metropolitan Ethernet, is a high-speed Ethernet service that is typically used to connect multiple locations within a metropolitan area. Both of these technologies are more suitable for businesses that require reliable and secure connections between their various locations.

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  • 8. 

    The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?

    • A.

      VPN gateway

    • B.

      VPN appliance

    • C.

      VPN concentrator

    • D.

      VPN client software

    Correct Answer
    D. VPN client software
    Explanation
    The sales staff needs VPN client software to establish a remote VPN connection. VPN client software is a program that allows users to connect to a VPN server and access the corporate network securely. It encrypts the data transmitted between the user's device and the VPN server, ensuring privacy and security. With VPN client software, the sales staff can securely connect to the corporate network and access the sales data while traveling to meet customers.

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  • 9. 

    A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

    • A.

      Dial-up connection

    • B.

      Leased line connection

    • C.

      Site-to-site VPN over the Internet

    • D.

      Remote access VPN over the Internet

    Correct Answer
    D. Remote access VPN over the Internet
    Explanation
    A remote access VPN over the Internet would be the best solution for the corporation to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. This solution allows teleworkers to securely connect to the corporate network from any location using the Internet. It is easy to set up and cost-effective compared to other options like leased line connections. Additionally, it provides the necessary security measures to protect sensitive data transmitted between teleworkers and headquarters.

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  • 10. 

    How many DS0 channels are bundled to produce a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      28

    Correct Answer
    C. 24
    Explanation
    A T1 line has a capacity of 1.544 Mbps, and each DS0 channel has a capacity of 64 Kbps. To determine how many DS0 channels are bundled to produce a T1 line, we can divide the T1 line capacity by the DS0 channel capacity. Therefore, 1.544 Mbps divided by 64 Kbps equals 24 DS0 channels.

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  • 11. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Layer 2 encapsulation used for connection D requires Cisco routers?

    • A.

      Ethernet

    • B.

      PPPoE

    • C.

      HDLC

    • D.

      PPP

    Correct Answer
    C. HDLC
    Explanation
    HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol used for connection D that requires Cisco routers. HDLC is a synchronous data link layer protocol that provides a way to encapsulate data frames for transmission over synchronous serial links. It is a proprietary protocol developed by Cisco and is commonly used in Cisco router environments.

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  • 12. 

    Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)

    • A.

      PP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.

    • B.

      PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.

    • C.

      PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.

    • D.

      PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.

    • E.

      PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection.

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. PP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits.
    D. PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection.
    E. PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection.
    Explanation
    PPP can use both synchronous and asynchronous circuits, allowing it to be flexible in terms of the type of connection it can establish. PPP uses LCPs (Link Control Protocols) to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection, ensuring that the connection is properly established and functioning correctly. Additionally, PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection, allowing for customization and negotiation of these settings between the devices.

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  • 13. 

    A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70What is the effect of these commands?

    • A.

      The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.

    • B.

      The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.

    • C.

      The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.

    • D.

      The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

    Correct Answer
    A. The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.
    Explanation
    The "ppp quality 70" command configures the PPP link to close down if the link quality drops below 70 percent. This means that if the link quality deteriorates and falls below the specified threshold, the PPP link will be terminated. This command helps ensure that the link remains stable and reliable, as any significant decrease in link quality can result in poor performance or connectivity issues.

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  • 14. 

    What function is provided by Multilink PPP?

    • A.

      Spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links

    • B.

      Dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots

    • C.

      Enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link

    • D.

      Creating one logical link between two LAN switches via the use of multiple physical links

    Correct Answer
    A. Spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links
    Explanation
    Multilink PPP provides the function of spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links. This means that instead of relying on a single link, Multilink PPP allows for the distribution of traffic across multiple links, increasing the overall capacity and providing redundancy in case of link failure. This helps to optimize the utilization of available resources and improve the overall performance and reliability of the network connection.

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  • 15. 

    The graphic shows two boxes. The first box has the following output:R1(config)# show running-config <output omitted>username r2 password 0 Cisco!interface Serial0/0/0 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.252 encapsulation ppp ppp authentication chapThe second box has this output:R2(config)# show running-config <output omitted>username r1 password 0 Cisco!interface Serial0/0/0 ip address 209.165.200.226 255.255.255.252 encapsulation ppp ppp authentication chapRefer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the PPP link between the routers R1 and R2. However, the link cannot be established. Based on the partial output of the show running-config command, what is the cause of the problem?

    • A.

      The usernames do not match each other.

    • B.

      The usernames do not match the host names.

    • C.

      The passwords for CHAP should be in lowercase.

    • D.

      The username r1 should be configured on the router R1 and the username r2 should be configured on the router R2.

    Correct Answer
    B. The usernames do not match the host names.
    Explanation
    The usernames do not match the host names. This can be inferred from the given outputs of the show running-config command. In the first box, the username is "r2" and in the second box, the username is "r1". Since the host names are "R1" and "R2" respectively, the usernames should match the host names. Therefore, the mismatch between the usernames and host names is the cause of the problem.

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  • 16. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • A.

      Application

    • B.

      Transport

    • C.

      Network

    • D.

      Data link

    • E.

      Physical

    Correct Answer
    D. Data link
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the problem is the data link layer. The data link layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between network devices on the same network segment. If the routers cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface, it suggests that there may be an issue with the data link layer, such as incorrect configuration or a faulty network cable.

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  • 17. 

    What advantage does DSL have compared to cable technology?

    • A.

      DSL upload and download speeds are always the same.

    • B.

      DSL is faster.

    • C.

      DSL has no distance limitations.

    • D.

      DSL is not a shared medium.

    Correct Answer
    D. DSL is not a shared medium.
    Explanation
    DSL is not a shared medium, meaning that the connection is dedicated to the user and not shared with other users in the area. This ensures that the user will have consistent and reliable speeds, as they are not affected by the usage of other users on the network. In contrast, cable technology often uses a shared medium, where multiple users in the same area share the same bandwidth, leading to potential slowdowns during peak usage times.

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  • 18. 

    Which broadband technology would be best for a user that needs remote access when traveling in mountains and at sea?

    • A.

      Wi-Fi Mesh

    • B.

      Mobile broadband

    • C.

      WiMax

    • D.

      Satellite

    Correct Answer
    D. Satellite
    Explanation
    Satellite broadband technology would be the best option for a user needing remote access while traveling in mountains and at sea. Unlike other technologies, satellite broadband can provide coverage in remote and isolated areas where traditional broadband options may not be available. It uses satellites to transmit and receive data, allowing users to stay connected even in areas with limited or no terrestrial infrastructure. This makes it an ideal choice for users who require internet access in challenging terrains such as mountains and at sea.

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  • 19. 

    Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

    • A.

      DSL

    • B.

      Dialup analog modem

    • C.

      Dialup ISDN modem

    • D.

      T1

    Correct Answer
    A. DSL
    Explanation
    DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) technology requires the use of PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) to provide PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) connections to customers. PPPoE is a network protocol that allows the creation of PPP sessions over Ethernet networks. DSL uses PPPoE to establish a secure and reliable connection between the customer's premises and the service provider's network, enabling the transmission of data over the DSL line. Therefore, the correct answer is DSL.

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  • 20. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What is the network administrator verifying when issuing the show ip interface brief command on R1 in respect to the PPPoE connection to R2?  

    • A.

      That the Dialer1 interface has been manually assigned an IP address

    • B.

      That the Dialer1 interface is up and up

    • C.

      That the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP address by the ISP router

    • D.

      That the IP address on R1 G0/1 is in the same network range as the DSL modem

    Correct Answer
    C. That the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP address by the ISP router
    Explanation
    The network administrator is verifying that the Dialer1 interface on R1 has been assigned an IP address by the ISP router. This can be determined by using the "show ip interface brief" command, which displays the IP address information for all interfaces on the router. By checking the output of this command, the network administrator can confirm whether the Dialer1 interface has successfully received an IP address from the ISP router.

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  • 21. 

    Which technology creates a mapping of public IP addresses for remote tunnel spokes in a DMVPN configuration?

    • A.

      NHRP

    • B.

      ARP

    • C.

      NAT

    • D.

      IPsec

    Correct Answer
    A. NHRP
    Explanation
    NHRP (Next Hop Resolution Protocol) creates a mapping of public IP addresses for remote tunnel spokes in a DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint VPN) configuration. It allows the spokes to dynamically learn and maintain the mappings of IP addresses to the physical addresses (MAC addresses) of the remote spokes, enabling efficient routing and communication within the DMVPN network. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses in local networks, while NAT (Network Address Translation) and IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) are not specifically related to creating mappings in DMVPN configurations.

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  • 22. 

    What is the purpose of the generic routing encapsulation tunneling protocol?

    • A.

      To manage the transportation of IP multicast and multiprotocol traffic between remote sites

    • B.

      To provide packet level encryption of IP traffic between remote sites

    • C.

      to support basic unencrypted IP tunneling using multivendor routers between remote sites

    • D.

      to provide fixed flow-control mechanisms with IP tunneling between remote sites

    Correct Answer
    A. To manage the transportation of IP multicast and multiprotocol traffic between remote sites
    Explanation
    The purpose of the generic routing encapsulation tunneling protocol is to manage the transportation of IP multicast and multiprotocol traffic between remote sites. This means that it allows for efficient and reliable communication between different sites, even if they are using different protocols or need to transmit multicast traffic. The protocol encapsulates the traffic in packets and routes them through the network, ensuring that they reach their intended destination.

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  • 23. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What is used to exchange routing information between routers within each AS?

    • A.

      IGP routing protocols

    • B.

      Static routing

    • C.

      EGP routing protocols

    • D.

      Default routing

    Correct Answer
    A. IGP routing protocols
    Explanation
    IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol) routing protocols are used to exchange routing information between routers within each AS (Autonomous System). IGP protocols, such as OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) and RIP (Routing Information Protocol), are designed to facilitate communication and exchange of routing information within a single AS. These protocols allow routers within the AS to dynamically learn and update routing tables, ensuring efficient and accurate routing decisions. Therefore, IGP routing protocols are the correct answer for this question.

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  • 24. 

    Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    In order to share routing information across autonomous systems, at least four routers must use EBGP (External BGP). EBGP is used to establish peering relationships between routers in different autonomous systems, allowing them to exchange routing information. If there are fewer than four routers using EBGP, the routing information may not be properly shared between the autonomous systems. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

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  • 25. 

    Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?

    • A.

      172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255

    • B.

      172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254

    • C.

      172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255

    • D.

      172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255

    Correct Answer
    C. 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255
    Explanation
    The given ACL filter specifies a wildcard mask of 0.0.1.255, which means that the last octet of the IP address can have any value between 0 and 255. Therefore, the IP address range that covers all IP addresses matching this filter is from 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255.

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  • 26. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to Records Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements:deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?

    • A.

      Hera(config)# interface fa0/0Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

    • B.

      Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    • C.

      Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    • D.

      Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

    • E.

      Athena(config)# interface s0/0/1Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

    • F.

      Athena(config)# interface fa0/0Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    Correct Answer
    F. Athena(config)# interface fa0/0Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Athena(config)# interface fa0/0Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out. This is the correct command sequence to place the named access list "chemistry_block" on the outbound direction of the fa0/0 interface on the Athena router. This will ensure that users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet are denied access to the Records Server, while allowing all other users within the school to have access to the server.

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  • 27. 

    What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?

    • A.

      They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.

    • B.

      They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.

    • C.

      They should be placed on the fastest interface available.

    • D.

      They should be placed on the destination WAN link.

    Correct Answer
    A. They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.
    Explanation
    Extended access control lists (ACLs) should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied. This is because ACLs are used to filter and deny specific types of traffic based on defined criteria. By placing the ACLs closer to the source, the network can prevent unnecessary traffic from entering the network and potentially causing congestion or security risks. Additionally, by denying the traffic at the source, it reduces the amount of unnecessary traffic that needs to traverse the network, improving overall network performance.

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  • 28. 

    In the creation of an IPv6 ACL, what is the purpose of the implicit final command entries, permit icmp any any nd-na and permit icmp any any nd-ns?

    • A.

      To allow IPv6 to MAC address resolution

    • B.

      To allow forwarding of IPv6 multicast packets

    • C.

      To allow automatic address configuration

    • D.

      To allow forwarding of ICMPv6 packets

    Correct Answer
    A. To allow IPv6 to MAC address resolution
    Explanation
    The purpose of the implicit final command entries, "permit icmp any any nd-na" and "permit icmp any any nd-ns," in the creation of an IPv6 ACL is to allow IPv6 to MAC address resolution. This means that these entries allow the communication between IPv6 nodes to resolve their MAC addresses, which is necessary for the proper functioning of the IPv6 network.

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  • 29. 

    A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?

    • A.

      Only a standard ACL

    • B.

      A standard or extended ACL

    • C.

      only an extended ACL

    • D.

      an extended, named, or numbered ACL

    • E.

      only a named ACL

    Correct Answer
    E. only a named ACL
    Explanation
    A named ACL could be used in this situation to restrict access to the web server to only the test computer. Named ACLs allow for more specific and granular control over network traffic compared to standard or extended ACLs. By specifying the IP address of the test computer in the named ACL, the network administrator can ensure that only that specific host is allowed to connect to the web server, blocking all other hosts.

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  • 30. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?

    • A.

      HTTPS packets to PC1

    • B.

      ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1

    • C.

      Packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80

    • D.

      Neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router

    Correct Answer
    B. ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1
    Explanation
    The LIMITED_ACCESS access list is applied on the inbound direction of interface S0/0/0 on R1. This means that the ACL will filter incoming packets. The access list is specifically looking for ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1. Therefore, any ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1 will be dropped by the ACL on R1.

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  • 31. 

    What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

    • A.

      Configure SSH.

    • B.

      Configure Telnet.

    • C.

      Configure 802.1x.

    • D.

      Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure SSH.
    Explanation
    Configuring SSH (Secure Shell) is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device. SSH provides encrypted communication between the client and the server, ensuring confidentiality and integrity of the data transmitted. It uses public-key cryptography to authenticate the server and optionally the client, making it more secure than Telnet which sends data in clear text. Configuring 802.1x is related to network access control and not specifically for remote access. Configuring an ACL (Access Control List) and applying it to the VTY (Virtual Terminal) lines can provide additional security measures by controlling which IP addresses are allowed to access the device remotely.

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  • 32. 

    What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?

    • A.

      DTP

    • B.

      STP

    • C.

      CDP

    • D.

      ARP

    Correct Answer
    A. DTP
    Explanation
    DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks. DTP is a Cisco proprietary protocol that automatically negotiates trunking between switches. By disabling DTP, the switch ports will not automatically form trunk links, reducing the risk of unauthorized access to VLANs. This prevents potential VLAN hopping attacks where an attacker could gain unauthorized access to different VLANs by manipulating the trunking negotiation process.

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  • 33. 

    Which term describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control?

    • A.

      Authenticator

    • B.

      Agent

    • C.

      Supplicant

    • D.

      Authentication server

    Correct Answer
    A. Authenticator
    Explanation
    The term "authenticator" describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control. In this context, the authenticator is responsible for enforcing the authentication process and controlling access to the network. It verifies the identity of the supplicant (the device seeking access) and communicates with the authentication server to validate the credentials provided. The authenticator acts as a gateway between the supplicant and the authentication server, ensuring that only authenticated and authorized devices are granted access to the network.

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  • 34. 

    In configuring SNMPv3, what is the purpose of creating an ACL?

    • A.

      to define the source traffic that is allowed to create a VPN tunnel

    • B.

      To define the type of traffic that is allowed on the management network

    • C.

      To specify the source addresses allowed to access the SNMP agent

    • D.

      To define the protocols allowed to be used for authentication and encryption

    Correct Answer
    C. To specify the source addresses allowed to access the SNMP agent
    Explanation
    The purpose of creating an Access Control List (ACL) in configuring SNMPv3 is to specify the source addresses that are allowed to access the SNMP agent. This helps in controlling and restricting access to the SNMP agent, ensuring that only authorized devices or users can interact with it. By defining the allowed source addresses, the network administrator can enhance security and prevent unauthorized access to the SNMP agent, thereby protecting the network infrastructure.

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  • 35. 

    What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      VTP

    • B.

      LLDP

    • C.

      HSRP

    • D.

      RADIUS

    • E.

      TACACS+

    Correct Answer(s)
    D. RADIUS
    E. TACACS+
    Explanation
    RADIUS and TACACS+ are both protocols supported on Cisco devices for AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) communications. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a widely used protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting management for remote access users. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) is a more advanced and secure version of TACACS, which is used for network device administration. Both protocols allow for secure and efficient AAA communication on Cisco devices.

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  • 36. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1?

    • A.

      A manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut

    • B.

      A manager who is using an Inform Request MIB

    • C.

      A manager who is using host 192.168.0.5

    • D.

      A manager who is using authPriv

    Correct Answer
    C. A manager who is using host 192.168.0.5
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5". In order to set a parameter on switch ACSw1, the SNMP manager needs to have the correct host address configured. The manager needs to be able to communicate with the switch using the correct IP address (192.168.0.5) to send the SNMP command and set the desired parameter.

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  • 37. 

    Which Cisco feature sends copies of frames entering one port to a different port on the same switch in order to perform traffic analysis?

    • A.

      CSA

    • B.

      HIPS

    • C.

      SPAN

    • D.

      VLAN

    Correct Answer
    C. SPAN
    Explanation
    SPAN stands for Switched Port Analyzer. It is a Cisco feature that allows the network administrator to monitor and analyze traffic on a switch. By configuring SPAN, copies of frames entering one port can be sent to a different port on the same switch. This enables traffic analysis, troubleshooting, and network monitoring without affecting the normal operation of the network.

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  • 38. 

    What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Video traffic is more resilient to loss than voice traffic is.

    • B.

      Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.

    • C.

      Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms.

    • D.

      Video traffic requires a minimum of 30 kbs of bandwidth.

    • E.

      Video traffic consumes less network resources than voice traffic consumes.

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.
    C. Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms.
    Explanation
    Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent because it can vary in terms of quality, resolution, and bitrate, making it difficult to predict its behavior. Additionally, video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms to ensure smooth playback and real-time communication.

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  • 39. 

    Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent?

    • A.

      CBWFQ

    • B.

      FIFO

    • C.

      LLQ

    • D.

      FCFS

    Correct Answer
    C. LLQ
    Explanation
    LLQ stands for Low Latency Queueing, which is a QoS mechanism that allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent. LLQ uses a combination of priority queuing and class-based weighted fair queuing to prioritize specific traffic and ensure low latency for time-sensitive applications. By assigning a strict priority queue for delay-sensitive data, LLQ ensures that these packets are transmitted with minimal delay, providing a better user experience for real-time applications like voice and video.

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  • 40. 

    Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?

    • A.

      traffic shaping

    • B.

      weighted random early detection

    • C.

      Classification and marking

    • D.

      Traffic policing

    Correct Answer
    A. traffic shaping
    Explanation
    The correct answer is traffic shaping. Traffic shaping is a congestion avoidance technique that regulates the flow of traffic to prevent congestion in the network. It controls the rate at which packets are transmitted, ensuring that the traffic does not exceed the capacity of the egress interface. By shaping the traffic, it helps to smooth out bursts of data and maintain a consistent and efficient flow of packets.

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  • 41. 

    Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?

    • A.

      CoS

    • B.

      ToS

    • C.

      DSCP

    • D.

      IP precedence

    Correct Answer
    A. CoS
    Explanation
    CoS (Class of Service) is the type of QoS marking that is applied to Ethernet frames. CoS is used to prioritize different types of traffic within a network by assigning specific values to Ethernet frames. These values determine the priority of the frames and ensure that high-priority traffic, such as voice or video, is given preferential treatment over lower-priority traffic. CoS marking is commonly used in Ethernet networks to implement QoS and ensure efficient and reliable transmission of data.

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  • 42. 

    What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

    • A.

      A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.

    • B.

      A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.

    • C.

      A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.

    • D.

      A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.

    Correct Answer
    B. A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.
    Explanation
    A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network. This means that when packets enter the network, the trust boundary determines which devices within the network will honor and rely on the markings on those packets. The trust boundary helps ensure that the quality of service (QoS) markings on the packets are respected and maintained as they traverse the network, allowing for effective traffic prioritization and management.

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  • 43. 

    A vibration sensor on an automated production line detects an unusual condition. The sensor communicates with a controller that automatically shuts down the line and activates an alarm. What type of communication does this scenario represent?

    • A.

      Machine-to-people

    • B.

      Machine-to-machine

    • C.

      People-to-people

    • D.

      People-to-machine

    Correct Answer
    B. Machine-to-machine
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the vibration sensor communicates with the controller, which then shuts down the production line and activates an alarm. This type of communication, where machines are communicating with each other, is known as machine-to-machine communication.

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  • 44. 

    Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?

    • A.

      Data analytics

    • B.

      Fog computing

    • C.

      Network connectivity

    • D.

      Application enhancement platform

    Correct Answer
    B. Fog computing
    Explanation
    Fog computing is the correct answer because it refers to a distributed computing infrastructure that allows data to be processed and analyzed at the edge of the network, close to where it is generated. This enables real-time analysis and decision-making, reducing the need for data to be sent to a centralized cloud server for processing. Fog computing is an essential pillar of the Cisco IoT System as it enables efficient and timely data analysis and management at the source, improving overall system performance and response time.

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  • 45. 

    Which Cloud computing service would be best for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and networking equipment and must purchase network services on-demand?

    • A.

      PaaS

    • B.

      SaaS

    • C.

      ITaaS

    • D.

      IaaS

    Correct Answer
    D. IaaS
    Explanation
    IaaS, or Infrastructure as a Service, would be the best cloud computing service for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and networking equipment. With IaaS, the organization can purchase network services on-demand, eliminating the need for expensive infrastructure investments. It provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, including servers, storage, and networking capabilities, allowing the organization to focus on their core business without the burden of managing physical hardware.

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  • 46. 

    A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?

    • A.

      Virtualization

    • B.

      BYOD

    • C.

      Maintaining communication integrity

    • D.

      Online collaboration

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtualization
    Explanation
    The correct answer is virtualization. In this scenario, the data center has implemented virtualization by updating a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. This allows the data center to provide each customer with a separate web server without the need for allocating a discrete server for each customer. Virtualization enables efficient utilization of resources and improves scalability and flexibility in managing server infrastructure.

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  • 47. 

    What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets? ​

    • A.

      The ARP table

    • B.

      The routing table

    • C.

      The FIB

    • D.

      The DSP

    Correct Answer
    A. The ARP table
    Explanation
    The ARP table is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets. The adjacency table is a data structure used by CEF to quickly determine the next-hop information for forwarding packets. The ARP table contains the mappings between IP addresses and MAC addresses, allowing CEF to determine the MAC address of the next-hop device. This information is then used to populate the adjacency table, which is crucial for efficient packet forwarding.

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  • 48. 

    Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies into network programming?

    • A.

      The Nexus 9000 switch

    • B.

      The Application Network Profile endpoints

    • C.

      The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller

    • D.

      The hypervisor​

    Correct Answer
    C. The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
    Explanation
    The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) is the component of the ACI architecture that translates application policies into network programming. It is responsible for managing and enforcing policies across the network infrastructure, ensuring that the network resources are provisioned and configured according to the desired application requirements. The APIC acts as the central point of control, allowing administrators to define and manage policies in a centralized manner, which are then translated into network configurations and applied to the appropriate network devices.

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  • 49. 

    Which two pieces of information should be included in a logical topology diagram of a network? (Choose two.)

    • A.

      Device type

    • B.

      OS/IOS version

    • C.

      Connection type

    • D.

      interface identifier

    • E.

      Cable specification

    • F.

      Cable type and identifier

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Connection type
    D. interface identifier
    Explanation
    A logical topology diagram of a network should include the connection type and interface identifier. The connection type refers to the type of connection used to connect devices in the network, such as Ethernet or wireless. The interface identifier is the unique identifier assigned to each interface on a device, which helps in identifying the specific connection points between devices. Including these two pieces of information in the diagram helps in understanding how devices are connected and how data flows within the network.

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  • 50. 

    Which network performance statistics should be measured in order to verify SLA compliance?

    • A.

      NAT translation statistics

    • B.

      Device CPU and memory utilization

    • C.

      Latency, jitter, and packet loss

    • D.

      The number of error messages that are logged on the syslog server

    Correct Answer
    C. Latency, jitter, and packet loss
    Explanation
    To verify SLA compliance, it is important to measure latency, jitter, and packet loss. Latency refers to the time delay between sending and receiving data, while jitter indicates the variation in latency. Packet loss refers to the percentage of data packets that do not reach their destination. These statistics are crucial in assessing network performance as they directly impact the quality and reliability of the network connection. By monitoring and analyzing these metrics, organizations can ensure that their network meets the agreed-upon SLA requirements.

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