Anatomy And Physiology II

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| By Jennifer Visser
Jennifer Visser, Nursing
Jennifer, a Resident Nurse with a Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN), brings her expertise and passion for healthcare to provide top-notch patient care and support.
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1. The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called _____.

Explanation

Arterioles are the arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds. They are small branches of the main arteries and play a crucial role in regulating blood flow and blood pressure. Arterioles have smooth muscle in their walls, allowing them to constrict or dilate to control the amount of blood flowing into the capillaries. This constriction and dilation help in maintaining proper blood flow and distributing oxygen and nutrients to the tissues. Therefore, arterioles are the correct answer as they directly connect the arteries to the capillary beds.

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About This Quiz
Blood Physiology Quizzes & Trivia

Explore key aspects of blood physiology in this Anatomy and Physiology II quiz. Topics include blood pH, blood types, plasma proteins, and blood cells. This quiz enhances understanding... see moreof human blood components, crucial for students in medical and health-related fields. see less

2. The major target organs of growth hormone are _____.

Explanation

The major target organs of growth hormone are bones and skeletal muscles. Growth hormone is responsible for stimulating the growth and development of these tissues. It promotes the growth of long bones in the body, leading to an increase in height during childhood and adolescence. Additionally, growth hormone enhances muscle protein synthesis, which helps in the development and maintenance of skeletal muscles.

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3. What is the average normal pH range of blood?

Explanation

The average normal pH range of blood is 7.35 - 7.45. This range is considered to be slightly alkaline, as it is slightly above the neutral pH of 7. This pH range is important for maintaining the proper functioning of various physiological processes in the body, including enzyme activity, oxygen transport, and cell function. Any significant deviation from this range can lead to acidosis or alkalosis, which can have detrimental effects on health.

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4. Which blood type is called the universal donor?

Explanation

Blood type O is called the universal donor because it can be safely transfused to individuals of any blood type. This is because blood type O does not have A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells, which means it does not trigger an immune response in recipients with different blood types. Therefore, blood type O can be used in emergencies when the recipient's blood type is unknown or when there is a shortage of compatible blood types.

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5. Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the trachea?

Explanation

Cartilage rings maintain the patency (openness) of the trachea. The trachea is a tube-like structure that needs to remain open for the passage of air. The rings of cartilage provide structural support and prevent the trachea from collapsing or closing off. They form a semi-rigid structure that keeps the trachea open and allows for the smooth flow of air during breathing.

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6. The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called _____.

Explanation

Digestion refers to the chemical and mechanical processes that break down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. It involves the breakdown of complex carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into simpler forms that can be easily absorbed and used for energy. This process occurs in the digestive system, which includes organs such as the stomach, small intestine, and pancreas. Through digestion, nutrients are extracted from food and made available for the body to use for various physiological processes.

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7. Respiratory control centers are located in the _____.

Explanation

The respiratory control centers in the brain are responsible for regulating breathing. These centers are located in the medulla and pons. The medulla controls the basic rhythm of breathing, while the pons helps to regulate the rate and depth of breathing. Together, these two regions of the brain work to ensure that the body receives enough oxygen and removes carbon dioxide effectively.

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8. Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier?

Explanation

Rennin is not a factor that helps create the stomach mucosal barrier. The stomach mucosal barrier is primarily created by the tight junctions of epithelial mucosa cells, which form a physical barrier to prevent the passage of harmful substances. Additionally, the replacing of damaged epithelial mucosa cells helps to maintain the integrity of the barrier. The thick coating of bicarbonate-rich mucus also plays a crucial role in protecting the stomach lining from the acidic environment. However, rennin is an enzyme found in the stomach that helps in the digestion of milk proteins, but it does not contribute to the creation of the stomach mucosal barrier.

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9. The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the _____.

Explanation

Cytotoxic cells are the only T cells that have the ability to directly attack and kill other cells. These cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response by identifying and destroying infected or abnormal cells in the body. They do this by releasing toxic substances that induce cell death in their target cells. Regulatory cells help to control and regulate the immune response, helper cells assist in coordinating the immune response, and plasma cells produce antibodies to fight against foreign substances.

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10. An individual who is blood type AB negative can _____.

Explanation

An individual with blood type AB negative can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except for the blood type that contains the Rh antigen. This means that they can receive blood from individuals with blood types A, B, AB, and O, as long as the blood does not contain the Rh antigen.

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11. The distal portion of the small intestine contains clumps of lymph follicles called _____.

Explanation

Peyer's patches are clumps of lymph follicles found in the distal portion of the small intestine. These patches play a crucial role in the immune system by monitoring the intestinal contents for harmful pathogens and initiating an immune response if necessary. They contain specialized immune cells, such as T cells and B cells, which help in the defense against infections and maintain the balance of gut microbiota. Peyer's patches also produce antibodies to protect the body from invading pathogens.

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12. Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?

Explanation

Vitamin B12 requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed. Intrinsic factor is a protein produced by the stomach that is necessary for the absorption of B12 in the small intestine. Without intrinsic factor, B12 cannot be properly absorbed and utilized by the body.

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13. The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the _____.

Explanation

The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas, respectively, unite to form the hepatopancreatic ampulla. This structure is located at the point where the common bile duct and the main pancreatic duct come together. It acts as a storage and mixing point for the two fluids before they are released into the small intestine for digestion.

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14. The second-messenger mechanism or hormone action operates by _____.

Explanation

The second-messenger mechanism or hormone action operates by binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP. This means that when a hormone binds to its specific receptor on the cell surface, it activates a G protein, which in turn activates the production of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). This second messenger molecule then triggers a cascade of intracellular events, leading to the desired physiological response in the target organ.

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15. Which of the following is true about blood plasma?

Explanation

Blood plasma is the liquid component of blood that remains after the blood cells have been removed. It is primarily composed of water, making up about 90% of its volume. This high water content allows plasma to serve as a medium for transporting various substances throughout the body, including nutrients, hormones, waste products, and antibodies. Additionally, plasma contains dissolved components such as electrolytes, proteins, glucose, and lipids, which are essential for maintaining the body's overall balance and functioning.

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16. The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the following to occur?

Explanation

When a meal high in fat content is ingested, bile is released from the gallbladder to emulsify the fat in the duodenum. Bile helps break down the fat into smaller droplets, increasing the surface area for enzymes to act upon and facilitating digestion and absorption. This process is necessary because fat is not easily soluble in water-based digestive fluids. The other options do not explain the specific role of bile in fat digestion and are therefore incorrect.

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17. Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged?

Explanation

If the liver were severely damaged, the digestion of lipids would be affected the most. The liver plays a crucial role in lipid digestion by producing bile, which helps break down fats into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body. Without a properly functioning liver, the production of bile would be impaired, leading to difficulties in digesting and absorbing lipids. Conversely, the digestion of starches, proteins, and carbohydrates can still occur to some extent in other parts of the digestive system, such as the mouth, stomach, and small intestine.

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18. Lymph leaves a lymph node via _____.

Explanation

Lymph leaves a lymph node via efferent lymphatic vessels. These vessels are responsible for carrying lymph away from the lymph node and distributing it throughout the body. The efferent lymphatic vessels connect to the lymphatic system and allow lymph, which contains immune cells and waste products, to be transported to other lymph nodes or back into the bloodstream. This helps to maintain fluid balance and immune function in the body.

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19. What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

Explanation

The kidney is responsible for regulating erythrocyte production in the body. It does so by producing a hormone called erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells. This hormone is released in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. Therefore, the kidney plays a crucial role in maintaining the appropriate number of red blood cells in the body to ensure proper oxygenation of tissues and organs.

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20. Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?

Explanation

Red blood cells are not a normal component of lymph. Lymph is a clear fluid that is derived from interstitial fluid and contains water, plasma proteins, and ions. It is responsible for transporting immune cells and removing waste products from tissues. Red blood cells, on the other hand, are found in the bloodstream and are responsible for carrying oxygen to tissues and removing carbon dioxide. Therefore, red blood cells are not typically present in lymph.

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21. The tricuspid valve is closed _____.

Explanation

The tricuspid valve is closed when the ventricle is in systole. During systole, the ventricles contract to pump blood out of the heart and into the arteries. The closure of the tricuspid valve prevents the backflow of blood from the ventricle into the atrium, ensuring that blood flows in the correct direction through the heart.

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22. The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for _____.

Explanation

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for regulating the rate of filtrate formation and controlling systemic blood pressure. It is a specialized structure located in the kidney that consists of juxtaglomerular cells and macula densa cells. The juxtaglomerular cells release the enzyme renin, which plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. The macula densa cells monitor the concentration of sodium chloride in the filtrate and signal the juxtaglomerular cells to release renin when necessary. This process helps to maintain the balance of fluid and electrolytes in the body and regulate blood pressure.

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23. Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes _____.

Explanation

Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output. When there is a significant loss of blood, the volume of blood circulating in the body decreases. This leads to a decrease in the amount of blood the heart pumps out with each beat, resulting in a decrease in cardiac output. Since blood pressure is determined by the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels, a decrease in cardiac output leads to a lowering of blood pressure.

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24. The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is _____.

Explanation

Water reabsorption by the renal tubules occurs through the process of osmosis. Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration, across a semipermeable membrane. In the renal tubules, water is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream by osmosis, as solutes such as sodium and other substances are actively transported out of the tubules, creating a concentration gradient that drives water reabsorption. Therefore, osmosis is the correct mechanism for water reabsorption in the renal tubules.

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25. Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it _____.

Explanation

Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it inhibits the release of ADH. ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, is responsible for regulating the reabsorption of water by the kidneys. When alcohol is consumed, it suppresses the release of ADH, leading to increased urine production and fluid loss from the body. This is why alcohol is known to have a dehydrating effect.

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26. Which of the following is not a type of T cell?

Explanation

Antigenic is not a type of T cell. T cells are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. The different types of T cells include helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, and regulatory T cells. Helper T cells assist in activating other immune cells, cytotoxic T cells destroy infected cells, and regulatory T cells help maintain immune system balance. Antigenic, on the other hand, refers to substances that can stimulate an immune response, but it is not a specific type of T cell.

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27. The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by _____.

Explanation

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by vasodilation. When there is inflammation, the blood vessels in the affected area dilate, allowing more blood to flow to the area. This increased blood flow leads to redness and heat as a result of increased metabolic activity and accumulation of inflammatory mediators.

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28. The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called _____.

Explanation

The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver is called hepatic portal circulation. This system allows blood containing nutrients and toxins from the digestive organs to be transported directly to the liver for processing and detoxification before it enters the general circulation. The hepatic portal vein carries this blood from the intestines, stomach, and spleen to the liver, where it is filtered and processed before being distributed to the rest of the body. This specialized circulation ensures that the liver can efficiently regulate and metabolize substances absorbed from the digestive system.

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29. Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

Explanation

A blood pressure reading of 170/96 in a 50-year old man would be indicative of hypertension. Hypertension is defined as having a blood pressure reading of 130/80 or higher. In this case, both the systolic pressure (170) and the diastolic pressure (96) are above the threshold for hypertension. Additionally, the age and gender of the individual are also taken into consideration when determining if the blood pressure reading is indicative of hypertension.

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30. Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elementes of blood?

Explanation

The pluripotent stem cell, also known as a hemocytoblast, is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood. This type of stem cell has the ability to differentiate into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It serves as the starting point for the development of these cells, giving rise to the different cell types that make up the blood. The other choices listed, such as polymorphonuclear cell, megakaryocyte, and NK cell, are all specific types of blood cells that are derived from the pluripotent stem cell.

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31. The most abundant plasma protein is ____.

Explanation

Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein. It is produced by the liver and plays a crucial role in maintaining the osmotic pressure of the blood, transporting various substances such as hormones and drugs, and regulating fluid balance. It also acts as a carrier protein for many other molecules. Although clotting proteins, globulin, and bile are important components of plasma, they are not as abundant as albumin.

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32. A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

Explanation

The epidermal layers of the forearm are arranged in a specific order. The outermost layer is the corneum, followed by the granulosum, spinosum, and basale. This order is important because each layer has a specific function in protecting the skin and maintaining its integrity. The corneum is composed of dead skin cells and provides a barrier against the external environment. The granulosum layer contains granules that help with the production of keratin, a protein that strengthens the skin. The spinosum layer is involved in cell division and the basale layer is responsible for the production of new skin cells. Therefore, the correct order in which a needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm is corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale.

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33. B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by _____.

Explanation

When B cells are initially exposed to an antigen, they respond by producing progeny cells that include plasma and memory cells. Plasma cells are responsible for the immediate production and secretion of antigen-specific antibodies, while memory cells are long-lived cells that "remember" the antigen and can mount a faster and stronger immune response upon re-exposure to the same antigen. This response allows the body to effectively eliminate the antigen and provide long-term immunity against future infections.

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34. The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called _____.

Explanation

The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in place are called mesenteries. Mesenteries are double layers of peritoneum that suspend and support the organs in the abdominal cavity. They provide a protective covering and contain blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that supply the digestive organs. The mesenteries also help in holding the organs in their proper positions, preventing them from moving or twisting excessively.

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35. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

Explanation

Type II diabetes is not an autoimmune disease. It is a metabolic disorder characterized by high blood sugar levels due to the body's inability to properly use insulin. Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body. While type I diabetes is an autoimmune disease, type II diabetes is primarily caused by lifestyle factors such as obesity and lack of physical activity.

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36. A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except _____.

Explanation

Essential hypertension is a condition characterized by high blood pressure that is not caused by any underlying medical condition. In this condition, the heart has to work harder to pump blood against the increased pressure in the blood vessels, leading to increased work of the left ventricle. The increased pressure can also cause damage to the blood vessel endothelium, increasing the risk of cardiovascular diseases such as coronary artery disease. However, it does not lead to a decreased size of the heart muscle.

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37. The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

Explanation

The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to changes in arterial pressure. These receptors detect variations in blood pressure and send signals to the brain to regulate it. When arterial pressure increases, the baroreceptors will detect this change and initiate mechanisms to lower it, such as vasodilation or reducing heart rate. Similarly, if arterial pressure decreases, the baroreceptors will signal for vasoconstriction or an increase in heart rate to raise blood pressure. Therefore, changes in arterial pressure are the primary stimulus to which the baroreceptors respond.

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38. The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory cells?

Explanation

The correct answer is serous cells and mucous cells. The salivary glands are composed of these two types of secretory cells. Serous cells produce a watery secretion that contains enzymes, while mucous cells produce a thick and sticky secretion that lubricates and protects the oral cavity. These two types of cells work together to produce saliva, which aids in the digestion of food and helps to maintain oral health.

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39. Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls?

Explanation

The balance between the direction and amount of fluid that flows across the capillary walls is determined by both hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure. Hydrostatic pressure is the force exerted by the fluid against the capillary walls, while osmotic pressure is the pressure exerted by solutes in the fluid. These two pressures work together to regulate the movement of fluid across the capillary walls, ensuring that the amount of fluid entering and leaving the capillaries is balanced.

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40. The solutes contained in saliva include _____.

Explanation

Saliva is a complex fluid that contains various substances. Electrolytes are essential for maintaining the balance of fluids in the body. Digestive enzymes, such as amylase, help break down carbohydrates. Mucin is a protein that helps lubricate and protect the oral cavity. Lysozyme is an enzyme that has antimicrobial properties. Wastes in saliva can include metabolic byproducts and toxins. IgA is an antibody that helps protect against pathogens. Therefore, the correct answer includes all these components, indicating that saliva contains electrolytes, digestive enzymes, mucin, lysozyme, wastes, and IgA.

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41. Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?

Explanation

Thymic hormones play a crucial role in the development of lymphocytes, specifically T cells, in the thymus gland. These hormones help in the maturation and differentiation of lymphocytes, enabling them to become immunocompetent. Therefore, lymphocytes are the cells that become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones.

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42. Peristaltic waves are _____.

Explanation

Peristaltic waves are waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another. These waves occur in the gastrointestinal tract and help to move food and other materials through the digestive system. The muscular contractions create a squeezing motion that pushes the contents forward, allowing for digestion and absorption to occur efficiently. This process helps to ensure that nutrients are properly absorbed and waste is eliminated from the body.

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43. Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on _____.

Explanation

Lymph and venous blood flow are both heavily dependent on skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement. Skeletal muscle contractions help to push lymph and venous blood through the vessels, while differences in thoracic pressures created by breathing movements assist in the movement of these fluids.

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44. Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the stomach?

Explanation

Parietal cells in the stomach are responsible for secreting hydrochloric acid. This acid helps in the digestion of food by breaking down proteins and killing bacteria. Chief cells secrete pepsinogen, which is converted into pepsin to aid in protein digestion. Mucous neck cells produce mucus to protect the stomach lining. Serous cells secrete enzymes and fluid, but not hydrochloric acid. Therefore, the correct answer is parietal cells.

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45. Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is the vagus nerve and enteric plexus. The vagus nerve, also known as the tenth cranial nerve, plays a crucial role in the parasympathetic control of the digestive system. It innervates the stomach and stimulates the release of gastric secretions, such as hydrochloric acid and digestive enzymes. The enteric plexus, also known as the "second brain," is a network of nerves located within the walls of the digestive tract. It coordinates and regulates various digestive functions, including gastric secretion. Together, the vagus nerve and enteric plexus provide the nervous control of gastric secretion.

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46. The _____ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages) that lead to a central venous structure.

Explanation

The liver contains lobules with sinusoids that are lined with macrophages. These sinusoids help filter and process blood, allowing nutrients and waste products to be exchanged. The central venous structure refers to the hepatic vein, which drains blood from the liver and carries it back to the heart.

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47. The lymphatic capillaries are _____.

Explanation

Lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries because they have larger gaps between their endothelial cells. This allows for the easy entry of larger molecules, such as proteins and fats, into the lymphatic system. In contrast, blood capillaries have tighter junctions between their endothelial cells, making them less permeable to these larger molecules. The increased permeability of lymphatic capillaries is essential for the transport of lymph, which carries waste products and immune cells away from tissues and towards lymph nodes for filtration and immune response.

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48. The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not:

Explanation

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not directly fight antigens. While it does produce hormones and have lymphocytes, it does not have a cortex and medulla like other lymphoid organs such as the lymph nodes and spleen. The thymus plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are responsible for directly fighting antigens in the immune response.

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49. Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?

Explanation

Apocrine glands are found in the axillary (armpit) and anogenital (groin) areas of the human body. These glands, which become active during puberty, are not involved in thermoregulation.

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50. Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?

Explanation

The AV valve is not part of the conduction system of the heart. The conduction system consists of specialized cells that generate and transmit electrical signals to regulate the heartbeat. The SA node (sinoatrial node) is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses, which then travel to the AV node (atrioventricular node) and then to the bundle of His and its branches. The AV valve, also known as the atrioventricular valve, is responsible for preventing the backflow of blood between the atria and ventricles during the contraction of the heart. It is not involved in the conduction of electrical signals.

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51. Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

Explanation

The AV valves, also known as the atrioventricular valves, are supported by chordae tendinae, which are fibrous cords that attach the valves to the papillary muscles in the ventricles. This support prevents the valves from being pushed back into the atria during ventricular contraction, thus preventing regurgitation of blood. Regurgitation occurs when blood flows backward through a valve, in this case from the ventricles back into the atria. The chordae tendinae ensure that the AV valves close properly and prevent this backward flow of blood, maintaining the one-way flow of blood through the heart.

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52. Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids and that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called _____.

Explanation

Hormones are chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body. Unlike proteins, enzymes, and antibodies, which also play important roles in the body, hormones specifically serve as signaling molecules that coordinate and control various physiological processes.

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53. The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to _____.

Explanation

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to pump blood with greater pressure. The left ventricle is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body, while the right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs. The left ventricle needs to generate more force to push blood through the systemic circulation, which is why its wall is thicker. This allows for the efficient delivery of oxygenated blood to the body's tissues and organs.

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54. Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the _____.

Explanation

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the left atrium. The pulmonary veins are responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs back to the heart. After the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the lungs, the oxygen-rich blood is transported through the pulmonary veins and enters the left atrium. From there, it will be pumped into the left ventricle and then to the rest of the body.

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55. Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?

Explanation

Lymphoid tissue functions to house and provide a proliferation site for lymphocytes, which are important cells of the immune system. It also furnishes an ideal surveillance vantage point for lymphocytes and macrophages, allowing them to monitor and respond to potential threats in the body. Therefore, the correct answer is A and C.

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56. In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as _____.

Explanation

In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone, the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This process is known as up-regulation. Up-regulation allows the target cells to become more responsive to the hormone by increasing the number of receptors available for binding. This increased receptor density enhances the cell's sensitivity and ability to recognize and respond to the hormone, ensuring that the body's needs are met.

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57. Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure?

Explanation

Nitric acid is not involved in the regulation of blood pressure. It is a strong acid used in various industrial processes and has no direct role in the physiological mechanisms that control blood pressure. On the other hand, angiotensin II, ADH (antidiuretic hormone), and atrial natriuretic peptide are all important regulators of blood pressure. Angiotensin II constricts blood vessels, ADH promotes water reabsorption by the kidneys, and atrial natriuretic peptide promotes the excretion of sodium and water, leading to a decrease in blood pressure.

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58. The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called _____.

Explanation

Chemotaxis is the process by which neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site. In this process, chemical signals are released at the site of inflammation, which act as a gradient for the white blood cells to follow. These cells move towards the higher concentration of the chemical signals, allowing them to migrate to the site of inflammation and initiate the immune response. Diapedesis refers to the process of white blood cells squeezing through blood vessel walls, phagocytosis is the engulfing and destruction of pathogens by white blood cells, and margination refers to the adherence of white blood cells to the blood vessel walls.

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59. Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels?

Explanation

Arterioles are known as resistance vessels because the contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter. This ability to constrict or dilate allows arterioles to regulate blood flow and control the resistance to blood flow in the circulatory system. When the smooth muscle contracts, the arterioles narrow, increasing resistance and reducing blood flow. Conversely, when the smooth muscle relaxes, the arterioles widen, decreasing resistance and increasing blood flow. This mechanism helps maintain blood pressure and regulate blood flow to different tissues and organs as needed.

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60. Which of the following is characterstic of complete antigens?

Explanation

Reactivity with an antibody is characteristic of complete antigens because complete antigens are able to bind to specific antibodies, triggering an immune response. This interaction between the antigen and antibody is essential for the body to recognize and eliminate foreign substances. The other options are not characteristic of complete antigens. Antigens that contain many repeating chemical units are called polymers, not complete antigens. Small molecules are typically incomplete antigens and do not elicit a strong immune response. Additionally, antigens do not inhibit the production of antibodies, but rather stimulate their production.

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61. Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular contractions are involved. Expiration, however, depends on two factors. Which of the choices below lists those two factors?

Explanation

During inspiration, the elastic fibers in the lungs are stretched. When the inspiratory muscles relax, these elastic fibers recoil, causing the lungs to decrease in volume. Additionally, the film of alveolar fluid in the lungs creates surface tension, which tends to collapse the alveoli. This inward pull of surface tension also contributes to expiration. Therefore, the correct answer is the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration and the inward pull of surface tension due to the film of alveolar fluid.

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62. The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin _____.

Explanation

When there is a decrease in blood pressure, the kidneys are stimulated to produce renin. Renin is an enzyme that plays a key role in the regulation of blood pressure and fluid balance. When blood pressure drops, the kidneys sense this change and release renin into the bloodstream. Renin then acts on a protein called angiotensinogen, converting it into angiotensin I. This ultimately leads to the production of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor that helps to increase blood pressure and restore balance. Therefore, a decrease in blood pressure triggers the kidneys to produce renin as a compensatory mechanism.

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63. Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?

Explanation

When the semilunar valves are open, it means that blood is being pumped out of the ventricles and into the pulmonary arteries and the aorta. This occurs during ventricular systole, which is the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle. During systole, the AV valves are closed to prevent backflow of blood into the atria. On the other hand, ventricular diastole is the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle, during which the ventricles are filling with blood from the atria. Therefore, the event that does not occur when the semilunar valves are open is that the ventricles are in diastole.

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64. The dermis _____.

Explanation

The dermis is a layer of skin that has two distinct layers. The first layer is called the papillary dermis, which is composed of loose connective tissue and contains sensory corpuscles and blood vessels. The second layer is called the reticular dermis, which is made up of dense irregular connective tissue and contains sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and hair follicles. Therefore, the statement "the dermis has two layers" is an accurate description of the structure of the dermis.

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65. Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?

Explanation

Meissner's corpuscle is a skin sensory receptor for touch. It is located in the upper layers of the skin, particularly in the fingertips, palms, and soles of the feet. Meissner's corpuscles are responsible for detecting light touch and low-frequency vibrations. They are encapsulated structures that consist of specialized nerve endings surrounded by connective tissue. When the skin is stimulated, Meissner's corpuscles send signals to the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to touch sensations.

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66. Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange?

Explanation

The alveoli provide the greatest surface area for gas exchange. Alveoli are tiny air sacs located at the end of the respiratory bronchioles. They are surrounded by a network of capillaries, which allows for efficient exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and bloodstream. The large number and small size of alveoli greatly increase the surface area available for gas exchange, making them the most effective structure for this process.

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67. The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is _____.

Explanation

Hypovolemic shock is a form of circulatory shock that occurs when there is a significant loss of blood volume or fluid, such as after severe vomiting or diarrhea. In this condition, the blood vessels are inadequately filled, leading to a decrease in blood circulation throughout the body. It is not always fatal, but if left untreated, it can be life-threatening. Anaphylactic shock, on the other hand, is a different form of shock caused by a severe allergic reaction.

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68. Which muscles attached to the hair follices cause goose bumps?

Explanation

The muscles attached to the hair follicles that cause goosebumps are called arrector pili muscles. These muscles contract in response to cold temperatures or strong emotions, causing the hair to stand on end and creating the appearance of goosebumps.

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69. Fever _____.

Explanation

Fever is a natural response of the body to fight off infections and other illnesses. It is not always dangerous, as it helps the immune system function more efficiently. The production of fever is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting, causing the body temperature to rise. This higher temperature creates an inhospitable environment for bacteria and viruses, making it more difficult for them to replicate and spread. By increasing the body's temperature, these chemicals help to activate the body's immune response and aid in the healing process.

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70. What is the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

Explanation

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is a specialized structure located in the kidneys. Its main function is to help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys. It does this by secreting the enzyme renin, which plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. This system helps control blood pressure by regulating the constriction of blood vessels and the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys. Overall, the juxtaglomerular apparatus plays a vital role in maintaining the balance of fluid and electrolytes in the body and ensuring proper kidney function.

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71. Which hormone causes an increaed output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile?

Explanation

Cholecystokinin is the hormone that causes an increased output of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice and stimulates gallbladder contraction to release bile. This hormone is released by the duodenum in response to the presence of fats and proteins in the small intestine. It acts on the pancreas to stimulate the release of digestive enzymes and on the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the small intestine. This helps in the digestion and absorption of fats and proteins. Secretin, gastrin, and gastric inhibitor peptide are other hormones involved in digestion, but they do not specifically stimulate the release of pancreatic juice and gallbladder contraction like cholecystokinin does.

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72. The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish this task?

Explanation

The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Plicae circulares and intestinal villi accomplish this task by increasing the surface area available for absorption. Plicae circulares are circular folds in the lining of the small intestine, while intestinal villi are finger-like projections that further increase the surface area. These structures allow for more efficient absorption of nutrients and other substances from the digested food into the bloodstream.

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73. Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is the hypophyseal portal system. The hypothalamus synthesizes hormones that are then transported to the anterior pituitary gland through a specialized network of blood vessels called the hypophyseal portal system. This system allows for direct and efficient communication between the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary gland, ensuring the proper regulation of hormone secretion.

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74. Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?

Explanation

The tunica media is responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation in an artery. It is the middle layer of the artery wall and contains smooth muscle cells that can contract and relax to regulate the diameter of the artery. This allows for the control of blood flow and helps to maintain optimal blood pressure levels. The tunica media also contains elastic fibers that provide elasticity to the artery, allowing it to stretch and recoil with each heartbeat, further aiding in the maintenance of blood pressure and continuous blood circulation.

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75. Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water reabsorption?

Explanation

ADH, or antidiuretic hormone, is responsible for facultative water reabsorption. This hormone is released by the pituitary gland in response to high osmolarity in the blood or low blood volume. ADH acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption, allowing the body to retain more water and reduce urine output. This helps to maintain water balance in the body and prevent dehydration.

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76. Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed _____.

Explanation

Lymph nodes are small organs associated with lymphatic vessels. They are responsible for filtering lymph and trapping harmful substances such as bacteria and viruses. Lymph nodes play a crucial role in the immune system by producing and storing lymphocytes, which are white blood cells that help fight infections. Therefore, the correct answer is lymph nodes.

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77. Chyme is created in the _____.

Explanation

Chyme is created in the stomach. This is where the partially digested food mixes with gastric juices, such as hydrochloric acid and enzymes, to form a thick liquid called chyme. The stomach's muscular walls contract and churn the food, breaking it down further and mixing it with the gastric juices. Once the chyme is formed, it is gradually released into the small intestine for further digestion and absorption of nutrients.

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78. Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

Explanation

The pancreas would not be classified as a lymphatic structure because it is not directly involved in the immune system or the production of lymphocytes. The pancreas is primarily an organ of the digestive system, responsible for producing digestive enzymes and insulin. Lymphatic structures, on the other hand, are organs or tissues that are involved in the production, storage, and circulation of lymphocytes, such as Peyer's patches, tonsils, and the spleen.

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79. Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule?

Explanation

Creatinine is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule. The proximal convoluted tubule is responsible for reabsorbing various substances from the filtrate, such as glucose, K+, and Na+. However, creatinine, which is a waste product produced by muscle metabolism, is not reabsorbed and is instead excreted in the urine. This is because creatinine is a small molecule that is freely filtered by the glomerulus and not actively reabsorbed by the tubules.

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80. Thromboembolic disorders _____.

Explanation

Thromboembolic disorders refer to conditions where a blood clot, known as an embolus, forms within the circulatory system and can potentially move to different parts of the body. This can lead to blockages in blood vessels, causing various complications depending on the location of the clot. Thrombus formation, on the other hand, refers to the formation of a clot in a broken blood vessel, which is a different condition. Uncontrolled bleeding is not associated with thromboembolic disorders. Vitamin K deficiency is not a direct cause of thromboembolic disorders.

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81. What effect does age have on the size of the thymus?

Explanation

As individuals age, the thymus undergoes changes in size. During adolescence, the thymus tends to increase in size, reaching its maximum size. However, as individuals continue to age, the thymus gradually decreases in size. This is due to a process called involution, where the thymus tissue is replaced by fat and connective tissue. Therefore, the correct answer is that the thymus initially increases in size and then decreases in size from adolescence through old age.

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82. If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut is the _____.

Explanation

The serosa is the outermost layer of the small intestine. When an incision needs to be made to remove an obstruction, the first layer of tissue to be cut would be the serosa. This is because the serosa acts as a protective covering for the small intestine, and cutting through it would allow access to the underlying layers for the necessary procedure.

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83. The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I and type II. The function of type II is to _____.

Explanation

Type II cells in the walls of the alveoli secrete surfactant. Surfactant is a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing them from collapsing during exhalation and facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. This helps to maintain the elasticity and stability of the alveoli, allowing for efficient gas exchange in the lungs.

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84. The function of the goblet cells is to _____.

Explanation

The goblet cells in the digestive organs produce mucus that serves as a protective barrier against the effects of powerful enzymes needed for food digestion. This mucus helps to prevent damage to the delicate tissues of the digestive organs and ensures smooth passage of food through the digestive tract.

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85. Which of the following is not a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?

Explanation

The thymus is not a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue because it is located in the upper chest, behind the sternum, and is responsible for the maturation of T-cells. Mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues are found in the mucosal linings of various organs, such as the tonsils, appendix, and Peyer's patches, and play a role in immune defense against pathogens that enter the body through these mucosal surfaces.

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86. All of the following conditions impair coagulation except _____.

Explanation

Vascular spasm is not a condition that directly impairs coagulation. Coagulation refers to the process of blood clotting, and conditions like severe hypocalcemia, vitamin K deficiency, and liver disease can all affect the body's ability to form blood clots. However, vascular spasm is a temporary constriction of blood vessels in response to injury, which helps reduce blood loss. While it can indirectly affect coagulation by reducing blood flow to the injured area, it does not impair the actual clotting process itself.

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87. The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?

Explanation

The correct answer is stratum basale. The stratum basale, also known as the basal layer or germinativum, is the deepest layer of the epidermis. It is responsible for cell division and replacement, as it contains actively dividing cells that give rise to new skin cells. These new cells then move up through the other layers of the epidermis, eventually reaching the surface and replacing the old, dead skin cells.

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88. Select the correct statement regarding blood cell formation.

Explanation

Red marrow is the main site of blood cell formation throughout adult life. This is because red marrow contains hematopoietic stem cells, which are responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. These stem cells differentiate into the various types of blood cells and continuously replenish the blood cell population in adults. Yellow marrow, on the other hand, primarily consists of fat cells and serves as a storage site for fats. While the spleen and liver play important roles in blood cell function and recycling, they are not the main sites of blood cell production in adults.

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89. Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle _____.

Explanation

Cardiac muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that it has gap junctions. These gap junctions allow for direct electrical connections between cells, enabling them to function as a syncytium. This means that the cells can contract together as a single unit, allowing for coordinated and efficient pumping of blood. This is a unique feature of cardiac muscle and is essential for its role in the heart.

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90. Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.

Explanation

Each cardiac muscle cell is connected to neighboring cells through intercalated discs, allowing for synchronized contraction of the entire heart. This ensures that the heart functions as a coordinated unit, pumping blood efficiently. If the cells do not contract together, it can lead to irregular heart rhythms or ineffective pumping.

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91. The renal corpuscule is made up of _____.

Explanation

The renal corpuscule is made up of Bowman's capsule and glomerulus. The Bowman's capsule is a cup-shaped structure that surrounds the glomerulus, which is a network of tiny blood vessels called capillaries. Together, the Bowman's capsule and glomerulus form the renal corpuscule, which is responsible for the initial filtration of blood in the kidneys.

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92. If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does this mean?

Explanation

If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, it means that normally all the glucose is reabsorbed. This indicates that none of the glucose molecules are filtered out of the blood and instead, they are all reabsorbed back into the body.

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93. Which tunic of an artery contains endothelium?

Explanation

The tunica intima is the innermost layer of an artery and it is composed of endothelium, which is a single layer of cells that lines the lumen of the blood vessel. This layer is responsible for maintaining the integrity and function of the artery, including regulating blood flow and preventing the formation of blood clots. The other layers of the artery, such as the tunica media and tunica externa, do not contain endothelium.

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94. Immunocompetence _____.

Explanation

Immunocompetence refers to the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it. This means that the cells of the immune system are able to identify and respond to foreign substances, such as bacteria or viruses, by attaching to them. Immunocompetence is an essential aspect of the adaptive immune system, allowing the body to mount a targeted response against specific invaders. It does not occur in one specific organ or prevent intercellular communication, and it does require exposure to an antigen to develop.

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95. The neurophypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because _____.

Explanation

The neurophypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not considered a true endocrine gland because it does not produce hormones on its own. Instead, it acts as a storage area for hormones that are produced by the hypothalamus and then released into the bloodstream. Therefore, it functions more as a relay station for hormone release rather than a gland that produces hormones itself.

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96. Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of respiratory control.

Explanation

The pons is thought to be instrumental in the smooth transition from inspiration to expiration. This means that the pons plays a crucial role in coordinating the transition between inhaling and exhaling during the breathing process. It helps regulate the timing and duration of each phase, ensuring a smooth and coordinated respiratory rhythm.

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97. Nerve impulses from _____ will result in inspiration.

Explanation

The ventral respiratory group is responsible for generating the basic rhythm of breathing and coordinating the muscles involved in inspiration. When nerve impulses originate from the ventral respiratory group, it triggers the contraction of the diaphragm and other respiratory muscles, leading to inspiration or inhalation.

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98. In the ascending limb of the loop of Henle the _____.

Explanation

In the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, the thick segment moves ions out into interstitial spaces for reabsorption. This is an important function of the thick segment, as it helps in the reabsorption of ions such as sodium and chloride from the tubular fluid. By moving these ions out into the interstitial spaces, the thick segment creates a concentration gradient that facilitates their further reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting duct. This process is crucial for maintaining the balance of electrolytes and water in the body.

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99. Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation?

Explanation

The correct answer is right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium. In pulmonary circulation, deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle is pumped into the pulmonary artery, which carries it to the lungs to be oxygenated. The oxygenated blood then returns to the heart via the pulmonary veins, specifically the left atrium. Therefore, the right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and left atrium are directly involved in the pulmonary circulation pathway.

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100. From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the alimentary canal are made up of the same four basic layers. Arrange them in order from the lumen.

Explanation

The correct answer is mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa. The mucosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal, followed by the submucosa, which provides support and contains blood vessels. The muscularis externa is the next layer, responsible for the movement and contraction of the organ. Lastly, the outermost layer is the serosa, which acts as a protective covering for the organ.

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101. Which of the following is true about veins?

Explanation

Veins are called capacitance vessels or blood reservoirs because they have the ability to hold a large amount of blood. They have a larger lumen in relation to the thickness of the vessel wall, allowing them to accommodate a greater volume of blood. This is important for maintaining blood pressure and ensuring a steady flow of blood to the heart. The other statements are not true about veins.

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102. The pulse pressure is _____.

Explanation

Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic pressure (the highest pressure reached during the cardiac cycle) and the diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure reached during the cardiac cycle). Therefore, the correct answer is "systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure".

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103. Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the _____.

Explanation

Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach. These cells are located in the gastric glands of the stomach lining. Pepsinogen is the inactive form of pepsin, which is responsible for breaking down proteins into smaller peptides. When pepsinogen is released into the stomach, it is activated by the acidic environment and converted into pepsin. Pepsin then helps in the digestion of proteins in the stomach.

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104. Which of the following is not a phase of gastric secretion?

Explanation

The enterogastric phase is not a phase of gastric secretion. The gastric secretion process consists of three phases: cephalic, gastric, and intestinal. The cephalic phase occurs before food enters the stomach and is triggered by the sight, smell, or taste of food. The gastric phase occurs when food enters the stomach and involves the release of gastric juices. The intestinal phase occurs when food moves into the small intestine and involves the release of hormones that inhibit gastric secretion. The enterogastric phase is not a recognized phase of gastric secretion.

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105. Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?

Explanation

Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down fibrin, which is a protein involved in blood clot formation. It is not a phase of hemostasis because it occurs after the clot has formed and serves to dissolve the clot once it is no longer needed. The other three options, coagulation, platelet plug formation, and vascular spasm, are all phases of hemostasis that occur to stop bleeding and promote clot formation.

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106. The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for?

Explanation

The dental formula for an adult typically consists of two incisors, one canine, two premolars, and three molars on each side of the upper and lower jaws. Therefore, the "1" in the dental formula 2-1-2-3 represents the number of canine teeth present in the adult dentition.

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107. Chemical digestion in the small intestine involves _____.

Explanation

Chemical digestion in the small intestine involves cholecystokinin (CCK), an intestinal hormone responsible for gallbladder contraction. CCK is released in response to the presence of fats and proteins in the small intestine. It stimulates the release of bile from the gallbladder, which helps in the emulsification of fats, making them easier to digest by enzymatic action. This hormone also promotes the release of enzymes from the pancreas, which further aids in the digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats in the small intestine.

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108. Select the correct statement about digestive processes.

Explanation

Chyme is the partially digested food that enters the duodenum from the stomach. The enterogastric reflex is responsible for regulating the movement of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine. When chyme enters the duodenum, it triggers the release of hormones, including enterogastrone, which can decrease gastric motility. This is an important mechanism to ensure that the small intestine has enough time to digest and absorb the nutrients from the chyme before more food is released from the stomach.

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109. One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?

Explanation

Humoral stimulation refers to the endocrine control system that directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. This mechanism involves the release of hormones in response to the concentration of specific substances in the blood. These hormones then act on target cells to regulate the levels of these substances, maintaining homeostasis in the body.

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110. Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the _____.

Explanation

The thymus gland is responsible for producing hormones that play a crucial role in the normal development of the immune response. These hormones help in the maturation and differentiation of T lymphocytes, which are important cells involved in immune defense. Therefore, the correct answer is the thymus gland.

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111. Select the correct statement about cardiac output.

Explanation

A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction. When the heart rate is slow, there is more time for the ventricles to fill with blood during diastole, resulting in an increased end diastolic volume. This increased volume leads to a larger stroke volume, which is the amount of blood pumped out of the ventricles with each heartbeat. Additionally, a slow heart rate allows for a longer duration of ventricular contraction, leading to a stronger force of contraction and therefore increased cardiac output.

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112. Which of the following is not true of the respiratory tract from the medium bronchi to the alveoli?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Resistance to air flow increases due to the increase in cross-sectional diameter." This statement is not true because as the cross-sectional diameter of the respiratory tract increases, the resistance to air flow actually decreases. This is because a larger diameter allows for easier and more efficient airflow through the respiratory system.

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113. If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that _____.

Explanation

If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the parasympathetic stimulation would decrease. The vagal nerves are responsible for transmitting parasympathetic signals to the heart, which help to slow down the heart rate. Therefore, if these nerves were cut, the parasympathetic stimulation would decrease, leading to an increase in heart rate. This increase is estimated to be around 25 beats per minute.

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114. Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymph nodes have several functions, including producing lymphoid cells and granular white blood cells, serving as antigen surveillance areas, acting as lymph filters, and activating the immune system. However, producing lymph fluid and cerebro-spinal fluid is not a function of lymph nodes. Lymph fluid is produced by the lymphatic vessels, while cerebro-spinal fluid is produced by the choroid plexus in the brain.

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115. Which statement best describes arteries?

Explanation

Arteries are blood vessels that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to various parts of the body. They have thick and elastic walls that help maintain blood pressure and facilitate the flow of blood. Arteries do not contain valves like veins do, as their strong muscular walls are sufficient to prevent the backflow of blood. Additionally, arteries of all sizes, not just large ones, are lined with endothelium, a thin layer of cells that helps reduce friction and maintain smooth blood flow. Therefore, the statement "All carry blood away from the heart" accurately describes arteries.

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116. Interferons _____.

Explanation

Interferons are a group of proteins that are produced by cells in response to viral infections. These proteins play a crucial role in the immune response by interfering with viral replication within cells. They do this by activating various antiviral pathways, which inhibit the ability of viruses to multiply and spread. This helps to limit the spread of the infection and reduce the severity of symptoms. Interferons are not virus-specific, meaning that they can provide some level of protection against a range of different viruses.

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117. Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes _____.

Explanation

Keratinocytes accumulate the melanin granules on the superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer. This is important in protecting the skin from UV damage because melanin absorbs UV radiation and prevents it from penetrating deeper into the skin. By accumulating the melanin granules on the superficial portion, the keratinocytes create a barrier that blocks the harmful effects of UV radiation and reduces the risk of skin damage and potential DNA mutations caused by UV exposure.

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118. Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?

Explanation

Renal regulation provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by adjusting the volume of blood and the concentration of electrolytes in the body. When blood pressure is high, the kidneys increase the excretion of water and sodium, reducing the volume of blood and lowering blood pressure. Conversely, when blood pressure is low, the kidneys conserve water and sodium, increasing blood volume and raising blood pressure. This process helps to maintain blood pressure within a normal range over an extended period of time.

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119. Blood flow to the skin _____.

Explanation

When the environmental temperature rises, the body needs to cool down to maintain its normal temperature. One of the ways it does this is by increasing blood flow to the skin. This allows heat to be transferred from the body to the skin, where it can be dissipated into the surrounding environment. Therefore, the statement that blood flow to the skin increases when environmental temperature rises is correct.

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120. Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide binding sites, enabling macrophages and neutrophils to phagocytize the organism. This phenomenon is termed _____.

Explanation

Opsonization is the phenomenon where complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism, providing binding sites for macrophages and neutrophils. This coating enhances the recognition and phagocytosis of the organism by these immune cells.

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121. Clonal selection of B cells _____.

Explanation

Clonal selection of B cells is a process in which specific B cells are selected and activated in response to the presence of antigens. These activated B cells then undergo further differentiation, leading to the formation of plasma cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing and secreting large amounts of antibodies that can specifically bind to the antigens, thereby eliminating the threat posed by the antigens. Therefore, the clonal selection of B cells results in the formation of plasma cells.

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122. No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in _____.

Explanation

Monocytes are a type of white blood cell that do not contain visible cytoplasmic granules. Eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils, on the other hand, do contain visible cytoplasmic granules.

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123. The _____ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax.

Explanation

The correct answer is ceruminous. The ceruminous gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax. This wax, known as cerumen, helps to protect the ear canal by trapping dust, debris, and foreign particles, preventing them from entering the ear. The secretion of cerumen also helps to lubricate the ear canal, preventing dryness and irritation.

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124. Which sequence is correct for the following events? 1. fibrinogen --> fibrin 2. clot retraction 3. formation of thromboplastin 4. prothrombin --> thrombin

Explanation

The correct sequence for the given events is 3,4,1,2. Thromboplastin is formed first, followed by the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin. Thrombin then acts on fibrinogen, converting it into fibrin. Finally, clot retraction occurs.

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125. Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean?

Explanation

This means that Fred's blood does not have any antibodies against A, B, or Rh antigens in the plasma. This is significant because if there were antibodies present, it would mean that Fred's blood would react with and potentially attack red blood cells that have these antigens on their surface. However, since there are no antibodies, Fred's blood is considered compatible with all blood types and can receive blood from donors with any blood type.

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126. The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?

Explanation

The reticular layer is the correct answer because it constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin. The reticular layer is composed of dense irregular connective tissue that provides strength and support to the skin. It contains collagen and elastic fibers, which give the skin its elasticity and resilience. The tension lines in the skin are formed by the arrangement of collagen fibers in the reticular layer, and they play a role in wound healing and the direction of surgical incisions.

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127. Which of the choices below is not a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin?

Explanation

The number of red blood cells is not a factor that promotes oxygen binding to and dissociation from hemoglobin. The oxygen binding and dissociation process primarily depends on factors such as temperature, partial pressure of oxygen, and partial pressure of carbon dioxide. The number of red blood cells does not directly affect the ability of hemoglobin to bind or release oxygen.

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128. Norepinephrine acts on the heart by _____.

Explanation

Norepinephrine acts on the heart by causing the threshold to be reached more quickly. This means that it helps the heart reach the point at which it can generate an action potential more rapidly. This can lead to an increased heart rate and stronger contractions, ultimately increasing cardiac output.

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129. An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water is due to a(n) _____.

Explanation

An increase in the production of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) causes an increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule to water. ADH acts on the cells of the collecting tubule to insert aquaporin channels into their membranes, allowing water to be reabsorbed from the tubule back into the bloodstream. This results in a decrease in urine volume and an increase in water reabsorption, leading to concentrated urine.

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130. The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levesl of blood calcium. This is accomplished through _____.

Explanation

The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium by targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts. Osteoclasts are cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue, which releases calcium into the bloodstream. This process helps to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood when it is too low.

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131. Which of the following is true about calcium homeostasis?

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood. PTH is released by the parathyroid glands in response to low blood calcium levels. It acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase calcium levels in the blood. PTH stimulates bone resorption by increasing osteoclast activity, which releases calcium from the bones into the bloodstream. It also enhances calcium reabsorption by the kidneys and promotes the activation of vitamin D, which increases calcium absorption in the intestines. Overall, PTH plays a crucial role in maintaining calcium homeostasis by regulating calcium levels in the blood.

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132. Damage to the _____ is referred to as heart block.

Explanation

Heart block refers to a condition where there is a disruption or delay in the electrical signals that regulate the heartbeat. The AV node, or atrioventricular node, is an important part of the electrical conduction system of the heart. It acts as a relay station, transmitting electrical signals from the atria to the ventricles. Damage to the AV node can result in heart block, as it can disrupt the normal flow of electrical signals and cause a delay or complete blockage in the transmission of these signals.

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133. B lymphocytes develope immunocompetence in the _____.

Explanation

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the bone marrow. This is because the bone marrow is the primary site of B cell development and maturation. B cells undergo a series of genetic rearrangements in the bone marrow that allow them to produce a diverse repertoire of antigen receptors. Once they have developed immunocompetence, B cells migrate to secondary lymphoid organs such as the spleen and lymph nodes, where they can encounter antigens and initiate immune responses. The thymus, on the other hand, is primarily involved in the development of T lymphocytes.

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134. Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?

Explanation

The heart is responsible for synthesizing ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). ANP is a hormone that helps regulate blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. It is produced and released by specialized cells in the walls of the heart's atria (the upper chambers of the heart). When the atria are stretched due to increased blood volume or pressure, ANP is released into the bloodstream. ANP acts on the kidneys to promote sodium and water excretion, which helps lower blood pressure and reduce fluid overload. Therefore, the correct answer is the heart.

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135. Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called _____.

Explanation

Haptens are small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances. Unlike complete antigens, haptens alone are unable to stimulate an immune response. However, when they bind to self-proteins, they form larger complexes that can be recognized as foreign by the immune system, leading to an immune response. This immune response can result in the production of antibodies, which are proteins that specifically bind to and neutralize antigens. Reagins are antibodies that are associated with allergic reactions, while ions are charged particles that do not necessarily bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances.

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136. Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by _____.

Explanation

Plasma cells are responsible for releasing antibodies that target specific foreign substances. These antibodies are part of the immune response and help to neutralize or eliminate the foreign substance from the body. Medullary cords are structures found in lymph nodes, but they do not directly release antibodies. Lymph nodes are involved in the immune response, but they do not release antibodies themselves. T lymphocytes, also known as T cells, play a role in the immune response but they do not release antibodies. Therefore, the correct answer is plasma cells.

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137. Intrapulmonary pressure is the _____.

Explanation

The intrapulmonary pressure refers to the pressure within the alveoli of the lungs. This pressure is crucial for the process of respiration, as it determines the movement of air in and out of the lungs. During inhalation, the intrapulmonary pressure decreases, allowing air to flow into the lungs. Conversely, during exhalation, the intrapulmonary pressure increases, pushing air out of the lungs. Therefore, understanding and maintaining the appropriate intrapulmonary pressure is essential for proper lung function.

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138. Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as _____.

Explanation

Down-regulation is a phenomenon that occurs when there is prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations. It refers to a decrease in the number or sensitivity of hormone receptors on the cell surface. This adaptation allows the cell to become less responsive to the hormone, preventing overstimulation and maintaining homeostasis.

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139. Helper T cells _____.

Explanation

Helper T cells play a crucial role in the adaptive immune system activation. They help coordinate and regulate the immune response by interacting with other immune cells, such as B cells and cytotoxic T cells. Helper T cells recognize antigens presented by antigen-presenting cells and release cytokines that stimulate the activation and proliferation of other immune cells. Therefore, the correct answer is that helper T cells function in the adaptive immune system activation.

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140. The macula densa cells respond to _____.

Explanation

The macula densa cells are specialized cells located in the kidney that respond to changes in solute content of the filtrate. These cells play a crucial role in regulating the filtration and reabsorption of substances in the kidney. When there is a high concentration of solutes in the filtrate, the macula densa cells signal the afferent arterioles to constrict, reducing blood flow to the glomerulus and decreasing the filtration rate. Conversely, when there is a low concentration of solutes, the macula densa cells signal for vasodilation, increasing blood flow and filtration rate. This mechanism helps to maintain the balance of solutes and water in the body.

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141. Steroid hormones exert their action by _____.

Explanation

Steroid hormones are able to enter the nucleus of a cell and interact with specific receptors located within the cell. Once inside the nucleus, the hormone-receptor complex binds to specific regions of DNA, known as hormone response elements, and initiates or alters the expression of target genes. This process ultimately leads to changes in protein synthesis and cellular function, allowing the steroid hormone to exert its specific physiological effects.

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142. Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is

Explanation

When the pressure inside the lungs is equal to the pressure in the atmosphere, air moves out of the lungs. This is because air flows from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure. When the pressure inside the lungs is equal to the pressure in the atmosphere, there is no pressure gradient for air to move into or out of the lungs, resulting in equilibrium and no net movement of air.

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143. Which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and tends to grow rapidly and metastasize?

Explanation

Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that appears as a scaly reddened papule. It is known for its rapid growth and tendency to metastasize, or spread to other parts of the body. This type of cancer arises from the squamous cells, which are flat cells that make up the outermost layer of the skin. Squamous cell carcinoma is often caused by long-term exposure to the sun's ultraviolet (UV) rays and is commonly found on areas of the body that are frequently exposed to the sun, such as the face, ears, and hands.

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144. The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to _____.

Explanation

The hepatic portal circulation is responsible for collecting absorbed nutrients from the digestive system and transporting them to the liver for metabolic processing or storage. This allows the liver to regulate nutrient levels in the body and ensure that they are used efficiently.

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145. Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the follow events?

Explanation

The normal heart sounds are caused by the closure of the heart valves. When the heart valves close, they create a sound known as the "lub-dub" sound. The closure of the valves prevents the backflow of blood and ensures the proper flow of blood through the heart chambers and into the arteries. This sound can be heard using a stethoscope and is an important diagnostic tool for assessing the health and function of the heart.

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146. The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:

Explanation

The papillary layer of the dermis is rich in blood vessels and contains structures known as dermal papillae. These papillae play a crucial role in the connection between the dermis and the epidermis, as they contain nerve endings and capillaries that supply nutrients and oxygen to the epidermis. They also help in the regulation of body temperature and provide the skin with its characteristic texture, as they are responsible for the formation of fingerprints. Therefore, the correct answer is dermal papillae.

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147. The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the _____.

Explanation

The medullary osmotic gradient is established by the loop of Henle. This structure plays a crucial role in reabsorbing water and solutes from the filtrate, leading to the concentration of urine. The loop of Henle is responsible for creating a gradient of increasing osmolarity in the medulla of the kidney, which allows for the reabsorption of water and the concentration of urine. The permeability properties of the loop of Henle are essential for this process, as they determine how much water and solutes can be reabsorbed and contribute to the establishment of the osmotic gradient.

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148. Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?

Explanation

Enzyme is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus. Endocrine glands are primarily stimulated by three categories: hormonal, neural, and humoral. Hormonal stimulation occurs when the release of a specific hormone from one gland triggers the release of another hormone from a different gland. Neural stimulation involves the release of hormones in response to signals from the nervous system. Humoral stimulation occurs when hormone release is triggered by changes in blood levels of certain ions or nutrients. Enzymes, on the other hand, are not involved in the stimulation of endocrine glands.

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149. Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation for micturition (voiding)?

Explanation

The stretching of the bladder wall acts as the trigger for the initiation of micturition (voiding). When the bladder fills with urine, it expands and stretches the bladder wall, which sends signals to the brain indicating the need to urinate. This triggers a series of neurological responses that result in the contraction of the bladder muscles and relaxation of the urinary sphincter, allowing urine to be expelled from the body.

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150. Excretion of dilute urine requires _____.

Explanation

Excretion of dilute urine requires impermeability of the collecting tubule to water. This means that the collecting tubule does not allow water to pass through its walls, preventing the reabsorption of water back into the bloodstream. As a result, more water remains in the urine, leading to its dilution. The presence of ADH (antidiuretic hormone) would actually increase the permeability of the collecting tubule to water, resulting in the reabsorption of water and the production of concentrated urine. The transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the descending loop of Henle and the relative permeability of the distal tubule to water are not directly related to the excretion of dilute urine.

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151. The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract _____.

Explanation

The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract is a neural pathway that connects the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary gland. It is responsible for the release of hormones such as oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary. The infundibulum is a stalk-like structure that connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland, and it contains a portion of the hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract. Therefore, the statement "is partly contained within the infundibulum" is a correct explanation.

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152. The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except _____.

Explanation

The major regions of a hair shaft include the cuticle, cortex, and medulla. The external root sheath, however, is not a part of the hair shaft. It is a layer of the hair follicle that surrounds and protects the hair shaft as it grows.

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153. The function of angiotensin II is to _____.

Explanation

Angiotensin II is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. One of its main functions is to constrict arterioles, which are small blood vessels, causing them to narrow. This constriction increases resistance to blood flow, leading to an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is that angiotensin II constricts arterioles and increases blood pressure.

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154. Which organ does not have hormone production?

Explanation

The liver is the correct answer because it does not have hormone production. While the kidney produces hormones such as erythropoietin and renin, the heart produces hormones like atrial natriuretic peptide, and the skin produces hormones like vitamin D, the liver primarily functions in detoxification, metabolism, and bile production, rather than hormone production.

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155. The descending limb of the loop of Henle _____.

Explanation

The descending limb of the loop of Henle is not permeable to water, which means that water cannot pass through this part of the nephron. As a result, the fluid in the descending limb becomes more concentrated as it moves down into the medulla. This occurs because solutes such as sodium and urea can freely pass through the descending limb, but water cannot. Therefore, as the fluid moves down the descending limb, water is not able to leave the tubule, causing the concentration of solutes to increase.

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156. The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates _____.

Explanation

The correct answer is atrial repolarization. The P wave in a normal electrocardiogram represents the depolarization of the atria, which is the contraction of the atrial muscles. After the depolarization, the atrial muscles repolarize, meaning they return to their resting state. This repolarization is not typically visible on the ECG, but it is an important part of the cardiac cycle.

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157. Match the following:
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158. Match the following:
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159. Match the following:
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The arteries that directly feed into the capillary beds are called...
The major target organs of growth hormone are _____.
What is the average normal pH range of blood?
Which blood type is called the universal donor?
Which of the following maintains the patency (openness) of the...
The chemical and mechanical processes of food breakdown are called...
Respiratory control centers are located in the _____.
Which of the following is not a factor that helps create the stomach...
The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the...
An individual who is blood type AB negative can _____.
The distal portion of the small intestine contains clumps of lymph...
Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?
The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and...
The second-messenger mechanism or hormone action operates by _____.
Which of the following is true about blood plasma?
The ingestion of a meal high in fat content would cause which of the...
Digestion of which of the following would be affected the most if the...
Lymph leaves a lymph node via _____.
What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?
The tricuspid valve is closed _____.
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is responsible for _____.
Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes _____.
The mechanism of water reabsorption by the renal tubules is _____.
Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it _____.
Which of the following is not a type of T cell?
The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia...
The circulatory route that runs from the digestive tract to the liver...
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of...
Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elementes...
The most abundant plasma protein is ____.
A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which...
B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by _____.
The sheets of peritoneal membrane that hold the digestive tract in...
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120...
The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive...
The salivary glands are composed of which two types of secretory...
Which of the choices below reflects the balance (or imbalance) between...
The solutes contained in saliva include _____.
Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?
Peristaltic waves are _____.
Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on _____.
Hydrochloric acid is secreted by which of the secretory cells of the...
Nervous control of gastric secretion is provided by _____.
The _____ contains lobules with sinusoids (lined with macrophages)...
The lymphatic capillaries are _____.
The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not:
Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal...
Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the...
Select the correct statement about the heart valves.
Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids...
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall...
Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the _____.
Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?
In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels...
Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood...
The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are...
Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as...
Which of the following is characterstic of complete antigens?
Unlike inspiration, expiration is a passive act because no muscular...
The kidneys are stimulated to produce renin _____.
Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are...
The dermis _____.
Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?
Which of the following provide the greatest surface area for gas...
The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is _____.
Which muscles attached to the hair follices cause goose bumps?
Fever _____.
What is the function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
Which hormone causes an increaed output of enzyme-rich pancreatic...
The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by...
Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported...
Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood...
Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water...
Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed _____.
Chyme is created in the _____.
Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic...
Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted...
Thromboembolic disorders _____.
What effect does age have on the size of the thymus?
If an incision has to be made in the small intestine to remove an...
The walls of the alveoli are composed of two types of cells, type I...
The function of the goblet cells is to _____.
Which of the following is not a mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue?
All of the following conditions impair coagulation except _____.
The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a...
Select the correct statement regarding blood cell formation.
Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle _____.
Select the correct statement about the function of myocardial cells.
The renal corpuscule is made up of _____.
If one says that the clearance value of glucose is zero, what does...
Which tunic of an artery contains endothelium?
Immunocompetence _____.
The neurophypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a...
Select the correct statement about the neural mechanisms of...
Nerve impulses from _____ will result in inspiration.
In the ascending limb of the loop of Henle the _____.
Which of the following are involved directly in pulmonary circulation?
From the esophagus to the anal canal, the walls of every organ of the...
Which of the following is true about veins?
The pulse pressure is _____.
Pepsinogen, a digestive enzyme, is secreted by the _____.
Which of the following is not a phase of gastric secretion?
Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis?
The dental formula for an adult is 2-1-2-3. What does the 1 stand for?
Chemical digestion in the small intestine involves _____.
Select the correct statement about digestive processes.
One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly...
Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones...
Select the correct statement about cardiac output.
Which of the following is not true of the respiratory tract from the...
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that...
Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?
Which statement best describes arteries?
Interferons _____.
Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin...
Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to...
Blood flow to the skin _____.
Complement proteins and antibodies coat a microorganism and provide...
Clonal selection of B cells _____.
No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in _____.
The _____ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax.
Which sequence is correct for the following events?...
Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this...
The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes...
Which of the choices below is not a factor that promotes oxygen...
Norepinephrine acts on the heart by _____.
An increase in the permeability of the cells of the collecting tubule...
The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levesl of blood calcium. This...
Which of the following is true about calcium homeostasis?
Damage to the _____ is referred to as heart block.
B lymphocytes develope immunocompetence in the _____.
Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?
Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic...
Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are...
Intrapulmonary pressure is the _____.
Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations...
Helper T cells _____.
The macula densa cells respond to _____.
Steroid hormones exert their action by _____.
Complete the following statement using the choices below. Air moves...
Which type of skin cancer appears as a scaly reddened papule and tends...
The function of the hepatic portal circulation is to _____.
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the follow events?
The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily...
The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmotic gradient depends...
Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?
Which of the following acts as the trigger for the initiation for...
Excretion of dilute urine requires _____.
The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract _____.
The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except...
The function of angiotensin II is to _____.
Which organ does not have hormone production?
The descending limb of the loop of Henle _____.
The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates _____.
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