Anatomy And Physiology II

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  • 1/159 Questions

    The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called _____.

    • Venules
    • Arterioles
    • Muscular arteries
    • Elastic arteries
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Blood Physiology Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

Explore key aspects of blood physiology in this Anatomy and Physiology II quiz. Topics include blood pH, blood types, plasma proteins, and blood cells. This quiz enhances understanding of human blood components, crucial for students in medical and health-related fields.


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  • 2. 

    The major target organs of growth hormone are _____.

    • The liver

    • Bones and skeletal muscles

    • The adrenal glands

    • The blood vessels

    Correct Answer
    A. Bones and skeletal muscles
    Explanation
    The major target organs of growth hormone are bones and skeletal muscles. Growth hormone is responsible for stimulating the growth and development of these tissues. It promotes the growth of long bones in the body, leading to an increase in height during childhood and adolescence. Additionally, growth hormone enhances muscle protein synthesis, which helps in the development and maintenance of skeletal muscles.

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  • 3. 

    What is the average normal pH range of blood?

    • 7.35 - 7.45

    • 7.75 - 7.85

    • 4.65 - 4.75

    • 8.35 - 8.45

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.35 - 7.45
    Explanation
    The average normal pH range of blood is 7.35 - 7.45. This range is considered to be slightly alkaline, as it is slightly above the neutral pH of 7. This pH range is important for maintaining the proper functioning of various physiological processes in the body, including enzyme activity, oxygen transport, and cell function. Any significant deviation from this range can lead to acidosis or alkalosis, which can have detrimental effects on health.

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  • 4. 

    Which blood type is called the universal donor?

    • B

    • AB

    • O

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. O
    Explanation
    Blood type O is called the universal donor because it can be safely transfused to individuals of any blood type. This is because blood type O does not have A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, which means it does not trigger an immune response in recipients with different blood types. Therefore, blood type O can be used in emergencies when the recipient's blood type is unknown or when there is a shortage of compatible blood types.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

    • Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium

    • Surface tension of water

    • Surfactant

    • Cartilage rings

    Correct Answer
    A. Cartilage rings
    Explanation
    Cartilage rings maintain the patency (openness) of the trachea. The trachea is a tube-like structure that needs to remain open for the passage of air. The rings of cartilage provide structural support and prevent the trachea from collapsing or closing off. They form a semi-rigid structure that keeps the trachea open and allows for the smooth flow of air during breathing.

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  • 6. 

    An individual who is blood type AB negative can _____.

    • Donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O

    • Donate to all blood types in moderate amounts

    • Receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen

    • Receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O

    Correct Answer
    A. Receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
    Explanation
    An individual with blood type AB negative can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except for the blood type that contains the Rh antigen. This means that they can receive blood from individuals with blood types A, B, AB, and O, as long as the blood does not contain the Rh antigen.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is true about blood plasma?

    • It is the same as serum but without the clotting proteins.

    • It contains about 20 dissolved components.

    • The main protein component is hemoglobin.

    • It is about 90% water.

    Correct Answer
    A. It is about 90% water.
    Explanation
    Blood plasma is the liquid component of blood that remains after the blood cells have been removed. It is primarily composed of water, making up about 90% of its volume. This high water content allows plasma to serve as a medium for transporting various substances throughout the body, including nutrients, hormones, waste products, and antibodies. Additionally, plasma contains dissolved components such as electrolytes, proteins, glucose, and lipids, which are essential for maintaining the body's overall balance and functioning.

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  • 8. 

    What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

    • Liver

    • Pancreas

    • Kidney

    • Brain

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidney
    Explanation
    The kidney is responsible for regulating erythrocyte production in the body. It does so by producing a hormone called erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. This hormone is released in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. Therefore, the kidney plays a crucial role in maintaining the appropriate number of red blood cells in the body to ensure proper oxygenation of tissues and organs.

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  • 9. 

    The tricuspid valve is closed _____.

    • While the atrium is contracting

    • By the movement of blood from atrium to ventricle

    • When the ventricle is in systole

    • While the ventricle is in diastole

    Correct Answer
    A. When the ventricle is in systole
    Explanation
    The tricuspid valve is closed when the ventricle is in systole. During systole, the ventricles contract to pump blood out of the heart and into the arteries. The closure of the tricuspid valve prevents the backflow of blood from the ventricle into the atrium, ensuring that blood flows in the correct direction through the heart.

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  • 10. 

    Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes _____.

    • A rise in blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

    • No change in blood pressure but a slower heart rate

    • A lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

    • No change in blood pressure but a change in respiration

    Correct Answer
    A. A lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
    Explanation
    Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output. When there is a significant loss of blood, the volume of blood circulating in the body decreases. This leads to a decrease in the amount of blood the heart pumps out with each beat, resulting in a decrease in cardiac output. Since blood pressure is determined by the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels, a decrease in cardiac output leads to a lowering of blood pressure.

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  • 11. 

    The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called _____.

    • Hepatic portal circulation

    • Cerebral circulation

    • Coronary circulation

    • Pulmonary circulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatic portal circulation
    Explanation
    The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called hepatic portal circulation. This system allows blood containing nutrients and toxins from the digestive organs to be transported directly to the liver for processing and detoxification before it enters the general circulation. The hepatic portal vein carries this blood from the intestines, stomach, and spleen to the liver, where it is filtered and processed before being distributed to the rest of the body. This specialized circulation ensures that the liver can efficiently regulate and metabolize substances absorbed from the digestive system.

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  • 12. 

    The distal portion of the small intestine contains clumps of lymph follicles called _____.

    • Villi

    • Islets of Langerhans

    • Peyer's patches

    • Rugae

    Correct Answer
    A. Peyer's patches
    Explanation
    Peyer's patches are clumps of lymph follicles found in the distal portion of the small intestine. These patches play a crucial role in the immune system by monitoring the intestinal contents for harmful pathogens and initiating an immune response if necessary. They contain specialized immune cells, such as T cells and B cells, which help in the defense against infections and maintain the balance of gut microbiota. Peyer's patches also produce antibodies to protect the body from invading pathogens.

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  • 13. 

    Lymph leaves a lymph node via _____.

    • The cortical sinus

    • The subscapular sinus

    • Efferent lymphatic vessels

    • Afferent lymphatic vessels

    Correct Answer
    A. Efferent lymphatic vessels
    Explanation
    Lymph leaves a lymph node via efferent lymphatic vessels. These vessels are responsible for carrying lymph away from the lymph node and distributing it throughout the body. The efferent lymphatic vessels connect to the lymphatic system and allow lymph, which contains immune cells and waste products, to be transported to other lymph nodes or back into the bloodstream. This helps to maintain fluid balance and immune function in the body.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?

    • Water

    • Plasma proteins

    • Ions

    • Red blood cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Red blood cells
    Explanation
    Red blood cells are not a normal component of lymph. Lymph is a clear fluid that is derived from interstitial fluid and contains water, plasma proteins, and ions. It is responsible for transporting immune cells and removing waste products from tissues. Red blood cells, on the other hand, are found in the bloodstream and are responsible for carrying oxygen to tissues and removing carbon dioxide. Therefore, red blood cells are not typically present in lymph.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is not a type of T cell?

    • Helper

    • Cytotoxic

    • Antigenic

    • Regulatory

    Correct Answer
    A. Antigenic
    Explanation
    Antigenic is not a type of T cell. T cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. The different types of T cells include helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, and regulatory T cells. Helper T cells assist in activating other immune cells, cytotoxic T cells destroy infected cells, and regulatory T cells help maintain immune system balance. Antigenic, on the other hand, refers to substances that can stimulate an immune response, but it is not a specific type of T cell.

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  • 16. 

    The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by _____.

    • Vasodilation

    • Production of complement and interferon

    • Phagocyte mobilization

    • Vasoconstriction

    Correct Answer
    A. Vasodilation
    Explanation
    The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by vasodilation. When there is inflammation, the blood vessels in the affected area dilate, allowing more blood to flow to the area. This increased blood flow leads to redness and heat as a result of increased metabolic activity and accumulation of inflammatory mediators.

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  • 17. 

    The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the _____.

    • Regulatory cells

    • Cytotoxic cells

    • Helper cells

    • Plasma cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Cytotoxic cells
    Explanation
    Cytotoxic cells are the only T cells that have the ability to directly attack and kill other cells. These cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response by identifying and destroying infected or abnormal cells in the body. They do this by releasing toxic substances that induce cell death in their target cells. Regulatory cells help to control and regulate the immune response, helper cells assist in coordinating the immune response, and plasma cells produce antibodies to fight against foreign substances.

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  • 18. 

    Respiratory control centers are located in the _____.

    • Midbrain and medulla

    • Pons and midbrain

    • Medulla and pons

    • Upper spinal cord and medulla

    Correct Answer
    A. Medulla and pons
    Explanation
    The respiratory control centers in the brain are responsible for regulating breathing. These centers are located in the medulla and pons. The medulla controls the basic rhythm of breathing, while the pons helps to regulate the rate and depth of breathing. Together, these two regions of the brain work to ensure that the body receives enough oxygen and removes carbon dioxide effectively.

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  • 19. 

    The second-messenger mechanism or hormone action operates by _____.

    • Not responding to a feedback mechanism

    • Synthesizing more of the hormone than is actually needed

    • Binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

    • Increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ

    Correct Answer
    A. Binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
    Explanation
    The second-messenger mechanism or hormone action operates by binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP. This means that when a hormone binds to its specific receptor on the cell surface, it activates a G protein, which in turn activates the production of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). This second messenger molecule then triggers a cascade of intracellular events, leading to the desired physiological response in the target organ.

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  • 20. 

    The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called _____.

    • Absorption

    • Ingestion

    • Secretion

    • Digestion

    Correct Answer
    A. Digestion
    Explanation
    Digestion refers to the chemical and mechanical processes that break down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. It involves the breakdown of complex carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into simpler forms that can be easily absorbed and used for energy. This process occurs in the digestive system, which includes organs such as the stomach, small intestine, and pancreas. Through digestion, nutrients are extracted from food and made available for the body to use for various physiological processes.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?

    • Rennin

    • Tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells

    • Replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells

    • Thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus

    Correct Answer
    A. Rennin
    Explanation
    Rennin is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier. The stomach mucosal barrier is primarily created by the tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells, which form a physical barrier to prevent the passage of harmful substances. Additionally, the replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells helps to maintain the integrity of the barrier. The thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus also plays a crucial role in protecting the stomach lining from the acidic environment. However, rennin is an enzyme found in the stomach that helps in the digestion of milk proteins, but it does not contribute to the creation of the stomach mucosal barrier.

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  • 22. 

    Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

    • B12

    • K

    • C

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. B12
    Explanation
    Vitamin B12 requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of B12 in the small intestine. Without intrinsic factor, B12 cannot be properly absorbed and utilized by the body.

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  • 23. 

    The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the _____.

    • Bile canaliculus

    • Pancreatic acini

    • Portal vein

    • Hepatopancreatic ampulla

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatopancreatic ampulla
    Explanation
    The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla. This structure is located at the point where the common bile duct and the main pancreatic duct come together. It acts as a storage and mixing point for the two fluids before they are released into the small intestine for digestion.

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  • 24. 

    The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?

    • This type of food would cause secretion of gastrin to cease, causing digestive upset.

    • The acid secretions from the stomach would be sufficient to digest this food.

    • Severe indigestion would occur, cause by the lack of sufficient digestive enzymes.

    • Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.

    Correct Answer
    A. Bile would be released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum.
    Explanation
    When a meal high in fat content is ingested, bile is released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum. Bile helps break down the fat into smaller droplets, increasing the surface area for enzymes to act upon and facilitating digestion and absorption. This process is necessary because fat is not easily soluble in water-based digestive fluids. The other options do not explain the specific role of bile in fat digestion and are therefore incorrect.

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  • 25. 

    Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged?

    • Lipids

    • Starches

    • Proteins

    • Carbohydrates

    Correct Answer
    A. Lipids
    Explanation
    If the liver were severely damaged, the digestion of lipids would be affected the most. The liver plays a crucial role in lipid digestion by producing bile, which helps break down fats into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. Without a properly functioning liver, the production of bile would be impaired, leading to difficulties in digesting and absorbing lipids. Conversely, the digestion of starches, proteins, and carbohydrates can still occur to some extent in other parts of the digestive system, such as the mouth, stomach, and small intestine.

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  • 26. 

    The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for _____.

    • The secretion of drugs

    • The secretion of acids and ammonia

    • Regulation the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure

    • Reabsorption of organic molecules, vitamins, and water

    Correct Answer
    A. Regulation the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure
    Explanation
    The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for regulating the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure. It is a specialized structure located in the kidney that consists of juxtaglomerular cells and macula densa cells. The juxtaglomerular cells release the enzyme renin, which plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. The macula densa cells monitor the concentration of sodium chloride in the filtrate and signal the juxtaglomerular cells to release renin when necessary. This process helps to maintain the balance of fluid and electrolytes in the body and regulate blood pressure.

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  • 27. 

    The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is _____.

    • Osmosis

    • Active transport

    • Solvent drag

    • Cotransport with sodium ions

    Correct Answer
    A. Osmosis
    Explanation
    Water reabsorption by the renal tubules occurs through the process of osmosis. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration, across a semipermeable membrane. In the renal tubules, water is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream by osmosis, as solutes such as sodium and other substances are actively transported out of the tubules, creating a concentration gradient that drives water reabsorption. Therefore, osmosis is the correct mechanism for water reabsorption in the renal tubules.

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  • 28. 

    Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it _____.

    • Inhibits the release of ADH

    • Increases the secretion of ADH

    • Increases the rate of glomerular filtration

    • Is not reabsorbed by tubule cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Inhibits the release of ADH
    Explanation
    Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it inhibits the release of ADH. ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, is responsible for regulating the reabsorption of water by the kidneys. When alcohol is consumed, it suppresses the release of ADH, leading to increased urine production and fluid loss from the body. This is why alcohol is known to have a dehydrating effect.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

    • 140/90 in a 70-year old woman

    • 110/60 in a 20-year old woman

    • 120/80 in a 30-year old man

    • 170/96 in a 50-year old man

    Correct Answer
    A. 170/96 in a 50-year old man
    Explanation
    A blood pressure reading of 170/96 in a 50-year old man would be indicative of hypertension. Hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure reading of 130/80 or higher. In this case, both the systolic pressure (170) and the diastolic pressure (96) are above the threshold for hypertension. Additionally, the age and gender of the individual are also taken into consideration when determining if the blood pressure reading is indicative of hypertension.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elementes of blood?

    • Pluripotent stem cell (hemocytoblast)

    • Polymorphonuclear cell

    • Megakaryocyte

    • NK cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Pluripotent stem cell (hemocytoblast)
    Explanation
    The pluripotent stem cell, also known as a hemocytoblast, is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood. This type of stem cell has the ability to differentiate into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It serves as the starting point for the development of these cells, giving rise to the different cell types that make up the blood. The other choices listed, such as polymorphonuclear cell, megakaryocyte, and NK cell, are all specific types of blood cells that are derived from the pluripotent stem cell.

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  • 31. 

    The most abundant plasma protein is ____.

    • Clotting protein

    • Globulin

    • Bile

    • Albumin

    Correct Answer
    A. Albumin
    Explanation
    Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein. It is produced by the liver and plays a crucial role in maintaining the osmotic pressure of the blood, transporting various substances such as hormones and drugs, and regulating fluid balance. It also acts as a carrier protein for many other molecules. Although clotting proteins, globulin, and bile are important components of plasma, they are not as abundant as albumin.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?

    • Bundle of His

    • AV valve

    • AV node

    • SA node

    Correct Answer
    A. AV valve
    Explanation
    The AV valve is not part of the conduction system of the heart. The conduction system consists of specialized cells that generate and transmit electrical signals to regulate the heartbeat. The SA node (sinoatrial node) is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses, which then travel to the AV node (atrioventricular node) and then to the bundle of His and its branches. The AV valve, also known as the atrioventricular valve, is responsible for preventing the backflow of blood between the atria and ventricles during the contraction of the heart. It is not involved in the conduction of electrical signals.

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  • 33. 

    Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

    • The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle.

    • Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow of blood into the heart.

    • The AV valves are supported by chordae tendinae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.

    • The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.

    Correct Answer
    A. The AV valves are supported by chordae tendinae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.
    Explanation
    The AV valves, also known as the atrioventricular valves, are supported by chordae tendinae, which are fibrous cords that attach the valves to the papillary muscles in the ventricles. This support prevents the valves from being pushed back into the atria during ventricular contraction, thus preventing regurgitation of blood. Regurgitation occurs when blood flows backward through a valve, in this case from the ventricles back into the atria. The chordae tendinae ensure that the AV valves close properly and prevent this backward flow of blood, maintaining the one-way flow of blood through the heart.

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  • 34. 

    The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to _____.

    • Pump blood with greater pressure

    • Accommodate a greater volume of blood

    • Pump blood through a smaller valve

    • Expand the thoracic cage during diastole

    Correct Answer
    A. Pump blood with greater pressure
    Explanation
    The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to pump blood with greater pressure. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. The left ventricle needs to generate more force to push blood through the systemic circulation, which is why its wall is thicker. This allows for the efficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the body's tissues and organs.

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  • 35. 

    Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the _____.

    • Right ventricle

    • Left ventricle

    • Right atrium

    • Left atrium

    Correct Answer
    A. Left atrium
    Explanation
    Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the left atrium. The pulmonary veins are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. After the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the lungs, the oxygen-rich blood is transported through the pulmonary veins and enters the left atrium. From there, it will be pumped into the left ventricle and then to the rest of the body.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure?

    • Nitric acid

    • Angiotensin II

    • ADH

    • Atrial natriuretic peptide

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitric acid
    Explanation
    Nitric acid is not involved in the regulation of blood pressure. It is a strong acid used in various industrial processes and has no direct role in the physiological mechanisms that control blood pressure. On the other hand, angiotensin II, ADH (antidiuretic hormone), and atrial natriuretic peptide are all important regulators of blood pressure. Angiotensin II constricts blood vessels, ADH promotes water reabsorption by the kidneys, and atrial natriuretic peptide promotes the excretion of sodium and water, leading to a decrease in blood pressure.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels?

    • The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.

    • They contain a large quantity of elastic tissue.

    • Their prime function is the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells.

    • They distribute blood to various parts of the body.

    Correct Answer
    A. The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.
    Explanation
    Arterioles are known as resistance vessels because the contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter. This ability to constrict or dilate allows arterioles to regulate blood flow and control the resistance to blood flow in the circulatory system. When the smooth muscle contracts, the arterioles narrow, increasing resistance and reducing blood flow. Conversely, when the smooth muscle relaxes, the arterioles widen, decreasing resistance and increasing blood flow. This mechanism helps maintain blood pressure and regulate blood flow to different tissues and organs as needed.

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  • 38. 

    A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except _____.

    • Increased work of the left ventricle

    • Increased damage to the blood vessel endothelium

    • Increased incidence of coronary artery disease

    • Decreased size of the heart muscle

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased size of the heart muscle
    Explanation
    Essential hypertension is a condition characterized by high blood pressure that is not caused by any underlying medical condition. In this condition, the heart has to work harder to pump blood against the increased pressure in the blood vessels, leading to increased work of the left ventricle. The increased pressure can also cause damage to the blood vessel endothelium, increasing the risk of cardiovascular diseases such as coronary artery disease. However, it does not lead to a decreased size of the heart muscle.

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  • 39. 

    The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

    • An increase in oxygen level

    • Changes in arterial pressure

    • A decrease in carbon dioxide

    • A decrease in oxygen levels

    Correct Answer
    A. Changes in arterial pressure
    Explanation
    The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to changes in arterial pressure. These receptors detect variations in blood pressure and send signals to the brain to regulate it. When arterial pressure increases, the baroreceptors will detect this change and initiate mechanisms to lower it, such as vasodilation or reducing heart rate. Similarly, if arterial pressure decreases, the baroreceptors will signal for vasoconstriction or an increase in heart rate to raise blood pressure. Therefore, changes in arterial pressure are the primary stimulus to which the baroreceptors respond.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls?

    • Hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

    • Hydrostatic pressure only

    • Plasma and formed element concentration

    • Blood volume and viscosity

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrostatic and osmotic pressure
    Explanation
    The balance between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls is determined by both hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure. Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted by the fluid against the capillary walls, while osmotic pressure is the pressure exerted by solutes in the fluid. These two pressures work together to regulate the movement of fluid across the capillary walls, ensuring that the amount of fluid entering and leaving the capillaries is balanced.

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  • 41. 

    Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?

    • Macrophages

    • Monocytes

    • Lymphocytes

    • Basophils

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphocytes
    Explanation
    Thymic hormones play a crucial role in the development of lymphocytes, specifically T cells, in the thymus gland. These hormones help in the maturation and differentiation of lymphocytes, enabling them to become immunocompetent. Therefore, lymphocytes are the cells that become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones.

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  • 42. 

    Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on _____.

    • The pumping action of the heart

    • Two-way valves

    • Skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement

    • Contraction of the vessels themselves

    Correct Answer
    A. Skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement
    Explanation
    Lymph and venous blood flow are both heavily dependent on skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement. Skeletal muscle contractions help to push lymph and venous blood through the vessels, while differences in thoracic pressures created by breathing movements assist in the movement of these fluids.

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  • 43. 

    The lymphatic capillaries are _____.

    • More permeable than blood capillaries

    • As permeable as blood capillaries

    • Less permeable than blood capillaries

    • Completely permeable

    Correct Answer
    A. More permeable than blood capillaries
    Explanation
    Lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries because they have larger gaps between their endothelial cells. This allows for the easy entry of larger molecules, such as proteins and fats, into the lymphatic system. In contrast, blood capillaries have tighter junctions between their endothelial cells, making them less permeable to these larger molecules. The increased permeability of lymphatic capillaries is essential for the transport of lymph, which carries waste products and immune cells away from tissues and towards lymph nodes for filtration and immune response.

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  • 44. 

    The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not:

    • Produce hormones

    • Have lymphocytes

    • Have a cortex and medulla

    • Directly fight antigens

    Correct Answer
    A. Directly fight antigens
    Explanation
    The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not directly fight antigens. While it does produce hormones and have lymphocytes, it does not have a cortex and medulla like other lymphoid organs such as the lymph nodes and spleen. The thymus plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are responsible for directly fighting antigens in the immune response.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?

    • House and provide a proliferation site for lymphocytes

    • House and provide a proliferation site for neutrophils

    • Furnish an idea surveillance vantage point for lymphocytes and macrophages

    • A and C

    Correct Answer
    A. A and C
    Explanation
    Lymphoid tissue functions to house and provide a proliferation site for lymphocytes, which are important cells of the immune system. It also furnishes an ideal surveillance vantage point for lymphocytes and macrophages, allowing them to monitor and respond to potential threats in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is A and C.

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  • 46. 

    The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called _____.

    • Diapedesis

    • Phagocytosis

    • Margination

    • Chemotaxis

    Correct Answer
    A. Chemotaxis
    Explanation
    Chemotaxis is the process by which neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site. In this process, chemical signals are released at the site of inflammation, which act as a gradient for the white blood cells to follow. These cells move towards the higher concentration of the chemical signals, allowing them to migrate to the site of inflammation and initiate the immune response. Diapedesis refers to the process of white blood cells squeezing through blood vessel walls, phagocytosis is the engulfing and destruction of pathogens by white blood cells, and margination refers to the adherence of white blood cells to the blood vessel walls.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is characterstic of complete antigens?

    • Contain many repeating chemical units

    • Reactivity with an antibody

    • Small molecules

    • Inhibit production of antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Reactivity with an antibody
    Explanation
    Reactivity with an antibody is characteristic of complete antigens because complete antigens are able to bind to specific antibodies, triggering an immune response. This interaction between the antigen and antibody is essential for the body to recognize and eliminate foreign substances. The other options are not characteristic of complete antigens. Antigens that contain many repeating chemical units are called polymers, not complete antigens. Small molecules are typically incomplete antigens and do not elicit a strong immune response. Additionally, antigens do not inhibit the production of antibodies, but rather stimulate their production.

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  • 48. 

    B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by _____.

    • Producing progeny cells that include plasma and memory cells

    • Reducing its size

    • Forming a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell

    • Immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Producing progeny cells that include plasma and memory cells
    Explanation
    When B cells are initially exposed to an antigen, they respond by producing progeny cells that include plasma and memory cells. Plasma cells are responsible for the immediate production and secretion of antigen-specific antibodies, while memory cells are long-lived cells that "remember" the antigen and can mount a faster and stronger immune response upon re-exposure to the same antigen. This response allows the body to effectively eliminate the antigen and provide long-term immunity against future infections.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

    • Type II diabetes

    • Glomerulonephritis

    • Multiple sclerosis

    • Systemic lupus erythematosus

    Correct Answer
    A. Type II diabetes
    Explanation
    Type II diabetes is not an autoimmune disease. It is a metabolic disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels due to the body's inability to properly use insulin. Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body. While type I diabetes is an autoimmune disease, type II diabetes is primarily caused by lifestyle factors such as obesity and lack of physical activity.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 14, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Jennifer Visser
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