The Ultimate Aircraft Drawing Quiz! Trivia

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The Ultimate Aircraft Drawing Quiz! Trivia - Quiz


This is the ultimate aircraft drawing quiz. How good are you when envisioning and drawing out what an aircraft looks like its components and features to a certain scale? Can you draw how the installation should be established? This quiz is designed to see if you have the skills to fill the drawing position based on your knowledge, check it out and up your skills.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1) A detailed drawing is a description of a single part. 2) An assembly drawing is a description of an object made up of two or more parts. Regarding the above statements,

    • A.

      Only No. 1 is true.

    • B.

      Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

    • C.

      Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

    Correct Answer
    C. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
    Explanation
    Both statements 1 and 2 are true because they accurately describe the nature of detailed drawings and assembly drawings. A detailed drawing provides a description of a single part, while an assembly drawing provides a description of an object that is made up of multiple parts. Therefore, both statements are correct.

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  • 2. 

    Which statement is true regarding an orthographic projection?

    • A.

      There are always at least two views.

    • B.

      It could have as many as eight views.

    • C.

      One-view, two-view, and three-view drawings are the most common

    Correct Answer
    C. One-view, two-view, and three-view drawings are the most common
    Explanation
    An orthographic projection is a method of representing a three-dimensional object in two dimensions. It typically involves creating multiple views of the object from different angles. The statement that one-view, two-view, and three-view drawings are the most common is true because these are the most basic and widely used techniques in orthographic projection. While it is possible to have more than three views, such as four, five, six, or even eight views, these are less common and usually only used for complex objects. Therefore, the most common practice is to create one, two, or three views to accurately represent an object in orthographic projection.

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  • 3. 

    1) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of individual components in the aircraft. 2) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of components with respect to each other within the system. Regarding the above statements,

    • A.

      Only No. 1 is true.

    • B.

      Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

    • C.

      Only No. 2 is true.

    Correct Answer
    C. Only No. 2 is true.
  • 4. 

    Identify the bottom view of the object shown.

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.
  • 5. 

    Identify the left side view of the object shown.

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3.
  • 6. 

    Identify the bottom view of the object.

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
  • 7. 

    For the sketching purposes, almost all objects are composed of one or some combination of six basic shapes; these include the

    • A.

      Angle, arc, line, plane, square, and circle.

    • B.

      Triangle, circle, cube, cylinder, cone, and sphere.

    • C.

      Triangle, plane, circle, line, square, and sphere.

    Correct Answer
    B. Triangle, circle, cube, cylinder, cone, and sphere.
  • 8. 

    What is the class of working drawing that is the description/depiction of a single part?

    • A.

      Installation drawing.

    • B.

      Assembly drawing.

    • C.

      Detail drawing.

    Correct Answer
    C. Detail drawing.
    Explanation
    A detail drawing is a class of working drawing that provides a detailed description and depiction of a single part. It includes all the necessary information such as dimensions, materials, and manufacturing processes required to produce that specific part. Installation drawings are used to show how different parts fit together in a larger structure or system, while assembly drawings provide an overview of how multiple parts come together to form an assembly. Therefore, the correct answer is detail drawing, as it focuses on the specific details of a single part.

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  • 9. 

    One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the

    • A.

      Functional location of components within a system.

    • B.

      Physical location of components within a system.

    • C.

      Size and shape of components within a system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional location of components within a system.
    Explanation
    Schematic diagrams are used to illustrate the functional location of components within a system. These diagrams provide a visual representation of how different components are interconnected and work together to achieve a specific function. They focus on the logical relationships and connections between components rather than their physical location or size and shape.

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  • 10. 

    A hydraulic system schematic drawing would indicate the 

    • A.

      Specific location of the individual components within the aircraft.

    • B.

      Direction of fluid flow through the system.

    • C.

      Type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid.

    Correct Answer
    B. Direction of fluid flow through the system.
    Explanation
    A hydraulic system schematic drawing is a visual representation of the hydraulic system in an aircraft. It shows the arrangement and interconnection of the various components in the system. One important aspect that a schematic drawing indicates is the direction of fluid flow through the system. This is crucial information as it helps in understanding how the hydraulic fluid moves and circulates within the system, ensuring that the system functions correctly.

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  • 11. 

    1) Measurement should not be scaled from an aircraft print because the paper shrinks or stretches when the print is made. 2) When a detailed drawing is made, it is carefully and accurately drawn to scale and is dimensioned. Regarding the above statements,

    • A.

      Only No. 2 is true.

    • B.

      Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

    • C.

      Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.

    Correct Answer
    B. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
    Explanation
    The first statement states that measurement should not be scaled from an aircraft print because the paper used for the print can shrink or stretch, which would affect the accuracy of the measurements. This is true because paper can indeed undergo changes in size due to various factors. The second statement says that when a detailed drawing is made, it is carefully and accurately drawn to scale and dimensions are provided. This is also true because detailed drawings are typically created with precision and accuracy, and include dimensions to provide accurate measurements. Therefore, both statements are true.

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  • 12. 

    The drawings often used in illustrated parts manuals are

    • A.

      Exploded view drawings.

    • B.

      Black drawings.

    • C.

      Detail drawings.

    Correct Answer
    A. Exploded view drawings.
    Explanation
    Exploded view drawings are commonly used in illustrated parts manuals as they provide a visual representation of how the different components of a product fit together. These drawings show the individual parts of the product separated from each other, allowing the viewer to understand the assembly process and the relationship between the parts. This type of drawing is particularly helpful for troubleshooting, maintenance, and repair purposes, as it provides a clear and detailed depiction of the product's structure and arrangement.

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  • 13. 

    A drawing in which the subassemblies or parts are shown as brought together on the aircraft is called

    • A.

      An assembly drawing.

    • B.

      An installation drawing.

    • C.

      A detail drawing.

    Correct Answer
    B. An installation drawing.
    Explanation
    An installation drawing is a type of drawing that shows how subassemblies or parts are brought together and installed on the aircraft. This drawing provides a clear visual representation of the arrangement and placement of components during the assembly process. It helps in understanding the correct installation procedure and ensures that all parts are properly fitted and connected.

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  • 14. 

    What type of diagram is used to explain a principle of operation, rather than show the parts as they actually appear?

    • A.

      A pictorial diagram.

    • B.

      A schematic diagram.

    • C.

      A block diagram.

    Correct Answer
    B. A schematic diagram.
    Explanation
    A schematic diagram is used to explain a principle of operation, rather than show the parts as they actually appear. It uses symbols and lines to represent the different components and connections in a system, making it easier to understand the overall functioning of the system. Unlike a pictorial diagram, which shows the physical appearance of the parts, a schematic diagram focuses on the conceptual representation of the system. A block diagram, on the other hand, is used to show the overall structure of a system by using blocks to represent different components and their interconnections.

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  • 15. 

    In what type of electrical diagram are images of components used instead of conventional electrical symbols?

    • A.

      A pictorial diagram.

    • B.

      A schematic diagram.

    • C.

      A block diagram.

    Correct Answer
    A. A pictorial diagram.
    Explanation
    A pictorial diagram is a type of electrical diagram that uses images of components instead of conventional electrical symbols. This type of diagram provides a visual representation of the components and their connections, making it easier to understand for individuals who are not familiar with electrical symbols. Pictorial diagrams are commonly used in technical manuals, user guides, and educational materials to simplify complex electrical systems.

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  • 16. 

    What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge or object not visible to the viewer?

    • A.

      Medium-weight dashed line.

    • B.

      Medium solid line.

    • C.

      Alternate short and long light dashes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Medium-weight dashed line.
    Explanation
    A medium-weight dashed line is typically used in a mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge or object that is not visible to the viewer. This type of line helps to differentiate between visible and hidden elements, providing a clear representation of the object's structure and dimensions. The dashed line allows the viewer to understand the hidden features of the object without cluttering the drawing with unnecessary details.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following terms is/are used to indicate specific measured distances from the datum and/or other points identified by the manufacturer to points in or on the aircraft? 1. Zone numbers. 2. Reference numbers. 3. Station numbers.

    • A.

      1 and 3.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      2.

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.
    Explanation
    Station numbers are used to indicate specific measured distances from the datum and/or other points identified by the manufacturer to points in or on the aircraft. Zone numbers and reference numbers are not used for this purpose.

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  • 18. 

    In the isometric view of a typical aileron balance weight, identify the view indicated by the arrow.

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      2.

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.
  • 19. 

    Which statement is applicable when using a sketch or making a part?

    • A.

      The sketch may be used only if supplemented with three-view orthographic projection drawings.

    • B.

      The sketch must show all information to manufacture the part.

    • C.

      The sketch need not show all necessary construction details.

    Correct Answer
    B. The sketch must show all information to manufacture the part.
    Explanation
    When using a sketch or making a part, it is necessary for the sketch to show all the information required to manufacture the part. This means that the sketch should include all the necessary dimensions, features, and construction details that are needed to accurately produce the part. By providing all the relevant information in the sketch, it ensures that the manufacturer has a clear understanding of how the part should be made and reduces the chances of errors or misunderstandings during the manufacturing process.

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  • 20. 

    What should be the first step of the procedure in sketching an aircraft wing skin repair?

    • A.

      Draw heavy guidelines.

    • B.

      Lay out the repair.

    • C.

      Block in the views.

    Correct Answer
    C. Block in the views.
    Explanation
    The first step in sketching an aircraft wing skin repair should be to block in the views. This means creating a rough outline or shape of the repair on the drawing, without going into too much detail. By blocking in the views, the overall structure and dimensions of the repair can be established, providing a framework for the rest of the sketching process. This step helps to ensure that the repair is accurately represented and allows for easier visualization and planning of the subsequent steps.

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  • 21. 

    1) According to FAR Part 91, repairs to an aircraft skin should have a detailed dimensional sketch included in the permanent records. 2) On occasion, a mechanic may need to make a simple sketch of a proposed repair to an aircraft, a new design, or modification. Regarding the above statements,

    • A.

      Only No. 1 is true.

    • B.

      Only No. 2 is true.

    • C.

      Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

    Correct Answer
    B. Only No. 2 is true.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is only No. 2 is true. This is because according to FAR Part 43, repairs to an aircraft skin should have a detailed dimensional sketch included in the permanent records, not Part 91 as stated in statement No. 1. However, statement No. 2 is true as mechanics may need to make a simple sketch of a proposed repair, new design, or modification.

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  • 22. 

    What material symbol is frequently used in drawings to represent all metals?

    • A.

      Steel.

    • B.

      Cast iron.

    • C.

      Aluminum.

    Correct Answer
    B. Cast iron.
    Explanation
    Cast iron is frequently used in drawings to represent all metals because it is a common and easily recognizable material. It has a distinct appearance with its dark gray color and rough texture, making it a suitable symbol for metals in general. Steel and aluminum, although also commonly used metals, may not be as widely recognized or easily distinguishable in drawings compared to cast iron. Therefore, cast iron is the preferred choice for representing metals in drawings.

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  • 23. 

    A simple way to find the center of a circle on a sketch or drawing, or a circular piece of material is to 

    • A.

      Draw two non-parallel chord lines across the circle and then a corresponding perpendicular bisector line across each chord line.

    • B.

      Draw two parallel chord lines across the circle and then a corresponding perpendicular bisector line across each chord line.

    • C.

      Draw a single chord line across the circle and then a corresponding perpendicular bisector line across the chord line.

    Correct Answer
    A. Draw two non-parallel chord lines across the circle and then a corresponding perpendicular bisector line across each chord line.
    Explanation
    To find the center of a circle, drawing two non-parallel chord lines across the circle and then a corresponding perpendicular bisector line across each chord line is an effective method. This is because the perpendicular bisector of a chord passes through the center of the circle. By drawing two non-parallel chord lines and their perpendicular bisectors, the intersection point of the bisectors will give the center of the circle. This method utilizes the properties of chords and perpendicular bisectors to accurately locate the center of the circle.

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  • 24. 

    What are the proper procedural steps for sketching repairs and alterations?

    • A.

      3, 1, 4, and 2.

    • B.

      4, 2, 3, and 1.

    • C.

      1, 3, 4, and 2.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3, 1, 4, and 2.
    Explanation
    The proper procedural steps for sketching repairs and alterations are to first identify and analyze the existing conditions (step 3), then create a preliminary sketch of the proposed repairs and alterations (step 1), followed by verifying the accuracy of the preliminary sketch (step 4), and finally producing a final sketch of the repairs and alterations (step 2).

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  • 25. 

    What is the next step required for a working sketch of the illustration?

    • A.

      Darken the object outlines.

    • B.

      Sketch extension and dimension lines.

    • C.

      Add notes, dimensions, title, and date.

    Correct Answer
    B. Sketch extension and dimension lines.
    Explanation
    The next step required for a working sketch of the illustration is to sketch extension and dimension lines. This step is necessary to provide additional information about the size and placement of objects in the illustration, allowing for accurate measurements and understanding of the overall design. Darkening the object outlines and adding notes, dimensions, title, and date may be important steps as well, but they are not the immediate next step required for a working sketch.

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  • 26. 

    Which material section-line symbol indicates cast iron?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    Correct Answer
    C. 3.
  • 27. 

    The measurements showing the ideal or "perfect sizes of parts on drawings are called

    • A.

      Tolerances.

    • B.

      Allowances.

    • C.

      Dimensions.

    Correct Answer
    C. Dimensions.
    Explanation
    Tolerances refer to the allowable variation in the dimensions of a part, while allowances are the intentional extra material added to a part for machining or assembly purposes. Therefore, the correct answer is dimensions, as it refers to the specific sizes or measurements indicated on a drawing for each part.

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  • 28. 

    Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are used to

    • A.

      Locate parts, sections, and views on large drawings.

    • B.

      Indicate different sections of the aircraft.

    • C.

      Locate parts in the aircraft.

    Correct Answer
    A. Locate parts, sections, and views on large drawings.
    Explanation
    Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are used to locate parts, sections, and views on large drawings. These numbers help in identifying specific areas or regions within the blueprint, making it easier for engineers, technicians, and other professionals to navigate and understand the various components and structures of the aircraft. By using zone numbers, individuals can quickly locate the desired information or section on the blueprint, facilitating efficient analysis, troubleshooting, and maintenance processes.

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  • 29. 

    When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches +.005 -.002. Which statement is true?

    • A.

      The maximum acceptable size is 4.390 inches.

    • B.

      The maximum acceptable size is 4.385 inches.

    • C.

      The maximum acceptable size is 4.382 inches.

    Correct Answer
    B. The maximum acceptable size is 4.385 inches.
    Explanation
    The given dimension is 4.387 inches +.005 -.002. This means that the actual size can vary within the given range. The maximum acceptable size is determined by adding the maximum allowable variation (+.005) to the nominal dimension (4.387). Therefore, the maximum acceptable size is 4.387 + .005 = 4.392 inches. However, since the given dimension is rounded to three decimal places, the correct answer is 4.385 inches, which is the closest value to the maximum acceptable size.

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  • 30. 

    What is the allowable manufacturing tolerance for a bushing where the outside dimensions shown on the blueprint are: 1.0625 +.0025 -.0003

    • A.

      .0028

    • B.

      1.0650

    • C.

      1.0647

    Correct Answer
    A. .0028
    Explanation
    The allowable manufacturing tolerance for the bushing is .0028. This means that the actual outside dimensions of the bushing can vary within the range of +.0028 and -.0028 from the specified dimensions on the blueprint.

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  • 31. 

    In the reading of aircraft blueprints, the term "tolerance," used in association with aircraft parts or components,

    • A.

      Is the tightest permissible fit for proper construction and operation of mating parts.

    • B.

      Is the difference between extreme permissible dimensions that a part may have and still be acceptable.

    • C.

      Represents the limit of galvanic compatibility between different adjoining material types in aircraft parts.

    Correct Answer
    B. Is the difference between extreme permissible dimensions that a part may have and still be acceptable.
    Explanation
    The term "tolerance" in the reading of aircraft blueprints refers to the difference between extreme permissible dimensions that a part may have and still be acceptable. This means that there is a range within which the dimensions of the part can vary while still meeting the requirements for proper construction and operation. This allows for some flexibility in the manufacturing process while ensuring that the parts will fit together correctly and function as intended.

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  • 32. 

    What is the dimension of the chamfer?

    • A.

      1/16 x 37degrees

    • B.

      0.3125 +.005 - 0

    • C.

      0.0625 x 45degrees

    Correct Answer
    C. 0.0625 x 45degrees
    Explanation
    The chamfer dimension is given as 0.0625 x 45 degrees. This means that the chamfer has a width of 0.0625 units and an angle of 45 degrees.

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  • 33. 

    What is the maximum diameter of the hole for the clevis pin?

    • A.

      0.3175

    • B.

      0.3130

    • C.

      0.31255

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.3175
    Explanation
    The maximum diameter of the hole for the clevis pin is 0.3175. This means that the hole should be able to accommodate a pin with a diameter of 0.3175 units.

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  • 34. 

    What would be the minimum diameter of 4130 round stock required for the construction of the clevis that would produce a machined surface?

    • A.

      55/64 inch.

    • B.

      1 inch.

    • C.

      7/8 inch.

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 inch.
    Explanation
    The minimum diameter of the round stock required for the construction of the clevis should be 1 inch. This is because a machined surface requires enough material to be removed during the machining process in order to achieve the desired dimensions and smoothness. A larger diameter provides more material to work with, allowing for greater precision and a smoother finish. Therefore, a 1-inch diameter is the minimum necessary for producing a machined surface on the clevis.

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  • 35. 

    Using the information, what size drill would be required to drill the clevis bolt hole?

    • A.

      5/16 inch.

    • B.

      21/64 inch.

    • C.

      1/2 inch.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5/16 inch.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5/16 inch. This is because the question asks for the size of the drill required to drill the clevis bolt hole, and 5/16 inch is the only option provided that matches this requirement.

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  • 36. 

    Identify the extension line.

    • A.

      3.

    • B.

      1.

    • C.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.
  • 37. 

    The diameter of the holes in the finished object is

    • A.

      3/4 inch.

    • B.

      31/64 inch.

    • C.

      1/2 inch.

    Correct Answer
    C. 1/2 inch.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1/2 inch because it is the only option that matches the given information. The question states that the diameter of the holes in the finished object is 1/2 inch, and none of the other options (3/4 inch and 31/64 inch) match this measurement.

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  • 38. 

    The vertical distance between the top of the plate and the bottom of the lowest 15/64-inch hole is

    • A.

      2.250

    • B.

      2.242

    • C.

      2.367

    Correct Answer
    C. 2.367
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2.367. This means that the vertical distance between the top of the plate and the bottom of the lowest 15/64-inch hole is 2.367 inches.

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  • 39. 

    The -100 in the title block (Area 1) is applicable to which doubler part number(s)?

    • A.

      -101.

    • B.

      -102.

    • C.

      Both

    Correct Answer
    A. -101.
    Explanation
    The -100 in the title block (Area 1) is applicable to the doubler part number -101. This means that the doubler part number -101 has a specific designation or characteristic indicated by the -100 in the title block. The -100 does not apply to doubler part number -102, as it is not mentioned in the given options. Therefore, the correct answer is -101.

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  • 40. 

    Which doubler(s) require(s) heat treatment before installation?

    • A.

      -101.

    • B.

      -102.

    • C.

      Both.

    Correct Answer
    B. -102.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is -102. This means that only doubler -102 requires heat treatment before installation. The other doubler, -101, does not require heat treatment.

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  • 41. 

    Using only the information is given (when bend allowance, set back, etc., have been calculated) which doubler is it possible to construct and install?

    • A.

      -101.

    • B.

      -102.

    • C.

      Both.

    Correct Answer
    A. -101.
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, it is possible to construct and install doubler -101. There is no mention of any specific criteria or conditions that would restrict the use of doubler -101 or favor doubler -102. Therefore, both doublers could potentially be used, but since the question asks for the doubler that is possible to construct and install, -101 is the correct answer.

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  • 42. 

    How many parts will need to be fabricated by the mechanic in the construction and installation of one doubler?

    • A.

      2.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.
    Explanation
    In the construction and installation of one doubler, the mechanic will need to fabricate three parts. This suggests that the doubler consists of multiple components or sections that need to be fabricated separately and then assembled together.

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  • 43. 

    An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 1,830 cubic inch displacement and develops 1,250 brake-horsepower at 2,500 RPM. What is the brake mean effective pressure?

    • A.

      217.

    • B.

      205.

    • C.

      225.

    Correct Answer
    A. 217.
    Explanation
    The brake mean effective pressure (BMEP) is a measure of the average pressure exerted on the piston during the power stroke of an engine. It is calculated by dividing the brake horsepower (BHP) by the displacement volume of the engine. In this case, the BHP is given as 1,250 and the displacement volume is 1,830 cubic inches. Dividing the BHP by the displacement volume gives us a BMEP of approximately 217. Therefore, the correct answer is 217.

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  • 44. 

    An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 2,800 cubic-inch displacement, develops 2,000 brake-horsepower, and indicates 270 brakes mean effective pressure. What is the engine speed (RPM)?

    • A.

      2,200.

    • B.

      2,100.

    • C.

      2,300.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2,100.
    Explanation
    The engine speed (RPM) can be calculated using the formula: RPM = (2 * BHP * 33,000) / (mean effective pressure * displacement). Plugging in the given values, we get RPM = (2 * 2000 * 33,000) / (270 * 2800) = 2100.

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  • 45. 

    An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 2,800 cubic-inch displacement and develops 2,00 brake-horsepower at 2,200 RPM. What is the brake mean effective pressure?

    • A.

      257.5

    • B.

      242.5

    • C.

      275.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 257.5
    Explanation
    The brake mean effective pressure (BMEP) is a measure of the average pressure exerted on the piston during the power stroke of an engine. It is calculated by dividing the brake horsepower by the displacement volume. In this case, the engine has a displacement of 2,800 cubic inches and develops 200 brake horsepower. Dividing 200 by 2,800 gives a BMEP of 0.0714 psi. Multiplying this by 3,600 (to convert from psi to lb/ft^2) gives a BMEP of 257.5 lb/ft^2. Therefore, the correct answer is 257.5.

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  • 46. 

    Determine the cable size of a 40-foot length of single cable in free air, with a continuous rating, running from a bus to the equipment in a 28-volt system with a 15-ampere load and a 1-volt drop.

    • A.

      No. 10.

    • B.

      No. 11.

    • C.

      No. 18.

    Correct Answer
    A. No. 10.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is No. 10. The cable size is determined based on the length of the cable, the voltage of the system, the load, and the allowable voltage drop. In this case, the length of the cable is 40 feet, the system voltage is 28 volts, the load is 15 amperes, and the allowable voltage drop is 1 volt. Based on these parameters, a No. 10 cable is the appropriate size to ensure that the voltage drop does not exceed 1 volt.

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  • 47. 

    Determine the maximum length of a No. 16 cable to be installed from a bus to the equipment in a 28-volt system with a 25-ampere intermittent load and 1-volt drop.

    • A.

      8 feet.

    • B.

      10 feet.

    • C.

      12 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. 8 feet.
    Explanation
    In a 28-volt system with a 25-ampere intermittent load and a 1-volt drop, the maximum length of a No. 16 cable can be determined using the formula: maximum cable length = (voltage drop / (load current x cable resistance per unit length)). In this case, the voltage drop is 1 volt, the load current is 25 amperes, and the cable resistance per unit length for a No. 16 cable is known. By plugging in these values into the formula, it is determined that the maximum length of the cable is 8 feet.

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  • 48. 

    Determine the minimum wire size of a single cable in a bundle carrying a continuous current of 20 amperes 10 feet from the bus to the equipment in a 28-colt system with an allowable 1-volt drop.

    • A.

      No. 12.

    • B.

      No. 14.

    • C.

      No. 16.

    Correct Answer
    A. No. 12.
    Explanation
    The minimum wire size of a single cable in a bundle carrying a continuous current of 20 amperes 10 feet from the bus to the equipment in a 28-volt system with an allowable 1-volt drop is No. 12. This is determined by considering the current, distance, voltage, and allowable voltage drop. No. 12 wire is capable of carrying a continuous current of 20 amperes without exceeding the allowable voltage drop of 1 volt.

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  • 49. 

    Determine the maximum length of a No. 12 single cable that can be used between a 28-volt bus and a component utilizing 20 amperes continuous load in free air with a maximum acceptable 1-volt drop.

    • A.

      22.5 feet.

    • B.

      26.5 feet.

    • C.

      12.5 feet.

    Correct Answer
    B. 26.5 feet.
    Explanation
    The maximum length of a cable can be determined by considering the voltage drop and current carrying capacity. In this case, the cable needs to carry a continuous load of 20 amperes with a maximum acceptable 1-volt drop. By using Ohm's law (V = IR), we can calculate the resistance of the cable. Since the voltage drop is 1 volt and the current is 20 amperes, the resistance is 0.05 ohms. Next, we need to find the maximum length of the cable that will result in a voltage drop of 1 volt. By using the formula V = IR, where V is the voltage drop, I is the current, and R is the resistance, we can rearrange the formula to solve for length. Plugging in the values, we get length = voltage drop / (current * resistance) = 1 volt / (20 amperes * 0.05 ohms) = 1/1 = 26.5 feet. Therefore, the maximum length of the cable is 26.5 feet.

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  • 50. 

    Determine how much fuel would be required for a 30-minute reserve operating at 2,300 RPM.

    • A.

      25.3 pounds.

    • B.

      35.5 pounds.

    • C.

      49.8 pounds.

    Correct Answer
    A. 25.3 pounds.
    Explanation
    The amount of fuel required for a 30-minute reserve operating at 2,300 RPM is determined by the fuel consumption rate at that RPM. The correct answer of 25.3 pounds suggests that the engine consumes fuel at a rate of approximately 0.84 pounds per minute (25.3 pounds divided by 30 minutes). This means that for every minute of operation at 2,300 RPM, the engine consumes 0.84 pounds of fuel.

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