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  • 1/31 Questions

    A cardiac arrest occurs during a procedure, and the surgeon is resuscitating the patient. What is the responsibility of the surgical technologist in the scrub role during this time?

    • Hand the surgeon a loaded needle holder and forceps for closing.
    • Break scrub and call for help
    • Remain sterile and maintain the sterile field.
    • Move the electrosurgical unit away for the operating table
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To Practice For  National Certification Exam - Quiz
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  • 2. 

    Heaney clamps are used for a

    • Hysterectomy

    • Lobectomy

    • Cystectomy

    • Gastrectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Hysterectomy
    Explanation
    (c) A. Heaney clamps are used to clamp the uterine ligaments during a hysterectomy.
    (u) B. Heaney clamps would traumatize lung tissue during a lobectomy.
    (u) C. A cystectomy (removal of the bladder) does not require the use of Heaney clamps.
    (u) D. A gastrectomy (removal of the stomach) does not require the use of Heaney clamps.

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  • 3. 

    Aerobic organisms are BEST characterized as

    • Pathogenic

    • Nonpathogenic

    • Oxygen-requiring

    • Non-oxygen requiring

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxygen-requiring
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (u) A. Pathogenic organisms cause or are able to cause disease.
    (u) B. Nonpathogenic organisms are not disease forming.
    (c) C. Aerobic organisms require an oxygen-rich environment to survive.
    (u) D. Anaerobic organisms do not require oxygen to survive.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is the definition of instrument sterilization?

    • Surgical cleaning with an antiseptic

    • Manual decontamination

    • Destruction of microorganisms

    • Reduction of bacteria

    Correct Answer
    A. Destruction of microorganisms
    Explanation
    (u) A. Antiseptics destroy most but not all pathogens and are not typically used on inanimate objects.
    (u) B. Decontamination is a process of disinfection and does not render an instrument sterile.
    (c) C. Sterilization is the destruction of all microorganisms.
    (u) D. Reduction implies the destruction of some or most bacteria. Sterilization requires the destruction of ALL bacteria.

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  • 5. 

    When positioning a patient in the lithotomy position, the stirrup height should be adjusted according to the

    • Height of the first assistant

    • Manufacturer's recommendations

    • Height of the surgeon

    • Length of the patient's legs

    Correct Answer
    A. Length of the patient's legs
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (u) A. Adjusting the stirrups based on the height of the first assistant may contribute to patient injury.
    (u) B. The manufacturer's recommendations would not necessarily address the proper height for any given patient.
    (u) C. The surgeon's height has nothing to do with correct placement of the stirrups. This must be calibrated to the patient's height.
    (c) D. The stirrup height is adjusted to the length of the patient's legs so that nerve pressure and damage are prevented.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following conditions is triggered by an injection of succinylcholine (Anectine) and causes an unusually high fever?

    • Osteomyelitis

    • Sepsis

    • Malignant hyperthermia

    • Appendicitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Malignant hyperthermia
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (u) A. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone and bone marrow.
    (u) B. Sepsis is an inflammatory response that causes a high fever but does not result from an injection of succinylcholine.
    (c) C. Succinylcholine is a anesthetic muscle relaxant that can trigger malignant hyperthermia.
    (u) D. Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix that can cause a high fever but does not result from an injection of succinylcholine.

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  • 7. 

    A chemical solution used to sterilize instruments by immersing them for at least 10 hours is

    • Activated glutaraldehyde

    • Sodium hypochlorite

    • Aqueous formaldehyde

    • Methyl phenol

    Correct Answer
    A. Activated glutaraldehyde
    Explanation
    c) A. Glutaraldehyde is used for devices that can withstand complete immersion in liquid. To render an item sterile it must be immersed for 10 hours.
    (u) B. Sodium hypochlorite is an effective disinfectant for surfaces, floors, and equipment but not instruments.
    (u) C. Aqueous formaldehyde is a preservative not a sterilizing agent.
    (u) D. Methyl phenol is used to disinfect large areas such as floors and countertops.

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  • 8. 

    Which scissor is most likely found in a basic hysterectomy set-up?

    • Potts-smith

    • Stevens

    • Jorgenson

    • Iris

    Correct Answer
    A. Jorgenson
    Explanation
    The Jorgenson scissor is most likely found in a basic hysterectomy set-up.

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  • 9. 

    An ideal environment for holding the preoperative patient is a

    • Dimly lit, quiet room

    • Brightly lit, quiet room

    • Warm, busy room.

    • D. cool, busy room.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dimly lit, quiet room
    Explanation
    (c) A. A quiet, dimly lighted room will facilitate the effects of the preoperative medications administered to patients to relieve anxiety and promote drowsiness.
    (u) B. A brightly lighted room would not have a calming effect.
    (u) C. A warm, busy room negates the effect of preoperative medication and promotes patient preoperative anxiety.
    (u) D. A cool, busy room will negate the effects of the preoperative medication and the lower temperature could contribute to potential hypothermia of the patient.

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  • 10. 

    A preference card indicates a surgeon prefers a large paper gown and size 7.5 gloves and the surgeon's assistant prefers an XL cloth gown and size 8 gloves. The assistant usually scrubs in first. In which order should the surgical attire (PPE) be stacked, from top to bottom?

    • Towel, XL cloth gown, size 7.5 gloves, towel, large paper gown, size 8 gloves

    • Size 7.5 gloves, XL cloth gown, towel, size 8 gloves, large paper gown, towel

    • Towel, XL cloth gown, size 8 gloves, towel, large paper gown, size 7.5 gloves

    • Towel, large paper gown, size 7.5 gloves, towel, XL cloth gown, size 8 gloves

    Correct Answer
    A. Towel, XL cloth gown, size 8 gloves, towel, large paper gown, size 7.5 gloves
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (u) A. The assistant's PPE should be placed at the top of the stack since the assistant scrubs in first. According to the preference card, the assistant prefers size 8 gloves not size 7.5.
    (u) B. The assistant's PPE should be placed at the top of the stack since the assistant scrubs in first. According to the preference card, the assistant prefers size 8 gloves not size 7.5.
    (c) C. The assistant's PPE should be placed at the top of the stack since the assistant scrubs in first. Additionally, the towel should be on top of the gown, with the gloves beneath the gown.
    (u) D. The assistant's PPE should be placed at the top of the stack since the assistant scrubs in first. According to the preference card, the assistant prefers an XL cloth gown not a large paper gown.

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  • 11. 

    Wrinkle-free padding is applied to an extremity before application of a tourniquet to avoid

    • Skin injuries

    • Improper inflation

    • Excessive blood loss

    • Skeletal injuries

    Correct Answer
    A. Skin injuries
    Explanation
    Padding is applied to an extremity before applying a tourniquet to avoid skin injuries. This is because the tourniquet, when tightened, can put pressure on the skin and potentially cause damage such as bruising, abrasions, or even cuts. By using padding, the pressure is distributed more evenly and reduces the risk of skin injuries.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following should be visualized on an x-ray to determine if a long bone is still growing?

    • Periosteum

    • Diaphysis

    • Medullary canal

    • Epiphyseal plate

    Correct Answer
    A. Epiphyseal plate
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (u) A. The periosteum is the outer layer covering of the bone and is present during all stages of bone growth.
    (u) B. The diaphysis is the shaft of the long bone and is not where growth takes place.
    (u) C. The medullary canal is the innermost part of the bone that contains bone marrow which supplies the bone with nutrients but does not determine if a long bone is still growing.
    (c) D. The epiphyseal plate, also known as the growth plate, is the center for ossification at each extremity of a long bone.

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  • 13. 

    A pad-like sac or cavity that prevents friction within a joint is known as a

    • Bursa

    • Fossa

    • Ganglion

    • Ligament

    Correct Answer
    A. Bursa
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (c) A. The bursa is pad-like sac or cavity found in connective tissues, usually in the vicinity of joints.
    (u) B. A fossa is a furrow or shallow depression.
    (u) C. A ganglion is a fluid-filled sac that can arise from almost any tendon sheath or joint in the hand or wrist.
    (u) D. A ligament is a band or sheet of strong fibrous tissue connecting the articular ends of bones, serving to bind them together and to facilitate or limit motion.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is done FIRST when performing a myringotomy?

    • Insertion of a drainage tube

    • Incision of the tympanic membrane

    • Suctioning of fluid from the middle eat

    • Removal of cerumen from the ear canal

    Correct Answer
    A. Removal of cerumen from the ear canal
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (u) A. The insertion of the drainage tube is performed near the end of the procedure.
    (u) B. Cerumen is removed prior to the incision of the tympanic membrane.
    (u) C. Removal of fluid from the middle ear is performed following the incision of the tympanic membrane.
    (c) D. Removal of cerumen is done after the ear speculum is inserted for visualization of the tympanic membrane.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is a procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck?

    • Rhinoplasty

    • Rhytidectomy

    • Cheiloplasty

    • Blepharoplasty

    Correct Answer
    A. Rhytidectomy
    Explanation
    Rhytidectomy is a surgical procedure that involves removing excess skin from the face and neck. It is commonly known as a facelift and is performed to reduce the signs of aging, such as wrinkles and sagging skin. Rhinoplasty, cheiloplasty, and blepharoplasty are all different procedures that involve modifying the nose, lips, and eyelids respectively, but they do not address excess skin on the face and neck.

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  • 16. 

    A laparotomy drape has been placed on a patient and unprepped skin on the operative site is exposed. Which of the following is the BEST next step?

    • Apply drapes over unprepped skin

    • Reposition the drapes closer together

    • Remove drapes and re-prep

    • Cover with an adhesive drape

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove drapes and re-prep
    Explanation
    (u) A. Drapes should not be applied over the unprepped skin because it would not effectively address the contamination of the operative site.
    (u) B. Drapes applied should NEVER be repositioned because it is a break in aseptic technique.
    (c) C. This is the correct procedure because it adheres to aseptic technique and best addresses contamination on the operative site.
    (u) D. Adhesive drapes do not adequately address operative site skin preparation.

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  • 17. 

    A circlage procedure is performed for which of the following conditions?

    • Bartholin's cyst

    • Ectopic pregnancy

    • Incompetent cervix

    • Placenta previa

    Correct Answer
    A. Incompetent cervix
    Explanation
    (u) A. A Bartholin's cyst is caused by one of the vestibular glands filling with clear fluid and becoming blocked.
    (u) B. An ectopic pregnancy occurs in a Fallopian tube instead of the uterus.
    (c) C. A circlage procedure is performed to prevent spontaneous abortion and preterm delivery by placing a purse-string suture around the cervix.
    (u) D. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta is attached near the cervix and ruptures prematurely.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following procedures treats a congenital obstructed lesion found at the distal end of an infant's stomach?

    • Gastrotomy

    • Nissen fundoplication

    • Heller myotomy

    • Pyloromyotomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyloromyotomy
    Explanation
    (u) A. Gastrostomy is used to treat patient with esophageal disease or stricture.
    (u) B. Nissen fundoplication is performed to reduce the fundus for the treatment of persistent gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
    (u) C. Heller myotomy is a surgical procedure in which the muscles of the lower esophageal sphincter are cut, allowing food and liquids to pass to the stomach.
    (c) D. Infantile pyloric stenosis is relieved by removing the congenital obstructive lesion in the pylorus of the stomach. This procedure is called pyloromyotomy.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is applied as a nonadherent dressing?

    • Adaptic

    • Collodion

    • Steri-strip

    • Elastoplast

    Correct Answer
    A. Adaptic
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (c) A. Adaptic is a nonadherent dressing placed directly on the wound.
    (u) B. Collodion is a liquid adhesive which seals the wound.
    (u) C. Steri-strips are adhesive tape-like dressings.
    (u) D. Elastoplast is adhesive tape.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following is the best sequence for cleaning the operating room after placement of the dressings?

    • Remove steril drapes, remove gown and gloves, don a pair of unsterile gloves to clean the back table

    • Remove gown and gloves, don a pair of unsterile gloves to remove drapes from the patient, remove instruments and supplies from the back table.

    • Remove gown and gloves, don a pair of sterile gloves to remove drapes from patient, remove gloves and don a pain of unsterile gloves to clean the back table.

    • Remove sterile drapes, remove gown and gloves, don a pair of sterile gloves to clean back table.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove steril drapes, remove gown and gloves, don a pair of unsterile gloves to clean the back table
    Explanation
    (c) A. PPE (personal protective equipment) will protect surgical personnel from coming in contact with body fluids on the drapes. After the drapes are removed, the surgical technologist can safely remove the gown and gloves to complete clean-up with a pair of unsterile exam gloves. Note: The surgical technologist may be required to remain sterile until the patient leaves the room, in some circumstances.
    (u) B. When removing drapes from the patient, the surgical technologist should remain protected with PPE (personal protective equipment) before handling the drapes.
    (u) C. When removing drapes from the patient, the surgical technologist should remain protected with PPE (personal protective equipment) before handling drapes. The second pair of sterile gloves is unnecessary to remove drapes.
    (u) D. Sterile gloves are not necessary for the clean-up process, as supplies, instruments, and equipment are no longer considered to be sterile during this procedure.

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  • 21. 

    A major function of the colon is to

    • Absorb water

    • Secrete hormones

    • Secrete digestive enzymes

    • Absorb the products of digestion

    Correct Answer
    A. Absorb water
    Explanation
    c) A. Reabsorbing water is a primary function of the colon, along with elimination of digestive wastes.
    (u) B. Secreting hormones is a function of the small intestine.
    (u) C. Secreting digestive hormones is a function of the parietal cells of the stomach.
    (u) D. Absorbing the products of digestion is a function of the small intestine.

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  • 22. 

    To revascularize the heart muscle of a patient with heart disease, a graft may be anastomosed between which of the following two vessels?

    • Internal mammary artery to affected coronary artery

    • Subclavian artery to affected coronary artery

    • Internal mammary artery to aorta

    • Subclavian artery to aorta

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal mammary artery to affected coronary artery
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (c) A. The internal mammary artery is the preferred vascular conduit to revascularize the myocardium.
    (u) B. The subclavian artery is distal to the internal mammary artery and would not be long enough to reach the affected coronary artery.
    (u) C. The internal mammary artery anastomosed to the aorta would not revascularize the affected heart muscle.
    (u) D. The subclavian artery anastomosed to the aorta would not revascularize the affected heart muscle.

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  • 23. 

    When performing a dilation and curettage, which of the following instruments is used to grasp the cervix?

    • Simms

    • Auvard

    • Schroeder

    • Bozeman

    Correct Answer
    A. Schroeder
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (u) A. Simms is a vaginal retractor for gynecological procedures.
    (u) B. Auvard is a weighted vaginal retractor used for gynecological procedures.
    (c) C. Schroeder is a tenaculum with a single tooth or a vulsellum with a double tooth.
    (u) D. Bozeman is a long dressing forceps for packing the vagina.

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  • 24. 

    What type of incision is typically used for an open cholecystectomy?

    • McBurney's

    • Pfannenstiel

    • Midline

    • Subcostal

    Correct Answer
    A. Subcostal
    Explanation
    (u) A. A McBurney's incision is most commonly used for an appendectomy.
    (u) B. A Pfannenstiel incision is most commonly used for a hysterectomy or cesarean section.
    (u) C. A lower midline incision is used for uterine adnexa or urinary bladder surgery.
    (c) D. A subcostal incision is preferred for an open cholecystectomy.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following procedures involves the injection of contrast media into the spinal subarachnoid space?

    • Myelogram

    • Arteriogram

    • Lumbar puncture

    • Pneumography

    Correct Answer
    A. Myelogram
    Explanation
    c) A. A myelogram is injection of contrast media into the spine subarachnoid space.
    (u) B. An arteriogram is the injection of contrast media into the arteries.
    (u) C. A lumbar puncture is a procedure that allows access to the subarachnoid space for removal of cerebrospinal fluid for diagnostic purposes.
    (u) D. A pneumography is an anatomical illustration of the lung.

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  • 26. 

    In comparison to oral Fahrenheit temperatures, rectal Fahrenheit temperatures are

    • Exactly the same

    • Approximately 1degreelower

    • Approximately 1 degree higher

    • Approximately 2 degrees higher

    Correct Answer
    A. Approximately 1 degree higher
    Explanation
    A. They are not exactly the same.
    (u) B. Rectal temperatures are 1 degree higher than oral temperatures. Axillary temperatures are 1 degree lower.
    (c) C. Rectal temperatures are 1 degree higher than oral temperatures.
    (u) D. Rectal temperatures are not 2 degrees higher than oral Fahrenheit temperatures.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following should be removed LAST by the surgical technologist in the scrub role in order to prevent contamination at the end of a surgical procedure?

    • Patient's drapes

    • Surgical gloves

    • Surgical mask

    • Mayo stand drape

    Correct Answer
    A. Surgical mask
    Explanation
    u) A. Gown and gloves should be kept on to remove the soiled drapes.
    (u) B. Gloves should be removed after all other drapes and supplies are properly disposed of and bagged but before the mask is removed.
    (c) C. The surgical mask should not be touched by soiled gloves, and in many areas must remain on until the room is exited.
    (u) D. Gown and gloves should be kept on until the removal of the soiled Mayo drape.

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  • 28. 

    The drug most commonly used to treat ventricular tachycardia is?

    • Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

    • Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat).

    • Lidocaine (Xylocaine).

    • Norepinephrine (Levophed).

    Correct Answer
    A. Lidocaine (Xylocaine).
    Explanation
    (u) A. Epinephrine is a cardiac stimulant.
    (u) B. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that lowers the blood pressure.
    (c) C. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic.
    (u) D. Norepinephrine is a cardiac stimulant.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is NOT a symptom of shock?

    • Tachycardia

    • Hypertension

    • Cold, clammy skin

    • Increased respiration's

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypertension
    Explanation
    u) A. Tachycardia (rapid pulse) is a symptom of shock.
    (c) B. Hypertension is NOT a symptom of shock. Hypotension is a symptom.
    (u) C. Cold, clammy skin is a result of shock due to peripheral shutdown.
    (u) D. Respirations increase due to tachycardia.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following types of anesthetic is injected during a Bier block?

    • Bupivacaine (marcaine)

    • Lidocaine (xylocaine) with epinephrine

    • Bupivacaine (Marcaine) with epinephrine

    • Lidocaine (Xylocaine)

    Correct Answer
    A. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (u) A. Intravenously injected bupivacaine is associated with cardiac arrest.
    (u) B. Lidocaine containing epinephrine can cause convulsions and tachycardia when injected into the peripheral vascular system.
    (u) C. Intravascular injection of bupivacaine with epinephrine is associated with convulsions, tachycardia, and cardiac arrest.
    (c) D. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) when utilized for regional Bier block anesthesia does not carry as significant a risk for anesthetic agent toxicity as bupivacaine (Marcaine).

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  • 31. 

    The Sterrad sterilization system MOST commonly uses which of the following chemical solutions?

    • Hydrogen peroxide

    • Glutaraldehyde

    • Peracetic acid

    • Carbon dioxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrogen peroxide
    Explanation
    EXPLANATIONS:
    (c) A. The Sterrad system is a plasma sterilization system that uses hydrogen peroxide in plasma form.
    (u) B. Glutaraldehyde is a cold sterilant and is not used in the Sterrad sterilization system.
    (u) C. Peracetic acid is typically used in the Steris sterilization system not the Sterrad sterilization system.
    (u) D. Carbon dioxide is not utilized for the sterilization process.

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 25, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    Penaym
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