Ultimate Biology Class To Study Quiz

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  • 1/106 Questions

    The two most common elements in the human body by number (not by mass) are _________and_________ .

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Biology Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

All my quizzes and test questions combined throughout the year for my biology class to study for my final.


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  • 2. 

    A solution contains 1 X 10-12 moles of H+ per liter. What is its pH?____________ Is the solution considered acidic or basic?_______________

    Explanation
    The pH of a solution is a measure of its acidity or basicity. pH is calculated using the formula -log[H+], where [H+] represents the concentration of hydrogen ions in moles per liter. In this case, the solution contains 1 X 10-12 moles of H+ per liter. Taking the negative logarithm of this concentration gives a pH value of 12. Since the pH is greater than 7, the solution is considered basic.

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  • 3. 

    A recessive allele is defined as any allele that results in a deleterious or negative phenotype.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    This statement is false. A recessive allele is not defined as any allele that results in a deleterious or negative phenotype. In fact, a recessive allele is an allele that is only expressed in the phenotype when an individual is homozygous for that allele, meaning they have two copies of the recessive allele. When an individual is heterozygous, meaning they have one copy of the recessive allele and one copy of a dominant allele, the dominant allele will be expressed in the phenotype. The phenotype resulting from a recessive allele may not necessarily be deleterious or negative.

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  • 4. 

    The start codon is the same for prokaryotes and eukaryotes. What is the start codon?

    • AUG

    • GGC

    • An anticodon

    • ATG

    Correct Answer
    A. AUG
    Explanation
    The start codon is the specific sequence of nucleotides (AUG) that signals the beginning of protein synthesis. It is the same for both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. This codon is recognized by the ribosome and initiates the process of translation.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is(are) post-transcriptional modifications occurring in eukaryotic mRNAs?

    • Addition of a methyl-guanosine cap

    • Removal of introns

    • Addition of a poly (A) tail

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all the above". Post-transcriptional modifications are changes that occur to the mRNA molecule after it has been transcribed from DNA. In eukaryotic mRNAs, these modifications include the addition of a methyl-guanosine cap at the 5' end, the removal of introns (non-coding regions), and the addition of a poly(A) tail at the 3' end. These modifications help in the stability, transport, and translation of the mRNA molecule.

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  • 6. 

    The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in ________.

    • Triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes.

    • Disassembly of the nucleolus.

    • Separation of sister chromatids.

    • Splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Separation of sister chromatids.
    Explanation
    The mitotic spindle is a structure made up of microtubules that plays a crucial role in cell division. One of its main functions is the separation of sister chromatids during mitosis. Sister chromatids are two identical copies of a chromosome that are held together by a protein structure called the centromere. The mitotic spindle attaches to the centromeres and pulls the sister chromatids apart, ensuring that each daughter cell receives a complete set of chromosomes. This process is essential for the accurate distribution of genetic material to the daughter cells.

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  • 7. 

    G-protein receptors and tyrosine kinase receptors both initiate the signal transduction response bybinding signal molecules.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Both G-protein receptors and tyrosine kinase receptors are involved in signal transduction, which is the process by which signals from outside the cell are transmitted to the inside of the cell to initiate a response. These receptors bind to specific signal molecules, such as hormones or growth factors, and trigger a cascade of intracellular events that ultimately lead to a cellular response. Therefore, the statement that both G-protein receptors and tyrosine kinase receptors initiate the signal transduction response by binding signal molecules is true.

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  • 8. 

    The following is a reasonable modern statement of Mendel's two laws of inheritance: "each individual has twoalleles at a given locus, which segregate from each other at meiosis and assort independently from other unlinkedloci."

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement accurately summarizes Mendel's two laws of inheritance. The first law states that each individual carries two alleles for a given trait, which separate or segregate during the formation of gametes. The second law states that the alleles for different traits assort independently of each other, as long as they are located on different chromosomes. Therefore, the statement is true as it correctly describes these fundamental principles of inheritance proposed by Gregor Mendel.

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  • 9. 

    2 Multiple Choice Average Score 1 pointsThe segments of DNA where transcription begins have a binding site for RNA polymerase. These segments areknown as ________.

    • Sigma

    • Promotors

    • The holoenzyme

    • Initiation factors

    Correct Answer
    A. Promotors
    Explanation
    Promoters are segments of DNA where transcription begins and have a binding site for RNA polymerase. They play a crucial role in initiating the process of transcription by providing a site for the RNA polymerase enzyme to bind and start transcribing the DNA into RNA. Sigma is a subunit of the RNA polymerase holoenzyme that helps in recognizing the promoter sequence. The holoenzyme refers to the complete RNA polymerase enzyme complex, including the sigma subunit. Initiation factors are proteins that assist in the initiation of transcription but are not specifically related to the binding site for RNA polymerase.

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  • 10. 

    Following glycolysis and the Krebs cycle and before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation,the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2. Most of the energy from the original glucose atthat point is still in the form of ________.

    • ATP

    • NADH

    • CO2

    • H2O

    Correct Answer
    A. NADH
    Explanation
    After the processes of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle, the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2. However, most of the energy from the original glucose is still in the form of NADH. NADH is a high-energy molecule that carries electrons to the electron transport chain, where it is used to generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, NADH is the correct answer as it represents the form in which the majority of the energy from glucose is stored at this point in the metabolic pathway.

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  • 11. 

    Which one of the following is NOT a component of each monomer used to make proteins?a carboxyl group, COOHa side chain, Ra phosphorous atom, Pan amino functional group, NH2

    • A carboxyl group, COOH

    • A side chain, R

    • A phosphorous atom, P

    • An amino functional group, NH2

    Correct Answer
    A. A phosphorous atom, P
    Explanation
    Each monomer used to make proteins consists of an amino functional group (NH2), a carboxyl group (COOH), and a side chain (R). These components are necessary for the formation of peptide bonds, which link the monomers together to form a protein chain. However, a phosphorous atom (P) is not typically found in the structure of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Therefore, a phosphorous atom is not a component of each monomer used to make proteins.

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  • 12. 

    At the end of mitosis, each G1 daughter cell has ________.

    • Twice the cytoplasm and the same amount of DNA as the G1 parent cell.

    • Twice the DNA and half the cytoplasm of the G1 parent cell.

    • Identical DNA to that of the G1 parent cell.

    • Half the DNA and half the cytoplasm of the G1 parent cell.

    Correct Answer
    A. Identical DNA to that of the G1 parent cell.
    Explanation
    At the end of mitosis, each G1 daughter cell has identical DNA to that of the G1 parent cell. During mitosis, the DNA in the parent cell is replicated and divided equally between the two daughter cells. Therefore, each daughter cell receives an exact copy of the DNA from the parent cell, resulting in identical DNA content in both cells. The amount of cytoplasm may vary between the daughter cells, but the DNA remains the same.

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  • 13. 

    What molecule/feature ensures that the correct amino acid is added with reading of a specific codon duringtranslation?

    • The poly (A) tail of a properly modified mRNA

    • The anticodon of a properly formed aminoacyl tRNA

    • The twisting number of a properly supercoiled DNA

    • The methyl-guanosine cap of a properly modified mRNA

    Correct Answer
    A. The anticodon of a properly formed aminoacyl tRNA
    Explanation
    The anticodon of a properly formed aminoacyl tRNA is responsible for ensuring that the correct amino acid is added during translation. The anticodon is a sequence of three nucleotides on the tRNA molecule that pairs with the corresponding codon on the mRNA. This pairing ensures that the correct amino acid is added to the growing polypeptide chain, based on the genetic code.

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  • 14. 

    A chemical reaction in which the product has more potential chemical energy than the reactants iscalled endergonic.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    An endergonic reaction is a chemical reaction where the product has more potential chemical energy than the reactants. This means that energy is absorbed or required for the reaction to occur. In an endergonic reaction, the products have higher energy levels than the reactants, indicating an increase in potential chemical energy. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 15. 

    You have isolated a previously unstudied protein, identified its complete structure in detail, anddetermined that it catalyzes the breakdown of a large substrate. You notice it has two binding sites.One of these is large, apparently the bonding site for the large substrate; the other is small, possibly abinding site for a regulatory molecule. What do these findings tell you about the mechanism of thisprotein?

    • It is probably a structural protein found in cartilage or skeletal tissue.

    • It is probably a structural protein that is involved in cell-to-cell adhesion.

    • It is probably an enzyme that works through allosteric regulation.

    • It is probably a cell membrane transport protein–like an ion channel

    • It is probably an enzyme that works through competitive inhibition.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is probably an enzyme that works through allosteric regulation.
    Explanation
    The presence of two binding sites in the protein suggests that it is involved in some kind of regulation. The large binding site is likely for the substrate, indicating that the protein catalyzes the breakdown of a large substrate. The presence of a small binding site suggests that there is a regulatory molecule that can bind to it and modulate the activity of the protein. This is characteristic of allosteric regulation, where the binding of a regulatory molecule to a different site on the protein can either enhance or inhibit its catalytic activity. Therefore, the protein is likely an enzyme that works through allosteric regulation.

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  • 16. 

    When Sodium loses an electron to chlorine it becomes?

    • A cation

    • As mad as @#$#@%^&

    • An Anion

    • Negatively charged

    Correct Answer
    A. A cation
    Explanation
    When sodium loses an electron to chlorine, it creates a positively charged ion called a cation. This is because sodium has one valence electron in its outermost shell, and by losing that electron, it achieves a stable electron configuration similar to that of a noble gas. The loss of an electron results in an overall positive charge on the sodium ion.

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  • 17. 

    Crossover, the exchange of segments of homologous chromosomes, takes place during which of the followingprocesses?

    • Cytokinesis

    • Anaphase I

    • Synapsis

    • DNA replication

    Correct Answer
    A. Synapsis
    Explanation
    Synapsis is the process where homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange segments, a phenomenon known as crossover. This occurs during meiosis, specifically during prophase I. Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm that occurs after nuclear division, anaphase I is the stage where homologous chromosomes separate, and DNA replication is the process of copying DNA before cell division. Therefore, synapsis is the correct process where crossover takes place.

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  • 18. 

    One atom named Stan shares electrons with Betty. Between them they share 4 electrons. What kind ofbond do they share?

    • Single Bond

    • Valance Bond

    • Double Bond

    • Bond Of Love

    Correct Answer
    A. Double Bond
    Explanation
    Stan and Betty share 4 electrons, which indicates a strong bond between them. A double bond is formed when two atoms share four electrons, with two pairs of electrons being shared. This type of bond is commonly found between carbon atoms and is characterized by a strong attraction and a shorter bond length compared to a single bond. Therefore, the correct answer is a Double Bond.

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  • 19. 

    An isomer of a particular molecule is :

    • A molecule that has the same formula, but a different structure.

    • Another copy of the same molecule.

    • A molecule that is the same except it has an additional side group.

    • A molecule that has the same structure as the target molecule, but a different formula.

    Correct Answer
    A. A molecule that has the same formula, but a different structure.
    Explanation
    An isomer of a particular molecule refers to a molecule that has the same chemical formula as the target molecule but differs in its structural arrangement. Isomers have the same number and types of atoms but are arranged differently, resulting in distinct chemical and physical properties. Therefore, the correct answer is "a molecule that has the same formula, but a different structure."

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is a reasonable pathway for a carbon atom in a CO2 molecule, released from the Krebscycle in one of your cells, to re-enter the Krebs cycle in another one of your cells?

    • Diffuses into the bloodstream → is breathed out through the lungs → is inhaled by a mouse → becomes fixed into a C4 acid by PEP carboxylase → is converted to glucose in the Calvin cycle → the mouse climbs into your freezer and is frozen→ you mistake the mouse for a popsicle and eat it → you digest the mouse and glucose is transported through your bloodstream into a muscle cell → glucose moves through the glycolytic pathway → is converted to acetyl CoA in the mitochondrion.

    • Diffuses into your bloodstream → is exhaled through your lungs → is incorporated into G-3-P by the Calvin cycle in a sugar plant → is converted into sucrose → the sugar plant is used to make cane sugar, which then is used as an ingredient in Tang → you are sent to Mars as an astronaut/biologist to look for evidence of life → your get thirsty and drink the Tang → glucose enters your bloodstream from intestinal cells by facilitated diffusion → glucose enters your muscle cells and moves into the glycolytic pathway → the end product of glycolysis is converted into acetyl CoA in the mitochondrion.

    • Diffuses into your bloodstream → is exhaled though your lungs → is inhaled by your friend Stan → is fixed into G-3-P in the Calvin cycle in one of Stan’s mitochondria → is pumped into Stan’s bloodstream through a GLUT-1 transporter → is exhaled by Stan while the two of you are dining at Taco Bell → is picked up by an E. coli cell in your taco → you eat the E. coli cell → the cell diffuses into your bloodstream then into a muscle cell → it enters the mitochondrion and is digested to form G-3-P and acetyl coA.

    • Diffuses into your bloodstream → is exhaled through your lungs → diffuses into a Dictyostelium cell → causes Dictyostelium to form a fruiting body which releases the molecule as a spore → you inhale the spore and it diffuses into your bloodstream → it is incorporated into acetyl coA through and exergonic reaction catalyzed by the enzyme hexokinase → is imported into a muscle cell via osmosis→ it diffuses into the mitochondrion and combines with citrate to form rubisco.

    • Diffuses into your bloodstream → is exhaled through your lungs → diffuses into a raindrop and soaks into the ground → is converted into ethanol through fermentation by an anaerobic fungus → moves into the roots of an apple tree by pinocytosis → moves through the plant’s vascular system to a cell in a developing fruit → enters the Z-scheme and is converted to NADPH → moves into the mitochondrion and is converted to acetyl CoA in the Calvin cycle → you eat the apple and acetyl CoA is moved into your bloodstream through a ATPase ion pump → it diffuses into a muscle cell and undergoes β-oxidation, which is yet another name for the Krebs cycle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffuses into your bloodstream → is exhaled through your lungs → is incorporated into G-3-P by the Calvin cycle in a sugar plant → is converted into sucrose → the sugar plant is used to make cane sugar, which then is used as an ingredient in Tang → you are sent to Mars as an astronaut/biologist to look for evidence of life → your get thirsty and drink the Tang → glucose enters your bloodstream from intestinal cells by facilitated diffusion → glucose enters your muscle cells and moves into the glycolytic pathway → the end product of glycolysis is converted into acetyl CoA in the mitochondrion.
    Explanation
    The correct answer describes a pathway in which the carbon atom diffuses into the bloodstream, is exhaled through the lungs, and is incorporated into G-3-P by the Calvin cycle in a sugar plant. It is then converted into sucrose, which is used to make cane sugar. The cane sugar is then used as an ingredient in Tang, which is consumed by the individual. Glucose from the Tang enters the bloodstream through intestinal cells and then enters muscle cells. From there, it moves into the glycolytic pathway, and the end product of glycolysis, pyruvate, is converted into acetyl CoA in the mitochondrion.

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  • 21. 

    What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I?Correct Answers Percent Answered

    • Prophase is longer and more complex in mitosis.

    • Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information.

    • DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meiosis I.

    • Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologues separate in meiosis I.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, and homologues separate in meiosis I.
    Explanation
    In mitosis, sister chromatids separate during anaphase, resulting in two identical daughter cells. In meiosis I, homologous chromosomes (not sister chromatids) separate during anaphase, resulting in two daughter cells that are not identical. This is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I.

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  • 22. 

    Integrins are integral membrane proteins. They are often attached to ________.

    • Cytoskeletal proteins and molecules of the extracellular matrix.

    • Pathogens.

    • Membranes of intracellular organelles.

    • Glycogen molecules and other cellular inclusions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cytoskeletal proteins and molecules of the extracellular matrix.
    Explanation
    Integrins are known to be attached to cytoskeletal proteins and molecules of the extracellular matrix. This attachment is important for cell adhesion, migration, and signaling. Integrins act as bridges between the intracellular cytoskeleton and the extracellular matrix, allowing cells to interact with their surrounding environment and maintain structural integrity. Integrins also play a crucial role in various cellular processes such as cell proliferation, differentiation, and tissue development.

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  • 23. 

    Spherocytosis is a defect associated with a defective cytoskeletal protein in red blood cells. What do you suspectis one consequence of defective cytoskeletal proteins in red blood cells?

    • Adhering of blood cells to blood vessel walls, causing the formation of plaque

    • Abnormal cell shape

    • A lack of cellular proteins available to transport oxygen

    • Insufficient energy supply in the cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Abnormal cell shape
    Explanation
    Defective cytoskeletal proteins in red blood cells can lead to abnormal cell shape. The cytoskeleton provides structural support and maintains the shape of cells. In the case of spherocytosis, the defective cytoskeletal protein causes the red blood cells to become spherical instead of their normal biconcave shape. This abnormal shape can affect the ability of the red blood cells to flow smoothly through blood vessels and perform their functions effectively.

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  • 24. 

    When a complex molecule, such as a polypeptide, folds up in solution in water, regions of the moleculewith _________ bonds will be near the surface (associated with water molecules) because theseregions are ____________.

    • Non-polar / hydrophilic

    • Non-polar / hydrophobic

    • Polar / hydrophobic

    • Parched / thirsty

    • Polar / hydrophilic

    Correct Answer
    A. Polar / hydrophilic
    Explanation
    When a complex molecule, such as a polypeptide, folds up in solution in water, regions of the molecule with polar bonds will be near the surface (associated with water molecules) because these regions are hydrophilic. Polar bonds have an uneven distribution of charge, with one end being slightly positive and the other end being slightly negative. This polarity allows the polar regions of the molecule to interact with the polar water molecules, forming hydrogen bonds. Since water is a polar molecule, it is attracted to other polar molecules, making the polar regions of the molecule more likely to be near the water surface.

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  • 25. 

    Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect thefunction of a target organ. For the target organ to respond to a particular hormone, it must ________.

    • Have the same genetic makeup.

    • Be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone.

    • Have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule.

    • Be experiencing a disruption in homeostasis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule.
    Explanation
    The target organ must have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule in order to respond to a particular hormone. Receptors are proteins located on the surface or inside the target cells that are specific to certain hormones. When a hormone binds to its receptor, it triggers a series of biochemical reactions within the cell, leading to a specific response. Without the appropriate receptors, the target organ would not be able to recognize and respond to the hormone.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following statements about the electron transport chain is true?

    • Electrons are received from NADH and FADH2.

    • Electrons are passed from donor to recipient carrier molecules in a series of oxidation-reduction reactions.

    • Usually the terminal electron acceptor is oxygen.

    • Most of the enzymes are part of the inner mitochondrial membrane

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The given correct answer is "All of the above". This means that all of the statements mentioned in the options are true. The electron transport chain receives electrons from NADH and FADH2, and these electrons are passed from donor to recipient carrier molecules in a series of oxidation-reduction reactions. Usually, the terminal electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is oxygen. Additionally, most of the enzymes involved in this process are found in the inner mitochondrial membrane.

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  • 27. 

    If an individual has two copies of the same allele at a given locus, which of the following terms would describehis/her genotype for that specific trait?

    • Dominant

    • Recessive

    • Homozygous

    • Diploid

    • Dihybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Homozygous
    Explanation
    The term "homozygous" describes the genotype of an individual who has two identical copies of the same allele at a specific locus. In this case, the individual has two copies of the same allele, indicating that they are homozygous for that trait. This means that both copies of the allele are the same, either dominant or recessive.

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  • 28. 

    RNA polymerase needs a subunit to initiate transcription that is not needed for transcript elongation. What is thesubunit?

    • The holoenzyme

    • Sigma

    • Mg2

    • Rho

    Correct Answer
    A. Sigma
    Explanation
    Sigma is the correct answer because it is a subunit of RNA polymerase that is required for initiation of transcription but not for elongation. Sigma helps RNA polymerase recognize and bind to specific DNA sequences called promoters, allowing the enzyme to start transcribing the DNA into RNA. Once transcription has been initiated, sigma is released and the core enzyme continues with the elongation process.

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  • 29. 

    What is a purpose of the cell wall for both prokaryotes and plant cells?

    • To provide a means of cell-cell interaction

    • To protect the cell from the effects of a hypotonic environment

    • To regulate the passage of solutes into and out of the cell

    • To enable the cell to obtain nutrients from its environment

    Correct Answer
    A. To protect the cell from the effects of a hypotonic environment
    Explanation
    The cell wall serves as a protective barrier for both prokaryotes and plant cells, helping to shield the cell from the potentially damaging effects of a hypotonic environment. In a hypotonic environment, there is a higher concentration of solutes inside the cell compared to the surrounding environment, causing water to enter the cell and potentially leading to cell lysis or bursting. The cell wall provides structural support and prevents excessive water uptake, maintaining the cell's shape and integrity.

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  • 30. 

    What can you infer about high-molecular-weight proteins that cannot be transported into the nucleus?

    • They are defective proteins.

    • They are foreign proteins.

    • They lack nuclear localization signals (NLS).

    • They have been tagged for destruction.

    Correct Answer
    A. They lack nuclear localization signals (NLS).
    Explanation
    High-molecular-weight proteins that cannot be transported into the nucleus are inferred to lack nuclear localization signals (NLS). Nuclear localization signals are specific sequences of amino acids that act as a "zip code" for proteins, allowing them to be recognized and transported into the nucleus. Therefore, the absence of NLS in these proteins prevents their transportation into the nucleus, indicating that they lack the necessary signal for nuclear localization.

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  • 31. 

    Homologous chromosomes ________.

    • Are identical

    • Align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.

    • Carry information on the same trait

    • Carry the same alleles

    Correct Answer
    A. Carry information on the same trait
    Explanation
    Homologous chromosomes carry information on the same trait. This means that they contain the same genes in the same order, although they may have different alleles (versions) of those genes. Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes, one inherited from each parent, and they play a crucial role in meiosis and the passing on of genetic information from one generation to the next.

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  • 32. 

    Osteocytes are bone cells. Collagen fibers and calcium salts are found in abundance between and among theosteocytes. The collagen and calcium salts are ________.

    • Components of the plasma membrane of osteocytes.

    • Deposited by the circulatory system and are not associated with the osteocytes.

    • Extensions of the endoplasmic reticulum.

    • Part of the extracellular matrix

    Correct Answer
    A. Part of the extracellular matrix
    Explanation
    Collagen fibers and calcium salts are part of the extracellular matrix. The extracellular matrix is a complex network of proteins and other substances that surround cells. In the case of osteocytes, collagen fibers and calcium salts are found in abundance in the extracellular matrix surrounding the bone cells. These components provide structural support and contribute to the strength and rigidity of the bone tissue. They are not part of the plasma membrane of osteocytes, nor are they deposited by the circulatory system or extensions of the endoplasmic reticulum.

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  • 33. 

    Which cytoskeletal proteins are important constituents of the contractile structures that form the cleavage furrowsinvolved in animal cell cytokinesis?

    • Tubulin

    • Actin

    • Dynein

    • Elastin

    Correct Answer
    A. Actin
    Explanation
    Actin is an important cytoskeletal protein that plays a crucial role in animal cell cytokinesis. During cytokinesis, actin filaments form a contractile ring at the site of cell division, known as the cleavage furrow. This contractile ring contracts and constricts, leading to the separation of the two daughter cells. Actin filaments provide the structural support and generate the force necessary for the formation and contraction of the cleavage furrow, making actin an essential constituent of the contractile structures involved in animal cell cytokinesis.

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  • 34. 

    If an atom has a charge of +1, which of the following must be true?

    • It has the same number of protons as electrons.

    • It has two more protons than neutrons.

    • It has one more electron than it does protons.

    • It has one more proton than it does electrons.

    Correct Answer
    A. It has one more proton than it does electrons.
    Explanation
    If an atom has a charge of +1, it means that it has lost one electron. Since electrons have a negative charge, losing one electron would result in a net positive charge for the atom. Therefore, the atom must have one more proton than it does electrons in order to have a charge of +1.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following means of transport would most likely be used for moving a medium-sized molecule (like amonosaccharide or an amino acid) from a low concentration on the outside of a cell to a high concentration onthe inside of a cell?

    • Facilitated diffusion through a transporter protein

    • Facilitated diffusion through an ion channel protein

    • Passive transport

    • Active transport through a "pump" protein

    Correct Answer
    A. Active transport through a "pump" protein
    Explanation
    Active transport through a "pump" protein would be the most likely means of transport for moving a medium-sized molecule from a low concentration on the outside of a cell to a high concentration on the inside of a cell. This is because active transport requires the use of energy to move molecules against their concentration gradient, from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration. "Pump" proteins are specifically designed to transport molecules against their concentration gradient, making them suitable for this task. Facilitated diffusion through a transporter protein or an ion channel protein would not be able to move molecules against their concentration gradient, and passive transport does not require energy and would not be able to move molecules from a low concentration to a high concentration.

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  • 36. 

    What is the most important factor in explaining why diffusion occurs spontaneously?

    • The process is endothermic

    • It leads to an increase in entropy.

    • It leads to a decrease in entropy.

    • The process is exothermic.

    Correct Answer
    A. It leads to an increase in entropy.
    Explanation
    Diffusion is the spontaneous movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. The most important factor in explaining why diffusion occurs spontaneously is that it leads to an increase in entropy. Entropy is a measure of the disorder or randomness in a system, and diffusion increases the randomness of the particle distribution. As particles move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration, the system becomes more disordered, which is favored by nature.

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  • 37. 

    At what stage of meiosis does DNA replication take place?

    • Between meiosis I and meiosis II

    • Prophase I

    • DNA replication does not take place in cells destined to undergo meiosis.

    • None. DNA replication occurs before meiosis I begins.

    Correct Answer
    A. None. DNA replication occurs before meiosis I begins.
    Explanation
    DNA replication occurs before meiosis I begins. During the S phase of interphase, which precedes meiosis I, the DNA in the cell is replicated. This ensures that each chromosome consists of two identical sister chromatids before entering meiosis I. Therefore, DNA replication takes place before the start of meiosis I.

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  • 38. 

    Multiple Choice Average Score 0 pointsWhy was Mendel able to recover a three to one ratio of parental types in the F2 generations of his monohybridcrosses?

    • He worked with round rather than wrinkled peas

    • He only used co-dominant alleles in his crosses.

    • He avoided large sample sizes and never took a quantitative approach.

    • Mendel didn't recover a 3:1 phenotype ratio in the F2 generation. All of F2 progeny showed the same phenotype.

    • He used only true-breeding parental lines.

    Correct Answer
    A. He used only true-breeding parental lines.
    Explanation
    Mendel was able to recover a three to one ratio of parental types in the F2 generations of his monohybrid crosses because he used only true-breeding parental lines. True-breeding lines are homozygous for a particular trait, meaning they consistently produce offspring with the same phenotype. By using true-breeding lines, Mendel ensured that the offspring in the F1 generation would all be heterozygous for the trait being studied. When these heterozygotes were crossed in the F2 generation, they produced offspring with a 3:1 ratio of phenotypes, as predicted by Mendel's laws of inheritance.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following properties of water is NOT affected by the strong cohesion between H2O molecules?

    • Heat Of vaporization

    • Specfic heat

    • Surface tension

    • Ph

    • Adhesion

    Correct Answer
    A. Ph
    Explanation
    The pH of water is not affected by the strong cohesion between H2O molecules. The cohesion between water molecules is due to hydrogen bonding, which does not alter the concentration of H+ or OH- ions in the solution. The pH of a solution is determined by the concentration of these ions, and since the cohesion between water molecules does not change this concentration, the pH remains unaffected.

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  • 40. 

    Carbon has proven to be an extremely useful backbone element for complex biological molecules dueto strong electronegativity and valence number of 7, which allows carbon atoms to attract electrons fromalmost any other element.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given answer "false" is that while carbon is indeed an extremely useful backbone element for complex biological molecules, it is not due to its strong electronegativity and valence number of 7. Carbon's usefulness lies in its ability to form stable covalent bonds with other carbon atoms and a wide variety of other elements, allowing for the formation of complex and diverse organic compounds.

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  • 41. 

    Suppose you discovered a new amino acid. Its R-group contains only hydrogen and carbon atoms.Predict the behavior of this amino acid.

    • Relative to the amino acids found in organisms, its interactions with water will be intermediate.

    • It is hydrophilic.

    • It is hydrophobic.

    • Relative to the amino acids found in organisms, its interactions with water will be very high.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is hydrophobic.
    Explanation
    The given information states that the R-group of the new amino acid contains only hydrogen and carbon atoms. Hydrophobic amino acids typically have nonpolar R-groups, such as hydrocarbon chains. Since hydrogen and carbon atoms are both nonpolar, it can be inferred that the new amino acid is hydrophobic. Hydrophobic amino acids tend to repel water and prefer to interact with nonpolar molecules or other hydrophobic regions. Therefore, the behavior of this amino acid would be consistent with being hydrophobic.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?

    • The breakdown of an acetyl group to carbon dioxide

    • Breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules

    • Substrate-level phosphorylation

    • The extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle

    Correct Answer
    A. The extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
    Explanation
    The electron transport chain is the final stage of cellular respiration, where high-energy electrons from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle are transferred through a series of protein complexes. As these electrons move along the chain, their energy is gradually released and used to generate ATP, the main energy currency of the cell. Therefore, the extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle is the event that takes place in the electron transport chain.

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  • 43. 

    What happens when an individual has an odd number of chromosome sets (e.g., triploidy)?Correct Answers Percent Answered 8.696%

    • They go through three sets of meiosis (meiosis I, meiosis II, and meiosis III)

    • They produce offspring with an even number of chromosome sets (e.g., tetraploid, hexaploid).

    • Their offspring are often sterile.

    • Their cells are unable to complete meiosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Their offspring are often sterile.
    Explanation
    When an individual has an odd number of chromosome sets, such as triploidy, it means they have three sets of chromosomes instead of the usual two sets. This can lead to imbalances in gene expression and disrupt normal cellular processes. As a result, their offspring are often sterile, meaning they are unable to reproduce.

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  • 44. 

    Molecules of this type are bonded together in_______________ reactions to form a_________________.

    • Exergonic/ hydrogen bond

    • Ionic/ nucleotide

    • Hydrolysis/ prion

    • Condensation/ polypeptide

    • Aminocarboxylation / protein

    Correct Answer
    A. Condensation/ polypeptide
    Explanation
    Molecules of this type are bonded together in condensation reactions to form a polypeptide. In a condensation reaction, two molecules combine to form a larger molecule, with the elimination of a small molecule such as water. In the context of proteins, amino acids are joined together through condensation reactions to form polypeptides, which are chains of amino acids. This process is essential for protein synthesis and the formation of the primary structure of proteins.

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  • 45. 

    Amino acids with ___________ groups that contain __________ are likely to be hydrophilic.

    • Functional / hydrogen

    • R/ Oxygen

    • Hydroxyl/ oxygen

    • Phosphate/ oxygen

    • Ketone/ nitrogen

    Correct Answer
    A. R/ Oxygen
    Explanation
    Amino acids with oxygen groups that contain oxygen are likely to be hydrophilic. Oxygen groups, such as hydroxyl and carbonyl groups, are polar and can form hydrogen bonds with water molecules, making the amino acid hydrophilic.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is not a characteristic that chloroplasts and mitochondria share?

    • They both have their own DNA.

    • They are capable of reproducing themselves.

    • They both have multiple membranes.

    • They are both part of the endomembrane system.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are both part of the endomembrane system.
    Explanation
    Chloroplasts and mitochondria both have their own DNA, they are capable of reproducing themselves, and they both have multiple membranes. However, they are not part of the endomembrane system. The endomembrane system includes organelles such as the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, and lysosomes, which are involved in the synthesis, modification, and transport of proteins and lipids within the cell. Chloroplasts and mitochondria are not involved in these processes, as their main functions are related to energy production (mitochondria) and photosynthesis (chloroplasts).

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  • 47. 

    A parent cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells in the process of mitosis. For mitosis to takeplace ________.

    • The parent cell must first be fertilized.

    • The parent cell must divide its DNA in half so each daughter cell gets only the genes needed to carry out its functions. In this way, differentiation occurs

    • The parent cell must reproduce its DNA during telophase.

    • The parent cell must replicate its entire genome prior to mitosis.

    Correct Answer
    A. The parent cell must replicate its entire genome prior to mitosis.
    Explanation
    Mitosis is a process of cell division where a parent cell divides into two genetically identical daughter cells. In order for this division to occur, the parent cell must replicate its entire genome, which means it must duplicate its DNA. This ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of genetic information. Therefore, the correct answer is that the parent cell must replicate its entire genome prior to mitosis.

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  • 48. 

    In the process of chromosome separation, how do microtubules maintain contact with the kinetochores andshorten at the same time?

    • The centrosomes move apart, so the microtubular proteins do not need to shorten.

    • The centrosomes create the shortening/depolymerization of the microtubular proteins.

    • Motor proteins move chromosomes down the microtubular structures of the mitotic spindle.

    • Actin microfilaments cause the microtubular proteins to slide past each other.

    Correct Answer
    A. Motor proteins move chromosomes down the microtubular structures of the mitotic spindle.
    Explanation
    Motor proteins move chromosomes down the microtubular structures of the mitotic spindle. This allows the microtubules to maintain contact with the kinetochores, which are specialized protein structures on the chromosomes. At the same time, the microtubules can shorten through depolymerization, which helps in the process of chromosome separation during cell division. The motor proteins use ATP energy to move along the microtubules and exert force on the chromosomes, facilitating their movement towards the opposite poles of the cell.

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  • 49. 

    If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to ________.

    • Pass the G2 checkpoint.

    • Synthesize cyclin-dependent kinases.

    • Enter G1 from mitosis.

    • Activate DNA repair mechanisms.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pass the G2 checkpoint.
    Explanation
    If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to pass the G2 checkpoint. The G2 checkpoint is a crucial point in the cell cycle where the cell checks for DNA damage and ensures that all DNA replication has been completed accurately. If there is DNA damage, the cell will halt progression through the cell cycle and activate DNA repair mechanisms before proceeding. Therefore, if a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to pass the G2 checkpoint without repairing the damage first.

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  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Jun 22, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Aislingc
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