Anatomy And Physiology II

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Jennifer, a Resident Nurse with a Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN), brings her expertise and passion for healthcare to provide top-notch patient care and support.
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Questions: 159 | Attempts: 277

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Anatomy And Physiology Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the average normal pH range of blood?

    • A.

      7.35 - 7.45

    • B.

      7.75 - 7.85

    • C.

      4.65 - 4.75

    • D.

      8.35 - 8.45

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.35 - 7.45
    Explanation
    The average normal pH range of blood is 7.35 - 7.45. This range is considered to be slightly alkaline, as it is slightly above the neutral pH of 7. This pH range is important for maintaining the proper functioning of various physiological processes in the body, including enzyme activity, oxygen transport, and cell function. Any significant deviation from this range can lead to acidosis or alkalosis, which can have detrimental effects on health.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elementes of blood?

    • A.

      Pluripotent stem cell (hemocytoblast)

    • B.

      Polymorphonuclear cell

    • C.

      Megakaryocyte

    • D.

      NK cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Pluripotent stem cell (hemocytoblast)
    Explanation
    The pluripotent stem cell, also known as a hemocytoblast, is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood. This type of stem cell has the ability to differentiate into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It serves as the starting point for the development of these cells, giving rise to the different cell types that make up the blood. The other choices listed, such as polymorphonuclear cell, megakaryocyte, and NK cell, are all specific types of blood cells that are derived from the pluripotent stem cell.

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  • 3. 

    Which blood type is called the universal donor?

    • A.

      B

    • B.

      AB

    • C.

      O

    • D.

      A

    Correct Answer
    C. O
    Explanation
    Blood type O is called the universal donor because it can be safely transfused to individuals of any blood type. This is because blood type O does not have A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, which means it does not trigger an immune response in recipients with different blood types. Therefore, blood type O can be used in emergencies when the recipient's blood type is unknown or when there is a shortage of compatible blood types.

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  • 4. 

    The most abundant plasma protein is ____.

    • A.

      Clotting protein

    • B.

      Globulin

    • C.

      Bile

    • D.

      Albumin

    Correct Answer
    D. Albumin
    Explanation
    Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein. It is produced by the liver and plays a crucial role in maintaining the osmotic pressure of the blood, transporting various substances such as hormones and drugs, and regulating fluid balance. It also acts as a carrier protein for many other molecules. Although clotting proteins, globulin, and bile are important components of plasma, they are not as abundant as albumin.

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  • 5. 

    An individual who is blood type AB negative can _____.

    • A.

      Donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O

    • B.

      Donate to all blood types in moderate amounts

    • C.

      Receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen

    • D.

      Receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O

    Correct Answer
    C. Receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
    Explanation
    An individual with blood type AB negative can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except for the blood type that contains the Rh antigen. This means that they can receive blood from individuals with blood types A, B, AB, and O, as long as the blood does not contain the Rh antigen.

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  • 6. 

    No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in _____.

    • A.

      Eosinophils

    • B.

      Basophils

    • C.

      Monocytes

    • D.

      Neutrophils

    Correct Answer
    C. Monocytes
    Explanation
    Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that do not contain visible cytoplasmic granules. Eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils, on the other hand, do contain visible cytoplasmic granules.

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  • 7. 

    Thromboembolic disorders _____.

    • A.

      Result in uncontrolled bleeding

    • B.

      Include thrombus formation, a clot in a broken blood vessel

    • C.

      Are caused by vitamin K deficiency

    • D.

      Include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system

    Correct Answer
    D. Include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system
    Explanation
    Thromboembolic disorders refer to conditions where a blood clot, known as an embolus, forms within the circulatory system and can potentially move to different parts of the body. This can lead to blockages in blood vessels, causing various complications depending on the location of the clot. Thrombus formation, on the other hand, refers to the formation of a clot in a broken blood vessel, which is a different condition. Uncontrolled bleeding is not associated with thromboembolic disorders. Vitamin K deficiency is not a direct cause of thromboembolic disorders.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is true about blood plasma?

    • A.

      It is the same as serum but without the clotting proteins.

    • B.

      It contains about 20 dissolved components.

    • C.

      The main protein component is hemoglobin.

    • D.

      It is about 90% water.

    Correct Answer
    D. It is about 90% water.
    Explanation
    Blood plasma is the liquid component of blood that remains after the blood cells have been removed. It is primarily composed of water, making up about 90% of its volume. This high water content allows plasma to serve as a medium for transporting various substances throughout the body, including nutrients, hormones, waste products, and antibodies. Additionally, plasma contains dissolved components such as electrolytes, proteins, glucose, and lipids, which are essential for maintaining the body's overall balance and functioning.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?

    • A.

      Fibrinolysis

    • B.

      Coagulation

    • C.

      Platelet plug formation

    • D.

      Vascular spasm

    Correct Answer
    A. Fibrinolysis
    Explanation
    Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down fibrin, which is a protein involved in blood clot formation. It is not a phase of hemostasis because it occurs after the clot has formed and serves to dissolve the clot once it is no longer needed. The other three options, coagulation, platelet plug formation, and vascular spasm, are all phases of hemostasis that occur to stop bleeding and promote clot formation.

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  • 10. 

    Which sequence is correct for the following events? 1. fibrinogen --> fibrin 2. clot retraction 3. formation of thromboplastin 4. prothrombin --> thrombin

    • A.

      3,4,1,2

    • B.

      3,2,1,4

    • C.

      1,2,3,4

    • D.

      4,3,2,1

    Correct Answer
    A. 3,4,1,2
    Explanation
    The correct sequence for the given events is 3,4,1,2. Thromboplastin is formed first, followed by the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin. Thrombin then acts on fibrinogen, converting it into fibrin. Finally, clot retraction occurs.

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  • 11. 

    Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?

    • A.

      There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.

    • B.

      His blood lacks Rh factor.

    • C.

      Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells.

    • D.

      He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive.

    Correct Answer
    A. There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
    Explanation
    This means that Fred's blood does not have any antibodies against A, B, or Rh antigens in the plasma. This is significant because if there were antibodies present, it would mean that Fred's blood would react with and potentially attack red blood cells that have these antigens on their surface. However, since there are no antibodies, Fred's blood is considered compatible with all blood types and can receive blood from donors with any blood type.

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  • 12. 

    All of the following conditions impair coagulation except _____.

    • A.

      Severe hypocalcemia

    • B.

      Vascular spasm

    • C.

      Vitamin K deficiency

    • D.

      Liver disease

    Correct Answer
    B. Vascular spasm
    Explanation
    Vascular spasm is not a condition that directly impairs coagulation. Coagulation refers to the process of blood clotting, and conditions like severe hypocalcemia, vitamin K deficiency, and liver disease can all affect the body's ability to form blood clots. However, vascular spasm is a temporary constriction of blood vessels in response to injury, which helps reduce blood loss. While it can indirectly affect coagulation by reducing blood flow to the injured area, it does not impair the actual clotting process itself.

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  • 13. 

    What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

    • A.

      Liver

    • B.

      Pancreas

    • C.

      Kidney

    • D.

      Brain

    Correct Answer
    C. Kidney
    Explanation
    The kidney is responsible for regulating erythrocyte production in the body. It does so by producing a hormone called erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. This hormone is released in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. Therefore, the kidney plays a crucial role in maintaining the appropriate number of red blood cells in the body to ensure proper oxygenation of tissues and organs.

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  • 14. 

    Select the correct statement regarding blood cell formation.

    • A.

      Before the seventh month of fetal development, yellow marrow is the main site of blood cell formation.

    • B.

      Red marrow is the main site of blood cell formation throughout adult life.

    • C.

      The main sites of blood cell production in adults are the spleen and liver.

    • D.

      Yellow marrow is the main site of leukocyte formation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Red marrow is the main site of blood cell formation throughout adult life.
    Explanation
    Red marrow is the main site of blood cell formation throughout adult life. This is because red marrow contains hematopoietic stem cells, which are responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. These stem cells differentiate into the various types of blood cells and continuously replenish the blood cell population in adults. Yellow marrow, on the other hand, primarily consists of fat cells and serves as a storage site for fats. While the spleen and liver play important roles in blood cell function and recycling, they are not the main sites of blood cell production in adults.

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  • 15. 

    Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the follow events?

    • A.

      Opening and closing of the heart valves

    • B.

      Friction of blood against the chamber walls

    • C.

      Excitation of the SA node

    • D.

      Closure of the heart valves

    Correct Answer
    D. Closure of the heart valves
    Explanation
    The normal heart sounds are caused by the closure of the heart valves. When the heart valves close, they create a sound known as the "lub-dub" sound. The closure of the valves prevents the backflow of blood and ensures the proper flow of blood through the heart chambers and into the arteries. This sound can be heard using a stethoscope and is an important diagnostic tool for assessing the health and function of the heart.

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  • 16. 

    Norepinephrine acts on the heart by _____.

    • A.

      Causing a decrease in stroke volume

    • B.

      Blocking the action of calcium

    • C.

      Causing threshold to be reached more quickly

    • D.

      Decreasing heart contractility

    Correct Answer
    C. Causing threshold to be reached more quickly
    Explanation
    Norepinephrine acts on the heart by causing the threshold to be reached more quickly. This means that it helps the heart reach the point at which it can generate an action potential more rapidly. This can lead to an increased heart rate and stronger contractions, ultimately increasing cardiac output.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?

    • A.

      Bundle of His

    • B.

      AV valve

    • C.

      AV node

    • D.

      SA node

    Correct Answer
    B. AV valve
    Explanation
    The AV valve is not part of the conduction system of the heart. The conduction system consists of specialized cells that generate and transmit electrical signals to regulate the heartbeat. The SA node (sinoatrial node) is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses, which then travel to the AV node (atrioventricular node) and then to the bundle of His and its branches. The AV valve, also known as the atrioventricular valve, is responsible for preventing the backflow of blood between the atria and ventricles during the contraction of the heart. It is not involved in the conduction of electrical signals.

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  • 18. 

    Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

    • A.

      The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle.

    • B.

      Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow of blood into the heart.

    • C.

      The AV valves are supported by chordae tendinae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.

    • D.

      The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.

    Correct Answer
    C. The AV valves are supported by chordae tendinae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.
    Explanation
    The AV valves, also known as the atrioventricular valves, are supported by chordae tendinae, which are fibrous cords that attach the valves to the papillary muscles in the ventricles. This support prevents the valves from being pushed back into the atria during ventricular contraction, thus preventing regurgitation of blood. Regurgitation occurs when blood flows backward through a valve, in this case from the ventricles back into the atria. The chordae tendinae ensure that the AV valves close properly and prevent this backward flow of blood, maintaining the one-way flow of blood through the heart.

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  • 19. 

    Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle _____.

    • A.

      Has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium.

    • B.

      Lacks striations

    • C.

      Cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells

    • D.

      Has more nuclei per cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium.
    Explanation
    Cardiac muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that it has gap junctions. These gap junctions allow for direct electrical connections between cells, enabling them to function as a syncytium. This means that the cells can contract together as a single unit, allowing for coordinated and efficient pumping of blood. This is a unique feature of cardiac muscle and is essential for its role in the heart.

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  • 20. 

    Select the correct statement about cardiac output.

    • A.

      Stroke volume increases if end diastolic volume decreases.

    • B.

      Decreased venous return will result in increased end diastolic volume.

    • C.

      If a semilunar valve were partially obstructed, the end systolic volume in the affected ventricle would be decreased.

    • D.

      A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.

    Correct Answer
    D. A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction.
    Explanation
    A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction. When the heart rate is slow, there is more time for the ventricles to fill with blood during diastole, resulting in an increased end diastolic volume. This increased volume leads to a larger stroke volume, which is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricles with each heartbeat. Additionally, a slow heart rate allows for a longer duration of ventricular contraction, leading to a stronger force of contraction and therefore increased cardiac output.

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  • 21. 

    Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.

    • A.

      The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.

    • B.

      The influx of potassium ions from extracellular sources is the initiating event in cardiac muscle contraction.

    • C.

      The refractory period in skeletal muscle is much longer than that in cardiac muscle.

    • D.

      Each cardiac muscle cell is innervated by a sympathetic nerve ending so that the nervous system can increase heart rate.

    Correct Answer
    A. The entire heart contracts as a unit or it does not contract at all.
    Explanation
    Each cardiac muscle cell is connected to neighboring cells through intercalated discs, allowing for synchronized contraction of the entire heart. This ensures that the heart functions as a coordinated unit, pumping blood efficiently. If the cells do not contract together, it can lead to irregular heart rhythms or ineffective pumping.

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  • 22. 

    The tricuspid valve is closed _____.

    • A.

      While the atrium is contracting

    • B.

      By the movement of blood from atrium to ventricle

    • C.

      When the ventricle is in systole

    • D.

      While the ventricle is in diastole

    Correct Answer
    C. When the ventricle is in systole
    Explanation
    The tricuspid valve is closed when the ventricle is in systole. During systole, the ventricles contract to pump blood out of the heart and into the arteries. The closure of the tricuspid valve prevents the backflow of blood from the ventricle into the atrium, ensuring that blood flows in the correct direction through the heart.

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  • 23. 

    If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that _____.

    • A.

      The heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract

    • B.

      Parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate

    • C.

      The AV node would become the pacemaker of the heart

    • D.

      The heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute

    Correct Answer
    D. The heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
    Explanation
    If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the parasympathetic stimulation would decrease. The vagal nerves are responsible for transmitting parasympathetic signals to the heart, which help to slow down the heart rate. Therefore, if these nerves were cut, the parasympathetic stimulation would decrease, leading to an increase in heart rate. This increase is estimated to be around 25 beats per minute.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?

    • A.

      Ventricles are in systole.

    • B.

      AV valves are closed.

    • C.

      Ventricles are in diastole.

    • D.

      Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ventricles are in diastole.
    Explanation
    When the semilunar valves are open, it means that blood is being pumped out of the ventricles and into the pulmonary arteries and the aorta. This occurs during ventricular systole, which is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle. During systole, the AV valves are closed to prevent backflow of blood into the atria. On the other hand, ventricular diastole is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle, during which the ventricles are filling with blood from the atria. Therefore, the event that does not occur when the semilunar valves are open is that the ventricles are in diastole.

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  • 25. 

    Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes _____.

    • A.

      A rise in blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

    • B.

      No change in blood pressure but a slower heart rate

    • C.

      A lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

    • D.

      No change in blood pressure but a change in respiration

    Correct Answer
    C. A lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
    Explanation
    Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output. When there is a significant loss of blood, the volume of blood circulating in the body decreases. This leads to a decrease in the amount of blood the heart pumps out with each beat, resulting in a decrease in cardiac output. Since blood pressure is determined by the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels, a decrease in cardiac output leads to a lowering of blood pressure.

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  • 26. 

    The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to _____.

    • A.

      Pump blood with greater pressure

    • B.

      Accommodate a greater volume of blood

    • C.

      Pump blood through a smaller valve

    • D.

      Expand the thoracic cage during diastole

    Correct Answer
    A. Pump blood with greater pressure
    Explanation
    The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to pump blood with greater pressure. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. The left ventricle needs to generate more force to push blood through the systemic circulation, which is why its wall is thicker. This allows for the efficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the body's tissues and organs.

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  • 27. 

    Damage to the _____ is referred to as heart block.

    • A.

      AV valves

    • B.

      AV bundle

    • C.

      SA node

    • D.

      AV node

    Correct Answer
    D. AV node
    Explanation
    Heart block refers to a condition where there is a disruption or delay in the electrical signals that regulate the heartbeat. The AV node, or atrioventricular node, is an important part of the electrical conduction system of the heart. It acts as a relay station, transmitting electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles. Damage to the AV node can result in heart block, as it can disrupt the normal flow of electrical signals and cause a delay or complete blockage in the transmission of these signals.

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  • 28. 

    The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates _____.

    • A.

      Atrial repolarization

    • B.

      Atrial depolarization

    • C.

      Ventricular depolarization

    • D.

      Ventricular repolarization

    Correct Answer
    A. Atrial repolarization
    Explanation
    The correct answer is atrial repolarization. The P wave in a normal electrocardiogram represents the depolarization of the atria, which is the contraction of the atrial muscles. After the depolarization, the atrial muscles repolarize, meaning they return to their resting state. This repolarization is not typically visible on the ECG, but it is an important part of the cardiac cycle.

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  • 29. 

    Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the _____.

    • A.

      Right ventricle

    • B.

      Left ventricle

    • C.

      Right atrium

    • D.

      Left atrium

    Correct Answer
    D. Left atrium
    Explanation
    Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the left atrium. The pulmonary veins are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. After the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the lungs, the oxygen-rich blood is transported through the pulmonary veins and enters the left atrium. From there, it will be pumped into the left ventricle and then to the rest of the body.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure?

    • A.

      Nitric acid

    • B.

      Angiotensin II

    • C.

      ADH

    • D.

      Atrial natriuretic peptide

    Correct Answer
    A. Nitric acid
    Explanation
    Nitric acid is not involved in the regulation of blood pressure. It is a strong acid used in various industrial processes and has no direct role in the physiological mechanisms that control blood pressure. On the other hand, angiotensin II, ADH (antidiuretic hormone), and atrial natriuretic peptide are all important regulators of blood pressure. Angiotensin II constricts blood vessels, ADH promotes water reabsorption by the kidneys, and atrial natriuretic peptide promotes the excretion of sodium and water, leading to a decrease in blood pressure.

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  • 31. 

    Which statement best describes arteries?

    • A.

      All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.

    • B.

      All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.

    • C.

      Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.

    • D.

      All carry blood away from the heart.

    Correct Answer
    D. All carry blood away from the heart.
    Explanation
    Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to various parts of the body. They have thick and elastic walls that help maintain blood pressure and facilitate the flow of blood. Arteries do not contain valves like veins do, as their strong muscular walls are sufficient to prevent the backflow of blood. Additionally, arteries of all sizes, not just large ones, are lined with endothelium, a thin layer of cells that helps reduce friction and maintain smooth blood flow. Therefore, the statement "All carry blood away from the heart" accurately describes arteries.

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  • 32. 

    Which tunic of an artery contains endothelium?

    • A.

      Tunica media

    • B.

      Tunica externa

    • C.

      Tunica intima

    • D.

      Basement membrane

    Correct Answer
    C. Tunica intima
    Explanation
    The tunica intima is the innermost layer of an artery and it is composed of endothelium, which is a single layer of cells that lines the lumen of the blood vessel. This layer is responsible for maintaining the integrity and function of the artery, including regulating blood flow and preventing the formation of blood clots. The other layers of the artery, such as the tunica media and tunica externa, do not contain endothelium.

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  • 33. 

    The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called _____.

    • A.

      Hepatic portal circulation

    • B.

      Cerebral circulation

    • C.

      Coronary circulation

    • D.

      Pulmonary circulation

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatic portal circulation
    Explanation
    The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called hepatic portal circulation. This system allows blood containing nutrients and toxins from the digestive organs to be transported directly to the liver for processing and detoxification before it enters the general circulation. The hepatic portal vein carries this blood from the intestines, stomach, and spleen to the liver, where it is filtered and processed before being distributed to the rest of the body. This specialized circulation ensures that the liver can efficiently regulate and metabolize substances absorbed from the digestive system.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels?

    • A.

      The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.

    • B.

      They contain a large quantity of elastic tissue.

    • C.

      Their prime function is the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells.

    • D.

      They distribute blood to various parts of the body.

    Correct Answer
    A. The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.
    Explanation
    Arterioles are known as resistance vessels because the contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter. This ability to constrict or dilate allows arterioles to regulate blood flow and control the resistance to blood flow in the circulatory system. When the smooth muscle contracts, the arterioles narrow, increasing resistance and reducing blood flow. Conversely, when the smooth muscle relaxes, the arterioles widen, decreasing resistance and increasing blood flow. This mechanism helps maintain blood pressure and regulate blood flow to different tissues and organs as needed.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?

    • A.

      Chemoreceptor-intiated reflexes

    • B.

      Baroreceptor-initated reflexes

    • C.

      Neural controls

    • D.

      Renal regulation

    Correct Answer
    D. Renal regulation
    Explanation
    Renal regulation provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by adjusting the volume of blood and the concentration of electrolytes in the body. When blood pressure is high, the kidneys increase the excretion of water and sodium, reducing the volume of blood and lowering blood pressure. Conversely, when blood pressure is low, the kidneys conserve water and sodium, increasing blood volume and raising blood pressure. This process helps to maintain blood pressure within a normal range over an extended period of time.

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  • 36. 

    Blood flow to the skin _____.

    • A.

      Is not an important source of nutrients and oxygen for skin cells

    • B.

      Is controlled mainly by decreasing pH

    • C.

      Increases when body temperature drops so that the skin does not freeze

    • D.

      Increases when environmental temperature rises

    Correct Answer
    D. Increases when environmental temperature rises
    Explanation
    When the environmental temperature rises, the body needs to cool down to maintain its normal temperature. One of the ways it does this is by increasing blood flow to the skin. This allows heat to be transferred from the body to the skin, where it can be dissipated into the surrounding environment. Therefore, the statement that blood flow to the skin increases when environmental temperature rises is correct.

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  • 37. 

    The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is _____.

    • A.

      Any condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate normally

    • B.

      The form of shock caused by anaphylaxis

    • C.

      Shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea

    • D.

      Always fatal

    Correct Answer
    C. Shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea
    Explanation
    Hypovolemic shock is a form of circulatory shock that occurs when there is a significant loss of blood volume or fluid, such as after severe vomiting or diarrhea. In this condition, the blood vessels are inadequately filled, leading to a decrease in blood circulation throughout the body. It is not always fatal, but if left untreated, it can be life-threatening. Anaphylactic shock, on the other hand, is a different form of shock caused by a severe allergic reaction.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation?

    • A.

      Right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium

    • B.

      Superior vena cava, right atrium, and left ventricle

    • C.

      Right atrium, aorta, and left ventricle

    • D.

      Left ventricle, aorta, and inferior vena cava

    Correct Answer
    A. Right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium
    Explanation
    The correct answer is right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium. In pulmonary circulation, deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle is pumped into the pulmonary artery, which carries it to the lungs to be oxygenated. The oxygenated blood then returns to the heart via the pulmonary veins, specifically the left atrium. Therefore, the right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium are directly involved in the pulmonary circulation pathway.

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  • 39. 

    The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called _____.

    • A.

      Venules

    • B.

      Arterioles

    • C.

      Muscular arteries

    • D.

      Elastic arteries

    Correct Answer
    B. Arterioles
    Explanation
    Arterioles are the arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds. They are small branches of the main arteries and play a crucial role in regulating blood flow and blood pressure. Arterioles have smooth muscle in their walls, allowing them to constrict or dilate to control the amount of blood flowing into the capillaries. This constriction and dilation help in maintaining proper blood flow and distributing oxygen and nutrients to the tissues. Therefore, arterioles are the correct answer as they directly connect the arteries to the capillary beds.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

    • A.

      140/90 in a 70-year old woman

    • B.

      110/60 in a 20-year old woman

    • C.

      120/80 in a 30-year old man

    • D.

      170/96 in a 50-year old man

    Correct Answer
    D. 170/96 in a 50-year old man
    Explanation
    A blood pressure reading of 170/96 in a 50-year old man would be indicative of hypertension. Hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure reading of 130/80 or higher. In this case, both the systolic pressure (170) and the diastolic pressure (96) are above the threshold for hypertension. Additionally, the age and gender of the individual are also taken into consideration when determining if the blood pressure reading is indicative of hypertension.

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  • 41. 

    A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except _____.

    • A.

      Increased work of the left ventricle

    • B.

      Increased damage to the blood vessel endothelium

    • C.

      Increased incidence of coronary artery disease

    • D.

      Decreased size of the heart muscle

    Correct Answer
    D. Decreased size of the heart muscle
    Explanation
    Essential hypertension is a condition characterized by high blood pressure that is not caused by any underlying medical condition. In this condition, the heart has to work harder to pump blood against the increased pressure in the blood vessels, leading to increased work of the left ventricle. The increased pressure can also cause damage to the blood vessel endothelium, increasing the risk of cardiovascular diseases such as coronary artery disease. However, it does not lead to a decreased size of the heart muscle.

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  • 42. 

    The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

    • A.

      An increase in oxygen level

    • B.

      Changes in arterial pressure

    • C.

      A decrease in carbon dioxide

    • D.

      A decrease in oxygen levels

    Correct Answer
    B. Changes in arterial pressure
    Explanation
    The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to changes in arterial pressure. These receptors detect variations in blood pressure and send signals to the brain to regulate it. When arterial pressure increases, the baroreceptors will detect this change and initiate mechanisms to lower it, such as vasodilation or reducing heart rate. Similarly, if arterial pressure decreases, the baroreceptors will signal for vasoconstriction or an increase in heart rate to raise blood pressure. Therefore, changes in arterial pressure are the primary stimulus to which the baroreceptors respond.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls?

    • A.

      Hydrostatic and osmotic pressure

    • B.

      Hydrostatic pressure only

    • C.

      Plasma and formed element concentration

    • D.

      Blood volume and viscosity

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrostatic and osmotic pressure
    Explanation
    The balance between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls is determined by both hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure. Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted by the fluid against the capillary walls, while osmotic pressure is the pressure exerted by solutes in the fluid. These two pressures work together to regulate the movement of fluid across the capillary walls, ensuring that the amount of fluid entering and leaving the capillaries is balanced.

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  • 44. 

    Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?

    • A.

      Tunica externa

    • B.

      Tunica media

    • C.

      Basement membrane

    • D.

      Tunica intima

    Correct Answer
    B. Tunica media
    Explanation
    The tunica media is responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation in an artery. It is the middle layer of the artery wall and contains smooth muscle cells that can contract and relax to regulate the diameter of the artery. This allows for the control of blood flow and helps to maintain optimal blood pressure levels. The tunica media also contains elastic fibers that provide elasticity to the artery, allowing it to stretch and recoil with each heartbeat, further aiding in the maintenance of blood pressure and continuous blood circulation.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is true about veins?

    • A.

      Veins have a small lumen in relation to the thickness of the vessel wall.

    • B.

      Up to 35% of total body blood is in venous circulation at any given time.

    • C.

      Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs.

    • D.

      Venous valves are formed from the tunica media.

    Correct Answer
    C. Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs.
    Explanation
    Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs because they have the ability to hold a large amount of blood. They have a larger lumen in relation to the thickness of the vessel wall, allowing them to accommodate a greater volume of blood. This is important for maintaining blood pressure and ensuring a steady flow of blood to the heart. The other statements are not true about veins.

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  • 46. 

    The pulse pressure is _____.

    • A.

      Systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure

    • B.

      Diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure)

    • C.

      Systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure

    • D.

      Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

    Correct Answer
    D. Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
    Explanation
    Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic pressure (the highest pressure reached during the cardiac cycle) and the diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure reached during the cardiac cycle). Therefore, the correct answer is "systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure".

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  • 47. 

    Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed _____.

    • A.

      Lymph nodes

    • B.

      Cisterna chyli

    • C.

      Axillary nodes

    • D.

      Lymph follicles

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymph nodes
    Explanation
    Lymph nodes are small organs associated with lymphatic vessels. They are responsible for filtering lymph and trapping harmful substances such as bacteria and viruses. Lymph nodes play a crucial role in the immune system by producing and storing lymphocytes, which are white blood cells that help fight infections. Therefore, the correct answer is lymph nodes.

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  • 48. 

    Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?

    • A.

      Macrophages

    • B.

      Monocytes

    • C.

      Lymphocytes

    • D.

      Basophils

    Correct Answer
    C. Lymphocytes
    Explanation
    Thymic hormones play a crucial role in the development of lymphocytes, specifically T cells, in the thymus gland. These hormones help in the maturation and differentiation of lymphocytes, enabling them to become immunocompetent. Therefore, lymphocytes are the cells that become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

    • A.

      Pancreas

    • B.

      Peyer's patches of the intestine

    • C.

      Tonsils

    • D.

      Spleen

    Correct Answer
    A. Pancreas
    Explanation
    The pancreas would not be classified as a lymphatic structure because it is not directly involved in the immune system or the production of lymphocytes. The pancreas is primarily an organ of the digestive system, responsible for producing digestive enzymes and insulin. Lymphatic structures, on the other hand, are organs or tissues that are involved in the production, storage, and circulation of lymphocytes, such as Peyer's patches, tonsils, and the spleen.

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  • 50. 

    The distal portion of the small intestine contains clumps of lymph follicles called _____.

    • A.

      Villi

    • B.

      Islets of Langerhans

    • C.

      Peyer's patches

    • D.

      Rugae

    Correct Answer
    C. Peyer's patches
    Explanation
    Peyer's patches are clumps of lymph follicles found in the distal portion of the small intestine. These patches play a crucial role in the immune system by monitoring the intestinal contents for harmful pathogens and initiating an immune response if necessary. They contain specialized immune cells, such as T cells and B cells, which help in the defense against infections and maintain the balance of gut microbiota. Peyer's patches also produce antibodies to protect the body from invading pathogens.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 14, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Jennifer Visser
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