Block 5 Problem Quiz #2
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- 1.
A developmental disorder resulting in the failure of the mesencephalon to develop would result in the loss of which of the following structures?
- A.
Facial nuclei
- B.
Spinal trigeminal nuclei
- C.
Oculomotor nuclei
- D.
Hypoglossal nuclei
- E.
Dorsal motor nuclei of X
Correct Answer
C. Oculomotor nucleiExplanation
If the mesencephalon fails to develop, it would result in the loss of the oculomotor nuclei. The oculomotor nuclei are located in the midbrain and are responsible for controlling the movement of the eye muscles. Without the development of the mesencephalon, which is part of the midbrain, the oculomotor nuclei would not form properly or may not form at all, leading to a loss of control over eye movements.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What is the anatomical marker of lateralization of language?
- A.
Structure of the arcuate fasciculus
- B.
Asymmetry of primary auditory cortex surface
- C.
Presence of angular gyrus on the dominant hemisphere
- D.
Involvement of dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
- E.
Asymmetry of planum temporale surface
Correct Answer
E. Asymmetry of planum temporale surfaceExplanation
The asymmetry of planum temporale surface is the anatomical marker of lateralization of language. This refers to the unevenness or difference in the surface area of the planum temporale, which is a region in the temporal lobe of the brain. Studies have shown that the planum temporale is typically larger in the left hemisphere of the brain, which is associated with language processing. This anatomical difference is believed to be related to the specialization of the left hemisphere for language functions.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the role of non-dominant equivalent to Wernicke area?
- A.
Language production
- B.
Language understanding
- C.
Semantic aspects of language
- D.
Prosodic aspects of language
- E.
Syntactic aspects of language
Correct Answer
D. Prosodic aspects of languageExplanation
The non-dominant equivalent to Wernicke area is responsible for prosodic aspects of language. Prosody refers to the patterns of stress, intonation, and rhythm in speech that convey meaning and emotion. This area helps in understanding and producing the melodic and rhythmic aspects of language, such as tone of voice, emphasis, and pitch variations. It plays a crucial role in conveying the intended message and emotions through speech.Rate this question:
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- 4.
An area of the brain involved in language functions exhibits measurable volume difference between the right and the left hemisphere, in relation with the degree of lateralization of those language functions. What is the name of this area?
- A.
Triangular area
- B.
Opercular area
- C.
Angular gyrus
- D.
Planum temporale
- E.
Primary auditory cortex
Correct Answer
D. Planum temporaleExplanation
The correct answer is Planum temporale. The Planum temporale is an area of the brain that is involved in language functions. It has been found that there is a measurable volume difference between the right and left hemisphere of the brain in relation to the degree of lateralization of language functions. This suggests that the Planum temporale plays a role in the lateralization of language functions.Rate this question:
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- 5.
A 49-year old man suffers from a stroke and he is unable to move his right upper limb and has lost sensation to that region as well. Which of the following arteries do your suspect to be compromised?
- A.
Right anterior cerebral artery
- B.
Left anterior cerebral artery
- C.
Right middle cerebral artery
- D.
Left middle cerebral artery
- E.
Right posterior cerebral artery
Correct Answer
D. Left middle cerebral arteryExplanation
The left middle cerebral artery is likely to be compromised in this scenario because it supplies blood to the motor and sensory areas of the brain responsible for controlling movement and sensation in the right upper limb. A stroke in this artery can result in paralysis and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, known as contralateral hemiparesis and hemisensory loss.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A 71-year old man has a stroke in small branches of the middle cerebral artery that supplies Brodmann's areas 41/42. What major problem do you expect this individual to exhibit?
- A.
Difficulty in the comprehension of speech
- B.
Disruptions with the perception of pain and temperature
- C.
Disruptions in visual processing
- D.
Disruptions in voluntary motor output
- E.
Difficulty hearing
Correct Answer
E. Difficulty hearingExplanation
Based on the information given, the stroke occurred in the small branches of the middle cerebral artery that supplies Brodmann's areas 41/42. These areas are part of the auditory cortex responsible for processing sound and speech. Therefore, it is expected that the individual will have difficulty hearing as a result of the stroke affecting these areas.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following areas is not involved in language for a person who is left- dominant?
- A.
Left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
- B.
Left opercular gyrus
- C.
Left angular gyrus
- D.
Right plenum temporale
- E.
Right primary auditory cortex
Correct Answer
A. Left dorsolateral prefrontal cortexExplanation
The left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is not involved in language for a person who is left-dominant. This area of the brain is responsible for executive functions such as working memory, attention, and decision-making, but it is not directly involved in language processing. The other areas listed (left opercular gyrus, left angular gyrus, right plenum temporale, and right primary auditory cortex) are all involved in language processing and comprehension.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A 42-year old woman is suffering from chronic headaches. A CT reveals a tumor in her 4th ventricle and enlargement of all ventricles. Under normal conditions which of the following is characteristic of CSF flow?
- A.
CSF flows from the 4th ventricle to the cistern magna via the median aperture
- B.
The CSF flows from the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct.
- C.
The CSF flows from the 3rd to 4th ventricle via the foramen of Monroe
- D.
The CSF flows from the lateral ventricles to the 4th via the foramen of Luschka
- E.
The CSF flows from the ducal sinuses to the subarachnoid space via the arachnoid
Correct Answer
A. CSF flows from the 4th ventricle to the cistern magna via the median apertureExplanation
The correct answer is that CSF flows from the 4th ventricle to the cistern magna via the median aperture. This is characteristic of CSF flow under normal conditions. The presence of a tumor in the 4th ventricle and enlargement of all ventricles may disrupt the normal flow of CSF, leading to chronic headaches.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A 2-year old child presents with hydrocephalus due to a tumor in her fourth ventricle. Under normal conditions the CSF flows from the 4th ventricle to the cistern magna via which foramen?
- A.
The left foramen of Luschka
- B.
The foramen of Megendie
- C.
The right foramen of Luschka
- D.
The foramen of Monroe
- E.
The left Interventricular foramen
Correct Answer
B. The foramen of MegendieExplanation
The foramen of Megendie is the correct answer because it is the opening through which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flows from the fourth ventricle to the cistern magna. In this case, the child has hydrocephalus due to a tumor in the fourth ventricle, so the CSF flow through this foramen would be disrupted, leading to the accumulation of fluid and the development of hydrocephalus.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A 60-year old man suffered from a right sided hemiplegia and right sided cerebellar ataxia. He could not abduct the left eye. Which of the following structures is involved?
- A.
Right pons
- B.
Left internal capsule
- C.
Right internal capsule
- D.
Left medulla
- E.
Left pons
Correct Answer
E. Left ponsExplanation
The left pons is involved in this case because the patient is experiencing a right-sided hemiplegia and right-sided cerebellar ataxia. The pons is responsible for coordinating movement and balance, and damage to the left side of the pons can result in weakness and lack of coordination on the opposite side of the body. The inability to abduct the left eye suggests involvement of the cranial nerves, which are also located in the pons. Therefore, the correct answer is the left pons.Rate this question:
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- 11.
If the Foramen of Megendie is obstructed, which of the following would occur?
- A.
Non-communicating hydrocephalus
- B.
Communicating hydrocephalus
- C.
Subdural hematoma
- D.
Epidural hematoma
- E.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct Answer
A. Non-communicating hydrocephalusExplanation
If the Foramen of Megendie is obstructed, it would result in non-communicating hydrocephalus. The Foramen of Megendie is a small opening in the roof of the fourth ventricle of the brain, and when it becomes blocked, the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is unable to flow freely from the ventricles to the subarachnoid space. This leads to an accumulation of CSF within the ventricles, causing increased pressure on the brain and resulting in hydrocephalus. Non-communicating hydrocephalus refers to a type of hydrocephalus where the obstruction prevents the free flow of CSF between the ventricles and the subarachnoid space.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Left hemineglect suggests lesion of the
- A.
Prefrontal cortex
- B.
Right hemisphere
- C.
Left hemisphere
- D.
Optic nerve
- E.
Visual cortex
Correct Answer
B. Right hemisphereExplanation
Left hemineglect is a condition where an individual is unable to attend or be aware of stimuli on one side of their body or environment, usually the left side. This condition is typically caused by damage to the right hemisphere of the brain. The right hemisphere is responsible for processing sensory information from the left side of the body and the left side of the environment. Therefore, when there is a lesion in the right hemisphere, it can result in left hemineglect.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A detailed neurological examination of a 52-year old male reveals the following: patient H5 alert to time, date and place and exhibits no disorders of speech or comprehension. Visual system testing, however, reveals a paralysis of upward gaze as well as a loss of the consensual pupillary light reflex. Such a constellation of symptoms could be due to a tumor at which location?
- A.
Optic chiasm
- B.
Rathke’s pouch (Craniopharingioma)
- C.
Pituitary gland
- D.
Pineal gland
- E.
Caudal pans
Correct Answer
D. Pineal glandExplanation
The symptoms described in the question, including paralysis of upward gaze and loss of the consensual pupillary light reflex, suggest dysfunction of the pineal gland. The pineal gland is responsible for producing melatonin, which regulates sleep-wake cycles, and is also involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms. Dysfunction of the pineal gland can lead to disruptions in these processes, resulting in symptoms such as those described in the patient. The other options listed do not have a direct association with the symptoms described.Rate this question:
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- 14.
The gait in a patient with established neuro syphilis with damage to the spinal cord is which of the following?
- A.
Staggering
- B.
Shuffling
- C.
Drags one feet
- D.
High stepping
- E.
Scissors like
Correct Answer
D. High steppingExplanation
In neuro syphilis with damage to the spinal cord, the gait is characterized by high stepping. This refers to a gait pattern where the patient lifts their legs higher than normal while walking. This is due to the damage to the spinal cord affecting the nerves that control muscle movement and coordination. The high stepping gait is a compensatory mechanism to overcome weakness or loss of muscle control in the lower extremities.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A lesion at the level of the cerebral peduncle would affect descending fibers of the corticospinal tract. Disruption of these axons would result in which of the following?
- A.
Flaccid paralysis
- B.
Areflexia
- C.
Hypotonicity
- D.
Positive Babinski sign
- E.
Absent Babinski sign
Correct Answer
D. Positive Babinski signExplanation
A lesion at the level of the cerebral peduncle would affect the descending fibers of the corticospinal tract. The corticospinal tract is responsible for voluntary movement, and disruption of these axons can lead to abnormal reflexes. A positive Babinski sign is an abnormal reflex where the big toe extends upward and the other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stimulated. This reflex is normally present in infants but should disappear as the corticospinal tract matures. The presence of a positive Babinski sign in an adult indicates an upper motor neuron lesion, such as a lesion at the level of the cerebral peduncle.Rate this question:
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- 16.
SVA axons are contained in which of the following cranial nerves?
- A.
CN III, CN VII, CN IX
- B.
CN V, CN VIII, CN IX
- C.
CN VII, CN IX, CN X
- D.
CN II, CN X, CN XI
- E.
CN V, CN X, CN VII
Correct Answer
C. CN VII, CN IX, CN XExplanation
SVA axons are contained in cranial nerves CN VII (Facial nerve), CN IX (Glossopharyngeal nerve), and CN X (Vagus nerve).Rate this question:
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- 17.
A patient exhibits a loss of pain sensation on the right side of his face. What cranial nerve is affected and a lesion to which of the following tracts would result in the deficit exhibited in this case?
- A.
CN V; Left Trigemino-Thalamic tract
- B.
CN VII; Left spinal tract of V
- C.
CN V; Right Trigemino-Thalamic tract
- D.
CN V, Left spiral tract of V
- E.
CN VII; Right tractus solitarius
Correct Answer
A. CN V; Left Trigemino-Thalamic tractExplanation
The correct answer is CN V; Left Trigemino-Thalamic tract. The patient's loss of pain sensation on the right side of his face suggests that the trigeminal nerve (CN V) is affected. The trigeminal nerve carries sensory information, including pain, from the face to the brain. The left Trigemino-Thalamic tract is responsible for transmitting this sensory information from the trigeminal nerve to the thalamus, which then relays it to the sensory cortex for processing. Therefore, a lesion to the left Trigemino-Thalamic tract would result in the deficit exhibited in this case.Rate this question:
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Jun 12, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Feb 20, 2012Quiz Created by
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