Anatomy And Physiology II Chapter 17 Quiz

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  • 1/32 Questions

    These hormone(s) control the female and male gonads

    • ACTH
    • FSH
    • LH
    • PRL
    • LH and FSH
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Anatomy And Physiology II Chapter 17 Quiz - Quiz
About This Quiz

This Anatomy and Physiology II Chapter 17 Quiz assesses knowledge on reproductive system hormones, ovulation, fertilization, and cellular reproduction. It helps learners understand key physiological processes, crucial for students of advanced biology and medical studies.

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  • 2. 

    Ovulation is stimulated by this hormone:

    • FSH

    • LH

    • ACTH

    • Estrogen

    Correct Answer
    A. LH
    Explanation
    LH, or luteinizing hormone, stimulates ovulation. During the menstrual cycle, LH levels rise in order to trigger the release of a mature egg from the ovary. This surge in LH is necessary for the egg to be released and potentially fertilized. FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, plays a role in the development of the egg, but it is LH that specifically stimulates ovulation. ACTH, or adrenocorticotropic hormone, is not involved in ovulation. Estrogen, while important for the menstrual cycle, does not directly stimulate ovulation.

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  • 3. 

    The union of the sperm and ovum is known as _________

    • Fertilization

    • Infertiliy

    • Ovulation

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Fertilization
    Explanation
    Fertilization refers to the process of the union of the sperm and ovum, resulting in the formation of a zygote. It is the initial step in the development of a new individual in sexual reproduction. During fertilization, the genetic material from both the sperm and ovum combines to form a unique set of chromosomes in the zygote. This process is essential for the continuation of the species and the formation of offspring. Infertility refers to the inability to conceive, ovulation is the release of an egg from the ovary, and "None of these" does not accurately describe the union of sperm and ovum.

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  • 4. 

    Asexual cellular reproduction is referred to as:

    • Meiosis

    • Mitosis

    • Fertilization

    • Chromosomal disjunction

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitosis
    Explanation
    Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of asexual cellular reproduction in which a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the replicated DNA is evenly distributed to the daughter cells, resulting in the production of genetically identical offspring. This process is essential for growth, development, and tissue repair in multicellular organisms. Meiosis, on the other hand, is a type of cellular division that occurs during sexual reproduction, while fertilization is the fusion of gametes to form a zygote, and chromosomal disjunction refers to the separation of sister chromatids during cell division.

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  • 5. 

    The fertilized ovum is helped into the uterus by this structure:

    • Villi

    • Flagella

    • Cilia

    • All of these

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Cilia
    Explanation
    Cilia are hair-like structures found on the surface of cells in the female reproductive system. They help to move the fertilized ovum, or embryo, from the fallopian tubes into the uterus. Cilia create a wave-like motion that propels the embryo forward, ensuring its proper implantation in the uterine lining. Therefore, the correct answer is cilia.

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  • 6. 

    The inner layer of the uterus is known as_______

    • Perimetrium

    • Endometrium

    • Myometrium

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Endometrium
    Explanation
    The inner layer of the uterus is known as the endometrium. This layer undergoes changes during the menstrual cycle and is responsible for supporting the implantation of a fertilized egg. It also plays a role in menstruation if pregnancy does not occur. The perimetrium refers to the outer layer of the uterus, while the myometrium is the middle layer composed of smooth muscle tissue.

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  • 7. 

    This layer of tissue gets shed during the menses:

    • Functional layer

    • Basal layer

    • Perimetrium

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional layer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the functional layer. During the menstrual cycle, the functional layer of the endometrium, the inner lining of the uterus, thickens in preparation for potential pregnancy. If pregnancy does not occur, this layer sheds and is expelled during menstruation. The basal layer, on the other hand, remains intact and regenerates the functional layer in each new menstrual cycle. Perimetrium refers to the outer layer of the uterus and is not directly involved in the shedding of tissue during menses.

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  • 8. 

    A condition where endometrial tissue escapes from the uterus is known as:

    • Ectopic pregnancy

    • Adhesions

    • Endometriosis

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Endometriosis
    Explanation
    Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue, which normally lines the uterus, grows outside of the uterus. This tissue can implant and grow on organs such as the ovaries, fallopian tubes, and pelvic lining. It can cause symptoms such as pelvic pain, painful periods, and infertility. Ectopic pregnancy refers to a pregnancy that occurs outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. Adhesions are bands of scar tissue that can form between organs, causing them to stick together. None of these options accurately describe the condition where endometrial tissue escapes from the uterus, making endometriosis the correct answer.

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  • 9. 

    The production of breast milk takes place in the___________

    • Alveoli

    • Mammary ducts

    • Ampulla

    • Lactiferous ducts

    Correct Answer
    A. Alveoli
    Explanation
    Breast milk production occurs in the alveoli. The alveoli are small sacs located within the breast tissue. They are responsible for producing and secreting milk. When a woman is lactating, the alveoli fill with milk, which is then transported through the mammary ducts and lactiferous ducts to the nipple for breastfeeding. The ampulla is a widened portion of the mammary ducts that stores milk before it is released during breastfeeding. Therefore, the correct answer is alveoli.

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  • 10. 

    The absence of menstruation is known as_______________

    • Dysmenorrhea

    • Amenorrhea

    • Metrorrhagia

    Correct Answer
    A. Amenorrhea
    Explanation
    Amenorrhea is the correct answer because it refers to the absence of menstruation. This can be a temporary or permanent condition and can be caused by various factors such as hormonal imbalances, pregnancy, breastfeeding, excessive exercise, stress, or certain medical conditions. Dysmenorrhea, on the other hand, refers to painful menstruation, while metrorrhagia refers to irregular or abnormal uterine bleeding.

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  • 11. 

    A 25 year-old female patient presents difficulty conceiving for 1 year. On physical exam you notice truncal obesity, facial hair, and a deep voice. Ultrasound of the pelvis demonstrates multiple large cysts taking up the entire ovaries bilaterally (both sides) She asks you if there are any long term complications of her condition. Your best response is:

    • Yes, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia is common.

    • Yes, typically only fertility problems.

    • No, there are no long term complications.

    • There is not much that can be done for the infertility issue.

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia is common.
    Explanation
    The patient's presentation of truncal obesity, facial hair, deep voice, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound are consistent with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). PCOS is associated with insulin resistance, which increases the risk of developing diabetes and hyperlipidemia. Therefore, the best response would be to inform the patient that long term complications such as diabetes and hyperlipidemia are common in PCOS.

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  • 12. 

    A patient is diagnosed with premenstrual syndrome (PMS). You want to find out if she really meets the criteria for PMS. You should as the patient to:

    • Obtain family history

    • Get a pregnancy test

    • Document her symptoms in a diary for 3 menstrual cycles

    • Refer her to her primary doctor

    Correct Answer
    A. Document her symptoms in a diary for 3 menstrual cycles
    Explanation
    To accurately diagnose premenstrual syndrome (PMS), it is important to document the patient's symptoms over a period of time. By asking the patient to document her symptoms in a diary for 3 menstrual cycles, it allows for a comprehensive assessment of the symptoms experienced throughout the entire menstrual cycle. This method helps to identify any patterns or changes in symptoms that align with the criteria for PMS, providing a more reliable diagnosis. Obtaining a family history, getting a pregnancy test, and referring to a primary doctor may be necessary for further evaluation, but documenting symptoms in a diary is the most appropriate initial step in confirming a diagnosis of PMS.

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  • 13. 

    The sperm mature in the ___________________

    • Vas deferens

    • Seminal vesicles

    • Ejaculatory ducts

    • Epididymis

    Correct Answer
    A. Epididymis
    Explanation
    The sperm mature in the epididymis. The epididymis is a coiled tube located on the back of each testicle. It serves as a storage and maturation site for sperm. When sperm are first produced in the testes, they are immature and incapable of fertilization. As they pass through the epididymis, they gain the ability to swim and fertilize an egg. Therefore, the epididymis is crucial for the development and maturation of sperm before they are ejaculated.

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  • 14. 

    This hormones stimulates the production of testosterone:

    • FSH

    • LH

    • PRL

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. LH
    Explanation
    LH, or luteinizing hormone, stimulates the production of testosterone. It is released by the pituitary gland and acts on the testes in males to promote the production of testosterone. Testosterone is an important hormone for male reproductive function, as it plays a role in sperm production, sex drive, and the development of secondary sexual characteristics. FSH, or follicle-stimulating hormone, plays a role in sperm production as well, but it does not directly stimulate the production of testosterone. PRL, or prolactin, is involved in milk production in females and does not stimulate testosterone production.

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  • 15. 

    A 32 year-old patient presents with painless vaginal bleeding. She is 34 weeks gestation. On ultrasound you notice that the placenta in over the cervical os. This conditon is known as:

    • Abruptio placenta

    • Placenta previa

    • Cervical cancer

    • None of these

    Correct Answer
    A. Placenta previa
    Explanation
    Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta is located over the cervical os, causing painless vaginal bleeding. It occurs during pregnancy and can be detected through ultrasound. Abruptio placenta refers to the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which is different from the given scenario. Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix and is not related to the placenta. Therefore, the correct answer is placenta previa.

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  • 16. 

    A patient presents with difficulty maintaining an erection. He is 25 years-old. After a complete physical exam, and testing him for diabetes, and performong a full work up, everything comes back normal. The most likely cause of his condition is:

    • Organic

    • Psychogenic

    • Peripheral vascular disease

    • Diabetes

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychogenic
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, the patient is 25 years old and all physical exams and tests come back normal. This suggests that there are no organic or physical causes for his difficulty in maintaining an erection. Therefore, the most likely cause of his condition is psychogenic, meaning that it is related to psychological factors such as stress, anxiety, or relationship issues.

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  • 17. 

    The average gestational period is ___________

    • 37 weeks

    • 34 weeks

    • 40 weeks

    • 44 weeks

    Correct Answer
    A. 40 weeks
    Explanation
    The average gestational period is commonly considered to be around 40 weeks. This is based on the typical duration of a full-term pregnancy, which is approximately 9 months or 280 days. However, it is important to note that the actual length of a gestational period can vary and may be shorter or longer for individual pregnancies.

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  • 18. 

    A 25 year-old female presents with breast tenderness. She is currently breast feeding her 6 weeks old infant. On exam you note the breast to be engorged, red, and swollen more on the right side. The doctor recommends heat application and analgesics that are safe for the infant. She asks if she should continue breast fedding, your response should be:

    • No, it is dangerous for the infant.

    • No, it may be harmful to your health

    • Yes, it is recommended to continue breat feeding

    • Tell her to you only soy formula

    Correct Answer
    A. Yes, it is recommended to continue breat feeding
    Explanation
    Breast engorgement is a common condition in breastfeeding women and can cause pain and swelling. Continuing breastfeeding helps to relieve the engorgement and prevent complications like mastitis. Breast milk is the best source of nutrition for the infant and provides important antibodies for their immune system. Therefore, it is recommended to continue breastfeeding despite the breast tenderness.

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  • 19. 

    BpH is diagnosed by DRE (digital rectal exam) and PSH levels.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia) is not diagnosed solely by DRE (digital rectal exam) and PSH (Prostate-Specific Hormone) levels. While these tests can provide valuable information, the diagnosis of BPH requires a comprehensive evaluation that includes medical history, physical examination, symptom assessment, and additional tests such as urinalysis, prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test, and ultrasound. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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  • 20. 

    Breast cancer screening is done with self-breast exam, physical exam by the physician, and mammogram. 

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Breast cancer screening is indeed done through a combination of methods, including self-breast exams, physical exams by a physician, and mammograms. Self-breast exams involve individuals examining their own breasts for any abnormalities or changes. Physical exams by a physician involve a healthcare professional examining the breasts and surrounding areas for any signs of cancer. Mammograms are X-ray images of the breasts that can detect tumors or other abnormalities that may not be felt during a physical exam. Therefore, the statement "Breast cancer screening is done with self-breast exam, physical exam by the physician, and mammogram" is true.

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  • 21. 

    A pap smear should start at 17 years old or 2 years after first sexual intercourse.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because a pap smear should start at the age of 21, regardless of sexual activity. The recommended age for starting pap smears was changed in 2012 by the United States Preventive Services Task Force, which found that starting screening earlier did not provide significant benefits. Therefore, the correct answer is false as it incorrectly states the age at which pap smears should start.

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  • 22. 

    HPV has been highly associated with cervical cancer.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    HPV, or human papillomavirus, has been strongly linked to cervical cancer. Numerous studies have shown that certain strains of HPV are responsible for causing almost all cases of cervical cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to abnormal cell growth in the cervix, potentially progressing to cancer over time. Regular screening and vaccination against HPV are important preventive measures to reduce the risk of developing cervical cancer. Therefore, the statement "HPV has been highly associated with cervical cancer" is true.

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  • 23. 
    Select the multiple choice answer that correspond to the structure labeled A - ProProfs

    Select the multiple choice answer that correspond to the structure labeled A

    • Prostate

    • Vas deferens

    • Epididymis

    • Urethra

    Correct Answer
    A. Urethra
    Explanation
    The structure labeled A corresponds to the urethra. The urethra is a tube that carries urine from the bladder to be expelled from the body. It also carries semen during ejaculation in males.

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  • 24. 

    Using the picture in question 23, the structure labeled B is

    • Urethra

    • Epididymis

    • Vas deferens

    • Prostate

    Correct Answer
    A. Epididymis
  • 25. 

    Using the picture in question 23, the structure labeled C is

    • Urethra

    • Epididymis

    • Vas deferens

    • Prostate

    Correct Answer
    A. Prostate
  • 26. 

    Using the picture in question 23, the structure labeled D is

    • Vas deferens

    • Epididymis

    • Seminal vesical

    • Prostate

    Correct Answer
    A. Seminal vesical
  • 27. 
    Using the figure below, the structure labeled A is: - ProProfs

    Using the figure below, the structure labeled A is:

    • Vagina

    • Urethra

    • Cervix

    • Anal canal

    Correct Answer
    A. Urethra
  • 28. 

    Using the figure below, the structure labeled B is:

    • Vagina

    • Urethra

    • Uterus

    • Bladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Bladder
    Explanation
    The structure labeled B in the given figure is the bladder. The bladder is a hollow organ located in the lower abdomen that stores urine until it is ready to be expelled from the body.

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  • 29. 

    Using the figure below, the structure labeled C is:

    • Vagina

    • Urethra

    • Uterus

    • Bladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Vagina
    Explanation
    The structure labeled C in the figure is the vagina. The vagina is a muscular canal that connects the uterus to the external genitalia. It serves as the birth canal during childbirth and also allows for the passage of menstrual blood.

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  • 30. 

    Using the figure below, the structure labeled E is:

    • Vagina

    • Cervix

    • Uterus

    • Bladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Uterus
    Explanation
    The figure provided likely shows a diagram of the female reproductive system. Based on the labels given, the structure labeled E is the uterus. The uterus is a hollow, muscular organ where a fertilized egg implants and develops into a fetus during pregnancy. It is located between the bladder and the cervix, and its main function is to support the development of a growing baby.

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  • 31. 

    Using the figure below, the structure labeled D is:

    • Vagina

    • Cervix

    • Uterus

    • Bladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Cervix
    Explanation
    The structure labeled D in the figure is the cervix. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina. It acts as a passageway for menstrual blood to leave the body during menstruation and for sperm to enter the uterus during sexual intercourse. It also plays a crucial role during childbirth by dilating and allowing the baby to pass through the birth canal.

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  • 32. 

    Down syndrome can be confirmed with amniocentesis.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Amniocentesis is a prenatal test that involves extracting a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus to analyze the chromosomes of the fetus. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. Therefore, amniocentesis can be used to confirm the presence of Down syndrome by detecting the extra chromosome 21 in the fetal cells. Hence, the statement "Down syndrome can be confirmed with amniocentesis" is true.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 02, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Bismarkf

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