Bmr Study Material #2

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Bmr Study Material #2 - Quiz

Study materials are the physical supplies provide by a company, institution or organization for purpose of research. Navy Bmr study guide of the implementation and utilization of the combat system operational systems describes clearly the topics under it such as electronic systems. Bmr Study Material #2 is the proper challenge for you. Try it.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What does Art. 1022 of the Navy Regulations contain?

    • A.

      Abuse of authority

    • B.

      Delegation of authority

    • C.

      Authority of an OIC

    • D.

      Authority of a CO

    Correct Answer
    B. Delegation of authority
    Explanation
    Article 1022 of the Navy Regulations contains information about the delegation of authority. This means that it outlines the process by which someone in a position of authority can assign certain responsibilities and decision-making power to another individual or group. This allows for a more efficient and effective chain of command within the Navy, as it allows for tasks to be delegated to those who are best suited to handle them.

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  • 2. 

    In regards to the Navy regulations, what does the first two digits of the article number indicate?

    • A.

      Chapter

    • B.

      Page

    • C.

      Section

    • D.

      Paragraph

    Correct Answer
    A. Chapter
    Explanation
    The first two digits of the article number in Navy regulations indicate the chapter. This means that the article is part of a specific chapter within the regulations. The chapter serves as a way to organize and categorize the different topics and subjects covered in the regulations, making it easier for individuals to locate and reference specific information.

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  • 3. 

    Men and women stencil which uniform the same?

    • A.

      Utilities

    • B.

      Dress blues

    • C.

      Working uniform

    • D.

      Dress whites

    Correct Answer
    D. Dress whites
    Explanation
    Men and women stencil the dress whites uniform the same.

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  • 4. 

    In what year was the code of conduct first prescribed?

    • A.

      1950

    • B.

      1955

    • C.

      1960

    • D.

      1965

    Correct Answer
    B. 1955
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1955. This means that the code of conduct was first prescribed in the year 1955.

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  • 5. 

    When, if ever, are allowed to voluntarily surrender to the enemy?

    • A.

      When you are injured

    • B.

      When they offer you food

    • C.

      If they fall under the Geneva Convention

    • D.

      Never

    Correct Answer
    D. Never
    Explanation
    Surrendering to the enemy is generally considered an act of betrayal towards one's own side and is discouraged in most situations. It is believed that surrendering can jeopardize the safety and well-being of one's own forces and can provide the enemy with valuable information or resources. Therefore, it is generally advised to never voluntarily surrender to the enemy.

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  • 6. 

    When wearing a peacoat over a dress blue jumper, the uniform collar should be where?

    • A.

      Outside the peacoat

    • B.

      Inside the peacoat

    • C.

      Nowhere, you can't wear a peacoat over the dress blue uniform

    • D.

      Either in or outside the peacoat

    Correct Answer
    B. Inside the peacoat
    Explanation
    When wearing a peacoat over a dress blue jumper, the uniform collar should be inside the peacoat. This is because the peacoat is designed to be buttoned up to the neck, covering the collar of the dress blue uniform. By keeping the collar inside the peacoat, it ensures a neat and professional appearance while maintaining the uniform's integrity.

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  • 7. 

    What uniform component makes the service dress white uniform a full dress uniform?

    • A.

      Large medals

    • B.

      Mini medals

    • C.

      Ribbons

    • D.

      Ribbons and large medals

    Correct Answer
    A. Large medals
    Explanation
    Large medals make the service dress white uniform a full dress uniform. This suggests that the presence of large medals on the uniform is what distinguishes it as a full dress uniform.

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  • 8. 

    What does Art. 4 of the code of conduct begin with?

    • A.

      "I am an American..."

    • B.

      "When questioned, I will continue to resist..."

    • C.

      "If I become a POW, I will keep faith..."

    • D.

      "I will never surrender..."

    Correct Answer
    C. "If I become a POW, I will keep faith..."
  • 9. 

    What document establishes a legal relationship between the government and enlisted member when reenlistment is effected within 24 hours after discharge?

    • A.

      NAVPERS 1070/601

    • B.

      NAVPERS 1070/602

    • C.

      NAVPERS 1070/603

    • D.

      NAVPERS 1070/604

    Correct Answer
    A. NAVPERS 1070/601
    Explanation
    The document NAVPERS 1070/601 establishes a legal relationship between the government and enlisted member when reenlistment is effected within 24 hours after discharge.

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  • 10. 

    In what year was executive order 12633 issued amending the Code of Conduct to use gender-neutral language?

    • A.

      1980

    • B.

      1985

    • C.

      1987

    • D.

      1988

    Correct Answer
    D. 1988
    Explanation
    In 1988, executive order 12633 was issued to amend the Code of Conduct, specifically to incorporate the use of gender-neutral language. This suggests that prior to this executive order, the Code of Conduct may have used language that was not inclusive or neutral in terms of gender. The issuance of this order in 1988 indicates a recognition and effort to promote gender equality and inclusivity in official documents and policies.

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  • 11. 

    The Code of Conduct was prescribed as a result of what conflict?

    • A.

      The Vietnam War

    • B.

      WW II

    • C.

      The Korean War

    • D.

      The Cold War

    Correct Answer
    C. The Korean War
    Explanation
    The Code of Conduct was prescribed as a result of the Korean War. This conflict, which lasted from 1950 to 1953, involved North Korea (supported by China and the Soviet Union) and South Korea (supported by the United Nations, primarily led by the United States). The Code of Conduct was developed to provide guidelines for American prisoners of war (POWs) to resist enemy interrogations and maintain their honor and integrity. It outlined the expectations for behavior and treatment of POWs during captivity.

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  • 12. 

    What is the sponsor request form?

    • A.

      NAVPERS 1330/2

    • B.

      NAVPERS 1330/3

    • C.

      NAVPERS 1330/1

    • D.

      NAVPERS 1330

    Correct Answer
    A. NAVPERS 1330/2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NAVPERS 1330/2. The NAVPERS 1330/2 is the sponsor request form used in the Navy. This form is used by individuals who are requesting a sponsor to assist them during their transition to a new duty station. The form collects information about the individual's current duty station, anticipated transfer date, and specific needs or preferences for a sponsor. By completing this form, individuals can ensure that they are provided with the necessary support and guidance when relocating to a new location within the Navy.

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  • 13. 

    A service member who is how many weeks pregnant may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas?

    • A.

      20 weeks

    • B.

      25 weeks

    • C.

      30 weeks

    • D.

      28 weeks

    Correct Answer
    D. 28 weeks
    Explanation
    A service member who is 28 weeks pregnant may not be assigned overseas or travel overseas. This is because it is generally considered unsafe for pregnant women to travel long distances during the later stages of pregnancy. The risk of complications and the need for medical attention increase as the pregnancy progresses, so it is important to prioritize the health and well-being of the service member and their unborn child.

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  • 14. 

    MILCAP provides monetary awards up to how much?

    • A.

      $20,000

    • B.

      $50,000

    • C.

      $25,000

    • D.

      $75,000

    Correct Answer
    C. $25,000
    Explanation
    MILCAP provides monetary awards up to $25,000.

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  • 15. 

    Who set up the Navy Sponsorship program?

    • A.

      SECNAV

    • B.

      CNO

    • C.

      BUPERS

    • D.

      Sponsorship coordinator

    Correct Answer
    B. CNO
    Explanation
    The Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) set up the Navy Sponsorship program.

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  • 16. 

    Vessels may not discharge any trash within how many nautical miles of any foreign coast?

    • A.

      25 nautical miles

    • B.

      50 nautical miles

    • C.

      100 nautical miles

    • D.

      20 nautical miles

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 nautical miles
    Explanation
    Vessels may not discharge any trash within 25 nautical miles of any foreign coast. This restriction is in place to prevent pollution and protect the marine environment. Discharging trash at sea can have harmful effects on marine life and ecosystems, as well as pose a risk to human health. By implementing a minimum distance for trash discharge, it helps to ensure that waste is properly managed and disposed of in appropriate facilities on land.

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  • 17. 

    What doese Art. 1033 of Navy Regulations contain?

    • A.

      Authority on a ship

    • B.

      Authority in a boat

    • C.

      Authority of a sentry

    • D.

      Authority of CO

    Correct Answer
    B. Authority in a boat
    Explanation
    Art. 1033 of Navy Regulations contains the authority in a boat. This means that it outlines the power and control that individuals have while operating a boat within the Navy. It likely includes information about who is in charge, what their responsibilities are, and how they should exercise their authority while in a boat. This regulation helps maintain order and ensure that proper protocols are followed while operating a boat in the Navy.

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  • 18. 

    What does Art. 1038 of Navy Regulations contain?

    • A.

      Authority on a ship

    • B.

      Authority in a boat

    • C.

      Authority of a sentry

    • D.

      Authority of CO

    Correct Answer
    C. Authority of a sentry
    Explanation
    Art. 1038 of Navy Regulations contains information about the authority of a sentry. This article likely outlines the responsibilities and powers that a sentry has while on duty, such as maintaining security, enforcing regulations, and controlling access to certain areas. It may also cover the procedures and protocols that a sentry must follow while carrying out their duties.

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  • 19. 

    Submarines may discharge negatively bouyant compacted trash not less than how many nautical miles from US coast only if water depth is how many fathoms?

    • A.

      10 nautical miles; 500 fathoms

    • B.

      12 nautical miles; 1000 fathoms

    • C.

      15 nautical miles; 450 fathoms

    • D.

      12 nautical miles; 1100 fathoms

    Correct Answer
    B. 12 nautical miles; 1000 fathoms
    Explanation
    Submarines may discharge negatively buoyant compacted trash not less than 12 nautical miles from the US coast only if the water depth is 1000 fathoms. This means that submarines must be at least 12 nautical miles away from the coast and the water depth must be at least 1000 fathoms in order to discharge trash.

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  • 20. 

    What does Art. 1024 of Navy Regulations contain?

    • A.

      Authority of CO

    • B.

      Abuse of authority

    • C.

      Authority of an OIC

    • D.

      Contradictory and conflicting orders

    Correct Answer
    D. Contradictory and conflicting orders
    Explanation
    Article 1024 of Navy Regulations contains guidelines and provisions related to contradictory and conflicting orders. This means that it provides instructions on how to handle situations where there are conflicting or contradictory commands given to Navy personnel. It likely outlines the steps to be taken in such situations to ensure clarity and avoid confusion among the personnel.

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  • 21. 

    What does Art. 1023 of Navy Regulations contain?

    • A.

      Abuse of authority

    • B.

      Authority of CO

    • C.

      Contradictory and conflicting orders

    • D.

      Authority of an OIC

    Correct Answer
    A. Abuse of authority
    Explanation
    Art. 1023 of Navy Regulations contains provisions regarding abuse of authority. This article likely outlines the rules and regulations that govern how authority should be exercised within the Navy. It may address instances where individuals in positions of authority misuse their power or act inappropriately. By including this provision in the Navy Regulations, the Navy aims to ensure that authority is exercised responsibly and that any abuses are appropriately addressed and rectified.

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  • 22. 

    What does Art. 1025 of Navy Regulations contain?

    • A.

      Authority of an OIC

    • B.

      Contradictory and conflicting orders

    • C.

      Abuse of authority

    • D.

      Authority of CO

    Correct Answer
    A. Authority of an OIC
    Explanation
    Article 1025 of Navy Regulations contains information about the authority of an OIC (Officer in Charge). This article outlines the responsibilities, powers, and limitations of an OIC within the Navy. It specifies the scope of authority that an OIC has over their assigned unit or area of responsibility. This article helps to establish the chain of command and ensure that OICs understand their role and authority within the Navy.

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  • 23. 

    Who affords members the opportunity to attend ShipShape?

    • A.

      CFL

    • B.

      Both A & C

    • C.

      CMC

    • D.

      CO

    Correct Answer
    D. CO
    Explanation
    CO affords members the opportunity to attend ShipShape.

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  • 24. 

    Who does the CFL report injuries that occurred to sailors during PT?

    • A.

      CO

    • B.

      Command safety officer

    • C.

      MTF

    • D.

      CMC

    Correct Answer
    B. Command safety officer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Command safety officer. The Command safety officer is responsible for reporting injuries that occurred to sailors during PT (physical training). They are in charge of ensuring the safety and well-being of the personnel in the command and are responsible for documenting and reporting any injuries that may occur during PT sessions.

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  • 25. 

    The Navy's new mine countermeasures capability relies on which components?

    • A.

      Avenger class (MCM)

    • B.

      Osprey class (MHC)

    • C.

      Craft of opportunity (COOP)

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the above." This means that the Navy's new mine countermeasures capability relies on all three components mentioned: Avenger class (MCM), Osprey class (MHC), and Craft of opportunity (COOP).

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  • 26. 

    How many sections are contained in the personnel advancement requirements (PAR)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    The personnel advancement requirements (PAR) contain three sections.

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  • 27. 

    Which illness has been named the one priority of the US Public Health Service?

    • A.

      AIDS

    • B.

      HIV

    • C.

      Malaria

    • D.

      Ebola

    Correct Answer
    A. AIDS
    Explanation
    AIDS has been named the one priority of the US Public Health Service because it is a severe and life-threatening condition that has affected millions of people worldwide. It is a global health crisis that requires urgent attention and resources to prevent its spread, provide treatment and care for those infected, and work towards finding a cure. The US Public Health Service recognizes the impact of AIDS on public health and has prioritized efforts to address this disease.

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  • 28. 

    What year was the Purple Heart created?

    • A.

      1775

    • B.

      1880

    • C.

      1782

    • D.

      1932

    Correct Answer
    C. 1782
    Explanation
    The Purple Heart was created in 1782. This military decoration was originally called the Badge of Military Merit and was established by General George Washington. It was awarded to soldiers who showed exceptional bravery and valor in combat. In 1932, the name was changed to the Purple Heart and it became an official decoration for members of the United States Armed Forces who are wounded or killed in action.

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  • 29. 

    Who created the Purple Heart?

    • A.

      Franklin D. Roosevelt

    • B.

      George Washington

    • C.

      Abraham Lincon

    • D.

      Dwight Eisenhower

    Correct Answer
    B. George Washington
    Explanation
    George Washington is the correct answer because he is the one who created the Purple Heart. The Purple Heart is a military decoration awarded to members of the armed forces who are wounded or killed in action. It was originally established as the Badge of Military Merit by George Washington in 1782 during the Revolutionary War. The award was later discontinued but was revived and renamed as the Purple Heart in 1932 by President Herbert Hoover to honor Washington's legacy and recognize the sacrifices made by military personnel.

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  • 30. 

    All warrant officers are commissioned as what?

    • A.

      W-1

    • B.

      Ensign

    • C.

      W-3

    • D.

      W-2

    Correct Answer
    D. W-2
    Explanation
    Warrant officers are commissioned as W-2. This means that they hold the rank of Warrant Officer 2. Warrant officers are a unique category of officers in the military, holding specialized skills and expertise in a specific field. They are typically promoted from enlisted ranks and serve as technical experts and advisors to higher-ranking officers. The W-2 rank is the second level in the Warrant Officer pay grade, indicating a higher level of experience and responsibility compared to W-1.

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  • 31. 

    There are how many broad categories of awards?

    • A.

      3

    • B.

      5

    • C.

      7

    • D.

      9

    Correct Answer
    C. 7
    Explanation
    The question asks about the number of broad categories of awards. The correct answer is 7, indicating that there are seven broad categories of awards.

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  • 32. 

    The second Continental Congress approved the purchase of how many vessles to start the Navy?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    During the second Continental Congress, the approval was given to purchase two vessels to establish the Navy. This decision was made to strengthen the American forces and protect their interests during the American Revolutionary War. By acquiring these vessels, the Continental Congress aimed to establish a naval force that could effectively engage with the British Navy and provide support to the American troops.

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  • 33. 

    Which skipper captured 11 British warships off the coast of Newfoundland and sent them back to the States?

    • A.

      John Paul Jones

    • B.

      Commadore Perry

    • C.

      Capt H. L. Hunley

    • D.

      Abraham Whipple

    Correct Answer
    D. Abraham Whipple
    Explanation
    Abraham Whipple captured 11 British warships off the coast of Newfoundland and sent them back to the States.

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  • 34. 

    Who established the Naval Department in 1798?

    • A.

      John Adams

    • B.

      George Washington

    • C.

      Thomas Jefferson

    • D.

      John P. Jones

    Correct Answer
    A. John Adams
    Explanation
    John Adams established the Naval Department in 1798. As the second President of the United States, Adams recognized the importance of a strong naval force to protect American interests and maintain national security. In response to increasing tensions with France, Adams signed the Naval Act of 1798, which created the Department of the Navy. This decision laid the foundation for the development and expansion of the United States Navy, ensuring its ability to defend the nation's maritime interests.

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  • 35. 

    In what year did the USS Nautilus make its history-making transpolar voyage?

    • A.

      1956

    • B.

      1957

    • C.

      1958

    • D.

      1959

    Correct Answer
    C. 1958
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1958. The USS Nautilus made its history-making transpolar voyage in 1958. This voyage was significant because it was the first time a submarine had successfully traveled under the North Pole, demonstrating the capabilities of nuclear-powered submarines and opening up new possibilities for underwater exploration and military operations.

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  • 36. 

    In what year were the fist nuclear powered surface ships launched?

    • A.

      1960

    • B.

      1961

    • C.

      1962

    • D.

      1963

    Correct Answer
    B. 1961
    Explanation
    In 1961, the first nuclear powered surface ships were launched. This marked a significant advancement in naval technology, as nuclear power provided these ships with a more efficient and longer-lasting source of propulsion compared to traditional fuel sources. The launch of these ships in 1961 demonstrated the successful application of nuclear power in the maritime industry and paved the way for further developments in nuclear-powered vessels.

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  • 37. 

    What is defined as causing another military person to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, opressive, demeaning or harmful?

    • A.

      P.T.

    • B.

      Hazing

    • C.

      Bootcamp

    • D.

      EMI

    Correct Answer
    B. Hazing
    Explanation
    Hazing is defined as causing another military person to suffer or be exposed to any activity which is cruel, abusive, humiliating, oppressive, demeaning, or harmful.

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  • 38. 

    What is the Navy's instruction on sexual harrassment?

    • A.

      SECNAVINST 5300.26E

    • B.

      SECNAVINST 5200.26D

    • C.

      SECNAVINST 5200.26E

    • D.

      SECNAVINST 5300.26D

    Correct Answer
    D. SECNAVINST 5300.26D
    Explanation
    SECNAVINST 5300.26D is the correct answer because it is the Navy's instruction on sexual harassment. The other options, SECNAVINST 5300.26E, SECNAVINST 5200.26D, and SECNAVINST 5200.26E, are not related to sexual harassment and therefore, not the correct answer.

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  • 39. 

    What is the form number for cerificate of discharge/release?

    • A.

      DD 214

    • B.

      DD 215

    • C.

      DD 220

    • D.

      DD 213

    Correct Answer
    A. DD 214
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD 214. This form number is used for the Certificate of Discharge or Release from Active Duty. It is a document that provides information about a person's military service, including their dates of service, rank, and awards received. The DD 214 is often required for various benefits and services, such as applying for veterans' benefits or obtaining a VA loan.

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  • 40. 

    What is the RE-4 code on your DD 214?

    • A.

      Eligible for reenlistment

    • B.

      Dishonorably discharged

    • C.

      Not eligible for reenlistment

    • D.

      Recommended for promotion

    Correct Answer
    C. Not eligible for reenlistment
    Explanation
    The RE-4 code on a DD 214 indicates that the individual is not eligible for reenlistment. This means that they are not able to join the military again after their initial service has ended. This code is typically given to individuals who have had disciplinary issues or who have not met the requirements for continued service. It is a permanent restriction that prevents the individual from rejoining the military in the future.

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  • 41. 

    What is the RE-1 code on your DD 214?

    • A.

      Eligible for reenlistment

    • B.

      Dishonorably discharged

    • C.

      Not eligible for reenlistment

    • D.

      Recommended for promotion

    Correct Answer
    A. Eligible for reenlistment
    Explanation
    The RE-1 code on a DD 214 indicates that the individual is eligible for reenlistment. This means that they have fulfilled their initial service commitment and are able to voluntarily choose to continue serving in the military if they wish to do so.

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  • 42. 

    What form is used to give your detailer info on where you'd like to be stationed?

    • A.

      NAVPERS 1306

    • B.

      NAVPERS 1306/63

    • C.

      NAVPERS 1306/36

    • D.

      NAVPERS 1306/60

    Correct Answer
    B. NAVPERS 1306/63
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NAVPERS 1306/63. This form is used to give your detailer information on where you'd like to be stationed.

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  • 43. 

    What program uses reenlistment codes to indicate whether you have met professional growth material?

    • A.

      Reenlistment quality control program

    • B.

      Reenlistment quality control board

    • C.

      Reenlistment control program

    • D.

      Reenlistment assistance program

    Correct Answer
    A. Reenlistment quality control program
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Reenlistment quality control program. This program uses reenlistment codes to indicate whether an individual has met professional growth material. The reenlistment quality control program is responsible for ensuring that individuals meet the necessary requirements and qualifications for reenlistment in the military. By using reenlistment codes, the program can track and assess an individual's professional growth and determine their eligibility for reenlistment.

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  • 44. 

    What information are you required to give if you become a POW?

    • A.

      Name, unit, paygrade, DOB

    • B.

      Name, address, phone number, SSN

    • C.

      NOK, SSN, DOB, rank

    • D.

      Name, rank, SSN, DOB

    Correct Answer
    D. Name, rank, SSN, DOB
    Explanation
    If you become a Prisoner of War (POW), you are required to provide your name, rank, Social Security Number (SSN), and Date of Birth (DOB). This information is crucial for identification purposes and to ensure accurate records are maintained. Providing these details helps authorities in determining your identity, military status, and ensuring proper treatment and communication with your next of kin.

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  • 45. 

    Commands shall maintain a ratio of one Command Finacial Specialist (CFS) to how many members?

    • A.

      25

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      75

    • D.

      100

    Correct Answer
    C. 75
    Explanation
    Commands shall maintain a ratio of one Command Financial Specialist (CFS) to 75 members. This means that for every 75 members in a command, there should be one CFS responsible for providing financial guidance and assistance. This ratio helps ensure that there is adequate support and resources available to help members with their financial needs and concerns.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 28, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Embrooks01
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