Anatomy Term 2 Quizzes 1-9

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Anatomy Term 2 Quizzes 1-9 - Quiz


Darla's quizzes 1-9 from Term2.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the outer layer of an intervertebral disc called?

  • 2. 

    What part of the IVD is avascular? Aneural?

  • 3. 

    The intervertebral foramen is formed by the meeting of the ___________ from the vertebra above and below.

    Explanation
    The intervertebral foramen is formed by the meeting of the superior and inferior vertebral notches from the vertebra above and below. These notches are indentations on the sides of the vertebrae that align when the vertebrae are stacked on top of each other, creating a passageway for spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord and travel to other parts of the body. The vertebral notches alone do not form the intervertebral foramen; it is the combination of the superior and inferior notches that create this opening.

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  • 4. 

    The vertebral artery passes through the __________ foramen of all the cervical vertebra except __________.

    Explanation
    The vertebral artery passes through the transverse foramen of all the cervical vertebrae except C7. The transverse foramen is a hole located on the sides of the cervical vertebrae, through which the vertebral artery travels. However, in the case of C7, the transverse foramen is absent, and therefore the vertebral artery does not pass through it.

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  • 5. 

    ______________ are the upward bony projections on the posterolateral rims of the vertebral body of the cervical vertebrae.

    Explanation
    Uncinate processes are the upward bony projections on the posterolateral rims of the vertebral body of the cervical vertebrae. These processes serve as important landmarks for various anatomical structures, including the uncovertebral joints, which are involved in limiting excessive movement and providing stability to the cervical spine. The uncinate processes also contribute to the formation of the intervertebral foramen, through which the spinal nerves pass. These processes play a crucial role in maintaining the structural integrity and function of the cervical vertebrae.

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  • 6. 

    ______ is the largest vertebrae in the human body.

    Explanation
    L5 refers to the fifth lumbar vertebra, which is the largest vertebra in the human body. The vertebrae are the bones that make up the spine and are numbered from top to bottom. The L5 vertebra is located in the lower back, just above the sacrum. It is larger and stronger than the other lumbar vertebrae to support the weight of the upper body and provide stability to the lower back.

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  • 7. 

    The pathway of the ribs from sternum to vertebrae is:

    • A.

      Posterior, lateral, inferior

    • B.

      Superior, lateral, anterior

    • C.

      Anterior, medial, inferior

    • D.

      Posterior, lateral, superior

    Correct Answer
    D. Posterior, lateral, superior
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Posterior, lateral, superior." The pathway of the ribs from sternum to vertebrae starts at the posterior side, then moves laterally, and finally goes superiorly. This means that the ribs are positioned towards the back, then extend outwards, and finally move upwards towards the vertebrae.

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  • 8. 

    The head of R4 articulates with the vertebral body of T4 at its inferior costal facet.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because the head of R4 does not articulate with the vertebral body of T4. Instead, it articulates with the vertebral body of T5 at its inferior costal facet.

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  • 9. 

    Ribs 1, 11 and 12 are not connected to a disc.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Ribs 1, 11, and 12 are not connected to a disc. This means that these ribs do not articulate or attach to the sternum through a cartilaginous connection. Instead, they are considered "floating ribs" as they only attach to the vertebrae in the back and do not have any direct connection to the sternum. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 10. 

    In typical anatomical position, the root of the spine of the scapula is a landmark for ________.

    Correct Answer
    Rib 3
    R3
    Explanation
    The root of the spine of the scapula serves as a landmark for identifying the location of Rib 3 or R3 in the typical anatomical position. This means that by locating the root of the spine of the scapula, one can also determine the position of the third rib.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following is not considered an atypical rib?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      10

    • C.

      11

    • D.

      12

    • E.

      All of the above are ayypical ribs

    Correct Answer
    B. 10
    Explanation
    The question asks for the rib that is not considered atypical. The options given are rib numbers 1, 10, 11, and 12, and the correct answer is 10. This means that ribs 1, 11, and 12 are considered atypical ribs.

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  • 12. 

    The inferior angle of the scapula is a landmark for _____.

    Correct Answer
    Rib 7
    R7
    Explanation
    The inferior angle of the scapula is a landmark for Rib 7 or R7. This means that the inferior angle of the scapula can be used as a reference point to locate or identify the position of the 7th rib in the body.

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  • 13. 

    The atlanto-axial joint is a ______ joing, and therefore is able to perform _________.

    Correct Answer
    pivot, rotation
    Explanation
    The atlanto-axial joint is classified as a pivot joint, which allows for rotation. This type of joint consists of a rounded surface of one bone fitting into a ring-shaped structure of another bone. This design allows for a high degree of rotational movement, such as the rotation of the head from side to side.

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  • 14. 

    The _________ ligament(s) attaches the dens to the lateral margin(s) of the foramen magnum.

    Correct Answer
    alar
    Explanation
    The alar ligament attaches the dens (the bony projection on the second cervical vertebra) to the lateral margins of the foramen magnum (the opening at the base of the skull). This ligament helps to stabilize the dens and maintain the alignment of the cervical spine.

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  • 15. 

    The facet orientation in the lumbar spine is more in the ______ plane.

    Correct Answer
    sagittal
    Explanation
    The facet orientation in the lumbar spine is more in the sagittal plane. This means that the facet joints in the lumbar spine are aligned more vertically, allowing for flexion and extension movements in the sagittal plane. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements in this plane include bending forward (flexion) and backward (extension). The facet orientation in the lumbar spine supports these movements, allowing for flexion and extension of the lower back.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following ligaments travels along the tips of the SPs from C7 to the sacrum?

    • A.

      Ligamenta flava

    • B.

      Interspinous ligaments

    • C.

      Ligamentum nuchae

    • D.

      Intertransverse ligaments

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. None of the above
    Explanation
    Supraspinous ligaments

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  • 17. 

    The sternoclavicular joint is a plane/gliding joint.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Saddle joint

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  • 18. 

    ____________ joints connect the later end of each costal cartilage into a cup-shaped anterior end of its associated rib.

    Correct Answer
    Costochondral
    Explanation
    Costochondral joints connect the lateral end of each costal cartilage to the cup-shaped anterior end of its associated rib. These joints allow for slight movement and flexibility in the ribcage, helping to accommodate breathing and other movements of the chest. The term "costochondral" refers specifically to the connection between the rib and the cartilage, highlighting the importance of this joint in maintaining the structure and function of the ribcage.

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  • 19. 

    The costoclavicular ligament secures the first rib to the sternal end of the clavicle and checks movement in all directions except:

    • A.

      Superior

    • B.

      Inferior

    • C.

      Medial

    • D.

      Lateral

    • E.

      All movements are checked.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inferior
    Explanation
    The costoclavicular ligament is responsible for securing the first rib to the sternal end of the clavicle. It helps to stabilize the joint and prevent excessive movement. While it checks movement in all directions, the one direction that is not checked is inferior, meaning downward. This means that the costoclavicular ligament allows for some movement in the downward direction, while restricting movement in other directions such as superior (upward), medial (towards the midline), and lateral (away from the midline).

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  • 20. 

    With elevation of the scapula, you can expect to see the medial end of the clavicle move:

    • A.

      Superiorly

    • B.

      Dorsally

    • C.

      Inferiorly

    • D.

      Ventrally

    Correct Answer
    C. Inferiorly
    Explanation
    When the scapula is elevated, the medial end of the clavicle moves inferiorly. This is because the clavicle is connected to the scapula at the acromioclavicular joint, and when the scapula moves upward, it pulls the clavicle downward. This downward movement of the clavicle is referred to as depression or inferior movement.

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  • 21. 

    Which muscle makes up the inferolateral border of the suboccipital triangle?

    • A.

      Rectus capitis posterior major

    • B.

      Obliquus capitis superior

    • C.

      Obliquus capitis inferior

    • D.

      Rectus capitis posterior minor

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Obliquus capitis inferior
    Explanation
    The obliquus capitis inferior muscle is the correct answer because it forms the inferolateral border of the suboccipital triangle. The suboccipital triangle is a small triangular region located at the base of the skull, and the obliquus capitis inferior muscle is one of the three muscles that define its borders. The other muscles listed, rectus capitis posterior major, rectus capitis posterior minor, and obliquus capitis superior, are not part of the suboccipital triangle. Therefore, the correct muscle that makes up the inferolateral border is the obliquus capitis inferior.

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  • 22. 

    What is the superior attachement of the anterior scalene?

  • 23. 

    What is the main action of the posterior scalene during an ipsilateral contraction?

  • 24. 

    SCM assists with forced expiration.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    SCM stands for Sternocleidomastoid, which is a muscle located in the neck. It is responsible for various movements of the head and neck, such as rotation and flexion. However, SCM does not directly assist with forced expiration, which is the act of forcefully exhaling air from the lungs. Forced expiration primarily involves the contraction of the abdominal muscles and the internal intercostal muscles, which help to decrease the volume of the thoracic cavity and push air out of the lungs. Therefore, the statement "SCM assists with forced expiration" is false.

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  • 25. 

    The posterior border of the posterior cervicle triangle is the splenius capitis.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The posterior border of the posterior cervical triangle is not the splenius capitis. The posterior border of the posterior cervical triangle is actually formed by the trapezius muscle. The splenius capitis is a muscle located in the posterior neck, but it does not contribute to the border of the posterior cervical triangle. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 26. 

    Suprahyoid or infrahyoid? Stylohyoid.

  • 27. 

    Suprahyoid or infrahyoid? Omohyoid.

  • 28. 

    Suprahyoid or infrahyoid? Thyrohyoid.

  • 29. 

    Suprahyoid or infrahyoid? Geniohyoid.

  • 30. 

    Suprahyoid or infrahyoid? Mylohyoid.

  • 31. 

    The superior attachement of rectus abdominis is the costal cartilages of ribs _________ and the ____________.

    Correct Answer
    5-7, xiphoid process
    Explanation
    The superior attachment of the rectus abdominis muscle is to the costal cartilages of ribs 5-7 and the xiphoid process. This means that the muscle connects to the lower part of the sternum (xiphoid process) and the cartilages of the 5th, 6th, and 7th ribs.

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  • 32. 

    The external oblique, when unilaterally contracting, is responsible for ipsilateral rotation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The external oblique, when unilaterally contracting, is responsible for contralateral rotation, not ipsilateral rotation. When the external oblique on one side contracts, it causes the trunk to rotate towards the opposite side. Therefore, the statement is false.

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  • 33. 

    What is the fibre direction of internal obliques, from superior to inferior?

  • 34. 

    Which of the following is responsible for elevation of the hyoid, assuming the superior attachment is fixed?

    • A.

      Geniohyoid

    • B.

      Omohyoid

    • C.

      Sternohyoid

    • D.

      Thyrohyoid

    • E.

      A and C

    • F.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Geniohyoid
    Explanation
    The geniohyoid muscle is responsible for the elevation of the hyoid bone when the superior attachment is fixed. The geniohyoid muscle is located in the neck and connects the chin to the hyoid bone. When it contracts, it pulls the hyoid bone upward, contributing to the elevation of the hyoid.

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  • 35. 

    The ___________ is the area in the throat responsible for sound and voice production.

    Correct Answer
    larynx
    Explanation
    The larynx is the correct answer because it is the area in the throat where sound and voice production occur. It contains the vocal cords, which vibrate and produce sound when air passes through them. The larynx also plays a role in swallowing and preventing food or liquid from entering the airway.

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  • 36. 

    The base of the anterior cervical triangle is the ____________.

    Correct Answer
    mandible
    Explanation
    The base of the anterior cervical triangle is the mandible. The anterior cervical triangle is a region in the neck that is bounded by the anterior midline of the neck, the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, and the inferior border of the mandible. The mandible forms the lower boundary of this triangle, making it the base.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following muscles is deepest in the laminar groove?

    • A.

      Multifidus

    • B.

      Semispinalis

    • C.

      Rotatores

    • D.

      Intertransversarii

    Correct Answer
    C. Rotatores
    Explanation
    The rotatores muscle is the deepest muscle in the laminar groove. This muscle is located in the spine and is responsible for rotating and stabilizing the vertebrae. It is situated deep within the layers of muscles in the laminar groove, making it the correct answer. The other muscles listed, such as the multifidus, semispinalis, and intertransversarii, are also located in the spine but are not as deep as the rotatores muscle in the laminar groove.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following paraspinal muscles is the most lateral?

    • A.

      Longissimus

    • B.

      Iliocostalis

    • C.

      Spinalis

    • D.

      Interspinales

    Correct Answer
    B. Iliocostalis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Iliocostalis because it is the most lateral paraspinal muscle. The paraspinal muscles are located on either side of the spine and help support and stabilize the spine. The Iliocostalis muscle is the furthest away from the spine and runs along the lateral aspect of the back. It extends from the pelvis to the ribs and assists in movements such as lateral flexion and extension of the spine. The other options, Longissimus, Spinalis, and Interspinales, are also paraspinal muscles but are located more medially compared to Iliocostalis.

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  • 39. 

    ________________ is the erector spinae muscle which is the most redily visable, and most easily palpated.

    Correct Answer
    longissimus
    Explanation
    The longissimus muscle is the erector spinae muscle that is most readily visible and easily palpated.

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  • 40. 

    The fibres of transversus abdominus interdigitate with ___________.

    Correct Answer
    diaphragm
    Explanation
    The fibres of the transversus abdominis muscle interdigitate with the diaphragm. This means that the muscle fibers of the transversus abdominis muscle intertwine or overlap with the fibers of the diaphragm. This interdigitation allows for a strong connection between these two muscles, which is important for stabilizing the core and assisting in breathing.

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  • 41. 

    The aponeurotic attachments of the external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominus form a sheath of connective tissue called the _______________.

    Correct Answer
    rectus sheath
    Explanation
    The aponeurotic attachments of the external oblique, internal oblique, and transversus abdominus combine to form a connective tissue sheath known as the rectus sheath. This sheath surrounds and supports the rectus abdominis muscle, which is commonly referred to as the "six-pack" muscle. The rectus sheath helps to protect and stabilize the underlying structures of the abdomen and provides a strong foundation for movement and core stability.

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  • 42. 

    The two rectus abdominus muscles are seperated by the _______________.

    Correct Answer
    linea alba
    Explanation
    The rectus abdominis muscles, commonly known as the "abs," are separated by the linea alba. The linea alba is a band of connective tissue that runs vertically down the center of the abdomen, from the sternum to the pubic bone. It provides support and stability to the abdominal muscles and helps maintain the integrity of the abdominal wall.

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  • 43. 

    Name the actions of QL.

  • 44. 

    The diaphragm sits at approximately the _____ intercostal space during expiration, and the ____ intercostal space during inspiration.

    Correct Answer
    4, 6
    Explanation
    During expiration, the diaphragm sits at approximately the 4th intercostal space. This is because the diaphragm relaxes and moves upwards, reducing the volume of the thoracic cavity and causing air to be expelled from the lungs. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and moves downwards, reaching the 6th intercostal space. This creates more space in the thoracic cavity, allowing air to enter the lungs.

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  • 45. 

    The muscular fibres of the diaphragm converge radially into a strong aponeurotic tendon called the ____________.

    Correct Answer
    central tendon
    Explanation
    The muscular fibers of the diaphragm come together in a radial pattern and form a strong aponeurotic tendon, which is known as the central tendon. This tendon plays a crucial role in the contraction and relaxation of the diaphragm, allowing for proper breathing and the movement of air in and out of the lungs. It serves as an anchor point for the diaphragm and helps maintain its shape and stability during respiration.

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  • 46. 

    During __________ the diaphragm moves superiorly.

    Correct Answer
    expiration
    Explanation
    During expiration, the diaphragm moves superiorly. This is because expiration is the process of exhaling air from the lungs. When the diaphragm contracts and moves upwards, it reduces the volume of the thoracic cavity, causing the air to be pushed out of the lungs. This upward movement of the diaphragm during expiration helps in the expulsion of air and the relaxation of the respiratory muscles.

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  • 47. 

    During inspiration, the ribs are raised and move laterall, which increases the transverse dimension of the thorax. This is called the __________________ movement.

    Correct Answer
    bucket handle
    Explanation
    During inspiration, the ribs are raised and move laterally, which increases the transverse dimension of the thorax. This movement is commonly referred to as the "bucket handle" movement.

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  • 48. 

    Tibialis anterior is innervated by the tibial nerve.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The tibialis anterior muscle is not innervated by the tibial nerve. It is actually innervated by the deep fibular nerve, which is a branch of the common fibular nerve. The tibial nerve primarily innervates the posterior compartment of the leg. Therefore, the statement that the tibialis anterior is innervated by the tibial nerve is false.

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  • 49. 

    Where is the dorsalis pedis artery visible/palpable?

    • A.

      Behind the medial malleolus

    • B.

      On the dorsum of the foot at the lateral side

    • C.

      Behind the lateral malleolus

    • D.

      On the dorsum of the foot on the medial side

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. On the dorsum of the foot on the medial side
    Explanation
    The dorsalis pedis artery is visible/palpable on the dorsum (top) of the foot on the medial (inner) side. This means that if you were to feel for a pulse or look for the artery, you would do so on the inner side of the top of the foot.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following muscles is innervated by the femoral nerve?

    • A.

      Psoas Major

    • B.

      TFL

    • C.

      Piriformis

    • D.

      Obturator internus

    • E.

      Iliacus

    • F.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. Iliacus
    Explanation
    The iliacus muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve. The femoral nerve is a major nerve in the lower extremity that arises from the lumbar plexus and supplies motor innervation to the muscles of the anterior thigh, including the iliacus. The iliacus muscle is located in the pelvis and works together with the psoas major muscle to form the iliopsoas muscle, which is responsible for flexing the hip joint. Therefore, the correct answer is Iliacus.

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  • Dec 07, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 22, 2011
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